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Alex > OM-A chapter 8 > Flashcards

OM-A chapter 8 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the general points about minimum flight altitudes?

A

Do not fly below MFAs unless when necessary for takeoff and landing.
Increase MFAs when necessary.
It’s the flightcrews responsibility to ensure ATC clearances are safe in respect of terrain.

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2
Q

What is your obstacle clearance at MSA or TAA?

A

1000ft down to intermediate approach.

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3
Q

What is your obstacle clearance at route MORA?

A

1000ft up to 5000ft altitude
2000ft above 5000ft altitude
within 20NM of route segment centerline.

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4
Q

What is your obstacle clearance at MGA?

What’s the lowest possible MGA?

A

1000ft up to 6000ft altitude
2000ft above 6000ft altitude
lowest possible MGA is 2000ft.

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5
Q

When must the low temperature correction be applied?

A

When OAT lower than -10°.

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6
Q

Which altitudes must be low temperature corrected ?

A

DA/ MDA and minimum altitudes passing the FAF

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7
Q

Are there corrections other than for low temperature?

A

Yes. “pressure correction” and “correction for wind in mountain regions” - both found in the OM-A.

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8
Q

What are the minimum applicable altitudes for takeoff and climb?

A
  • Minimum altitudes on departure charts
  • Climb procedure from EFB, up to MSA
  • MSA
  • When under positive radar control: MRC
  • Route MORA
  • No turn below 400ft (except when published so)
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9
Q

What are the minimum applicable altitudes for the enroute portion?

A
  • OFP route MORA
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10
Q

In the Easyjet network, is terrain clearance generally ensured for engine failure or decompression?

A

Yes.

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11
Q

What are the minimum applicable altitudes for descend and arrival?

A
  • Route MORA
  • MSA
  • MRC (under positive radar control)
  • Arrival and approach charts
  • on visual approach: visual reference
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12
Q

What is the minimum applicable altitude for off route flying?

A

MGA

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13
Q

When being vectored by ATC, will obstacle clearance and temperature correction be ensured?

A

Yes. Both SHOULD be ensured.

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14
Q

What are your considerations when being vectored below MSA?

A
  • check MRC
  • closely monitor position
  • if you suspect loss com, climb above MSA!
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15
Q

ATC clears you to an altitude which is not temperature corrected, although that would be required. What do you do? What will ATC expect if accept the clearance?

A

You must request a higher altitude or level.

If you accept the clearance, ATC will assume that you will follow it.

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16
Q

Can you fly below the minimum altitudes on a STAR?

A

No. Unless explicitly cancelled. And if it’s based on terrain you MUST not fly lower than MFA.

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17
Q

You are uncertain about your position. What should you always do to establish obstacle clearance?

A

Climb above MFA.

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18
Q

What factors will determine aerodrome usability?

A
  • runway length and characteristics
  • pavement strength
  • suitable instrument approaches, ATC, lighting, comms, met reporting, nav aids
  • RFFS
  • when necessary:
  • landing / overflight permissions
  • documentation avail to crew
  • ground handling avail on arrival
  • police / customs avail on arrival
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19
Q

What’s the required RFFS cat for A319/320 and A321?

A

A319/320: 6

A321: 7

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20
Q

For departure / destinations with low traffic volume, what’s the allowed RFFS? Where will you find a note?

A

5 - noted on OFP.

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21
Q

What’s the allowed temporary downgrade for departure / destination RFFS? What is the time limit for this downgrade?

A

A319/320: 4
A321: 5

72 hours.

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22
Q

What’s the required RFFS cat for T/O alternates, destination alternates and enroute alternates?

A

non-UK: 4

UK: 5

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23
Q

An RFFS downgrade below required minimum has been submitted to you in flight. Can you continue?

A

Yes, if it is safer not to divert, you may land regardless of RFFS.

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24
Q

Are we approved to operate to isolated aerodromes?

A

No.

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25
Q

What’s the classification of passengers (age)?

A
  • 12 years and above: adult
  • 2 - 12 years: child
  • less than 2 years: infant
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26
Q

Where must W&B documents be available on departure?

