Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OMM > OMM Winter Exam 2 Written > Flashcards

OMM Winter Exam 2 Written Flashcards

1
Q

What happened in 1936?

A

Applied Academy of Osteopathy (AAO) is formed.
improve the art of total health care
management,
emphasis on palpation and OMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What happened in 1944

A

Applied Academy of Osteopathy changed its name to American Academy of Osteopathy (AAO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happened in 1950?

A

Dr. Angus Cathie forms first undergraduate class of American Academy of Osteopathy at PCOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which way do occipital condyles converge?

A

anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the major motion of the occiput?

A

Flexion/extention

accounts for 50% of cervical flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the relationshp bw sidebending and rotation of the the Co on C1

A

Occur in opposite directions

NOT Type 1 mechanics, though

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the motion test for the Co on C1

A

translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe a Posterior Occiput Right

A

OA rotated R, sidebent L
Right OA can traslate posteriorly
Resists anterior translation and extension
Tissue Texture change on right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe an Anterior Occiput Left

A

OA rotated R, sidebent L
Left OA translates anteriorly
Resists posterior translation and flexion
Tissue Texture change on Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the alternate terminology for a Posterior (open) Occiput?

A

Flexed Occiput

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the alternate terminology for an Anterior (closed) Occiput?

A

Extended Occiput

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the major motion of C1 (on C2)?

A

Rotation about dens (‘no’ motion)

50% of cervical rotation occurs here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When the atlas rotation about C2, describe its translation behavior

A

It translates inferiorly, equally on both sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most likely dysfuncitno of atlas on axis?

A

Restriction of major motion - rotation
(Flex to lock C2-7 for motion testing)
(Flexion/extension not involved in lesioning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Does the atlas sidebend?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe a posterior atlas Right

A

Easier rotation to Right
When rotating to the Left, barrier is engaged on the right
Tissue Texture change on Right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe Anterior Atlas Left

A

Easier rotation to Rgith
When rotated to Left, barrier is engaged on Left
Tissue Texture change on Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the angle of z-joints in C2-7

A

45 degree nateriorly towards eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are unciform (uncinate) processes?

A

on superior surface of body producing concave shape that articulates with body of higher vertebra
synovial joints of Luschka

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What goes through the transverse foramina of cervical vertebral bodies?

A

vertebral a.

does not pass through C7 transverse foramen though

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the vertebral a supply? And what does vertebral a insufficiency indicate?

A

posterior aspect of circle of Willis
insufficiency produces vertigo
nystagus occurs upon cervical rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Do Cervical vertebra (C2-C7) demonstrate type 1 or Type 2 mechanics?

A 
Type 2 (not type 1)
(Though they are typical vertebrae)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If you wanted to treat the cervical spine, what should you treat first?

A

Treat upper thoracic first

because cervical dysfunctionoften linked to upper back/ribs dysfunction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In what diseases, is the transverse ligament of C2 more lax?

A

RA

Down’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is osteoarthritis associated with in cervical psine?

A

hypertrophic changes (spurr) in z-joints and vertebral bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which muscles in the neck covers the great mscules in the neck?

A

SCM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the motion of the SCM?

A

ipsilateral sidebending
controlateral rotation
bilateral: flexion of neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What can trapezius pain be oftenly misinterpreted as?

A

dysfunction of 1st rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a treatment of congenital torticollis?

A

Indirect technique to thoracic outlet and cranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Contrast congenital vs adult torticollis

A

congenital: ‘contraction of SCM’ so sidebent towards effected side, rotated away
adult: cervical sidebending and rotation in same direction ‘contraction of scalenes’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the suboccipital muscles? What can their dysfunctions present as?

A 
Rectus Capitis Posterior Major
Rectus Capitis Posterior Minor
Obliqus Capitis Inferior
Obliqis Capitis Superior
Tension-type headaches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the originis and insertions of teh nateiror and middle scalenes?

A

origin: trasnverse processes C3-6
insert: 1st rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which area of primary spinal SD is responsible for scalene spasm?

