Oncology Flashcards
What are the presenting features of prostatic cancer
Frequently asymptomatic Prostatic symptoms: poor stream, nocturia, dribbling, frequency Metastatic symptoms: bone pain, pathological fracture
Where would a cancerous prostate feel like?
Craggy Hard Enlarged Obliteration of median sulcus
What Duke’s stage CR Ca does this picture illustrate?
Stage A
(Innermost lining of bowel or SLIGHTLY growing in to muscle layer)
What are the features of a colorectal cancer of Duke’s stage A?
Innermost lining of bowel only
OR
SLIGHTLY growing in to muscle layer
What are the features of a Duke’s stage B colorectal cancer?
Cancer has grown through muscle layer of bowel
What Duke’s stage colorectal cancer does this picture illustrate?
Stage B
(Grown through muscle layer of bowel)
What Duke’s stage colorectal cancer does this picture illustrate?
Stage C
(Spread to one or more lymph nodes close to bowel)
What Duke’s stage colorectal cancer does this picture illustrate?
D
(Spread to somewhere else in body - eg. liver or lungs)
What are the features of Duke’s Stage C colorectal cancer?
Cancer has spread to one or more local lymphnodes (close to bowel)
What are the features of Duke’s Stage D colorectal cancer?
Cancer has spread to somewhere else in body (eg. liver or lungs)
Where does Colon cancer metastasise to through invasion?
Urinary bladder
Small bowel
Duodenum
Internal genitals
Abdominal wall
Retroperitoneum
Where are the common sites of metastases when colon cancer spreads haematogenically?
Lung and liver (most common)
Can also (rarely) go to brain, skeleton and kidnets
Once colorectal cancer has invaded lymph nodes, what other common lymphnodes can the cancer spread to?
Aortic lymphnodes
Liver ligament
Mediastinal lymph nodes
Supraclavicular lymph nodes
Inferior mesenteric lymph nodes (rectal)
Pelvic wall lymph nodes (rectal)
Which is more common, colon or rectal cancer?
Colon
What is the most common histology for a colorectal cancer?
adenocarcinoma (90-95%)
How does colorectal cancer spread?
Local invasion
Lymphatic
Venous spread
Coelomic
List the less common types of colorectal cancer
Squamous cell
Carcinoid
GI stromal tumour
Primary malignant lymphoma
List presentation of bowel cancer
Altered bowel habit
Weight loss
Rectal bleeding
Abdo pain
Anaemia symptoms
What investigations would you do to a pt if you suspected colorectal cancer?
RECTAL EXAM
Bloods: FBC (looking for anaemia)
Us and Es (?nutrition)
LFTs (detect abnormal liver function)
CEA (carcinogenic-embryonic antigen)
Sigmoidoscopy ((rigid/flexible) catches about 60% tumours) or Colonoscopy (gold standard)
Biopsy
CT (for staging)
Liver ultrasound/MRI (to detect liver mets)
What is the 5 year survival rate for a Stage A CRCa?
80%
What is the 5 year survival rate for a Stage B CRCa?
50%
What is the 5 year survival rate for a Stage C CRCa?
15-40%
What is the 5 year survival rate for a Stage D CRCa?
6%
What investigations would be useful for looking for mets in CRCa?
LFTs
Liver ultrasound
MRI (more specific for showing liver mets)
What are the risk factors for colorectal cancer?
Diet (high in fat (animal), meat and low in fibre, calcium and folate)
Inflammatory disease (UC and Crohn’s)
FHx of bowel cancer (under 60s)
Hereditary bowel cancers: HNPCC (hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer) and FAP (Familial adenomatous polyposis)
PMHx of small bowel, endometrial, breast and ovarian Ca
obesity, smoking, alcohol
Diabetes
What are the most common presentating features of a R-sided colon cancer?
weight loss
anaemia
occult bleeding
mass in right iliac fossa
disease more likely to be advanced at presentation.
What are the most common presenting features of a L-sided colon cancer?
often colicky pain
rectal bleeding
bowel obstruction
tenesmus
mass in left iliac fossa
early change in bowel habit
less advanced disease at presentation
What are the most common (general) presenting features of colorectal cancer?
rectal bleeding
change in bowel habit
anaemia (more common in R-sided tumour)
weight loss
vague abdo pain
what are the differentials for someone presenting with:
rectal bleeding, altered bowel habit, abdominal pain, weight loss and anaemia (ie. main presenting features of colon cancer)
Divreticular disease
IBS
IBD
Haemorrhoids
Anal cancer
Ischaemic colitis
Pneumatosis coli
How quickly should a patient be seen when an emergency referral is made?
Patient should be seen within 2 weeks (max)
What are the urgent referral criteria for colorectal cancer?
40 or under: rectal bleeding + altered bowel habit (looser, more frequent) for 6/52 or more
60 or under with EITHER: rectal bleeding 6/52 OR altered bowel habit 6/52
Any age pt: palpable rectal mass, R lower abdo mass
Any age man or woman (non-menstruating): unexplained iron-deficiecy anaemia with Hb of 11 and 10 (respectively)
What are the ‘T’ classifications for colorectal cancer in the TNM staging system?
TX: primary cannot be assessed.
T0: no evidence of primary carcinoma in situ (Tis) - intraepithelial or lamina propria only.
T1: invades submucosa.
T2: invades muscularis propria.
T3: invades subserosa or non-peritonealised pericolic tissues.
T4: directly invades other tissues and/or penetrates visceral peritoneum.
What are the ‘N’ classifications for colorectal cancer in the TNM staging system?
NX: regional nodes cannot be assessed.
N0: no regional nodes involved.
N1: 1-3 regional nodes involved.
N2: 4 or more regional nodes involved
What are the ‘M’ classifications for colorectal cancer in the TNM staging system?
MX: distant metastasis cannot be assessed.
M0: no distant metastasis.
M1: distant metastasis present (may be transcoelomic spread)
What are the stages of colorectal cancer (non-Duke’s staging)?
Stage 0: carcinoma in situ (CIS).
Stage 1: T1/T2, N0, M0
Stage 2: further spread, but no lymph node involvement
Stage 2a: T3, N0, M0
Stage 2b: T4, N0, M0
Stage 3: lymph node involvement:
Stage 3a: T1/T2, N1, M0
Stage 3b: T3/T4, N1, M0
Stage 3c: any T, N2, M0
Stage 4: Cancer has spread to other parts of the body. Any T, any N, M1
What are the three levels of colorectal cancer grading?
Grade 1 (low grade): well differentiated.
Grade 2 (moderate grade): moderately differentiated.
Grade 3 (high grade): poorly differentiated
How can response to treatment be measured in patietns with colorectal cancer?
CT
What is the first-line of treatment of localised colorectal cancer?
Surgery to resect localised disease
(usually cures)
What is the most recommended treatment for colorectal primary with liver met(s)?
Surgery to remove affected colon and liver mets
How might radiotherapy be used in colorectal cancer?
Rectal carcinoma
Pre-operative or adjuvant therapy in high-risk rectal carcinomas
Why isn’t radiotherapy recommended in colon cancers?
risks toxicity to adjacent organs
What are the palliative therapeutical options to consider for patients with late-stage colorectal cancer?
Surgery or stenting (manage/prevent obstruction by lesion)
When might chemotherapy be used in patients with colorectal cancer?
adjuvant therapy for high-risk (stage D) patients
What chemotherapy agents are recommended in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
Oxiplatin
Irinotecan
What colorectal screening schemes are available in UK?
Faecal occult blood testng in general population
What treatments can be considered for patients with colorectal cancer?
Surgery (resect primary and met(s))
Radiotherapy (pre-operative and adjuvant) for rectal cancers (before/after total resection)
Chemotherapy: adjuvant for high-risk (stage D) cancers
5-FU
Oxiplatin
Irinotecan
Palliative: stenting/surgery to prevent/remove blockage
What are the risk factors for breast cancer?
Increasing age
Increased periods of oestrogen exposure (nuliparity, late/early menarche, late menopause, obesity)
Ionising radiation
Family history (1st degree relatives)
BRCA mutations
What are the risks associated with BRCA mutations?
Increased susceptibility to breast and ovary cancer
Early onset Ca (breast only) - INCLUDES MALE BREAST Ca
Which type of breast cancer is more common (ductal or lobar)?
Ductal (70/80% (lobar: 10%))
How might breast cancer present?
lump (painless = more likely to be cancer)
Nipple discharge and inversion
Lymphadenopathy
Skin changes
Erythema
Symptoms of met disease: bone pain and lung/liver/brain symptoms
(men may not have nipple and skin changes)
What are the differentials when a patient presents with potential breast Ca symptoms?
Ductal papilloma
Fibrocystic disease
Cyst/abscess
Mastitis
DCIS
How would you start investigating for breast cancer?
TRIPPLE ASSESSMENT:
Physical examination
Imaging: bilateral mammography (35<)
ultrasound (35>)
Fine needle aspiration or biopsy
After tripple assessment, what other investigations might you do for breast cancer?
Liver ultrasound or CT
Isotopic bone scan (bisphosphonates)
In pts with suspected mets
What are the ‘T’ classifications for breast cancer in the TNM staging system?
