OM-A, FCTM, CAR-OPS, QRH, MEL, OM-E Flashcards
Which of the following de-icing and anti-icing fluids is used for De-icing purpose only?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Type I
Fuel uplift measured by the supplier, shall be within which of the following tolerance?
Actual uplift greater than calculated uplift; 5% of calculated uplift up to a MAX of 2000kg
Actual uplift less than calculated uplift; 5% of calculated uplift up to a MAX of 2000kg
Actual uplift greater than calculated uplift; 5% of calculated uplift up to a MAX of 1000kg
Actual uplift greater than calculated uplift; 5% of calculated uplift up to a MAX of 2000kg
Fuel Uplift: Calculated uplift 25,100 kg, actual uplift 30,000 liters, fuel density 0.800 kg/liter. Are there any actions required?
No, the fuel uplift check criteria are fulfilled
Yes, the applicable tolerance of 5% has been exceeded
Yes. The applicable tolerance of 1,000 kg has been exceeded
Answer B and C are correct
Yes. The applicable tolerance of 1,000 kg has been exceeded
What is the earliest recognizable stall warning signs?
Initial buffet, stick shaker and stall warning horn
Auto throttle ‘wake up5 function
Initial buffet or stick shaker
Pitch envelope protection
Initial buffet or stick shaker
After which occurrence must a landing be made at the Nearest Suitable Airport?
Loss of both engine driven generators
Any bomb threat (green or red)
A fire on board an aircraft and firefighting is effective
An engine failure on a two engine aircraft
An engine failure on a two engine aircraft
Which Question is not true regarding the definition of Company VMC?
The requirements may be found in the Lido Gen Text
Emirates is authorized to operate in VMC conditions
Visual contact with the ground is required at all times
Visual contact with the ground is required at all times
Which statement regarding the requirements of how to complete/fill-in the OFP is incorrect?
Top of Descent/climb fuel must be entered
Fuel checks should be carried out and entered on the flight log section of the OFP at intervals normally not exceeding 30 minutes.
Fuel checks should be carried out and entered on the flight log section of the OFP at intervals normally not exceeding 60 minutes.
Fuel checks should be carried out and entered on the flight log section of the OFP at intervals normally not exceeding 60 minutes
Cold Temperature altitude corrections have to be applied for which minimum safe altitudes/heights, in ISA -45 condition or colder?
En-route minimum safe/minimum obstacle clearance altitudes
Approach minima (DA/MDA and engine out minimum acceleration altitude
All approach procedures altitudes (procedure turn, final fix, intermediate fix and missed approach altitude?
All of the above
All of the above
If equipment fails or is degraded below the required RNP prior to departure and repair is not practical, what are the options?
Dubai Flight Dispatch should be contacted
Flight Dispatch will arrange the required approvals to proceed to the nearest suitable airport where repairs can be made
Item 18 of the ATC flight plan should contain the information ‘STS/RNAV/INOP’
All of the above
Dubai Flight Dispatch should be contacted
On a SID, at which altitude may a turn earliest be initiated (no specific SID requirements)?
300 ft AGL
400 ft AGL
500 ft AGL
800 ft AGL
400 ft AGL
Is it permissible to continue towards destination (committed to destination), if expecting to land with less than ‘ALT + FRSV fuel’ and the maximum delay is not known?
NO
Yes, at pilots discretion
Yes, but only if there are 2 separate and independent RWYS at the destination available, or 2 airports are reachable and landing is assured with at least final reserve fuel on board.
Yes, but only if there are 2 separate and independent RWYS at the destination available, or 2 airports are reachable and landing is assured with at least final reserve fuel on board.
For instrument approaches with DA below 200 feet, what is the minimum Missed Approach Climb Gradient required with the critical engine failed?
At least 2.1% or the published gradient, whichever is the greater
At least 2.5%, or the published gradient, whichever is greater
At least 3.2% or the published gradient, whichever is the greater
At least the published gradient
At least 2.5%, or the published gradient, whichever is greater
Which statement is true about Hoar Frost?
Hoar frost is thin if items on the surface below the layer of frost, such as paint lines, marks or letters can be seen
Only hoar frost of more than 3mm of thickness is operationally significant
Hoar frost is and icy layer of constant thickness with a smooth crystalline texture Answer A and C from above
Answer A and C from above
On a particular flight, an airplane is fitted with 434 PAX seats, 400 POB are actually on board, 18 Cabin Crew seats are installed and 10 Emergency exits are available. What is the minimum legal number of cabin crew members required?
8
9
10
11
10
The aircraft Tech Log system allows the Commander to satisfy himself that the aircraft is airworthy in accordance with which document(s)
OM-A
FCOM
MEL and CDL
Answer A and C from above
Answer A and C from above
What do you expect the cabin crew should do after hearing a “Purser to the Flight Deck” announcement?
The cabin crew should clear the cabin of all trolleys, return to their respective allocated stations, review their OM-E and await a briefing call from either the Purser or the Captain
The cabin crew should secure their trolleys, get seated at the nearest available seat, prepare mentally for possible emergency and await a briefing call from either the Purser or Captain
The cabin crew should clear the cabin of all trolleys, return to their respective allocated stations, check their emergency equipment and await a briefing call from either the Purser or the Captain
The cabin crew should clear the cabin of all trolleys, return to their respective allocated stations, review their OM-E and await a briefing call from either the Purser or the Captain
What is the ‘Target Time’ for flight crew respective cabin crew to be on board of the aircraft before scheduled departure time?
60 mins for Cabin crew respective 40mins for Flight Crew
55 mins for Cabin Crew respective 35mins for Flight Crew
Just early enough to ensure proper aircraft preparation
55 mins for Cabin Crew respective 35mins for Flight Crew
When is a Pre-Takeoff Contamination Inspection (PCI) mandatory?
When the Max holdover time has elapsed and a takeoff is contemplated
Condition of heavy snow and a takeoff is contemplated
When severe icing is reported and a takeoff is contemplated
All of the above
All of the above
When is a Pre-Takeoff Contamination Inspection (PCI) mandatory?
When the Max holdover time has elapsed and a takeoff is contemplated
Condition of heavy snow and a takeoff is contemplated
When severe icing is reported and a takeoff is contemplated
All of the above
All of the above
When is a Pre-Takeoff Contamination Inspection (PCI) mandatory?
When the Max holdover time has elapsed and a takeoff is contemplated
Condition of heavy snow and a takeoff is contemplated
When severe icing is reported and a takeoff is contemplated
All of the above
All of the above
If a person onboard an aircraft is having a non-lnfectious Disease, how is the Commander expected to report the circumstances upon arrival at an airport?
Through ACARS to SMNC
Verbally to EK ground staff
By filing an ACARS
By filling the appropriate part of the GEN DEC
By filling the appropriate part of the GEN DEC
Why is the Engine Failure Only case in an ETOPS scenario never fuel critical?
The one engine specific fuel consumption is less than the two engine
The one engine diversion speed is more fuel efficient than the two engine diversion speed
The pressurization failure case is calculated at a lower altitude than the engine failure only case and therefore more fuel efficient
The pressurization failure case is calculated at a lower altitude than the engine failure only case and therefore more fuel efficient
What is not included in RSV FUEL?
Extra fuel
Contingency Fuel
ALT Fuel
Additional fuel
Extra fuel
Additional fuel
A Category I operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using:
ILS and RVR not less than 800m
ILS or PAR and RVR not less than 550m
ILS or GPS and VIS not less than 800m
ILS or PAR or GPS and RVR not less than 550m
ILS or PAR and RVR not less than 550m
What should the Commander initiate when a Passenger Sickness only becomes known at check-in or boarding?
Call MEDLINK for a ‘gate clearance’
Get the passenger reviewed by the Airport Medical Centre for fitness to fly
Contact Emirates Medical Services duty doctor via Network Control Centre in Dubai
Any of above answers
Any of above answers
What flight documents are NOT required to be retained on GRD at DEP AD until A/C returns to DXB
OFP
Load sheet
SIG WX
Route specific Docs edited by EK
SIG WX
What is the min legal number of cabin crew based on?
Number of Seats
Number of Emergency Exits
Defined by service department
Number of Emergency Exits
Requirements for an orbit
Orbits below the higher of circuit altitude or 1,500 ft AGL are not permitted.
Descent below 1,500 ft AGL is prohibited until the orbit is complete.
The autopilot must be engaged throughout the orbit.
All of them.
All of them.
Requirements for a VIS Approach
If requested by ATC to ensure separation. ATC may also require the sighting and/or following of an aircraft on approach to the same or an adjacent runway.
If the crew determines it is more efficient to continue with the visual approach rather than complete the full instrument approach procedure.
Visual Circuit Approaches shall only be used for Base Training Flights and expeditious returns following take-off.
All of them.
All of them.
Visibility Requirements for CAT C/D when departing from a RWY with REL and CLL
250/300 m
200/250 m
150/200 m
200m or 150m all RVR’s both cat C/D acft
200m or 150m all RVR’s both cat C/D acft
What’s the minimum visibility for a Circling Approach?
8000 m
Chart minima
5000 m
B or C, whichever is higher
B or C, whichever is higher
What do you do first when you get a red bomb threat?
Call “purser to the flight deck”
Call DSVP-GS on satcom
(something)
refer to the FCOM/QRH
Call “purser to the flight deck”
refer to the FCOM/QRH
When there’s a shortening of landing distance, what should you check?
compare result from EFB with lido airport chart
(something)
check distance from performance software with distance in NOTAM/AIP
check distance from performance software with distance in NOTAM/AIP
Requirements for defueling with PAX on board
At least two passenger cabin doors on the main deck shall be designated, and be made available for a possible evacuation
At least one flight crew member, the cabin crew and a ground engineer are at their stations.
The flight crew shall establish communication with the Ground Engineer by a means that remains available during fuelling operations.
All of them
All of them
Time of useful consciousness at FL400
4 sec
12 sec
18 sec
35 sec
18 sec
Min altitude for crew change
5000 ft
10000 ft
20000 ft
With seatbelts light off
10000 ft
What is true about FDP?
The FDP starts 1:30 before the report for duty and finish 30 min after the last landing of the duty period.
The FDP starts 1:15 before the report for duty and finish after the last landing of the duty period.
The FDP starts 1:00 before the report for duty and finish after the last landing of the duty period.
The FDP starts from the moment an aeroplane first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight
This question is wrong.
A is not correct according to OMA 7.5 definitions and 7.6.1 because the 30 min is not part of the FDP.
A, B and C talks about “before the report for duty” and is then when the FDP starts, not before. Maybe it want to say before STD.
In addition, before the STD the FDP could start 1:00, 1:15 or 1:25 depending if it’s base, outstation or LRV duty.
D is the definition of Flight Time
Which of the Required Visual References for CAT I approaches is NOT approved for continue with the approach when reaching to the minimums?
Elements of the approach light system.
The runway threshold, threshold markings, threshold lights or touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.
Runway center lights
Runway edge lights.
Runway center lights
