Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IM3- Exam 3 (oncology/GI) > oncology/gi/meds > Flashcards

oncology/gi/meds Flashcards

1
Q

damage to the DNA of your cell

A

cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

top cancers for women

A

breast
colon
lung
liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

top cancer for men

A

prostate
lung
liver
colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

controls growth cells

A

proto-oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  • mutated proto-oncogene
  • uncontrolled cell growth
A

oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

slows down cellular division, cause cell death

A

tumor suppressor gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

uncontrolled cell growth

A

mutated tumor suppressor gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

resemble normal cell
less aggressive
typically benign

A

well differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

function more like normal cell
grow slower rate

A

well differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

do not resemble normal cell
aggressive
typically malignant

A

poorly differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

immature cells
lack structure/function

A

poorly differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

tumor cells grow only locally and cannot spread by unvasioin or metastasis

A

benign (non cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

cells invade neighboring tissue, enter blood vessels, and metastasize to different sites

A

malignant (cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

well differentiated cells

A

benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

usually localized effects

A

benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

(destruction) usually none unless flow impaired

A

benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

morbillity- minimal unless location interferes with vital function

A

benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

poorly differentiated cells

A

malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

generalized: anemia, weakness, wt loss

A

malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

often extensive; excretes toxins, uses up blood supply

A

malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

high- unless growth and spread can be controlled/halted

A

malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

“fingers” of cancer cells invade surrounding tissuw

A

locally invasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

malignant cells travel through blood or lymph system & invade other tissues or organs to form secondary tumor

A

metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the common sites of metastases

A

lung
brain
liver
bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the risk factors for cancer?

A

tobacco and smoking
diet and obesity
sedentary lifestyle
occupational exposure
family history
viruses
peritnatal factors/growth
alcohol
socioeconomic status
pollution
UV radiation
drugs and medical procedures
salt, food additives and contaminants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the hallmark of hereditary cancer syndrome?

A

-cancer in 2 or more relatives
-cancer in family member <50 years old
-same type of cancer in multiple family members
-rare type of cancer in 1 or more family members
- family members with more than 1 type of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

causes inflammation that can cause mutation
suppress the immune system

A

viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are some virus examples that can turn into cancers?

A

HPV
Hepatitis B/Hepatitis C
Epstein-Barr
Human Herpes Virus 8
HIV
Helicobacter pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

HPV

A

cervical cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hepatitis B/Hepatitis C

A

liver cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Epstein Barr

A

Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

HIV

A

Lymphoma
Kaposi’s sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Helicobacter pylori

A

stomach ulcers
lymphoma in the stomach lining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

-health promotions and illness prevention
-reduction of cancer mortality via reduction in the incidence of cancer
-lifestyle change, diet, adequate nutrients, avoiding alcohol, stress reduction

A

primary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

-screening (self breast and testicular exams)
-halt the progress of cancer through early screening and diagnosis
-targets to a specific cancer (pap smear, mammogram, colonoscopy, etc..)

A

secondary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  • disease treatment and rehabilitation
    -health restoration
    -prevent further deterioration
    (chemotherapy, radiation, surgery,
    -disease treatment
A

tertiary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

look for cancer before symptoms appear
- goal: find cancer in the early stages

A

screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the types of screening?

A

-physical exam
-lab tests
-imaging procedures
-genetic testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what age are the colorectal screening guidelines

A

beginning at 45 for both males and females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

when should the fecal occult blood (FOBT)type be taken?

A

yearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

when should the flexible sigmoidoscopy be taken?

A

every 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

when should colonoscopy be given?

A

every 10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

is colon cancer slow growing or fast growing?

A

slow growing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

when should you start doing SBEs?

A

age 20+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

at what age should breast exams be done by the HCP every 3 years?

A

age 40-44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

at what age should HCP do breast exam and mammo yearly?

A

age 45-54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

at what age should you go to see the HCP for a breast exam every 2 years?

A

age 55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

when should pts go to the HCP if they are at high risk for cancer?