T0: no primary tumour
Tis: in situ (non-invasive)
T1: invasive tumour (<2 cm)
T2: 2-5cm
T3: >5cm
T4: skin involvement
What are the ‘N’ classifications for breast cancer in the TNM staging system?
N0: no lymph nodes
N1: mobile axiallry nodes
N2: fixed axillary nodes
N3: internal mammary nodes
What are the ‘M’ classifications for breast cancer in the TNM staging system?
M0: no mets
M1: mets
What are the different stages of breast cancer?
Stage 0: Tis, N0, M0
Stage 1: T1, N0, M0
Stage 2: T2/3, N0, M0 OR T0/1/2, N1, M0
Stage 3: T or N >2, M0
Stage 4: T and N any, M1
What are the recommended treatments for breast cancer?
Surgery: mastectomy or wide local excision (survival equivalent in correctly selected pts)
Remove all lymp glands if invaded or high risk of recurrence (these pts do not have radiotherapy)
Radiotherapy (depends on location and size)
Systemic therapy in specific circumstances
What systemic treatments are available for breast cancer?
Endocrine treatments: Herceptin (trastuzumab)
Tamoxifen
Anastrazole
Ovarian ablation
Cytotoxic therapy: Chemotherapy
When can herceptin be used?
Breast cancer: metastatic and lcal disease
WHERE CANCER EXPRESSES HER-2
When can tamoxifen be used?
Breast cancer - adjuvant treatment
tumours that are oestrogen receptive (ER +ve)
Pts who are pre-menopause
must be taken for 2-5 years
What are the benefits of tamoxifen?
Reduced risk of death and recurrent
Also decreased incidence in contralateral women (irrespective of ER status)
When can anastrazole be used?
Breast cancer
ER +ve tumours
Post-menopausal pts.
What are good predictors of response to endocrine treatments in breast cancer?
Pt has local disease
Response to previous endocrine treatment
Greater duration of previous disease-free interval
What proportion of patients with metastatic breast cancer respond to endocrine therapies?
1/3
How can ovarian ablation take place?
surgical
radiotherapy
LHRH (leutenizing hormone release hormone)
When would chemotherapy be considered in breast cancer?
Adjuvant therapy: high stage/spread (reduces risk of recurrence)
More effective in women 50<
Benefit is percentage of risk (benefit is lower in better prognosis, higher in poorer)
Higher dose = more effective (combination therapy > single-agent therapy)
Palliative: improve QoL
What is the 5-year survival for a patient with stage 1 Breast Ca?
84%
What is the 5-year survival for a patient with stage 2 Breast Ca?
71%
What is the 5-year survival for a patient with stage 3 Breast Ca?
48%
What is the 5-year survival for a patient with stage 4 Breast Ca?
18%
What age women does the breast cancer screening scheme include?
47-73
What are tumour markers and why are they useful in oncology?
Substances produced BY or IN RESPONSE TO tumour
Present in blood or other tissues
can be quantified
What are the two desired qualities of a tumour marker?
Highly specific: few people FALSELY LABELLED
Highly sensitive: few people MISSED
What are the uses of tumour markers?
diagnosis
detect relapse/trend of disease
response to treatment
indication of prognosis
screening (not routinely used)
How can tumour markers be used for diagnosis? And what is the problem?
High levels can be indicative of disease. If you increase the threshold needed to confirm the presence of a disease, the test becomes more sensitive.
If the marker is not specific, then it could be raised due to another condition, therefore isn’t conclusive.
How can tumour markers be used to indicate relapse of cancer?
If pt. had high levels when ill, and they decrease through treatment, a subsequent increase could be indicative of relapse (or tumour activity)
How can tumour markers be used to measure response to treatment?
levels may reduce with treatment
How can tumour markers be indicative of prognosis?
Rising values could indicate decline of patient’s state. High levels could suggest a worse prognosis (depends on specificity of test)
What are the different types of tumour markers?
hormones: thyroglobulin, ADH, adrenocorticotrophic hormone
immunoglobulins
intermediate metabolites
cell surface proteins: CEA, CA125, CA19.9
enzymes: APT, ALT, LDH
oncofetal proteins: HCG, alpha-feta protein
Nucleic acid
What can cause raised CEA (carcino-embryonic antigen)?
colorectal ca
gastric ca
breast ca
lung ca
smoking
Gastro problems: IBD, hepatits, pancreatitis and gastritis
What cancer is CEA most commonly used to investigate?
colorectal carcinoma
A 67-year-old man with metastatic colon cancer and multiple liver mets complains of vomiting. He is eating and drinking normally but vomits once or twice a day often undigested food, but has little nausea.
