Oncology Flashcards
A healthcare-associated infection (traditionally known as a nosocomial infection) is:
a) always present, but is unapparent at the time of hospitalization
b) acquired during the course of hospitalization
c) always caused by medical personnel
D) always caused by pathogenic bacteria.
e) only a result of surgery
b) acquired during the course of hospitalization
A healthcare-associated infection, also known as a nosocomial infection, is an infection that is acquired during the course of hospitalization or healthcare delivery within a healthcare facility. This can include infections acquired in hospitals, long-term care facilities, outpatient clinics, and other healthcare settings.
The nurse is providing teaching to a patient about antigout drugs. Which of the following statements indicates the nurse’s understanding about the mechanism of action of these drugs?
a) “Antigout medications increase protein and rheumatoid factors.”
B) “Antigout medications increase blood oxygen levels.”
C) “Antigout medications decrease serum uric acid levels.”
d) “Antigout medications decrease leukocytes and platelets.”
C) “Antigout medications decrease serum uric acid levels.”
The mechanism of action of antigout drugs is to decrease the levels of uric acid in the blood. Gout is a type of arthritis that occurs when there is an accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints, causing pain, inflammation, and swelling.
Which leukocyte is first to arrange at the site of inflammation/infection?
A) Lymphocytes
B) monocytes
C) gilaphils
D) neutrophils
D) Neutrophils
Neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cells and are considered the first responders to an inflammatory or infectious process.
Which is the most significant neurotoxin of the cytotoxic drug class?
a) etoposide (VePesid®)
B) docetaxel (Taxotere®)
C) vincristine sulphate
D) paclitaxel (Abraxane®)
C) Vincristine sulfate
Vincristine sulfate is a cytotoxic drug that belongs to the class of chemotherapeutic agents known as vinca alkaloids. It is considered the most significant neurotoxin among the cytotoxic drugs
A patient at a weight management clinic who was given a prescription for orlistat (Xenical) calls the clinic hotline because of a “terrible adverse effect.” The nurse suspects the patient is referring to which problem?
A) fecal incontinence
B) sexual dysfunction
C) urinary incontinence
D) nausea
A) Fecal incontinence
Orlistat (Xenical) is a weight loss medication that works by inhibiting the absorption of dietary fats in the gastrointestinal tract. One of the common adverse effects of orlistat is gastrointestinal-related, particularly fecal incontinence or oily stools, as the medication prevents the absorption of dietary fats, which can lead to increased fat content in the stool.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding bacterial growth?
A) Halophile bacteria thrive in acidic environments.
B) Anaerobic bacteria grow in non-oxygenated environments.
C) Psychrotroph bacteria prefer cooler environments
D) Thermophile bacteria grow at temperatures above 50C
A) Halophile bacteria thrive in acidic environments.
This statement is incorrect. Halophile bacteria are known for thriving in environments with high salt concentrations, such as salt lakes or salt mines, but they do not necessarily thrive in acidic environments. In fact, most halophile bacteria prefer neutral or slightly alkaline environments.
True or false modafinil is generally used for the treatment of insomnia
False.
Modafinil is not generally used for the treatment of insomnia. Modafinil is a medication that is primarily indicated for the treatment of excessive sleepiness associated with narcolepsy, sleep apnea, and shift work sleep disorder.
True or false: Based on the current evidence, clients who have had a past myocardial infarction would generally receive acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) for secondary prevention of further blood clots
True.
Based on the current evidence and guidelines, clients who have had a past myocardial infarction (MI) or heart attack would generally receive acetylsalicylic acid (ASA), commonly known as aspirin, for secondary prevention of further blood clots
What distinguishes passive natural immunity from passive artificial immunity?
A) Passive natural immunity is acquired through transfer of antibodies from mother to baby, while passive artificial immunity is acquired through administration of immunoglobulin preparations
b) Passive natural immunity is induced by natural exposure to an infectious agent, while passive artificial immunity is induced by medical intervention
C) Passive natural immunity is specific to a particular pathogen, while passive artificial immunity provides broad protection against many pathogens
d) Passive natural immunity is long-lasting, while passive artificial immunity is short-lived
A) Passive natural immunity is acquired through transfer of antibodies from mother to baby, while passive artificial immunity is acquired through administration of immunoglobulin preparations.
The correct option is A. Passive natural immunity refers to the transfer of antibodies from a mother to her baby during pregnancy or through breast milk after birth. This can provide temporary immunity to the baby against certain pathogens that the mother has been exposed to or vaccinated against. Passive artificial immunity, on the other hand, is acquired through administration of immunoglobulin preparations, which contain pre-formed antibodies against specific pathogens. This can provide temporary immunity in cases where immediate protection against a specific pathogen is needed, such as in the case of post-exposure prophylaxis for certain diseases like rabies or hepatitis B
What class of medication is fulvestrant, which binds to certain hormone receptors to inhibit tumor growth?
a) Estrogen reception antagonist
b) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist
c) Progestins
d) Aromatase inhibitors
a) Estrogen reception antagonist
Which of the following potential adverse effects is associated with the use of dextroamphetamine sulphate for ADHD in clients.
A) insomnia
B) hypotension
C) increased appetite
D) bradycardia
A) insomnia
The emergency department has admitted a patient who has overdosed on barbiturates. What clinical manifestation should the nurse prioritize in monitoring?
a) Tachycardia
b) Respiratory arrest
c) Hypertension
D) dyspnea
b) Respiratory arrest
Phil was diagnosed with an acute exacerbation of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Phil is started on a oral corticosteroid (prednisone) and oral antibiotic (azithromycin), for his symptoms. He uses Ventolin (salbutamol) and Atrovent (ipratropium) for his COPD as prescribed. He is also taking an H2 receptor blocker (famotidine) for his gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The patient takes a dose of glargine insulin every evening. This evening the client notices his blood glucose level is 9.4mmol/L. The next morning, the fasting glucose level is 11.2 mmol/L. What is the most likely cause of the elevated glucose levels?
A) azithromycin
B) salbutamol
C) famotidine
D) prednisone
D) prednisone
A client is about to receive folic acid supplementation. The Registered knows that indications for folic acid supplementation include which of the following?
a) Iron deficiency anemia
b) Tropical sprue
C) Hemolytic anemia
d) Prophylaxis of fetal neural tube defects
e) all of the above
f) both B and D
g) both A and D
e) all of the above
A client is diagnosed with an Helicobacter pylori infection. The nurse explains that this infection is commonly associated with which of the following conditions?
a) liver cancers
b) pyloric hypertrophy
c) sexually transmitted diseases
d) peptic ulcer diseases
The correct answer is:
d) peptic ulcer diseases
Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) is a type of bacteria that can infect the stomach lining and is a well-known cause of peptic ulcer diseases.