A

pts should go to the HCP to do MRI and mammogram yearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the cervical screening?

A

pap smear
women should go to HCP within 3 years of initiating intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are the 7 warning signs of cancer?

A

-change in bowel or bladder habit
-a sore that does not heal
-unusual bleeding or discharge
-thickening or lump in breast or else where
-indigestion or difficult swallowing
-obvious change in a wart or mole
-nagging cough or hoarseness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

pathologist compares the appearance of cancer cells to the normal surrounding cells

A

grading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

classifying a malignancy by the extent of spread within the body

A

staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

who does the grading/differentiate?

A

pathologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

who does the staging?

A

oncologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

GX

A

can not be assessed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

G1

A

(low grade):well differentiated, slow growing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

G2

A

(moderate grade): moderately differentiated, growing slightly faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

G3

A

(high grade): poorly differentiated, growing faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

G4

A

(high grade):undifferentiated, not distinct at all, very aggressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Stage 1

A

small cancer found only in organ where it originated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

stage 2

A

larger cancer that may/may not have spread to the lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

stage 3

A

larger cancer also in the lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

stage4

A

cancer has spread from original site into other organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the tnm system?

A

it is the staging process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what does t stand for?

A

t-size of primary tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what does the n stand for?

A

n- number of lymph nodes involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what does the m stand for?

A

m- extent of metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Tx

A

tumor size can’t be measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

T0

A

no primary tumor, or can’t be found

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Tis

A

tumor is “in situ”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

T1

A

small or early stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

T2

A

confined to original area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

T3

A

has spread to surrounding tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

T4

A

large, advanced stage cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what are the worse tumor sizes?

A

TX, T0, & T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

NX

A

nearby nodes can’t be tested/evaluated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

N0

A

lymph nodes are cancer free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

N1

A

cancer cells have reached one node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

N2

A

cancer spread to more than one node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

N3

A

cancer in lymph nodes extensive/widespread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

M1

A

Cancer has spread to one or more distant part of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

still in the original tissue layer

A

in situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

still in the original organ

A

localized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

spread to nearby lymph nodes or organs

A

regional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

spread to distant body parts

A

distant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what is the difference between in situ and localized?

A

in situ is only in one layer of the organ and localized is it is contained in one organ but in different layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what are tumor markers used for?

A

monitor to see if body is responding to treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what are the different treatments for cancer?

A

surgery
radiation
chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

how long should pt wait for chemo if pt has had surgery? viseversa

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what does chemotherapy do?

A

delay healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

most frequent treatment method

A

surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what can surgery be used in conjunction with chemo or radiation for?

A

prevent
diagnose
stage
treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what are the types of surgery?

A

diagnostic
primary
prophylactic
palliative
reconstructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

shave off with blade
send off to lab
no sutures needed

A

shave biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

cylindrical blade goes deep into the different sub q layered tissue
closed with sutures

A

punch biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

affected tumor is large to remove so they do an incision
close with sutures, portion of the tumor is removed

A

incisional biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

30G needle aspirates tissue affected area, usually painless

A

fine needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

12G needle aspirates more tissue; very painful

A

core needle biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

remove as much of tumor as possible

A

debulking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

can be disfiguring and alter function

A

radical excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

extensive surgery to site at which previous therapies have failed

A

salvage surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

removal of non-vital tissue/organs that may develop cancer

A

prophylactic surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what are the considerations of prophylactic surgery?

A

-family hx and genetic predisposition
-presence or absence of symptoms
-risks vs benefirs
-ability to detect cancers early
-patients acceptance of post-op outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

-no pain
-not intended to cure
-goal is high quality of life
-to alleviate disease without curing

A

palliative surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

trying to repair injury or loss of function from curative or radical surgeries
-plastic surgery
-may take several procedures

A

reconstructive surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what should nurse do with surgical patient?

A

-incision care
-prevent infection
-manage pain
-educate on drains, infections, dietary intake to promote healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what should surgical patients diet contain to promote healing?