What is the most likely cause for these symptoms?
What is the most suitable first-line anti-emetic?
Gastric stasis
Metaclopramide
A 54-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer complan of vomiting, usually in a morning. She also complains of increasing frontal headaches.
What is the likely cause of these symptoms?
What is the most suitable first-line anti-emetic?
Cyclizine (for vomiting and ICP)
(+ dexamethasone (to reduce ICP))
A 29-year-old man with a testicular tumour is having chemotherapy after an orchidectomy. He complains of severe nausea and vomiting when he enters the oncology day unit?
What is the likely cause of these symptoms?
What is the most suitable first-line anti-emetic?
Anticipatory
Lorazepam
A 47-year-old woman with advanced cervical cnacner complains of drowsiness persistent nausea, intermittent small vomits and reduced urine production?
What is the likely cause of these symptoms?
What is the most suitable first-line anti-emetic?
Renal failure (Could also suspect hypercalcaemia, but usually get polyuria and polydipsia before these symptoms in hypercalcaemia)
Haliperidol
A 71-year-old man with prostate cancer is started on zomorph 20mg twice daily for pain control. Two days later he complains of nausea and reduced appetite. His bowels are open daliy and he has no new urinary symptoms.
What is the likely cause of these symptoms?
What is the most suitable first-line anti-emetic?
Opiods
Haliperidol (drug-related vomiting counts as toxic vomiting)
A 65-year old man with lung cancer compains of difficulty passing hard stool.
What drug is most likley to have caused his constipation?
a) fybogel
b) gabapentin
c) metaclopramide
d) ondansatron
e) paracetamol
Ondansatron
VERY CONSTIPATING
A 71-year old woman with advanced breast cancer is having difficulty passing hard stool and is prescribed lactulose.
What best describes the mechanism of action of lactulose?
a) bulk forming agent
b) contrast irritant
c) softner and stimulant
d) stimulant
e) stool softener
Stool softener
A 47-year-old man with recurrent renal cancer and bone mets, complains of increasing back pain, difficulty poassing urine and constipation.
What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
a) hypocalcaemia
b) NSAIDS
c) poor fluid intake
d) spinal cord compression
e) urinary retention
Spinal cord compression
A 69-year old woman with advanced ovarian cancer complains of reduced appetite and constipation and is commenced on codanthramer.
What is the most appropriate advice about this medication to give to the patient?
a) codanthramer is carcinogenic if taken long term
b) codanthramer should be administered orally
c) codanthramer may cause an orange discolouration of the urine
d) codanthramer may cause a severe peri-anal rash
e) codanthramer can cause excessive flatulence
c) Orange urine
(only causes peri-anal rash if incontinent)
What are the most common causes of pleural effusion:
chest infection
cancer
What is the most common cause of a bilateral pleural effusion?
Heart failure
When might a PSA level be raised?
when is PSA used?
Investigate prostate Ca (indicate whether a biopsy is needed)
To monitor response to hormonal/cytotoxic treatment or surgery
Detect relapse/more active cancer (eg. trend of rising PSA)
What are immunoglobulins used to detect in oncology?
myeloma
Waldenstrom’s macroglobinaemia (a type of non-hodgkins lymphoma)
Non-hodgkins lymphoma
What is the difficulty in using CA125 to detect for ovarian cancer?
Can also be raised in: normal women (1%) benign conditions (6%) Ovarian cancer (82%)
Doesn’t detect all cancers (remaining 18%)
At what level is CA125 only indicative of malignant disease?
Greater than 200U/mL
What cancer is CA125 most commonly used to detect for?
Ovarian
What cancers can cause raised level of CA125?
OVARIAN
Pancreatic*
Lung*
Colorectal*
Breast*
*Especially when these have spread into abdominal cavity
Where can immunoglobulins be detected?
blood or urine
What causes mildly raised levels of alpha-fetoprotein?
Hepatitis
What causes high levels of alpha-fetoprotein?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Teratoma
What do higher levels of alpha-fetoprotein indicate about prognosis?
Poor prognosis
When does alpha-fetoprotein stop being detectable in normal adults?
after the age of 1
What can human chorionic gonadotrophin levels be used to detect?
hydatiform mole and choriocarcinoma
Non-seminomatous testicular cancers (some seminomatous)
Pregnancy
What are the usual sites for a syringe driver?
chest
abdomen
upper arm
thigh
What features indicate that it is not approprite to administer SC medication at this site (when using a syringe driver)?
oedematous areas
broken skin
What can be done to try and prevent problems with syringe driver sites?
Check for redness, soreness, induration, precipitation
Move sites every day/every few days
Provide a very small dose of dexamethasone (to prevent any problems occuring with the site)
How long does a syringe driver take to establish a stable dose in the patient? What can be done to provide pain relief during this time?
3-4 hours
Can give a stat SC injection of appropriate medicines (eg. pain killers, anti-emetics etc.)
Which drugs are too irritant to use in the syringe driver?
diazepam
chlorpromazine
prochlorperozine
What should you use to dilute drugs in syringe driver?
Water
(saline can be used if there is a problem with site irritation)
When can you dilute drugs with saline when using a syringe driver?
when there are problems with site irritation
what drug should not be diluted by saline? why?
cyclizine
the combination can cause precipitation
How do you work out the rate per hour of drug when setting up a syringe driver?
Calculate the total dose needed in 24 hours.
Divide it by 24.
What is the dose of hyosine butylbromide (buscopan) given in a syringe driver?
60-120mg
What is the dose of cyclizine given in a syringe driver?
100-150mg over 24 hours
What is the dose of halloperidol given in a syringe driver?
3-10 mg (for vomiting)
10-30mg (for terminal agitation/confusion)
*Risk of dyskinesia at doses higher than 10mg
What is the dose of metaclopramide given in a syringe driver?
30-60mg over 24 hours
What is the dose of levomepromazine given in a syringe driver?
6.25mg-100mg over 24 hours
What is the dose of hyoscine hydrobromide given in a syringe driver?
400 micrograms - 2.4mg
What is the dose of midazolam given in a syringe driver?
10-60mg
What are the two different types of morphine?
Immedite release (oromorph liquid)
Modified release (zomorph, MST - two different preparations)
What are the key features of immediate-release morphine?
Takes 30 mins to work
Lasts for 4 hours
What are the features of modified release morphine?
BD (released over 12 hours)
Continuous dose
How do you determine the dose of oromorph to prescribe for someone on morphine?
oromorph dose = 1/6th of background dose of morphine (either zomorph or MST)
How regularly can oromorph be used (if calculated as 1/6 of background morphine dose)?
PRN - hourly if needed
Max of 6 doses in 24 hours
NOTE THIS ON THE DRUG CHART
What are the main side-effects of morphine?
Drowsiness
Constipation
Nausea and vomiting
(Respiratory depression: Not a problem if doses are correct)
How long would you expect a patient to experience drowsiness for when prescribed morphine?
If it persists longer than this, what could cause this?
48-72 hours
dose
renal function
A patient on morphine experiences constipation, what do you do?
prescribe laxative
A patient on morphine experiences nausea and vomiting, what would you do?
anti-emetic (or reduce dose)
A patient on morphine experiences respiratory depression, what do you do?
Prescribe naloxone
How do you convert oromorph in to MST/zomoprh?
Work out daily total dose of what is being given, divide it by two (as it will be given BD) and then add this to MST dose.
Is there a maximum dose of morphine that can be described?
NO MAXIMUM DOSE
Titrate up in 30% dose
Depends on: side effect
Pain relief level
Mr Williams is a 67 year old man with lung cancer. He is in pain. His medical notes show that he was diagnosed with an inoperable sqamous cell carcinoma of the R lung 2 months ago and received two fractions of palliative radiotherapy. He was admitted 3 days ago with increasing shortness of breath. He was found to have a pleural effusion. The respiratory team are due to drain this tomorrow.
You find his drug chart and see he is on regular paracetamol (1gm qds), salbutamol nebuliser (2.5mg qds) and furosemide (40mg od)
What are the differentials?
PE
MI
Angina
Pneumonia
Pleural invasion
Pneumothorax
Rib fracture
GORD
MSK
Neuropathic pain
What is the definition of neuropathic pain?
Pain in an area of sensory information
How do you convert the dose of codeine into doses of oromorph?
Work out how much codein is being given:
eg. 30mg BD = 60mg over 24hrs
Divide this by 10 (as oromorph is 10x stronger than codeine)
60/10= 6mg.
6mg of oromorph can be given PRN. MAXIMUM OF 4 TIMES. MAX DOSE 24mg - WRITE THIS ON THE DRUG CHART.
What are the three main causes of pain?
Disease itself
Treatment
Concurrent disease (resulting from first disease)
How do you treat pain related to an infection?
Treat underlying infection
Treat pain (depending on what patient is already on and where they are on pain ladder)
What are the features of neuropathic pain?
Pain in an area of abnormal sensation
Localised (eg. dermatome) or widespread
Numbness or hyperaesthesia
Autonomic changes: pallor, sweating
Pins and needles or burning