Oncolocy Flashcards

1
Q

Bladder cancer

A

Over 90% of cancers of the urinary bladder are urothelial carcinoma (previously termed transitional cell carcinoma; TCC). Non-muscle-invasive tumours are most common. Low-grade tumours are papillary and generally easy to visualise. High-grade tumours are often flat or in situ, and can be difficult to visualise. If muscle invasion occurs, transurethral resection is insufficient and radical cystoprostatectomy is usually advised.

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2
Q

Bladder cancer: symptoms and Ix

A

Risk factors include tobacco exposure, male gender, age >55 years, exposure to chemical carcinogens, pelvic radiation, systemic chemotherapy, and FHx positive for bladder cancer.
haematuria
dysuria

urinalysis
Investigations to consider
urine cytology
renal and bladder ultrasound
CT urogram
cystoscopy
intravenous urogram
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3
Q

Bladder cancer: Management

A

transurethral resection
immediate post-operative intravesical chemotherapy
concurrent transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
delayed intravesical bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) immunotherapy or intravesical chemotherapy
radical cystectomy

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4
Q

Bladder cancer: complications and prognosis

A

prostatic urethral transitional cell carcinoma (TCC)
upper tract TCC
hydronephrosis
urinary retention

Most patients present with low-grade, non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer (NMIBC). These patients are at high risk for tumour recurrence but low risk for disease progression and death. Once muscle invasion occurs, overall survival is in the range of 50% even with cystectomy.

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5
Q

Breast cancer

A

Epithelial tumours (includes invasive ductal carcinoma not otherwise specified, invasive lobular carcinoma, tubular carcinoma, medullary carcinoma, mucinous carcinoma and other tumours with abundant mucin, neuro-endocrine tumours, invasive papillary carcinomas, invasive micro-papillary carcinomas, apocrine carcinomas, and metaplastic carcinomas)

Myoepithelial lesions (includes myoepitheliosis, adenomyoepithelioma, and malignant myoepithelioma)

Mesenchymal tumours (includes haemangiopericytoma, angiosarcoma, and leiomyosarcoma)

Fibroepithelial tumours (includes fibroadenoma, phyllodes tumour, and low-grade periductal stromal sarcoma)

Tumours of the nipple (includes Paget’s disease of the nipple)

Malignant lymphoma (includes diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, and follicular lymphoma)

Metastatic tumours

Tumours of the male breast (includes invasive and in situ carcinoma).

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6
Q

Breast cancer

A
risk factors include increasing age, white or black ethnicity, high socioeconomic class, positive family history, prolonged oestrogen/progestin exposure, high levels of alcohol consumption, history of radiation exposure, existing benign breast disease and increased breast density.
breast mass 
nipple discharge 
axillary lymphadenopathy 
skin changes 
Red flag symptoms

Triple Assessment: mammograms and/or ultrasound, clinical examination and, biopsy.

breast MRI
biopsy
hormone receptor testing
HER2 receptor testing

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7
Q

Breast cancer: grade/staging

A

T- tumor
N - nodes
M - mets

Nottingham grading system for breast cancer.

Tubule formation

Nuclear grade:

Mitotic rate:

Total score = 3–5: G1 (Low grade or well differentiated)
Total score = 6–7: G2 (Intermediate grade or moderately differentiated)
Total score = 8–9: G3 (High grade or poorly differentiated)

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8
Q

Breast cancer: Rx

A

Treatment for primary invasive breast cancer in women is designed to accomplish the following goals:
Improve survival
Reduce the risk of both local and distant recurrence
Maintain long-term quality of life.

Multi-modality therapy combines complete surgical resection of the primary tumour with surgical staging of the axillary lymph nodes and adjuvant systemic chemotherapy, hormone therapy, or both following or preceding surgery

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9
Q

Breast cancer: Complications and prognosis

A

Mets
Chemo/Radio/Surgical releated

96% of women survive breast cancer for at least one year, and this is predicted to fall to 87%

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10
Q

CNS tumours

A

High-grade:
Gliomas and glioblastoma multiforme.
Primary cerebral lymphomas.
Medulloblastomas.

Low-grade:
Meningiomas.
Acoustic neuromas.
Neurofibromas.
Pituitary tumours.
Pineal tumours.
Craniopharyngiomas.

Secondaries:
Common malignancies spreading to the brain include lung cancer, breast cancer, stomach cancer, prostate cancer, thyroid cancer, colorectal cancer, melanoma and kidney cancer.

Headache, which is typically worse in the mornings.
Nausea and vomiting.
Seizures.
Progressive focal neurological deficits - eg, diplopia associated with a cranial nerve defect, visual field defect, neurological deficits affecting the upper and/or lower limb.
Cognitive or behavioural symptoms.
Symptoms relating to location of mass - eg, frontal lobe lesions associated with personality changes, disinhibition and parietal lobe lesions might be associated with dysarthria.
Papilloedema (absence of papilloedema does not exclude a brain tumour).

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11
Q

CNS tumors: Rx

A

Tumours should be resected whenever possible.

Corticosteroids (dex)should be used if cerebral oedema is present.

Surgery may be an option for patients with three or fewer brain metastases - provided the primary is controlled. This is associated with improved survival.
For metastases that are 3-3.5 cm in size, stereotactic radiosurgery may be an option.

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12
Q

CNS tumors: complications and prognosis

A

Acute haemorrhage into a tumour.
Hydrocephalus
Sudden increases in ICP may lead to life-threatening brain herniation through the foramen magnum or transtentorial foramina.
Complications of radiotherapy: acute toxicity is rare with modern schedules but subacute or chronic effects may occur:

  • Subacute encephalopathy with somnolence and headaches may occur 6-16 weeks after radiation therapy.
  • Prolonged radiation treatment may lead to impairment of intellectual capacity.

Brain tumours, both benign and malignant, are associated with morbidity relating to mass effect if they continue to increase in size.

Malignant brain tumours are the leading cause of death from solid tumours in children and the third most common cause in adolescents and young adults (up to the age of 34).

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13
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma

A

Cholangiocarcinoma is a carcinoma arising in any part of the biliary tree from the small intrahepatic bile ducts to the ampulla of Vater at the distal end of the common bile duct. More than 90% of cholangiocarcinomas are ductal adenocarcinomas and the remainder are squamous cell tumours

ulcerative colitis - develop primary sclerosing cholangitis are prone to cholangiocarcinoma.

Jaundice with hepatomegaly.

Pale-coloured stools, passage of dark urine, upper gastrointestinal pain (dull ache in the upper right quadrant), weight loss, anorexia and general malaise are common features.

Pruritus may be the presenting symptom

Splenomegaly.

The presence of a palpable gallbladder (Courvoisier’s sign) may occur with tumours distal to the cystic duct.

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14
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma: Ix

A

LFTs: Cholestatic picture with markedly elevated ALP and Billi
Prothrombin time and INR may be prolonged.
Tumour markers: CA 19-9 and CEA tumour markers may be raised
Ultrasound and CT scan: hilar tumours show dilatation of intrahepatic biliary tree.
Contrast MRI is the optimal imaging for diagnosis of cholangiocarcinoma

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15
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma: Rx

A

intrahepatic tumour
1st line: partial liver resection
adjunct: pre-operative portal vein embolisation or biliary drainage
adjunct: further resection or ablative therapy, or chemotherapy ± radiotherapy

extrahepatic tumour
1st line: surgical excision
adjunct: pre-operative portal vein embolisation or biliary drainage
adjunct: chemotherapy ± radiotherapy
unresectable disease

liver transplant candidate

liver transplant non-candidate
1st line: chemotherapy ± radiotherapy
1st line: palliative therapy

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16
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma: Complications and prognosis

A

The risk of biliary tract sepsis is increased and may cause a deterioration which is amenable to antibiotic therapy.
Secondary biliary cirrhosis occurs in 10-20% of patients.

Progressive deterioration with average survival of 12-18 months from diagnosis. The overall survival rates are low because many patients present with unresectable or metastatic disease.

Even in patients undergoing aggressive surgery, five-year survival rates are 10-40% for cholangiocarcinoma.
Prognosis is much better for those with extrahepatic tumours who are suitable for early surgical intervention.

Intrahepatic lesions carry the worst prognosis.

17
Q

Colorectal cancer

A

The majority of colorectal cancers are adenocarcinomas derived from epithelial cells. About 71% of new colorectal cancers arise in the colon and 29% in the rectum

Dukes’ classification

A: Limited to the bowel wall

B: Through the bowel wall

C: Regional lymph nodes metastasis.

Risk factors include APC mutation, Lynch syndrome, MYH-associated polyposis, hamartomatous polyposis syndromes, inflammatory bowel disease, and obesity.
increasing age 
rectal bleeding + microcytic anaemia 
change in bowel habit 
rectal mass 
positive FHx 
abdominal mass
18
Q

Colorectal cancer: Rx

A

Surgery remains the definitive treatment for apparently localised colorectal cancer. Both radiotherapy and chemotherapy can improve survival rates after potentially curative surgery

19
Q

Colorectal cancer: Referral

A

Refer urgently patients (to be seen within two weeks):

Aged 40 years and older, reporting rectal bleeding with a change of bowel habit towards looser stools and/or increased stool frequency persisting for six weeks or more.

Aged 60 years and older, with rectal bleeding persisting for six weeks or more without a change in bowel habit and without anal symptoms.

Aged 60 years and older, with a change in bowel habit to looser stools and/or more frequent stools persisting for six weeks or more without rectal bleeding.

Of any age with a right lower abdominal mass consistent with involvement of the large bowel.
Of any age with a palpable rectal mass (intraluminal and not pelvic; a pelvic mass outside the bowel would warrant an urgent referral to a urologist or gynaecologist).

Who are men of any age with unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin of 11 g/100 ml or below.

Who are non-menstruating women with unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin of 10 g/100 ml or below.