A

protein and vitamin c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

eliminate cancerous cells
-affects rapidly proliferating cells

A

radiation and chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

-uses energy to kill cells or shrink cells
-damage cell’s DNA
-damage healthy cell’s along the way
-treatment of choice for localized cancer

A

radiation therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

how long is radiation given for?

A

over weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

why is radiation given over weeks?

A

allows periphery of tumor to re-oxygenate and become more susceptible to radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

dependent on presence of oxygen

A

radiosensitivity of the tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

point at which normal tissues are irreparably damaged

A

normal tissue tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

total prescribed dose usually divided into several smaller doses
Treatments are usually given daily, 5 days per week for an average of 25 to 30 treatments

A

volume of tissue to be irradiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what are the benefits of radiation therpay?

A

-used before surgery to shrink the tumor
-intra-operative radiation
-given before, during or after chemo
-palliative

116
Q

-localized to area of treatment
-may be higher if in conjunction with chemo

A

radiation toxicity

117
Q

what is the generalized effects of radiation toxicity

A

fatigue
anemia
N&V
thrombocytopenia

118
Q

what is another name for external radiation?

A

teletherapy

119
Q

what is another word for internal radiation?

A

brachytherapy

120
Q

what is a good thing about brachytherapy?

A

it bypasses a lot of healthy tissue and saves it

121
Q

-body usually does not give off radiation by pregnant women and small children should avoid exposure to patient

A

sealed implants

122
Q

-body will give off radiation
-body secretions may be contaminated
-isolation

A

unsealed implants

122
Q

what are some patient teachings for temporary brachytherapy?

A

-avoid close contact with others until treatment is completed
-no contact with pregnant women
-bed rest to prevent dislodging radioactive souce
-maintain balanced diet, consider small frequent meals
-maintain fluid intake to ensure adequate hydration 2-3 liters/day

122
Q

what are the side effects of brachytherapy?

A

-fatigue
-anorexia
-immunosuppression

123
Q

what are the side effects of radiation?

A

-fatigue
-skin changes
-alopecia
-immunosuppression
-radiation pneumonia
-ulceration of oral membranes
-GI: N/V/D

124
Q

what are some patient education for radiation therapy?

A

-wash treated area only with tepid water and soft wash cloth
-no application of heat or cold packs
-use electric razor ONLY
-do not use any products to the sites during treatment
-do not remove treatment makings on skin
-avoid wearing tight-fitting, startched, or stiff clothing over treatment area

125
Q

patient education for radiation

A

do not use: adhesive tape; use paper tape =apply outside of treatment area
protect: protect skin from sun exposure
get: get proper diet, fluid intake for health and repair normal tissue
EAT 5-6 small meals a day fat/fiber/lactose
BRAT for diarrhea
protect: if hair loss occurs, protect head

126
Q

use of anti cancer drugs to eliminate cancer cells
affects the entire body
death may occur due to side effects

A

chemotherapy

127
Q

what is the goal of chemotherapy?

A

kill cancerous cell while preserving other, more health cells

128
Q

daily, weekly, monthly

A

administered in cycles

129
Q

pill, injection, IV, topical, directly into body cavity

A

forms of administration

130
Q

body surface area

A

dosage carefully calculated

131
Q

who long can chemotherapy be excreted into the body?

A

up to 48 hours after treatment

132
Q

what lab values are you monitoring closely before administering chemotherapy?

A

WBC
RBC
H&H

133
Q

can any nurse give chemotherapy?

A

no, only chemo certified RN

134
Q

before administering the chemotherapy drug what should you do first?

A

check the port for blood return

135
Q

what can happen if you administer the chemotherapy without checking the blood return of the port?

A

extravasation

136
Q

what should be taught to a patient receiving chemotherapy?

A
  • hand washing
    -48-72 hours after chemo pt should flush toilet twice
    -rinse toilet with bleach once a day
    -caregiver should wear gloves if in contact with bodily fluids/contaminated laundry
    -avoid sexual activity/use 2 forms of birth control
137
Q

what are the PPE when administering chemotherapy to a patient?