A
  • on in the airplane

- one on the ground, stored for 3 months

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27
Q

Who assures load calculation is performed and in limits?

A

The commander.

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28
Q

What must the loadmaster / dispatcher confirm, when it comes to loading?

A
  • load is properly stowed and secured.

- the distribution on the documents is correct.

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29
Q

What weight must be used when balast or freight is loaded?

A

actual weight.

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30
Q

What must the commander confirm, when it comes to the load and trim sheet?

A
  • Sufficient fuel and oil is carried and distributed correctly.
  • it must be checked and signed by him
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31
Q

Can the commander modify the loading?

A

Yes, he has full authority to modify loading

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32
Q

Do the CG limits include tolerances?

A

Yes

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33
Q

What is more precise? FQI or dipstick? When should the latter be used?

A

FQI is more precise. The dipstick should only be used when required by MEL.

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34
Q

What are the crew masses?

A
  • flight deck: 85kg
  • cabin: 75kg

both including bags (correct if more is carried)

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35
Q

Will standard or actual masses be used for pax bags?

A
  • cabin bags: standard

- checked bags: actual (or standard)

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36
Q

What are the std passenger masses? Do they include hand baggage?

A
  • male: 93
  • female: 75
  • child: 35

Yes.

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37
Q

What are standard masses for checked bags?

A
  • domestic: 11
  • EU (according to map): 13
  • intercont: 15
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38
Q

How can you take dogs, cellos etc. into account when calculating load and trim?

A

Either use actual or estimated weights.

For a dog roughly: 35kg, for a Cello roughly: 10kg

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39
Q

What is the specific gravity of fuel and oil for M&B purpose?

A

JET-A1: 0.8

OIL: 0.88

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40
Q

Can passengers be reseated when required?

A

Yes.

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41
Q

In what cases does the OFP require an amendment?

A

Reasons such as:

  • ATC
  • MEL
  • CDL
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42
Q

Can you fly with a “yellow” OFP?

A

No. Call OCC.

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43
Q

You have received the OFP only by ACARS. What are your considerations in regards to other flight documentation?

A

weather information and NOTAMS must be available as well.

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44
Q

Are there flight that don’t require an OFP?

A

Yes. e.g. non revenue flights.

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45
Q

You have made an error when entering something in the techlog. How do you correct it?

A
  • cross incorrect entry
  • sign, add printed name and date
  • enter revised text
  • enter reason “entered in error”
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46
Q

Can the daily inspection be certified before midnight? How long will it be valid?

A

Yes.
After the last flight of the day.
If that is done after 1800 UTC, it will be valid for the next and the day after until 2359.

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47
Q

When must a new techlog page be started?

A

Whenever the airplane is not handed over by the previous crew.
When there is a tech defect.

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48
Q

What data has to be entered in the techlog by the commander prior departure?

A
  • fuel figures
  • oil state
  • de/ anti icing
  • pre-flight check and time
  • if a new techlog is required:
    “next / previous TL#”
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49
Q

De/ Anti icing has to be performed a second time. How do you enter this in the techlog?

A

Transfer the data of the current strip to the next one and record the new data.

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50
Q

What does the commander confirm by signing the techlog?

A
  • he has accepted the aircraft and its’ technical condition
  • there is a suitable quantity of fuel and oil loaded
  • the flight planning was adequate
  • required route area competence is achieved
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51
Q

What data has to be entered in the techlog by the commander upon arrival?

A
  • header, times
  • arrival fuel
  • defects / ASRs
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52
Q

What can you do if there is insufficient space to enter a defect on the techlog page?

A
  • tick “continued next page”
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53
Q

A technical defect has occured during the flight. What are the required actions?

A
  • perform a techlog entry (describe the nature of the defect comprehensively)
  • include additional data if required
  • call MOC
  • check MEL / CDL
  • raise an ASR if required
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54
Q

Name some examples of defects that need to be entered in the techlog.

A
  • system malfunctions
  • fire / smoke / damage
  • birdstrikes
  • lightning strikes
  • hard landings
  • limits exceeded
  • use of emergency equipment
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55
Q

A defect has been entered in the techlog. What are the further actions?

A
  • it must be either rectified or deferred

- a new techlog page must be started

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56
Q

Can the commander defer an open techlog entry?

A

Yes, if no maintenance is avail

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57
Q

What do you know about level 1 defects?

A
  • included in the MEL / CDL
  • require ops limitations or inflight certifications
  • must be entered in the A/C status report
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58
Q

Can the commander defer level 1 defects to the ADD Level 1 sheet?

A

Yes. Instructions are in the OM-A.

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59
Q

Does a level 2 defect affect airworthiness?

A

No.

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60
Q

What is the content of a BNTC? Is it required for dispatch?

A

A BNTC informs the crew about the modification status of an aircraft. It is not mandatory for dispatch.

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61
Q

What do you know about “Flight Crew Authorization”?

A
  • the commander may perform certain actions
  • see OM-A and MEL preamble
  • it is allowed only for one sector
  • the techlog must state “FCA”
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62
Q

What do you know about the damage register?

A
  • it includes a dent / buckle chart

- damages that require repeated inspections or permanent repairs must be entered as ADD, except for window delamination

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63
Q

A defect in the cabin has occured. What are the cabin managers actions?

A
  • enter the header
  • enter defect item
  • present to commander
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64
Q

A defect in the cabin has occured. What are the captains actions?

A
  • review if it affects airworthiness and if so: transfer to techlog
  • sign in the appropriate field
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65
Q

A defect in the cabin has occured. What are the engineers actions?

A
  • on every night stop:
  • review
  • rectify or if that is not possible: transfer to level 2
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66
Q

A defect in the cabin has occured. Which items affect airworthiness?

A
  • seats
  • life jackets
  • emergency exits
  • lighting
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67
Q

Can you dispatch with previous techlog data missing?

A

Yes, it may be granted by NDM. Call OCC.

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68
Q

What do you know about the “for info” field in the techlog?

A
  • used for failure diagnosis, not requiring engineer action

- entered items are not considered an open defects

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69
Q

A smell event has occured on board. What are your actions?

A
  • report to MOC ASAP. (ACARS)
  • file SIAR report (more button)
  • tech log entry
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70
Q

What are the certificates that need to be carried on board (original, austrian AOC)?

A
  • certification of airworthiness
  • airworthiness review certificate
  • certificate of registration
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71
Q

What are the documents that need to be carried on board (EFB version)?

A
  • air operator certificate
  • noise certificate
  • third party insurance certificate
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72
Q

During boarding, seatbelt signs are off. What is the cabin’s mindset?

A
  • refueling is in progress

- they are ready for precautionary rapid disembarkation”

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73
Q

What are the precautions during fueling with passengers on board?

A
  • seatbelt signs off, no smoking signs on
  • required interior lights servicable
  • cabin crew will brief the passengers: no smoking, sealtbelts off
  • all doors disarmed
  • 1L opened with bridge / stairs
  • rear door open with stairs or slide serviceable
  • slide deployment area clear
  • one FA at each set of main exits
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74
Q

May refueling with passengers on board be performed with reduced cabin crew?

A

No

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75
Q

During refueling with passengers on board an emergency arrises. What are the cabin crew actions?

A
  • they arm the cabin doors, where there are no steps / bridges.
  • they check for external hazards
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76
Q

What must the flight crew confirm before placing the fuel card in the window for refueling? What must be done after fueling is finished?

A
  • two way communication with the fueler is established
  • a clear evacuation route is avail
  • Fuel card must be removed from the window when fueling is completed.
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77
Q

What must the flight crew consider when refueling with passengers on board?

A
  • ensure fueler acknowledges the fuel card
  • one pilot must occupy the right hand seat in the flight deck during refueling (visual contact)
  • the “refueling in progress” sign must be placed on the pedestal
  • if visual contact or two way comms are not possible, fueling must be temporarily stopped or a different way of comms be established (eg dispatcher outside)
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78
Q

May refueling with passengers on board be continued during / after a crew change?

A

Yes, if acknowledged by the new flight crew.

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79
Q

During fueling, you smell vapours of fuel in the aircraft. What are your actions?

