OMM Flashcards

1
Q

Cranial flexion/extension: axis + motion of paired bones for each

A

Axis: sagittal.
Motion of paired bones: IR during extension, ER during flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cranial torsion: axis and motion

A

Sagittal axis, opposite motions around it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sidebending rotation cranial: axis and motions

A

Axes: 1 sagittal, 2 vertical
Motion: same around sagittal, opposite around vertical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lateral and vertical strain axes and motion

A

Lateral strain: 2 parallel vertical axes.
Vertical strain: 2 parallel transverse axes.
Motion: same direction around both axes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MC Zink pattern

A

LRLR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Foramen transversarum

A

Holes for vertebral A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What makes C1 and C2 unique?

A

C1: no SP or vertebral body
C2: dens, which articulates with C1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

OA main motion + S/R motion

A

Main: F/E. S/R in opposite directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

AA main motion

A

Rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

C2-7 main motion & S/R motion

A

Main motion: sidebending. S/R in same direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The _____ ligament can narrow, causing weakness and herniation of the nucleus pulposus

A

Posterior longitudinal***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pain in L spine worse with flexion vs extension: two major DDx

A

Worse with flexion: herniated disc
Worse with extension: spinal stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does L spine do to compensate for a short limb?

A

SART

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Psoas symptom signs

A
  1. Extension restricted / pain standing up straight
  2. Pelvic side shift
  3. Positive Thomas test
  4. SD in L1 or L2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why are R1, 2, 10, 11/12 abnormal?

A

R1: no angle
R2: extra tuberosity
R10: Only articulates with 1 vertebra
R11/12: no tubercles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True, false, floating rib #s

A

True: 1-7
False: 8-10
Floating: 11,12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rib motions in three groups 1

A

Pump handle: 1-5
Bucket handle: 6-10
Caliper: 11-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The _____ ligament creates the greater and lesser sciatic foramen

A

Sacrospinous L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The ____ ligament is the first to become painful with lumbosacral decompensation

A

Iliolumbar L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Four motions that occur along different axes of the sacrum

A
  1. Superior sacral axis: respiratory and craniosacral motion
  2. Middle axis: postural motion
  3. Inferior axis: innominate motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Nerve that innervates all arm flexors vs extensors

A

Flexors: median N
Extensors: radial N

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Two syndromes that occur due to median nerve issues

A

CTS, pronator syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Two syndromes that occur with the ulnar N

A

Cubital tunnel syndrome, Guyon’s canal entrapment

24
Q

Major radial nerve injury

A

Saturday night palsy -> wrist drop

25
Q

Spencer technique of the shoulder steps

A
  1. Extension/flexion
  2. Circumduction with compression/traction
  3. Adduction/ER
  4. Abduction/IR
  5. Abduction/IR with arm behind back
    6.traction with inferior glide
26
Q

ACL and PCL attachments

A

ACL: anterior tibia -> posterior femur.
PCL: posterior tibia -> anterior femur

27
Q

Six bones of the medial longitudinal foot arch

A
  1. Talus
  2. Navicular
  3. Cuneiforms
  4. Metatarsals 1-3
28
Q

Which ligament supports the medial longitudinal foot arch?

A

Spring ligament / calcaneonavicular

29
Q

Four bones of the lateral longitudinal foot arch

A
  1. Calcaneus
  2. Cuboid
  3. Metatarsals 4-5
30
Q

Three bones of the transverse foot arch

A
  1. Navicular
  2. Cuneiforms
  3. Cuboid
31
Q

What are the angles of the 1. Elbow, 2. Head of femur, and 3. Knee called?

A
  1. Elbow: cubitus valgus/varus
  2. Head of femur: coxa valgus/varus
  3. Knee: Q angle (genu valgus/varus)
32
Q

Nose/pharynx vs sinus/tongue/tonsils A&P Chapman points

A
  1. Nose: R1, C2
  2. Sinuses: R1/2, C2
33
Q

Thyroid anterior chapman pt

A

R2/3

34
Q

Heart and bronchi A&P Chapman’s

A

R2/3, T2/3

35
Q

Lung A&P Chapman points

A

R3/4/5, T3/4/5

36
Q

Esophagus A&P Chapman’s points

A

R2/3, T2

37
Q

Stomach vs liver & gallbladder A&P Chapman’s points

A

Stomach: R5/6/7 on L; T5/6/7 on L
Liver/gallbladder: R5/6/7 on R; T5/6/7 on R

38
Q

Pancreas vs spleen A&P Chapman’s points

A

Pancreas: R7/8 on R, T7/8 on R
Spleen: R7/8 on L, T7/8 on L

39
Q

Appendix A&P Chapman’s points

A

Tip of R12, T11/12

40
Q

3 Lower GI organs that have pelvic splanchic innervation

A

Descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum

41
Q

Kidney, bladder, urethra posterior chapman points

A
  1. Kidney: L1
  2. Bladder: L2
  3. Urethra: L3
42
Q

Urethra anterior chapman

A

Pubic symphysis

43
Q

Two GU organs that have vagus & two that have pelvic splanchnic innervation

A

Vagus: kidney, upper ureters (also use T10-11)
Pelvic S: lower ureters, bladder (also use T12-L2)

44
Q

Adrenal medulla anterior chapman

A

2’ above umbilicus on either side

45
Q

What sex organ uses vagus while rest use pelvic splanchnic?

A

Gonads use vagus

46
Q

Anterior vs posterior Cervical Counterstrain treatment positions

A

Anterior C: F SARA
Posterior C: E SARA

47
Q

Anterior vs posterior thoracic Counterstrain treatment positions

A
  1. Anterior T: F STRA
  2. Posterior T: E SA
48
Q

Anterior vs posterior rib Counterstrain treatment positions

A
  1. Anterior Rib: F STRT
  2. Posterior rib: F SARA
49
Q

Maverick rib for counterstrain and its position

A

R1, E SART (instead of F SARA)

50
Q

Iliacus and piriformis: counterstrain spots

A
  1. Iliacus: 7cm medial to ASIS
  2. Piriformis: 7cm medial + cephalad to greater trochanter
51
Q

Iliacus Counterstrain treatment positions

A

Pt supine, F hips, ER

52
Q

Piriformis Counterstrain treatment positions

A

Pt prone, F hips/knees, Abd, ER

53
Q

V1, V2, V3 exit through…

A
  1. V1: superior orbital fissure
  2. V2: foramen rotundum
  3. V3: foramen ovale
54
Q

What do CN 7 and 8 exit out of?

A

Internal acoustic meatus

55
Q

What do CN 9, 10, 11 exit out of

A

Jugular foramen

56
Q

Wallenberg special test is for…?

A

Vertebral artery insufficiency