A

gowns and gloves

138
Q

what are the routes of exposure of chemotherapy?

A

inhalation
absorption
ingestion

139
Q

what are the side effects of chemotherapy?

A

N/V
alopecia
stomatitis
pain
enteritis
diarrhea
anemia
fatigue
myelosuppression
pancytopenia
neutropenia
thromobocytopenia
granulocytopenia

140
Q

what is stomatitis?

A

ulcers in the mouth

141
Q

N/V that occurs within 24 hours of chemo

A

acute

142
Q

N/V that occurs within 2-5 days of chemo

A

delayed

143
Q

N/V that occurs before chemo

A

anticipatory

144
Q

premedicate pt 15-30 min before treatment
-keep medicating around the clock

A

ondansetron

145
Q

extreme muscle wasting
loss of all muscle and fat
unexplained rapid weight loss

A

anoerxia cachexia syndrome

146
Q

decreased ability to fight for infection

A

immunosuppression

147
Q

risk for infection increases when decreased?

A

WBC
Neutrophils

148
Q

risk for anemia increases when decreased?

A

RBC
H&H

149
Q

risk for bleeding increases when decreased

A

platelets

150
Q

what happens when bone marrow becomes suppressed?

A

anemia
infection
blood loss

151
Q

what is NADIR used for?

A

lowest point of blood cells
occurs at different times
WBC and platelets day 7-14
RBC’s may take several weeks
immune system compromised
treatment designed around Nadir

152
Q

Absolute Neutrophil Count
>1500

A

no increased risk for infection

153
Q

Absolute Neutrophil Count
>10

A

extremely high risk

154
Q

what are signs and symptoms of neutropenia?

A

-fever of 100.5 or higher
-fatigue, body aches
-chills, sweating
-hypotension
-tachycardia

154
Q

what are symptoms of sepsis?

A

tachycardia
low bp
high respirations

155
Q

what is neutropenia?

A

-abnormally low ANC
-no symptoms until onset of infection

156
Q

what are some neutropenic precautions?

A

-wash hands frequently
-low bacteria diet
-no fresh flowers, plants, pets
-avoid large crowds
-no visitors with infections
-no immunization

157
Q

what is thrombocytepenia

A

decrease platelets that promote coagulation

158
Q

what is the reference value of thrombocytes?

A

150,000-400,000

159
Q

what is the critical value of thromocytopenia?

A

<50,000 or >1 million

160
Q

where are thrombocytes produced?

A

in the bone marrow 7-9 days

161
Q

what are some patient education on thrombocytopenia?

A

-monitor stools/urine for bleeding
-use electric razor only
-apply ice to affected area if trauma occurs
-avoid dental work or other invasive proceudures
-avoid aspirin and aspirn-containing products
-soft toothbrush and no flossing
-no aspirin

162
Q

what are some nursing management for thrombocytopenia?

A

-monitor platelet count
-monitor stools and urine for occult blood
-assess skin for ecchymosis, petechiae, and trauma at least every shift
-educate client about bleeding safety precautions
-avoid IM injections and limit venipunctures

163
Q

what to teach patient about pain measures?

A

distractions
imagery
relaxation
touch therapy

164
Q

what are some nursing intervention for patients with chemo brain?

A

-use calendar or day-planner
-write down everything
-exercise the brain with crossword puzzles or jigsaw puzzles
-get physical exercise as tolerated
-ask for support

165
Q

what is ascites

A

patho accumulation of fluid within the abd cavity

166
Q

what are some nursing mangement of ascites?

A

-low salt diet
-diuretic therapy
-paracentits
-may place pleurx to enable patient to drain at home

167
Q

what are the risk factors of breast cancer?

A

-gender
-increase age 40+
-early menarche/late menopause
-family hx
-high fat diet
-obesity

168
Q

what are symptoms of breast CA

A

-painless breast mass
-painful breast mass
-nipple discharge
-local edema
-nipple retraction
-nipple crusting

169
Q

what are primary preventions for breast CA

A

-wellness
-smoking cessation
-daily exercise
-health diet
-low saturated fat
-high in fiber

170
Q

what are secondary preventions og breast CA?

A

mammogram beginning yearly after 40yrs of age
-SBE
->20 years of age
-perform after menstration
-same time every month

171
Q

what are tertiary preventions of breast CA?

A

symptoms control
rehabilitation/reconstruction

172
Q

what is lymphedema

A

lifelong accumulation of fluid

173
Q

what is the assessment of breast exam?

A

mass felt during BSE
mammogram
a non-moveable mass-typically painless
usually only one breast involved
skin dimpling, puckering
nipple discharge
peau d’orange
late sign: pain, ulceration, cachexia

174
Q

what are the diagnosis of breast CA?

A

ultrasound
biopsy
aspiration
incisional
excisional

175
Q

worse case scenario
not ER or PR reactive
CA does not care about the hormones/hard to treat

A

triple negative

176
Q

ER/PR active
easiest to treat

A

triple positive

177
Q

what are some treatments for breast CA?

A

-surgical
lumpectomy
simple masectomy
radical or modified radical masectomy
nonsurgical
-chemo
radiation
hormonal manipulation
radiation
teletherapy
brachytherapy; radium implants, seeds, pellets

178
Q

what are some preventions for lymphedema?

A

elevation ROM, ADLs, protect

179
Q

ABCDE METHOD
A

A

look for asymmetrical in a mole

180
Q

ABCDE METHOD
B

A

assess for an irregular border

181
Q

ABCDE METHOD
C

A

is the color a mixture of different color or has it recently changes

182
Q

ABCDE METHOD
D

A

is the diameter >6mm

183
Q

ABCDE METHOD
E

A

has there been an evolution in the mole size, shape, color

184
Q

develops from abnormal B cells
rare
5 subtypes

A

hodgkins

185
Q

what are symptoms of hodgkins

A

nigh sweats
itchy skin
itchy head
wt loss
fatigue

186
Q

develops from abnormal B or T cells
60 subtypes
low cure rate

A

non hodgkins

187
Q

is reed-sternberg cell in hodgkins or non-hodgkin?

A

hodgkins

188
Q

antibiotics
s/e: nausea and headache
-most effective against H.pylori
-avoid alcohol
-should not be taken during pregnancy
-when treating h.pylori more than one antibiotic should be used

A

metronidazole

189
Q

H2 blocker
suppress secretion of gastric acid
contraindicated for people with renal impairment

A

ranitidine

190
Q

PPI
-suppress secretion of gastric acid
most effective
s/e: diarrhea and headaches
tablets cannot be crushed

A

pantoprazole

191
Q

antiulcer drug
-creates a protective barrier against acid
-administer 1 hour before meals or at bedtime

A

sucralfate

192
Q

antacids
neutralizes stomach acid
s/e: constipation
take with a full glass of water

A

aluminum hydroxide

193
Q

antiemetic
prevents n/v
s/e: headache diarrhea
-should not be given to pt with long QT syndrome (arrythmeias)

A

ondansetron

194
Q

antiemetic
-decrease vomiting
s/e: involuntary repetitive body movement, include grimace, sticking out tongue or lip smaking
a/e: respiratory depression

A

promethazine

195
Q

prokinetic
increase upper GI motility and suppressess emesis
s/e: long term high therpay tardive dyskinesia repetitive involuntary movemnt
-moves food along

A

metoclopramide

196
Q

bulk forming laxative
acts fiber in the bowel, increases bulk of fecal volume therefore stimulates peristalis
-work 1-3 days
-full glass of water

A

psyllium

197
Q

stool softner

A

docusate sodium

198
Q

-stimulant laxative
- increase the number of water/electrolytes within the intestinal lumen
-body will become addicted
-acts within 6-12hrs after taking

A

bisacodyl

199
Q

antidiarrheal
decrease intestinal motility

A

diphenoxylate (lomotil)
loperamide (imodium)

200
Q

what is the bile that is in the liver called?

A

bilirubin

201
Q

what does the liver convert that will be excreted via urine?

A

ammonia

202
Q

what does bile help absorb?

A

vitamins

203
Q

what does the gallbladder store from the liver?

A

bile

204
Q

what does the stomach have that helps with processing food into chyme?

A

gastric glands

205
Q

what does the stomach have that helps it breakdown?

A

gastric acids

206
Q

helps with digestion of food and regulated BS
-bicarbs

A

pancreas

207
Q

dehydrates whats left of the food and forms it into stool. it also absorbs water and electrolytes during this process

A

large intestine-colon

208
Q

joins into the large bowel. the appendix is attached on the outside of the cecum

A

the small bowel

209
Q

most of the absorption of nutrients from food takes place

A

small intestine

210
Q

what are the causes of constipation?

A

opiods
no fiber intake
decrease fluids
sedentary lifestyle
no exercise

211
Q

what are interventions for constipation?

A

increase exercise
increase fluid intake
increase fiber intake

212
Q

what medications can you take for constipation?

A

stool softner
miralax
psyllium
metoclopramide

213
Q

what is IBS?

A

constipation or diarrhea

214
Q

what is a intervention for IBS?

A

food diary

215
Q

whats considered diarrhea?

A

3+ loose stools a day

216
Q

what are some questions you can ask patient with diarrhea?

A

how long have you had diarrhea?
have you traveled?
where did you eat?
any one at home sick?

217
Q

what are some causes of diarrhea?

A

viruses
bacteria
c-diff

218
Q

what are some nursing assessments for a pt with diarrhea?

A

modifying skin
underlying history
IV fluids
stool cultures
lab and check electrolytes

219
Q

what are c-diff precautions?

A

gowns
gloves
must use soap and water

220
Q

what are the risk factors for peptic ulcers?

A

h.pylori
long term use of NSAIDS
physical stress

221
Q

what are some interventions for peptic ulcers?

A

NG tube/suction
IV fluids
NPO
Pain meds
Labs H&H
VS

222
Q

what medication should pt take if they have peptic ulcers?

A

PPI (pantoprazole)
H2 Blocker (rantidine)
anticulcer(sulfacate)

223
Q

what is a EDG

A

endoscopy that looks at the
esophageal
gastric
duodenal mucosa

224
Q

what are complications of peptic ulcers?

A

hemmorage
perforation
gastric outlet obstruction

225
Q

can turn into shock
check H&H
hypotension
tachycardia
respiratory distress
vomit blood

A

hemmorage

226
Q

septic shock
increase WBC

A

perforation

227
Q

swelling, food gets stuck

A

gastric outlet obstruction

228
Q

burning sensation between meals/nights, pain stops if you eat or take antacids, pain comes and goes, bloating

A

peptic ulcer disease

229
Q

what can cause dysphagia?

A

parkinsons
brain injury
alzheimers
stroke

230
Q

what are some interventions for people with dysphagia?

A

thick food
slow
sit up
speech therapist- swallow study

231
Q

acid that travels back to the esophagus

A

GERD

232
Q

halitosis, belch, a feeling that food is stuck. Peristalis of 2/3 of the esophagus is absent due to neuro response

A

achalasis

233
Q

what are some symptoms of alchalais?

A

felling stuck
nasty breath

234
Q

what is the treatment for alchalasis?

A

injecting botox
calcium channel blocker

235
Q

chronic/acute inflammation of gallbladder

A

cholecystitis

236
Q

what are the risk factor for cholecystitis?

A

more common in women 40+
postmenopausal
sedentary lifestyle
obesity
family tendency

237
Q

visualize common bile duct

A

ERCP

238
Q

what are the symptoms of cholecystitis?

A

pain associated after eating high fat meal, fever, jaundice, pain can be referred to shoulder/scapula and N/V

239
Q

what are nursing interventions for cholecystitis?

A

NG tube
IV fluid
NPO
stop high fatty meals

240
Q

what some lab/diagnostics for cholecystitis?

