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OMA & Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

Definition

Ceiling

A

The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20,000 ft (6km) covering more half of the sky

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2
Q

Definition

Contaminated RWY

A

More than 25% of the runway surface covered by frost, ice, water greater than 3mm (1/8 inch) in depth, or any type of snow or slush

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3
Q

Definition

CMV

A

Converted meteorological visibility

A value (equivalent to RVR) which derives from the reported meteorological visibility by using particular conversion factors

Jeppesen will publish all RVR values above 2000m as CMV.

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4
Q

Definition

Damp RWY

A

See definition of wet RWY

A damp runway that meets this definition is considered wet, regardless of whether or not the surface appears reflective.

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5
Q

Definition

Flight time

A

The total time from the moment an aircraft first move for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight

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6
Q

Definition

Fueling Zone

A

An area up to 6m radius from the filling and venting points of the aircraft at the wing

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7
Q

Definition

Inexperienced flight crew

A

Less than 100 hours on the controls

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8
Q

Definition

Infant

A

Person hasn’t reach 2nd birthday

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9
Q

Definition

In flight

A

After brakes release for takeoff

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10
Q

Definition

Isolated airport

A

Destination when no alternate suitable for a given aircraft type

Flight to isolated airport not permitted
8.1.6.4

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11
Q

Definition

LVTO

A

Low visibility takeoff

Takeoff on a runway with RVR Less than 400m

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12
Q

Definition

MOCA

A

Minimum obstruction clearance
Lowest published altitude between fixes on VOR airways, off airway routes.
Assures acceptable navigation signal coverage only within 22NM of VOR

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13
Q

Definition

MORA

A

Minimum Off Route Altitude
This is an altitude derived by Jeppesen. The MORA provides known obstruction clearance 10 NM either side of the route centreline including a 10 NM radius beyond the radio fix reporting or mileage break defining the route segment. For terrain and manmade structure clearance refer to Grid MORA in .

Chapter

8.1.1.9

“Minimum and Maximum Flight Altitudes”

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14
Q

Definition

MRA

A

The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined.

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15
Q

Definition

MSA

A

Minimum Sector Altitude
Altitude depicted on an instrument approach chart and identified as the minimum sector altitude which provides a 1,000 ft obstacle clearance within a 25 NM radius from the navigational facility upon which the MSA is predicted. If the radius limit is other than 25 NM, it is stated. This altitude is for emergency use only and does not necessarily guarantee NAVAID reception.

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16
Q

Definition

MVA

A

Minimum Vectoring Altitude
The lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures and missed approaches. The altitude meets IFR obstacle clearance criteria. It may be lower than the published MEA along an airway. It may be utilized for radar vectoring only upon the controller’s determination that an adequate radar return is being received from the aircraft being controlled. Charts depicting minimum vectoring altitudes are normally available only to the controllers, not to pilots.

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17
Q

Definition

Moderate icing

A

The rate of accumulation of ice becomes hazardous and use of deicing/anti-icing equipment is necessary and a change in flight direction or altitude is recommended.

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18
Q

Definition

OCA/H

A

Obstacle Clearance Altitude/ Height
The lowest altitude (OCA), or alternatively the lowest height above the relevant runway threshold or above the airport elevation as applicable (OCH), used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.

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19
Q

Definition

OCL

A

Obstacle Clearance Limit
The height above airport elevation below which the minimum prescribed vertical clearance cannot be maintained either on approach or in the event of a missed approach.

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20
Q

Definition

OFZ

A

Obstacle Free Zone
The airspace above the inner approach surface, inner transitional surfaces, and balked landing surface and that portion of the strip bounded by these surfaces, which is not penetrated by any fixed obstacle other than a low-mass and frangibly mounted one required for air navigation purposes.

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21
Q

Definition

Off blocks

A

The time when all engines are running AND all wheel chocks have been removed, OR - if the aircraft has to be towed / pushed back before engine start - the time when the towing / push back begins.

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22
Q

Definition

On Blocks

A

The time, after “OFF BLOCKS”, when the aircraft has come to a complete stop AND all engines have been shut down, OR when the ground crew announces that wheel chocks are in place (whichever comes first).

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23
Q

Definition

Pre Flight

A

Until brake release for take-off.

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24
Q

Definition

RAIM

A

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
form of Aircraft-Based Augmentation System whereby a GNSS receiver processor determines the integrity of the GNSS navigation signals using only GPS signals.

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25
Q

Definition

Separate Runways

A

Runways at the same airport that are separate landing surfaces. These runways may overlay or cross in such a way that if one of the runways is blocked, it will not prevent the planned type of operations on the other runway.

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26
Q

Definition

Severe Icing

A

The rate of accumulation of ice is such that deicing/anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or control the hazard and an immediate change in flight direction or altitude is necessary.

