Oncologic emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

Discuss febrile neutropenia

A

Historically neutropenia was graded as

  • 1-1.5 neturophils mild
  • 0.5-1 as moderate
  • <0.5 as severe

Mortality reaches 20%
Most common sources are pneumonia, anorectal lesions, skin infections, pharyngitis or UTI. Howevere beacuse local inflammatory response are dampened by the absence of granulocytes the only sign of infection may be fever.

Fever defined as 38.3 or higher or a temperature of>38 for at least 1 hour.

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2
Q

Discuss DDX of fever in the oncology patient

A

Infection/sepsis

  • PE/VTE
  • Adverse effect of chemotherapy or other medication
  • direct effect of tumor burden

Clear source of infection is identified in only 1/3rd of neutropenic fever cases.

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3
Q

Discuss IX of neutropenic sepsis

A

2x blood culture
-if pre-existing central access a sample from the line should be taken for culture at the same time as the peripheral ones
Bacterial growth in the catheter 2 hours prior to the peripheral samples is suggestive of a catheter associated infection

Urine, faces and sputum samples should also be sent depending on clinical presentation

CXR

If nil source of fever for 72 hours – ct of chest and sinuses + bronchoalveolar lavage can be considered. Directed CT scan can be performed earlier if clinical signs

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4
Q

Discuss risk of serious complciations with chemotherapy induced neutropenic fever

A

Any of the following characteristics are considered to be high risk for serious complciations during episdoes of neutropenic fever

1) REceipt of cytotoxic therapy sufficiently myelosupressive to result in anticipated severe neutropenia for >7days
2) MASCC score <21
3) presence of any active uncontrolled comorbid medical problems including
- signs of sever sepsis or septic shock
- oral or GIT mucositis that interferes with swallowing or causes severe diarrhoea
- GIT symptoms including abdo pain, nasuea and vomting or diarrhoea
- intravascular catheter infection especially catheter tunnel infection
- new pulmonary infiltrate or hypoxemia
- underlying chronic lung disease
- complex infection at the time of presentation

4) Alemtuzumab or CAR-T cell use within the past two months
5) uncontrolled or progressive cancer
6) evidence of hepatic insufficiency

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5
Q

Discuss the MASCC score

A

Risk stratification for the development of complications during neutropenic sepsis
-Age younger than 60 years old -2
-onset of fever while outpatient -3
-overall moderate symptoms burden-3
Absence of dehydration -3
no prior fungal infection or solid tumor type -4
no history of COPD -4
Absence of hypotension -5
Asymptomatic or overal mild symptom burden-5

Over 21 suggest low risk of development of complcations

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6
Q

Discuss management of neutropenic sepsis

A

ABCD
Antibiotics should be adminsitered within 30-60minutes of presentation and directly after blood cultures have been taken prior to any other investigation.

Monotherapy includes

  • PIptaz 4.5 grams QID
  • Cefopime
  • ceftazodime
  • Carbopenums

If line sepsis is a concern add in MRSA cover
-Vancomycin

If in septic shock added additional gram-ve coverage
-gentamycin

Initial coverage for fungal infection is not required unless there is a specific concern for fungal source.

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7
Q

Discuss metastatic spinal cord compression

A

Malignancy related compromise of the spinal cord most commonly occurs from an extradural neoplasm that has haematological metastasized to the vertebral column. Lesion then typically expands locally from the marrow space through a veterbal vein foramen to invade the spinal canal

Although termed spinal cord compression direct nerve compression by the tumor is rarae. Cord injury is more commonly cuased by occlusion of the epidural venous plexus leading to breakdown fot he blood cord barreir and vasogenic oedema. If untreated eventually leads to occlusion of the arterial system leading to cord ischaemia and infarction.

Most common tumors causing MSCC are prostate, breast and lung cancer.
RCC, non hodgkins lymphoma and multiple myeloma each account for additional 5-10% of all cases.

Most cases affect the thoracic spine (60%) followed by the L spine (25) and c-spine (15%)

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8
Q

Discuss clinical features of MSCC

A

Back pain, weakness, sensory loss and autonomic funciton loss are the most frequent presenting complatins.

Back pain occurs in more than 95% of pateitns
Extremity weakness occurs in 75% of patient and generally preceeds sensory loss
ANS dysfunction is present in 60% of cases includ9ing loss of bowel or bladder function

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9
Q

Discuss IX of MSCC

A

MRI is gold standard if MSCC is suspected with a sensitivity of 93% and specificity of 97% - even if MSCC has been confirmed by another imaging modality MRI should be performed as its added resolution changes treatment strategy in approximatly 50% of cases

THere is a 20-40% of multiple seperate lesions as such the L, t and C spine should all be imaged

If MRI unavailable or contraindicated CT is the next imaging modality of choice - IF vertebral metastasis is seen on initial scanes presence of cord comrpession can be assessed by CT myelography in which contrast is introduced into the subarachnoid space.

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10
Q

DIscuss management of MSCC

A

Corticosteroids and initiation of surgery or radiation or both.

Steroids provide the most immediatlely aviable therapy for cord compression. Early steroids have been shown to improve ambulation rates at 3-6 months and improved long term pain scores.
10mg of IV dexamethasone followed by 16 mg orally daily in divided doses for any patient with neurological deficit secondary to MSCC.

Patients with severe deficiencies such as paraplegia may receive higher doses of 100mg IV dexamethasone followed by 96mg orally daily in divided doses.

Steroids temporize vasogenic cord oedema but cord damage will ensure without definitive treatment with radiation and surgery.
30 day mortality rates for spinal cord decompression exceed 10% and complications rates exceed 50%. For patient not fit for surgery or with incompatible goals radiation therapy alone should be offered

If surgery is to be offered it should be done prior to radiation to reduce risk of non healing wiunds

NO evidence for timing but experts recommend definitive treatment within 24 hours.

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11
Q

Discuss malignant pericardial effusion

A

Pericardial manifestation of malignant disease including pericarditis, neoplasm (normally metastatic) and pericardial effusion effect greater than 10% of cancer patients and cause about 25% of all effusive pericardial disease in the developed world.

2/3rd asymptomatic
1/3 HD compromise, organ failure and death can occur

Neoplastic disease is belived to cause pericardial effusion when lymphatic flow which normally drains fluid fro the pericardium becomes obstructed or reversed by congestion in porximal malignant lymph nodes.

Most common causes of metastatic spread are lung, breast and haematological tumors

Although the pericardial sac has the elastic potential for gradual expansion to more than 1 l its is poorly distensible in short (hours to days) time frames and rapid accumulation of ever a few hundred millilitres of fluid may precipitate cardiac tamponade

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12
Q

Discuss clinical features of malignant pericardial disease

A

Dyspnoea and chest pain
Weakness and fatigue are often associated and large slowly accumulating effusions may result in mass effect on nearby structures, causing nasuea, early satiety, cough hiccups hoarsenss or dysphagia.

Tamponade present with shock but other classic stigmata are unreliable

  • Pulsus paradoxus - defeined as a 10mmhg systolic BP gradient between inspiration and expiration in the respiratory cycle is the most sensitive sign
  • Kassmausl sign (paradoxical increase JVP with inspiration)
  • Becks triad - hypotension, elevated JVP and mufffled heart sounds
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13
Q

Discuss management of malignant pericardial effusions

A

Usually indicates advanced cancer and management should be tailored to the patients wisehs and management plan.

If agressive therapy is wanted tamponade is a medical emergency and warrants immediate drainage, ideally under real time US guidance.
US pericardialcentesis via the intercostal approach resuolts in fewer compications and higher success than the blind subxiphi approaxh.

BLind technique

  • semirecumbent
  • needle inserted subxiphoid
  • angle of 15 degrees to the horizntal between the xiphoid and left sternal margin
  • after clearing trhe ribs the needle should be leveled and advanced toward the left shoulder until return of fluid is achieved.

Temporising measures such as IV fluid to increase preload and inotropes (epi, dobutamine) may be attempted

Effusion wihtout tamponade can be managed non emergently - fluid sampling and intrapericardial chemo or injection of sclerosing agents in more controlled fashion

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14
Q

Discuss pathophysiology of hypercalcaemia in the cancer patient

A

Serum calcium regulation is achieved by PTH and calcitriol which both increase serum calcium level and to a less extent by calcitonin which decreases it.

Approximatly 30% of cancer patient will experience dysregulation of calcium homeostasis usually caused by 1 or more of the following

1) Synthesis of PTH analog PTH related protein
2) Overproduction of calcitriol
3) bone osteolysis due to direct spread of tumor
4) ectopic PTH production.

In most cases malignancy associated hypercalcemia signifies advanced disease with a median survival of less than 2 months.

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15
Q

Discuss clinical features of hypercalcaemia

A
  • Bones (increased osteolysis and fracture)
  • Stones (renal colic)
  • psychic Moans (depression, confusion, hallucinations and coma)
  • abdominal Groans (Anorexia, N&V, consiptation, PUD, pancreatitis)

Other

  • muscle weakness, malaise, hyporeflexia
  • nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (polyuria and polydipsia)

Complications
-cardiac arrythmias (AV block, arrest)

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16
Q

Discuss IX of hypercalcaemia

A

Accurate measurement of free serum calcium level is the most important step. Norma CA included on labs include a large fraction of physioglocially inert calcium bound to albumin. Free or ionised calcium levels are more accurate

Other electrolytes, and UEC

Further testing is generally not needed in the ED as aetiology does not alter management: other teset include

  • PTH level
  • PTHrP level
  • 1,25 dihydroxvitamin d
  • 25 Hydroxyvitamin D

ECG:

  • qT shortening (prolonged with low K, CA and MG)
  • prolonged PR
  • widened QRS
  • Notched QRS
  • AV Block 1,2,3
17
Q

Discuss management of hypercalcaemia

A

Mild: Total albumin corrected CA <3mmol - do not require immediate treatment. However they should be advised to avoid factors that aggravate hyperCA including
-Thiazides
-Lithium
-volume depletion
-bed rest or inactivity
They require adequate hydration 6-8 glasses of water a day - additional therapy depneds on the aetiology of the hyper CA

Moderate: albumin corrected Ca2+ 3-3.5 with ild symptoms - as above more like chornic if mild – acute rise to this level may have signifacant symptoms and should be treated as per severe

Severe >3.5 Ca2+
#Immediate therapy
-Volume expansion 200-300ml/hour aiming for urine output of 100-150 ml/hour (Hypercalcaemia impairs renal resorption of water and sodium leading to hypovolaemia which further inhibits the kidneys ability to eliminate Ca2)
-If over load is an issue judicious use of loop diuretics, PPV and if need be dialysis – loop diruteics no longer used in euvolaemic patients
#Medical therapy
1) Bisphospphonates (Require days to lower CA2)
–Zoledronic acid 4mg IV over 15 minutes (preferred to pamidronate as is superior in reversing malignancy relaeted hyperCA)
-Pamidronate 60-90mg IV over 2 hours
-Bisphosphonates cause an acute phase reaction in 1/3 of cases consisting of fever, myalgia, arthralgia and headache usually within 36 hours. (Manage with antipyretics and antihistamines)
2) Salmon calcitonin (quicker onset 12-24 hours)
-cocurrent administration with bisphosphonates
- effect is short lived due to tachyphylaxis
3) Denosumab - a human monoclonal antibody inhibiting RANK ligand has been used in bisphosphonate resistant hypercalcium
4) steroids may be trailled in granulomatous disease

If resistant to all above treatment dialysis can promptly lower CA2+ – also indicated for severe symptoms

18
Q

Discuss tumor lysis syndrome

A

TLS occurs when desturction of malignant cells occurs with such volume and speed that the bodies mechanisms for regulating the unwanted products of destruction are overwhelemd

Such cell lysis releases intracellular contents causing

  • hyperuricemia
  • hyperkalaemia
  • hyperphosphataemia
  • hypocalcaemia

AKI caused by crystal depositis of uric acid or calcium phosphate in the renal tubules or by crystal independant mechanisms of damageby uric acid often accompanies TLS.

TLS is more likely to occur in patient with tumous that are

  • high burden
  • rapidly growing
  • highly chemosensitive

Burkitts lymphoma or ALL are high risk.

Symptoms are due to metabolic derangements and include

  • nasuea and vomting,
  • lethargy and confusion
  • oedema
  • seizures
  • myalgis and tetany
  • dysryhtmias/arrest
19
Q

Discuss definition of TLS + risk factors for development

A

Cairo Biship definition

Laboratory TLS (two or more lab changes within 3 days before or seven days after cytotoxic therapy)

  • Uric acid >8mg/dl (476micromol/L)
  • K >6mmol/L
  • Phosphorus >2.1mmol/L for children or >1.45mmol/L in adults
  • CA <1.75 mmol/L

Clinical TLS (Lab TLS plus one or more of the following that is not directly or probably attributable to a therapeutic agent)

  • Increased creatinine concentration (<1.5 x upper limit)
  • Cardiac arrythmia/sudden death
  • seizure

Risk factors

  • High proliferation tumors
  • high disease burden
  • sensitive to chemo
  • Haem malignancy
  • Bulky disease >10cm
  • pre-existing renal failure
  • pre-existing hyperuricaemia
20
Q

DIscuss IX of TLS

A

Mesures

  • K
  • phophat
  • ionised calcium
  • urea
  • creatinine
  • uric acid
  • LDH

Renal imaging to rule out obstruction
If septic sreen for that

21
Q

Discuss management of TLS

A

IV fluids - 3L/m2/day -> urine output 1-2ml/kg/hr

Hyperphosphataemia: Hydration provides primary therapy for hyperphosphataemia
- limit dietary phosphate intake and supplements

Hypocalcamia

  • Due to free calcium precipitating with excess phosphate to form insoluble nephrotoxic calcium phospahte
  • To minimize risk of calcium phosphate nephropathy aymptomatic patient should not recieve calcium supplementaiton
  • Patients with cardiac (dysrythymias, heart block) or neurological (seizure, coma) manifestation should be replaced

HyperK

  • treated as normal
  • can use calcium gluconate to stabilize myocardium while treating 10ml 10%

Hyperuricaemia

  • hydration
  • allopuriinol – does not reduce pre-exisiting serum uric acid but inhibits the metabolism of hypoxanthine to axanthine to uric acid -100mg/m2 TDS
  • Rasburicase - breaks down uric acid rapid response from dose 0.05mg/kg with fixed doses of 3-6mg - dont use rasburicase with g6PD deficiency
22
Q

Describe Leukostasis

A

Arises when WBC count is sufficently high to cause vascular congestion leading to organ dysfucntion typically lung and CNS.

WBC counts >500 may be tolerated in CLL where as WBC count of 100 may cause leukostatis acutely

Nil specific range at which leukostasis occurs
Hyperleykocytosis is defined as >50x10^9/L

Two main mechanisms for leukostasis - blast cells are larger and less deformable relative to normal WBCs. As the number of blast increase the blood viscosity increases
-Certain cell types are more prone to causing leukostasis as such intrinsic factor in leukemic cells such as cytokine induced activatiion of denotherlial adhesion may also contribute

23
Q

Discuss clinical features of leukostasis

A

Pulmonary leukostasis present as dyspnoea, tachypnoea and hypoxemia
Auscultation of pulmonary leukostasis may mimic lung infection with crackles or rhonci and bilateral opacities are seen on imaging

CNS leukostasis presents with confusion, audio or visual abnormalities, headache, ataxis or coma
ICH may be seen on imaging

Other manifestations include

  • retinal haemorrahge
  • MI
  • acute imb ischaemia
  • priapism
  • Renal vein thrombosis
  • renal infarct
24
Q

Discuss IX of leukostasis

A

FBC
Smear sent
Symptoms specific imaging

25
Q

Discuss management of leukostasis

A

ED management focuses on reducing blood viscosity
IV fluid administraiton
-Transfusion of RBC should be avoided where possible as this will increase viscosity
-platelets and plasma can be given as these contribute little to viscosisty

Definitive treatment is reduction in number of leukocytes

  • Leukapheresis
  • Pharmocogical destruction of cells (hyrdoxyurea and chemo) – monitor closely for TLS
26
Q

Describe SVC syndrome

A

SVC is thin walled and blood pressure in the SVC are relatively low (2-8 mm HG) - is particularly susceptible to external compression.
When SVC flow is compromised its internal pressure can reach 20-40 mmHG potentially resulting in symptoms of cardiac decompensation.

Malignancy causes greater than 60% of SVC syndrome. Lung cancer and lymphoma cause over 90% of cases of malignancy induced SVC syndrome.
SVC due to intraluminal mass such as thrombosis is increasing
Retrosternal goitre is also a culrptie

27
Q

Discuss clinical features of SVC syndrome

A

Upper extremity, chest or face oedema or erythema
-Dysphonea, dysphagia, chest pain or cough may also be present

JVP distension, oedema flushing cyanosis of the face arms and upper traunk.
Distension of SVC and compression of other srtuctures may cause vocal cord paralysis, blurred vision and Horners syndrome.

Pembertons sign

28
Q

DIscuss IX of svc syndrome

A

CT contrast of chest