A

ultrasonography
liver function test
serum bilirubin
WBC
HIDA scan

241
Q

what are the risk factors for acute pancreatitis?

A

gallbladder disease
chronic alcohol abuse

242
Q

what are the symptoms of acute pancreatitis?

A

sudden onset pain, fever,
n/v
jaundince
hypotension

243
Q

what are the labs for acute pancreatitis?

A

serum amylase (very high)
lipase high
WBC
urinary amylase

244
Q

what are intervention/teaching for acute pancreatits?

A

pt needs to recover/rest from alcohol
pt finds support
TPN
IV FLUIDS
NPO

245
Q

why do pts get pancreatitis?

A

the enzymes get stuck and start eating the pancreas

246
Q

what causes chronic pancreatits?

A

chronic alcohol abuse

247
Q

what are the meds for acute pancreatits?

A

pain meds
ondansetron

248
Q

what is the number one cause for cirrhosis?

A

fatty liver

249
Q

what causes hep A?

A

oral fecal contamination

250
Q

what interventions for Hep A?

A

good handwashing

251
Q

what causes drug induced hepatits?

A

acetaminophen

252
Q

what causes hep b?

A

mom to baby
needle sticks
body fluids
vaginal secretions

253
Q

what disease stays in the liver dormant for years until you feel sick and get labs and you get the results?

A

hep c

254
Q

how do you get hep c?

A

blood transfusions
sexual activity
needles

255
Q

what are the labs for liver disease?

A

ast & alt
pt
ammonia levels
bilirubin

256
Q

indicator of liver damage

A

ast & alt

257
Q

hepatic encephalopathy

A

ammonia levels

258
Q

accumulation of serous fluid in peritoneal or abd cavity

A

ascietes

259
Q

what are the nursing assessment for ascietes

A

measure the girth

260
Q

their will always be damage to your liver

A

hep c

261
Q

what are the causes of inflammatory bowel disease?

A

crohn’s disease
ulcerative colitis

262
Q

does crohn’s disease have a cure?

A

no

263
Q

what are the symptoms of crohns disease?

A

diarrhea
cramping
pain
malabsorption
wt loss
fever
fatigue

264
Q

disease can occur between healthy bowel and disease bowel, this is called skip lesions

A

crohn’s disease

265
Q

starts in the rectum and moves up the colon

A

ulcerative colitis

266
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of ulcerative colitis?

A

blood diarrhea 10+ a day
cramping
pain
wt loss
fever
fatigue
anemia
anorexia

267
Q

what labs will you get for ulcerative colitis?

A

h&h
electrolytes

268
Q

what is the cure for ulcerative colitis?

A

total protocolectomy

269
Q

is crohns and ulcerative colitis autoimmune

A

yes

270
Q

what are the risk factor of diverticulitis?

A

constipation
inactivity
lack of dietary fiber
obesity
smoking

271
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of diverticulitis?

A

vomiting
increase pain
increase temp

272
Q

what meds should you take with diverticulitis?

A

ondansetron

273
Q

what are the interventions of diverticulitis?

A

IV fluid
ng tube
i&o
NPO

274
Q

infection/inflammation of diverticulum

A

diverticulitis

275
Q

things to know about diverticulitis?

A

pouch is out
sigmoid colon

276
Q

what is the main cause of intestinal obstruction in the large bowel?

A

colorectal cancer

277
Q

what is the main cause of intestinal obstruction in the small bowel?

A

surgical adhesions
crohns disease

278
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of intestinal obstruction?

A

vomiting
cramping
pain

279
Q

what are the interventions of intestinal obstruction

A

iv fluids
labs
i&o
ng tube/suction
npo

280
Q

pain, bleeding, unusual difficulty swallowing rapidly elevated temperature

A

perforation

281
Q

what is the route during a colonoscopy

A

anus
rectum
sigmoid
transverse
ascending colon

282
Q

what are the nursing interventions for a colonoscopy

A

bowel prep
left side w legs to chest

283
Q
A

IM3- Exam 3 (oncology/GI) (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions