Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathoma > Onc > Flashcards

Onc Flashcards

1
Q

CD34

A

hematopoietic stem cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

myeloblast

A

produces granulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

neutropenia seen in….

A

drug toxicity or infection (low neutrophils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

causes of lymphopenia

A
  • immunodeficiency (digeorge)
  • high cortisol (cushing)
  • autoimmune (SLE)
  • radiation (most sensitive cells)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

causes of leukocytosis

A
  • bacterial infection (left shift - immature cells - less Fc receptors)
  • tissue necrosis
  • high cortisol (release of marginated pool)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CD16

A

marker for decreased Fc receptors in left shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

monocytosis

A
  • chronic inflammatory states
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

high yield increase in eosinophila

A
  • Hodgkin lymphoma (IL5)

- also allergy and parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

basophilia

A

CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

lymphocytic leukocytosis

A
  • viral infections

- bordetella pertussis (bacterial exception) - lymphocytosis factor blocking to lymph node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

causes of mono

A

EBV then CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

findings in mono

A
  • LAD
  • splenomegaly (PALS)
  • atypical lymphocytes and high white count (look like monocytes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PALS

A

t cells in spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

monospot

A
  • detects IgM heterophile antibodies

- negative in CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

definitive diagnosis in mono

A

EBV viral capsid antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

complications of mono

A
  • splenic rupture
  • penicillin allergy
  • dormant in B cells (can cause lymphoma)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

acute leukemia

A

increase in blasts in bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

presentation of leukemia

A
  • anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia (bone marrow is crowded out)
  • high WBC count
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

tDt

A

ALL - DNA polymerase marker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

myeloperoxidase

A

AML (auer rod)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ALL associations

A
  • lymphoblast
    has tDt (DNA polymerase)
  • children and Down syndrome after 5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

markers in B-ALL

A

CD10, CD19, CD20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

prophylaxis in B-ALL needed in…

A

scrotum and CSF (blood brain barrier)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

chromosomes in B-ALL

A

12: 21 = good (kids)
9: 22 = bad (adults)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

markers in T-ALL

A

CD2-CD8, no CD10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T-ALL

A
  • teenager
  • thymic mass
  • call it lymphoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

AML

A
  • myeloperoxidase (Auer rods)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

APML

A
  • retinoic acids receptor
  • promyelocytes
  • Auer rods risk for DIC
  • give ATRA (cause blast to mature)
  • 15:17
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

acute monocytic leukemia

A
  • infiltrate gums
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

acute megakaryoblastic leukemia

A
  • no MPO

- associated with Down syndrome (before 5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

AML from preexisting dysplasia

A
  • from myelodysplastic syndrome
  • cytopenias
  • less than 20% blasts
  • from radiation
32
Q

CLL

A
  • naive B cells
  • CD5 (normally on T cell and CD20
  • smudge cells
  • goes to lymph node
33
Q

smudge cell

A

CLL

34
Q

complications of CLL

A
  • hypogammaglobulinemia (immature cells don’t work)
  • hemolytic anemia (poor antibodies attack itself)
  • transformation to B cell lymphoma
35
Q

hairy cell leukemia

A
  • mature B cells
  • TRAP
  • splenomegaly (red pulp)
  • dry tap on bone marrow (cells get trapped)
  • lack lymphadenopathy
36
Q

2-CDA

A
  • ADA inhibitor

- for hairy cell leukemia

37
Q

ATLL

A
  • mature CD4 T cells
  • associated with HTLV-1
  • rash
  • LAD and HSM
  • lytic bone lesions and hypercalcemia
38
Q

lytic bone lestions

A

multiple myeloma

- but also ATLL with rash

39
Q

mycosis fungoies

A
  • mature CD4 T cells
  • T cells in epidermis are called pautrier microabscess
  • sezary syndrome when in blood
40
Q

chronic leukemia

A

ONLY LYMPHOID LINES (myeloid lines are called myeloproliferative disorders)
- except for CML

41
Q

myeloproliferative disorders are named….

