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CA2 midterm > Oncology > Flashcards

Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary characteristic of cancer cells?

A

Uncontrolled and abnormal cell growth

Cancer cells divide uncontrollably, lack apoptosis (programmed cell death), and invade tissues.

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2
Q

Most common risk factor for cancer?

A

Aging

Cellular damage accumulates over time, increasing cancer risk.

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3
Q

What is carcinogenesis?

A

Process of cancer development

It involves initiation, promotion, and progression of malignant cells.

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4
Q

Which of the following is a modifiable cancer risk factor?

A

Smoking

Tobacco use is the leading cause of lung and oral cancers.

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5
Q

What are oncogenes?

A

Mutated genes that promote cancer growth

Oncogenes stimulate abnormal cell division.

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6
Q

Best screening test for breast cancer?

A

Mammography

Detects tumors before they become palpable.

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7
Q

Recommended age for colorectal cancer screening?

A

45 years (or earlier for high-risk individuals)

Early detection reduces mortality.

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8
Q

Key diagnostic test for leukemia?

A

Bone marrow biopsy

Identifies abnormal WBC production.

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9
Q

Common tumor marker for prostate cancer?

A

Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)

Elevated PSA levels indicate prostate issues, including cancer.

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10
Q

Biopsy result indicating malignancy shows:

A

Poorly differentiated cells

Cancer cells lose normal structure and function.

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11
Q

TNM staging stands for:

A

Tumor size (T), Node involvement (N), Metastasis (M)

Determines cancer extent and prognosis.

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12
Q

Stage IV cancer indicates:

A

Distant metastasis

Advanced cancer with poor prognosis.

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13
Q

What does a high tumor grade mean?

A

More aggressive and poorly differentiated cells

Higher grades indicate rapid growth and invasion.

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14
Q

Best imaging for detecting metastasis?

A

PET scan

Detects metabolic activity of cancer cells.

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15
Q

Common site for breast cancer metastasis?

A

Bones, lungs, liver, brain

Breast cancer spreads via lymphatic and vascular systems.

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16
Q

Definitive treatment for localized solid tumors?

A

Surgery

Removes primary tumor to prevent spread.

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17
Q

Common side effects of chemotherapy?

A

Bone marrow suppression

Leads to anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia.

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18
Q

Primary action of radiation therapy?

A

Destroys cancer DNA

Targets rapidly dividing cells.

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19
Q

Why is combination chemotherapy used?

A

Prevents resistance and attacks cancer at different stages

Enhances effectiveness and reduces drug resistance.

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20
Q

What is palliative care in oncology?

A

Symptom management and quality of life improvement

Focuses on comfort rather than cure.

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21
Q

Common chemotherapy-induced complication?

A

Nausea and vomiting

Chemotherapy irritates the GI tract and triggers the vomiting center.

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22
Q

Why is neutropenia dangerous?

A

Increased infection risk

Low WBC count impairs immune function.

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23
Q

Best intervention for radiation skin reactions?

A

Use mild soap and avoid sun exposure

Prevents irritation and further damage.

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24
Q

Early sign of tumor lysis syndrome?

A

Hyperkalemia

Rapid tumor breakdown releases potassium.

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25
What is the nadir period in chemotherapy?
Lowest blood cell count period ## Footnote Occurs 7-14 days post-chemo, increasing infection risk.
26
Superior vena cava syndrome symptoms?
Facial and upper body swelling ## Footnote Tumor compresses the superior vena cava.
27
Common cause of spinal cord compression in cancer?
Metastatic bone tumors ## Footnote Causes paralysis if untreated.
28
First intervention for hypercalcemia in cancer patients?
IV hydration ## Footnote Prevents kidney damage and flushes calcium.
29
Key symptom of pericardial effusion from cancer?
Distant heart sounds and hypotension ## Footnote Fluid buildup compresses the heart.
30
Early sign of sepsis in neutropenic patients?
Fever (>100.4°F or 38°C) ## Footnote Infection can rapidly become fatal due to low WBC count.
31
Which type of diet increases cancer risk?
High-fat, low-fiber diet ## Footnote Fat promotes tumor growth, while fiber protects against colon cancer.
32
Which vitamin is protective against certain cancers?
Vitamin C ## Footnote Acts as an antioxidant, neutralizing free radicals.
33
Best lifestyle modification to prevent skin cancer?
Avoiding excessive sun exposure and using sunscreen ## Footnote UV radiation is a major risk factor for melanoma.
34
What is chemoprevention?
Use of drugs to reduce cancer risk ## Footnote Tamoxifen, for example, lowers breast cancer risk in high-risk individuals.
35
Primary prevention of cancer includes:
Smoking cessation, HPV vaccination, healthy diet ## Footnote Reduces risk factors before cancer develops.
36
Best route for severe cancer pain management?
Around-the-clock opioid therapy ## Footnote Ensures continuous pain relief rather than PRN use.
37
Common side effects of opioid therapy?
Constipation ## Footnote Opioids slow GI motility.
38
Which drug is used for bone pain in metastatic cancer?
Bisphosphonates ## Footnote Reduces bone resorption and pain.
39
What is breakthrough cancer pain?
Sudden episodes of severe pain despite baseline medication ## Footnote Requires rapid-acting pain relievers like fentanyl.
40
Why is PCA (Patient-Controlled Analgesia) beneficial in cancer pain?
Allows self-administration for better pain control ## Footnote Prevents under-medication and improves quality of life.
41
What is debulking surgery?
Partial removal of a tumor ## Footnote Reduces tumor size to improve treatment response.
42
Most common post-op complication in cancer surgery?
Infection ## Footnote Cancer and treatment weaken the immune system.
43
What is palliative surgery?
Surgery to relieve symptoms, not cure cancer ## Footnote Improves quality of life in advanced cancer.
44
Why is lymph node dissection done in cancer surgery?
To assess metastasis ## Footnote Helps determine cancer staging.
45
Which cancer surgery has the highest lymphedema risk?
Mastectomy with lymph node removal ## Footnote Disrupts lymphatic drainage.
46
Which leukemia is most common in children?
Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) ## Footnote Rapidly progresses but has a high cure rate with treatment.
47
Key feature of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells ## Footnote Used to differentiate from non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
48
Multiple myeloma primarily affects which organ?
Bone marrow ## Footnote Causes bone pain and fractures due to plasma cell overgrowth.
49
Common early symptom of leukemia?
Unexplained bruising or bleeding ## Footnote Due to low platelet count (thrombocytopenia).
50
Why do lymphoma patients experience night sweats?
B symptoms indicate systemic disease ## Footnote Includes fever, weight loss, and drenching sweats.
51
Which PPE is required for handling chemotherapy drugs?
Gown, double gloves, face shield ## Footnote Prevents exposure to hazardous drugs.
52
Primary nursing concern with IV chemotherapy?
Extravasation ## Footnote Can cause severe tissue damage if drug leaks into surrounding tissue.
53
Which intervention is used for chemotherapy-induced anemia?
Erythropoietin injections ## Footnote Stimulates RBC production.
54
Key teaching for patients on chemotherapy?
Avoid crowds and sick individuals ## Footnote Immunosuppression increases infection risk.
55
Most effective antiemetic for chemotherapy nausea?
Ondansetron (Zofran) ## Footnote Blocks serotonin receptors in the brain to prevent vomiting.
56
Why should patients avoid lotions on radiation sites?
Increases skin irritation ## Footnote Skin is sensitive and prone to breakdown.
57
Best position for patients with radiation-induced mucositis?
Upright, with frequent oral care ## Footnote Prevents infection and maintains airway patency.
58
What is brachytherapy?
Internal radiation therapy ## Footnote Implants radioactive sources directly into the tumor.
59
Primary side effect of brain radiation?
Cognitive impairment ## Footnote Long-term exposure affects brain function.
60
What precaution should nurses take with brachytherapy patients?
Limit exposure time and maintain distance ## Footnote Reduces radiation exposure risk.
61
Common long-term effect of cancer treatment?
Fatigue ## Footnote Can persist for months or years post-treatment.
62
Key focus of hospice care?
Comfort and dignity in terminal illness ## Footnote Supports patients and families through end-of-life care.
63
Which symptom is most distressing in terminal cancer?
Dyspnea ## Footnote Managed with opioids and oxygen therapy.
64
How does palliative sedation help terminal patients?
Reduces awareness of distressing symptoms ## Footnote Used when symptoms cannot be controlled by other means.
65
What should nurses prioritize in cancer patient education?
Managing symptoms and treatment side effects ## Footnote Improves adherence and quality of life.

CA2 midterm (3 decks)

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