A

upper thoracic region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

At what level do teh vertebral aa unite? What does it become thereafter and what does it supply

A

LEvel of pons
Becomes basilar a.
occipital love, cerebellu, brain stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which two bones form the jugular foramen?

A

occipital (condylar) and temporal (petrous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does a sentinel node of Vrichow indicate? Why?

A

abdominal malignancy

Beacsue abdominal malignancy spreads along thoracic duct and nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What layer do superficila lymphatics penetrate to get to deep cervical nodes?

A

investing fascia layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which fascial layer does the carotid sheath blend with?

A

pretrachial fasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which cutaneous nn arise from the cervical plexus?

A

lesser occipital n
great auricular n
transverse colli n
supraclavicular n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In what part of the cell colum do sympathetics travel?

A

intermediolateral cell column (gra)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What levels do cervical sympathetic innervation come from?

A

T1-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Dysfuction (hyperstimulation) of the R vagus SA nerve can lead to what?

A

sinus bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What can Left vagus dysfunction lead to in the heart?

A

AV prolongation

44
Q

What part of GI does L vagus innervate?

A

greater curvature of stomach

dusdenum

45
Q

What are symptoms of vagal GI dysfunction?

A

hyperchlorydria
hpermotility
IBS

46
Q

Which types of patients had the least decrease in vertebral a blood flow in cervical rotationfor Heinkings/Kaepplers study?

A

older patients with stiff necks

long hypermobile necks showed greater decrease in flow

47
Q

Is the dens in the CNS?

A

No

Trasnverse ligament prevents this

48
Q

What demographic is neck pain more comon in?

A

middle aged women

49
Q

Who proposed teh cranial concept? When?

A

Dr. Sutherland

1939

50
Q

What is the drving force in PRM?

A

inherent motility of brain

51
Q

Which types of cells in the brain can move rhythmically like PRM?

A

neuroglial cells

52
Q

What is the hydraulic component of PRM?

A

CSF fluctuation

CSF moves in response ot brain shape change

53
Q

What is cranial compliance

A

homeostatic mechanism

Movement of cranial bones contributes to this

54
Q

What is the Sutherland fulcrum?

A

origin of straight sinus

where falx cerebri and tentorium cerebelli originate

55
Q

What makes up the reciprocal tension membrane?

A

Falx cerebri
Tentorium cerebelli
Falx cerebelli
Spinal dura (sacrum, S2)

56
Q

Who coined the Cranial Rhythmic Impulse?

A

Drs John and Rachel Woods in MO

57
Q

In the brain, there are rhytmic movements correspnding to what?

A

1) systole/diastole of heart
2) inspiration/expiration
3) vascular variations of vasomotion

58
Q

What are the 3 types of oscillatory motions proposed by Dr. Frymann?

A

1) motion from breathing
2) every 5-6 sec independent from breathing (Sutherland wave)
3) very slow, 1min-several min

59
Q

What is the Sutherland wave?

A

oscillation every 5-6 seconds independt from breathing

60
Q

What is the Traubbs Meyer oscillation?

A

slow rate osillation +

pule pressure fluctuation even after arrested breathing

61
Q

Do CRI and THM occur together?

A

yes

62
Q

What is the effect of manipulation on oscillations?

A

Amplitude icnreases

63
Q

What is formed by the articulation bw the sphenoid and occiput?

A 
sphenobasilar synchondrosis (SBS)
cartilagenous until 12-25 years
64
Q

What are the primary movements of teh SBS?

A

Flexion/Extension

65
Q

What happens to head size during flexion of midline bones?

A

head becomes wider

AP diameter bnecomes shorter

66
Q

What happens to paired cranial bones during flexion of midline bones?

A

external rotation (widening of head)

67
Q

Where is the CRI palpable?

A

Everywhere in the body

though most pronounced in head

68
Q

Describe flexion of sacrum?

A

posterior movemnt of base about axis (S2)

69
Q

Name the midline bones

A

occiput
sphenoid
ethmoid
vomer sacrum

70
Q

The facial bones follow which bone?

A

sphenoid

71
Q

The sacrum follows which bone?

A

occiput

72
Q

What is a still point?

A

Where there is no motion - no CRI

Therapeutic ‘release’ frequently occurs here

73
Q

What does the vital cycle depend upon, according to AT STILL?

A

vibration

74
Q

Who is Emanuel Swedenborg?

A

Swedish guy neuro-anatomist

‘the brain’

75
Q

What are the 5 components of PRM?

A

1) inherent motility of brain
2) CSF fluctuation
3) cranialbone motility
4) intracranial membrane mobility
5) involuntary mobility of sacrum bw ilia

76
Q

What is the currently accepted rate of the PRM?

A

6-14 cpm

77
Q

blood flow in the brain fluctuates synchronousyl with what?

A

redox state of cytochrome oxidase

78
Q

How much CSF is produced daily?

A

125 mL

from choroid plexus

79
Q

What is CSF flow during cardiac systole?

A

flow from lateral ventricles to 3/4 ventricles
also craniocaudad direction
(reversed during diastole)

80
Q

What frequency does the Traube Hering component have?

A

.1-.17 Hz

6-10 cpm

81
Q

Is the Traub Hering Meyer the CRI?

A

NO!

82
Q

What school did Dr. Frymann attend and what does she currently study?

A

COPS (LA)
Dr. Thomas Schooley ‘schooled’ her
Cranial treatment in children

83
Q

How many bnoes is the skull comopsed of?

A

29

8 cranial, 14 facial, 7 misc.

84
Q

What does the falx cerebelli attach to ?

A

C2-3

indirectly scarum

85
Q

Which cranial nerve and ganglion is associated with the lacrimal gland and nasal mucosal glands?

A

Facial n

ptergopalatine ganglion

86
Q

What can increased smpathetic tone lead to in the ehad (pathology) ?

A 
photophobia
unsteadiness
tinnitis
low nutrients from vasoconstriction
thick nasal/mouth secretions
dryness of mucosa
87
Q

Which bone of the anterior cranium and face does the sphenoid not influence?

A

mandible

88
Q

How many parts is the occiput made up of at birth?

A

4

89
Q

What can SD of the temporal bone be associated with?

A

otitis media
tinnitis
vertigo

90
Q

What can pathological internal rotationof temporal bone lead to ?

A

closing of auditory tube

chronic otitis media

91
Q

How many bones does the parietalbone articulate w?

A

5

92
Q

the motion of the frontal bones is directly linked to the motion of which other bones?

A

maxilla

ethmoid

93
Q

What motion can you feel in the temporal bone in a torsion strain?

A

If there is R torsion (R greater wing goes up), temporal bone externall rotates and ‘expands’

94
Q

Describe sidebedning rotation of SBS

A

‘cracking egg’ - open and then pour

jazz hand/ judo chop

95
Q

What are the physiological strains?

A

torsion

sidebending rotation

96
Q

What kind of forces can cause SBS compression?

A

Froce to the back of the head, to the front of the head, circumferential compression (birth)
results in low CRI amplitude

97
Q

At birht, how many parts are the sphenoid and temporal bones in?

A

3

98
Q

How can CN12 dysfucntion occur at birth?

A

compression of occipital condyles (near hypoglossal canal)

99
Q

What type of birth trauma can incterfere with CN8?

A

change in axis of petrou temporal bone

100
Q

What may happen from increased tension of the petrosphenoidal ligament?

A

CN 3, 4, 6 problems
CN 6 most often->strabismus, diplopia
ptosis
accomodation probelms

101
Q

When is direct action used?

A

when exaggeration of strain is not desired:
acute trauma
young newborns

102
Q

What is disengagement?

A

the separation of impacted osseus components

103
Q

What is Opposite physiological motion?

A

when one component is direct

and another component is indirect

104
Q

For the vault hold, where do your 2nd and 3rd fingers go?

A

temporal bone

105
Q

Improvement of which bone motion can improve treatment of sinus congestion?

A

frontal bones

106
Q

In the valut hold, motion of CRI is largely palpated thorugh which bones?

A

parietla bones

107
Q

What type of strain might you see after a blow to the top of the head from nderneath the chin?

A

vertical strain

OMM (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions