One health Flashcards

1
Q

What is considered an emerging zoonoses? (5)

A
New agent
Old A w/ new virulence
Old A newly released
New sp. or area
Re-emerge
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2
Q

What are some theoretical drivers for the emergence of Hendra virus?

A

Pathogen - Genetic changes (drift/shift), change in transmission
Host - location and immune ability change (travel, population grow, older, ill, new exposure) or human-animal interaction.
Environmental - habitat change/sharing, climate change, biodiversity.

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3
Q

Describe how environmental changes can cause an increase in certain disease prevalence, use lyme disease as an example.

A

climate change –> more white-footed mice which are great carriers for Ixodid ticks.
More white-footed mice –> more ticks –> increased risk of human interaction with ticks
**US decided to cull deer but it would have been more effective to kill mice (but harder to do).

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4
Q

Is there an apparent connection with population density and emergence of EIDs?

A

Yes, more highly populated areas seem to have an increased occurrence of EIDs.

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5
Q

What are the joint goals of One health initiative? (6)

A
Education
Communication
Surveillance
Comparative med and environment research
New diagnostics/med/Vx
Political lobbying.
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6
Q

What is the importance of veterinarians in One health?

A

To fulfil the holistic approach; heard health, including agriculture and environment.

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7
Q

What is the goal of ‘Agroecosystems health’?

A
Sustainable systems
Maintain habitats and biodiversity (including water systems)
Atmospheric protection (dust, odours GHGs).
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8
Q

What is meant by the term ‘food security’?

A

Having enough food for everyone

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9
Q

What is the main Marine biosecurity risk?

What regulations have been instilled to prevent this?

A

Ships’ ballast water.

Now ships must empty ballast water out at sea not in dock.

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10
Q

What is the purpose of ‘US National Academies of Science’?

A

Prevent the use of biohazards being used in an inappropriate/malicious manner.

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11
Q

What is the definition of ‘Dual Use Research of Concern’? (DURC)

A

When there is legitimate scientific use to researching a potentially dangerous bio material that can also be misused.
i.e. we are learning what makes something highly virulent therefore we know how to make something more virulent.

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12
Q

What is the purpose of laboratory biosafety?

How is it achieved?

A

To reduce the risk of people being exposed.

Achieved with PPE, lab designs (pathogen can’t get out easily) and practices.

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13
Q

What is the purpose of clinical biosafety?

How is it achieved?

A

Stop people having access to pathogens.

Achieved with clinic set-up (ICU, ID units, etc), aseptic techniques, decontamination procedures and hand hygiene.

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14
Q

Define: Biohazard

What are example of biohazards?

A

Any bio substance that can cause harm to humans, animals or environment (including trade/production).
e.g. pests, infectious Dz, chemicals.

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15
Q

Define: Biosafety

A

Safe handling and containment of biohazards

* Mainly refers to labs.

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16
Q

Define: Biocontainment

A

Physical and operational mechanisms to prevent the release/exposure of biohazards.

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17
Q

Define: Biorisk

A

Risk assessment of probability and how much damage the biohazard could do.

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18
Q

What are the 5 areas in society that benefit from biosecurity?

A

Animal and human health and welfare
Ecology
Environment
Societal

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19
Q

What are some issues associated with a biohazard affecting the environment?

A

Cause spp. loss and extinctions, can cause secondary impacts like human health, livestock and sociological.

e.g. fungal disease (chytridiomycosis) –> frog population decrease and extinctions –> affect animals that eat those frogs, alter human culture to stop eating certain frogs as fungal infected frogs make people sick.

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20
Q

What are some societal impacts associated with biohazards?

A
Think corona! 
Shops less customers --> less \$\$
Social events cancelled
Education alterations
Depression being stuck in house
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21
Q

What was the purpose of developing Woodward commission?

A

To prevent meat substitution (horse not beef) into exported meat.
Increased surveillance/inspections, created a certificate for export and increased fines.

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22
Q

What was the purpose of developing the Nairn Review?

What concept does it encompass?

A

Developed to prevent societal exposure to biohazards from food companies or the government.
Concept of ‘Continuum of Quarantine’, ie looking at pre-border, border and post-border. shared responsibility between the government, industry and public.

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23
Q

What was the purpose of developing the Beale Review?

A

In response to equine influenza, it is an extension to the Nairn review.

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24
Q

What are some pre-border quarantine surveillance examples?

A

Greater interaction with trading partners

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25
Q

What are some post-border quarantine surveillance examples?

A
Early detection
Surveillance (abattoir)
Proof of freedom
Reporting
Risk factor analysis
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26
Q

What are some post-border quarantine surveillance examples?

A

Enhanced surveillance, response and resilience

27
Q

What are the components of the ‘Triple Bottom Line’?

A

Environment, society and economy.

28
Q

What is the purpose of the Triple Bottom Line?

A

To prove that an industries system and management is possible and sustainable.

29
Q

What the top 3 most preferable methods to manage waste and resources?

A
  1. Avoid or reduce waste and resource use
  2. Reuse
  3. Recycle
30
Q

What are some good reasons to start effluent management on farms? (6)

A

Legislation regulatory requirements
Reduce annual emission fees
Protect natural water sources and soil
Keep positive relationships with neighbours (less odour)
Improve crop growth with organic fertiliser
Reduce GHG emissions.

31
Q

What steps are required to get permission to do environmentally relevant activities?

A

Development approval from state and local government + environment authority to carry out activity.

32
Q

What are the various methods to remove manure from concrete holding yards into effluent system?

A

With water - Hosing, tipping buckets, flood washing +/-drag tires behind truck to loosen faecal matter
Slatted floors + flushing channel underneath

33
Q

How do you separate solids from liquid effluent?

A

Different forms of sieving techniques with wooden/metal slates, wire baskets, screw press separtor, vibrating screen, etc.

34
Q

Whay is it important to filter effluent from solids?

A

To prevent blockages, provide more ease in pumping and decrease frequency of desludging of ponds.

35
Q

What is the ideal effluent collection sump design?

A

Mixing device
Easy access
cover/fencing
stone and solids trap

36
Q

How long is the hydraulic retention time for effluent ponds?

A

30-40 days

37
Q

How do you calculate the correct size for your effluent ponds?

A

Amount of waste water produced/day x 40 (HRT)

38
Q

How many ponds should you have and why?

A

Ideally 2:
primary pond for active treatment and sludge capture.
secondary pond for wet weather storage (overflow pipe from 1° to 2°.

39
Q

What % of clay should there be in the soil to prevent leakage?

A

> 20% clay and needs to be compacted.

40
Q

How are effluent ponds treated?

What are two benefits of this treatment?

A

Anaerobic treatment –> Breakdown complex compounds to reduce biological Oxygen demands (BOD) and volatile solids (reduce sludge amount) by ~75%

41
Q

What are the 4 stages of anaerobic treatment?

A
  1. Hydrolysis
  2. Acidogenesis
  3. Acetogenesis
  4. Methanogenesis
42
Q

What factors affect the efficacy of anaerobic treatment?

A
pH
Temp
HRT
Organic loading rate (OLR)
inhibitors (high NH4, heavy metals, disinfectants salt)
43
Q

Pros of anaerobic treatment ponds (5)

A

easy, efficient, economical, long lasting, can re-use to flush sheds or water pasture/crops

44
Q

Cons of anaerobic treatment ponds (6)

A

Odours, nutrient loss, sludge, water contamination, salt accumulation, struvite issues in flushing systems.

45
Q

What are the advantages of covering up effluent ponds to catch the gas produced?

A

Use biogas to produce electricity, can cut GHG emission to 0.5.
reduce odour.

46
Q

what are the second (overflow) ponds processing pathways?

A

can do anaerobic and facultative bacteria that can operate in aerobic and anaerobic environments

47
Q

How do you desludge a pond?

A

Vacuum tank/excavator then lightly and evenly spread sludge over paddocks to increase fertility of soil.

48
Q

How much money can a farm save by recycling effluent and sludge?

A

~2.12 ML/yr.

49
Q

When should you use effluent + diluted sludge as a fertiliser?

A

Just after grazing, allows maximum exposure and time for UV rays to kill parasitic pathogens. (2-5 weeks before reintroduce animals to graze on pasture).

50
Q

What factors reduce pathogen populations?

A

Drying, UV and soil bacteria competition.

51
Q

How do you prepare manure composting?

A

aerobic decomposition therefore need to turn the manure frequently

52
Q

How do you do carcass composting?

A

Aerobic decomposition in a carbon rich bulking agent (sawdust, waste feed). Need 6m^3 sawdust/1000kg

53
Q

What are the Veterinary AM use problems that are resulting in AMR?

A

Misuse w/ prophylactic, unskilled practitioners, public unsupervised use or online purchase.
Dissemination of AMR due to poor biosecurity, infection control and hygiene.
Inadequate survey & regulation

54
Q

What prophylactic treatment option in livestock has now been banned?

A

AM as growth promoters.

55
Q

What are the medical AM use problems that are resulting in AMR?

A

Basically same as vets but have issue of people demanding AM.

56
Q

Why is AMR more common in poorer countries?

A

Often drugs are poor quality or counterfeit, poorly trained practitioners, worse infection control.

57
Q

How does AMR develop in bacteria?

A

Transformation - Free DNA change between bacteria
Transduction - bacteriophages collect and transfere
Conjugation - plasmid sharing (with pilus)

58
Q

How do AMR genes disseminate?

A

Via the host (travel/global food trade), other bacteria and mobile genetic material

59
Q

How do bacteria maintain their AMR genetics, why do they not ‘de-evolve’? (3)

A
  1. Continued exposure to the AM or of the same class
  2. No need to change as they do not get metabolic loss with mutation
  3. Co-selection - other factors in the environment mean the mutation is beneficial (heavy metals, disinfectants, etc)
60
Q

What steps can we do you mitigate development of AMR?

A
AM  stewardship (reduce selective pressure)
Improved infection control (dissemination and maintenance control)
61
Q

What is MRSA?

A

Methicillin-resistant Staph. aureus.

62
Q

What are the two human forms that can affect society?

A

Hospital associated

Community associated

63
Q

What are the zoonotic concerns with MRSA?

A

Dogs, horses and livestock can act as carriers