27
Q

Definition

TODA

A

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
TORA+CWY

28
Q

Definition

TORA

A

Takeoff Run Available
The length of runway which is declared available by the appropriate Authority and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft taking off.

29
Q

Definition

RFFS temp downgrade

A

RFFS category as notified, including by NOTAM, and resulting from the downgrade of the level of RFFS protection available at an airport, for a period of time not exceeding 72 hrs.

30
Q

VMC

A

With regards to determination of stablilized approach, VMC reflects meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, equal to or better than:

  1. Flight visibility 5 km;
  2. Distance from cloud 1,500 m horizontally and 1,000 ft vertically; and
  3. Ceiling is not below 1,500 ft.
31
Q

Wet Runway

A

runway is wet when it is neither dry nor contaminated. For p poses of condition reporting and airplane performance, a runway can be considered wet when more than 25 percent of the runway surface area (within the reported length and the width being used) is covered by any visible dampness or water that is 1/8 inch (3 mm) or less.

A damp runway that meets this definition is considered wet, regardless of whether or not the surface appears reflective.

32
Q

WSI fusion

A

proactive operations management solution that fuses public and proprietary weather information, airspace constraints and flight information data into one clear, unified, streamlined picture to enhance operational decision-making.

33
Q

ADS B/C

A

Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast

Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Contract

34
Q

ASHTAM

A

Special series NOTAM notifying a change in activity of a volcano, a volcanic eruption and/or volcanic ash cloud that is of significance to aircraft operation

35
Q

ASDA

A

Accelerate stop distance available

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway.

36
Q

Approach Ban Point

A

The point on a final approach where the reported weather conditions at the runway shall meet the applicable minima so as to be able to meet regulatory requirements for continuing an instrument approach to a landing.

37
Q

FAF

A

Final approach fix
The fix from which the final approach (IFR) to an airport is executed and which identifies the beginning of the final approach segment. It is designated in the profile view of Jeppesen Terminal charts by the Maltese Cross symbol for non-precision approaches and by the glide slope/path intercept point on precision approaches. The glide slope/path symbol starts at the FAF. When ATC directs a lower-than-published Glide Slope/Path Intercept Altitude, it is the resultant actual point of the glide slope/path intercept.

38
Q

Fail Passive

A

An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant deviation of aircraft trim, flight path or attitude but the landing will not be completed automatically.

39
Q

Final Approach

A

part of an instrument approach procedure which commences at the specified final approach fix or point, or where such a fix or point is not specified,

  1. At the end of the last procedure turn, base turn or inbound turn of a racetrack procedure, if specified; or
  2. At the point of interception of the last track specified in the approach procedure.

GENERAL/BASIC

OM A

© JEPPESEN, 2017. ALL RIGHTS RESERVED. CHAPTER INTR INTRODUCTION General Introduction

INTR-7

Revision: 7 1 MAY 17

And ends at a point in the vicinity of an airport from which:

  1. A landing can be made; or
  2. A missed approach procedure is initiated.
40
Q

Force majore

A

event that is a result of the elements of nature or other such external force beyond the Company’s control.

41
Q

GLS

A

An approach operation using augmented GNSS information to provide guidance to the aircraft based on its lateral and vertical GNSS position. It uses geometric altitude reference for its final approach type.

42
Q

GBAS

A

Ground based augmentation system

An augmentation system in which the user receives augmentation information directly from a ground-based transmitter.

43
Q

IRP

A

Inflight re planning point
geographical position from which an aircraft can proceed towards the destination airport or towards an alternate airport if when reaching that point there is insufficient fuel on board to continue towards the destination airport with the minimum required fuel.

44
Q

NPA

A 
Non precision Approach
Non-precision approach (NPA) procedure An instrument approach procedure which utilizes lateral guidance but does not utilize vertical guidance. NPAs include
Circling
LDA without glideslope
LOC
NDB
RNP - LNAV minima only
VOR
45
Q

APV

A

Approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV) An instrument approach procedure which utilizes lateral and vertical guidance but does not meet the requirements established for precision approach and landing operations. APVs include LDA with glideslope, RNP - LNAV/VNAV minima.

46
Q

Precision Approach

A

Precision approach (PA) procedure An instrument approach procedure using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation. PAs consist of CAT I/II/III ILS approaches.

NOTE:

Lateral and vertical guidance refers to the guidance provided either by:

  1. A ground-based navigation aid; or
  2. Computer-generated navigation data.
47
Q

Virga

A

rain that evaporates before reaching the ground

48
Q

SMA

A

An altitude that provides minimum obstacle clearance in each segment of a non-precision approach. Segment minimum (safe) altitudes can be considered “do not descend below” altitudes and can be lower than procedure altitudes which are specifically developed to facilitate a constant rate or stabilized descent.

49
Q

Distress call OMA

A
  • The requirement to consider an immediate landing;
  • An emergency descent without prior ATC clearance;
  • Any deviation from cleared route and/or flight level;
  • Any uncontrollable smoke or fire situation;
  • Difficulties controlling the aircraft (e.g. flight control or hydraulic malfunctions);
  • Any situation that could lead to a passenger evacuation.

8.3.20.1.17.1

50
Q

Circling & Visual limitations

A

Circling approaches are to be carried out by the PIC.

The EL AL Circling minima are:

  • MDH: 1000ft
  • Visibility: 5 km.

USA Only – Circling approaches are not allowed.

Visual Traffic Pattern

  • Ceiling: 1500ft
  • Visibility: 3 statute miles/5 km.

visual traffic pattern shall be to the left unless otherwise published
at night is to maintain the MSA until within the defined area of the pattern

8.1.5.8.5.5

51
Q

Required fuel for flight

A

After closing aircraft doors:

  1. Taxi Fuel- include APU and local conditions
  2. Trip fuel & trip delays
  3. Contingency Fuel
  4. Alternate Fuel
  5. Final reserve Fuel
  6. Additional critical
  7. Additional RCF
  8. Extra

8.1.6.2 fueling procedures

52
Q

Minimum takeoff fuel

Minimum landing fuel for planning 737

A

4200 kg
For pre-flight planning, the planned landing fuel, i.e. the fuel at the destination as it appears at the end of the OFP (alternate fuel + contingency fuel + final reserve fuel) should be no less than 2,000 kg.i

8.1.6.2

53
Q

Trip fuel includes

A

Flight from takeoff (or IRP) to dest
MEL/ CDL
Delays
Approach allowance

54
Q

Contingency fuel is

A

Higher of:
1. 5 minutes 1500 ft
2. Lower of:
• 3% trip fuel (with circle RADIUS 20% total FP distance and 25% distance from destination (or 20% + 50nm whichever is higher). Still Air.
• 5% trip fuel. FP consumption rate.
• 20 min flight time consumption ratel

8.1.6.2

55
Q

Alternate Fuel

A

• Expected routing from GA to landing
• Where 2 destination alternates- fuel shall be sufficient to cover the alternate requiring the greater amount of fuel.
* Where no destination alternate is required- holding for 15 minutes at 1,500 ft above destination airport elevation Standard Condition

8.1.6.2

56
Q

Final reserve fuel is

A

Fuel to hold for 30 minutes at 1,500 ft above airport elevation in Standard Conditions calculated with the estimated landing mass on arrival at the destination alternate or the destination airport, when no destination alternate airport is required;

8.1.6.2

57
Q

New OFP & Release

A

delay of more than 3 hrs;

  • Aircraft (tail number);
  • Type of dispatch – (between RCF, Normal or EDTO);
  • EDTO diversion time and/or EDTO en-route alternate airport(s);
  • Significant change in the flight plan route;
  • Change in TOW of more than 3,000 kg for 777/787 and 747 and 2,000 kg for 737 and 767 aircraft;
  • Change to High/Low airspeed dispatch;
  • Change of Destination;
  • In any other case if, in the opinion of the PIC or the FOO, a substantial change in the Flight Data has occurred.

A new Flight Release shall be prepared, or the Flight Release shall be amended, in all of the above cases and:

  • For a change in the Destination Alternate;
  • If the flight has been changed to Destination Alternate Not Required.

*** if will cause delay- able to receive by acars, voice, etc…

58
Q

Flight deck visit & sitting

A 
Not allowed in UK
Non Israeli- need approval
Child's under 6 need adult above 12
Safety belt & oxygen required
8.3.14.1
59
Q

Definition

UAD

A

Upper air data

מפת רוחות

60
Q

Funnel cloud

A

A funnel cloud is a funnel-shaped cloud of condensed water droplets, associated with a rotating column of wind and extending from the base of a cloud (usually a cumulonimbus or towering cumulus cloud) but not reaching the ground or a water surface.

61
Q

Definition

Squall

A

A squall is a sudden, sharp increase in wind speed that is usually associated with active weather, such as rain showers, thunderstorms, or heavy snow. Squalls refer to an increase in the sustained winds over a short time interval, as there may be higher gusts during a squall event.

62
Q

Mountain obscuration

A

Mountain Obscuration (MTOS) is used to describe a visibility condition that is distinguished from IFR because ceilings, by definition, are described as “above ground level” (AGL).

63
Q

Definition

DNAAPS

A

Does not affect air worthiness and passenger safety

MEL NEF procedures

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