A

by predominate cell

42
Q

complications of MDs

A
  • hyperuricemia and gout (too much cell turnover)
  • marrow fibrosis
  • transformation to acute leukemia
43
Q

CML

A
  • granulocytes (BASOPHILS)
  • 9:22 translocation
  • BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase
  • treated with imatinib
44
Q

accelerated phase in CML

A

spelnomegaly

- can progress to acute leukemia (from stem cells)

45
Q

CML vs leukemoid reaction

A
  • leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (positive in infection)
  • CML has basophils
  • CML has 9:22
  • CML have no intention of fighting infection
46
Q

polycythemia vera

A
  • mostly RBCs

- driven by JAK2 kinase (think of endo man with his love for EPO and JAK kinase)

47
Q

clinical symptoms of PV

A
  • blurry vision and headache
  • venous thrombosis (Budd-Chirari
  • itching after bathing (morre mast cells
48
Q

itching after bathing

A

PV

49
Q

what ectopically produces EPO

A

renal cell carcinoma

50
Q

essential thrombocythemia

A
  • all cells up
  • JAK2 kinase mutation
  • can look like iron deficiency anemia
  • rarely progressive to fibrosis or leukemia
  • no risk for gout (not a lot of cell turnover)
51
Q

myelofibrosis

A
  • JAK2 kinase
  • overproduction of megakaryocytes
  • produce excess PDGF
52
Q

features of myelofibrosis

A
  • leukoerythroblastic smear (hematopoiesis in spleen, cells get out early)
  • splenomegaly
  • increased risk of infection, thrombosis and bleeding
  • tear drop cells
53
Q

painless LAD causes

A
  • chronic inflammation

- metastatic carcinoma, lymphoma

54
Q

Lymph follicles

A

RA and early HIV

55
Q

paracortex

A

viral infection (mono)

56
Q

sinus histiocytes LAD

A

seen in lymph node draining tissue

57
Q

follicular lymphoma

A
  • CD20 cells
  • painless LAD
  • too many follicles
  • driven by 14:18 (BCL2 keeps B cells stable)
  • treat with rituximab
58
Q

follicular hyperplasia vs lymphoma

A
  • lymphoma =
  • disruption of architecture
  • lack of tingible bodies (dying cells by apoptosis cleaned up by macrophages)
  • expression of Bcl2 (not seen in normal nodes)
  • monoclonality
59
Q

mantle cell lymphoma

A
  • expands mantle zone (adjacent to follicle)

- 11:14 (cyclin D - promotes G1-S phase)

60
Q

marginal zone lymphoma

A
  • B cells expand marginal zone
  • chronic inflammatory states (too much activation)
  • hashimotos thyroiditis, sjogrens, h pylori gastritis
61
Q

h pylori cancer

A

MALToma (marginal zone lymphoma)

62
Q

burkitt lymphoma

A
  • EBV CD20 Bcells
  • jaw and abdomen
  • driven by c-myc (promotion of growth)
  • 8:14
  • starry sky appearance (cells turning over quickly)
63
Q

DLBCL

A

diffuse large b cell lymphoma

  • most common NHL
  • transformation of follicular lymphoma
64
Q

hodgkin lymphoma

A
  • reed sternberg cells draw in other cells producing mass
65
Q

reed sternberg cells

A

CD15 and CD30

- produce cytokines giving B symptoms

66
Q

nodular sclerosis HL

A
  • neck of mediastinum
  • young female
  • broad pink bands of fibrosis
  • RS cell sit in lacunar cells
67
Q

IL elevated in myeloma

A

IL-6

68
Q

what does myeloma produce

A
  1. osteoclast activating factor
    - punched out lesions, increased risk of fracture
  2. immunoglobulin
    - M spike (monoclonal Ig)
    - usually IgG or IgA
  3. light chain
69
Q

clinical findings in MM

A
  • increased infection (least Ab diversity)
  • less charge between blood cells (piling of RBCs)
  • AL amyloidosis (too much light chain)
  • proteinuria (bence jones protein)
70
Q

MGUS

A
  • increased serum protein with M spike

- no other findings (lytic lesions, hypercalcemia, Bence Jones)

71
Q

Waldenstrom macroglulinemia

A

lymphoma with monoclonal IgM

  • LAD, no lytic bone lesions
  • increase viscosity of blood
  • stroke and bleeding
  • treat by removing IgM
72
Q

langerhans cell histiocytosis

A
  • proliferation of Langerhan cells
  • Birbeck granules
  • CD1a and S100
73
Q

things with tennis rackets

A

langerhan cell histiocytosis and clostridium tetani

74
Q

Letter-Siwe disease

A
  • malignant
  • skin rash and cystic skeletal defects in infant
  • multiple organs and fatal
75
Q

eosinophilic granuloma

A
  • benign
  • pathologic fractures
  • no skin involvement
  • eosinophils
76
Q

Hand-Schuller-Christian disease

A
  • malignant proliferation of Langerhan cells

- rash, lytic skull defects, diabetes insipidus and exopthalmos in child

Pathoma (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions