Oncology Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two most prevalent cancers?

A

breast and prostate cancer

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2
Q

What are the two most lethal cancers?

A

lung/bronchus and colon/rectum cancer

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3
Q

neoplasm

A

a benign or malignant new growth

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4
Q

tumor

A

a lump or swelling

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5
Q

cancer

A

any malignant neoplasm

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6
Q

hyperplasia

A

an increase in organ or tissue size due to an increase in the number of cells

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7
Q

metaplasia

A

an adaptive, substitution of one type of adult tissue to another type of adult tissue

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8
Q

dysplasia

A

an abnormal cellular proliferation in which there is a loss of normal architecture

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9
Q

anaplasia

A

a loss of structural differentiation

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10
Q

What is the main characteristic of malignant tumors?

A

invasion of surrounding tissue(s)

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11
Q

carcinoma

A

malignant neoplasm of squamous epithelial cell origin

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12
Q

adenocarcinoma

A

malignant neoplasm derived from glandular tissue

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13
Q

sarcoma

A

malignant neoplasm with origin in mesenchymal tissues or its derivatives

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14
Q

lymphoma/leukemia

A

malignant neoplasms of hematopoietic tissues

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15
Q

melanoma

A

a type of cancer of pigment-producing cells in the skin or eye

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16
Q

blastoma

A

malignant neoplasm in precursor cells

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17
Q

teratoma

A

a germ cell neoplasm made of several different differentiated cell/tissue types

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18
Q

How are lymphomas related to leukemias?

A

Lymphomas are a type of leukemia.

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19
Q

stage 0 cancer

A

in situ carcinoma; no sign of local invasion

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20
Q

stage I cancer

A

microscopic invasion of surrounding tissue

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21
Q

stage II cancer

A

4-9 surrounding lymph nodes involved

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22
Q

stage III cancer

A

≥10 surrounding lymph nodes involved

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23
Q

stage IV cancer

A

distant metastases detected

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24
Q

What is the general pathological staging of carcinomas based on?

A

-tumor size
-location
-number

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25
Q

What type of tumor gets staged?

A

solid tumors

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26
Q

Is there a direct correlation between staging and risk of mortality?

A

No

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27
Q

TX

A

primary tumor cannot be evaluated

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28
Q

T0

A

no evidence of primary tumor

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29
Q

Tis

A

carcinoma in situ

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30
Q

T1, T2, T3, T4

A

size and/or extent of invasion of primary tumor

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31
Q

NX

A

regional lymph nodes cannot be evaluated

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32
Q

N0

A

no regional lymph node involvement

33
Q

N1, N2, N3

A

degree of regional lymph node involvement

34
Q

MX

A

distant metastasis cannot be evaluated

35
Q

M0

A

no distant metastasis

36
Q

M1

A

distant metastasis present

37
Q

in situ

A

abnormal cells are present only in layer of cells in which they developed

38
Q

localized

A

cancer is limited to organ in which it began without evidence of spread

39
Q

regional

A

cancer has spread beyond primary tumor site to nearby lymph nodes/tissues and organs

40
Q

distant

A

cancer has spread from primary tumor site to distant tissues/organs/lymph nodes

41
Q

GX

A

tumor grade cannot be assessed

42
Q

G1

A

well differentiated (low grade)

43
Q

G2

A

moderately differentiated (intermediate grade)

44
Q

G3

A

poorly differentiated (high grade)

45
Q

G4

A

undifferentiated (high grade)

46
Q

cancer characteristics

A

-uncontrolled cellular growth
-tissue invasion
-metastasis

47
Q

hallmarks of cancer

A

-sustaining proliferative signaling
-avoiding immune destruction
-enabling replicative immortality
-activating invasion and metastasis
-inducing or accessing vasculature
-genome instability and mutation
-resisting cell death

48
Q

oncogene

A

a gene capable of causing cancer

49
Q

proto-oncogene

A

any gene in a healthy cell capable of promoting tumor growth when mutated or overcopied

50
Q

olaparib drug class

A

PARP inhibitor

51
Q

olaparib indication

A

cancer with BRCA 1/2 mutation(s)

52
Q

olaparib mechanism of action

A

prevents PARP from uncoupling from DNA

53
Q

PARP inhibitors

A

-rucaparib
-niraparib
-talazoparib
-veliparib

54
Q

G0 phase

A

cell cycle arrest

55
Q

G1 phase

A

cellular contents duplicated

56
Q

S phase

A

chromosomes are duplicated

57
Q

G2 phase

A

cell checks for errors and makes necessary repairs

58
Q

mitosis

A

cell division

59
Q

What drug classes target the G1 phase of the cell cycle?

A

-kinase inhibitors
-hormone inhibitors

60
Q

What drug classes target the S phase of the cell cycle?

A

-antimetabolites
-antifolates
-topoisomerase I inhibitors

61
Q

What drug class targets the G2 phase of the cell cycle?

A

topoisomerase II inhibitors

62
Q

What drug class targets the M phase of the cell cycle?

A

microtubule inhibitors

63
Q

What drug classes are DNA damaging agents and non-cell cycle specific?

A

-alkylating agents
-intercalators

64
Q

Which genes are tumor suppressors?

A

-p53
-p16
-Rbl

65
Q

Which gene is an oncogene?

A

Ras

66
Q

palbociclib drug class

A

CDK4/6 kinase inhibitor

67
Q

palbociclib indication

A

cancer with BRCA 1/2 mutation(s)

68
Q

What phase of the cell cycle is CDK4/6 a checkpoint for?

A

G1 phase

69
Q

What are altered drug metabolism mechanisms for drug resistance?

A

-increased transport of drugs out of cell through efflux pumps
-reduced transport into cell
-decreased activation of prodrug
-increased detoxification of drug molecule

70
Q

What are changes in drug target or function for drug resistance?

A

-increased expression of drug target through gene amplification or expression
-emergence of mutant structurally altered target
-emergence of cells bearing alterations in genes whose products are functionally redundant with drug target

71
Q

What cancers are hormonal therapies used for?

A

-breast cancer
-prostate cancer
-endometrial cancer

72
Q

What is the most active estrogen?

A

estradiol

73
Q

Are well-differentiated tumors more likely to be ER- or ER+?

A

ER+

74
Q

What is the most active testosterone?

A

dihydrotestosterone

75
Q

What enzyme converts androgens to estrogens?

A

aromatase (CYP19)

76
Q

What type of breast cancer is most differentiated?

A

luminal A breast cancer

77
Q

What type of breast cancer is most undifferentiated?

A

claudin-low breast cancer

78
Q

Is tamoxifen a prodrug?

A

Yes

79
Q
A