A

Stop fueling immediately.

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80
Q

Is defueling with passengers on board allowed?

A

No.

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81
Q

Can you refuel when passengers are disembarking?

A

Yes. Establish “refueling with pax on board” procedure.

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82
Q

You are inflight. On the ground you’ll have to swap aircraft for the next sector. How can you pass the fuel figures?

A

You can pass them via ACARS to OCC and next station. VHF can be used as well.

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83
Q

What are SCPs? Name some.

A

Special category passengers.

  • PRM (including intellectual disability)
  • infants, unaccompanied children
  • deportees, prisoners in custody
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84
Q

What are your considerations when it comes to SCPs?

A 
SCPs shall not occupy seats that permit direct access to emergency exits.
Or where there presence could
- impede crew duties
- obstruct emergency equipment
- impede emergency evacuation

Commander should be aware of their presence.
They should be carried under the condition that ensures safety of the aircraft and all on board.

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85
Q

Are there any seating restrictions for ABPs?

A

No.

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86
Q

Name categories of passengers likely to impede evacuation.

A
  • pax physically or mentally impaired (failing to move quickly)
  • sight / hearing impaired
  • children / infants
  • pax in custody / deportees
  • pax whose physical size will prevent them to move quickly
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87
Q

Apart from ABPs and „passengers likely to impede evacuation“, what third group is there?

A

Pax unlikely to impede evacuation.

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88
Q

Is multiple occupancy of a seat allowed?

A

Only for adults (age 16+) with an infant.

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89
Q

What are your considerations when it comes to PRMs?

A

Commander should always be informed about PRMs carried.
If it‘s a significant number:
- the same number of ABPs must be carried.
- emergency scenarios should be briefed

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90
Q

What are your considerations when it comes to stowaways?

A

On discovery:

  • inform the company
  • raise an ASR
  • inform the airport authority, request assistance
  • Easyjet might be responsible for transport back.
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91
Q

What do you know about passengers with medical conditions?

A
  • conditions for acceptance on board are listed on the Easyjet website
  • some conditions require a medical certificate
  • more information is found in the CSPM
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92
Q

Does Easyjet carry passengers on stretchers?

A

No.

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93
Q

What is the minimum age for an infant to be accepted for carriage?

A

Two weeks.

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94
Q

How many infants are allowed per adult and how may they be carried?

A

Maximum two infants. One on the lap, the other one in a restraint device on a second seat.

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95
Q

May a child be carried on the lap of an adult?

A

No.

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96
Q

When carrying an infant on the lap, what is the recommendation? forward or aft facing?

A

Forward facing.

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97
Q

Where will you find information about restraint devices allowed on board?

A

In the OM-A and the CSPM.

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98
Q

May a passenger be asked to look after an infant or a child? May he/she carry the infant on the lap?

A

No.

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99
Q

When groups of children are travelling, how many adults are required for supervision? What is the minimum age of the adult?

A

One adult per 10 children. Minimum 16 years.

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100
Q

Up to which week may a pregnant woman travel on board an Ezy aircraft?
Is a medical certificate required?

A

35th week or 32nd week if she is expecting more than one child.
A certificate is not required.

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101
Q

Are unaccompanied minors accepted?

A

Usually not. Only in exceptional circumstances, as a service recovery on a return flight.

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102
Q

Do we transport deceased passengers? What are the conditions?

A

Only ashes allowed.

  • in a properly packed container
  • in the cabin luggage
  • including a copy of death certificate
  • including a cremation certificate
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103
Q

What do you know about drunkenness on board?

A
  • no drunk persons may enter the aircraft
  • no alcohol allowed on board, except when served by the cabin crew
  • if a person is intoxicated, cabin crew will deny alcohol
  • if a passenger is refused due to alcohol or drugs, an ASR must be raised and his / her details recorded.
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104
Q

May hold luggage be transferred to the cabin?

A

No, unless it is screened as cabin baggage.

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105
Q

What do you know about carriage of spare parts?

A
  • no more than 60kgs (unless otherwise instructed by OCC)
  • no DGR
  • not to / from Switzerland
  • requires a NOTOC on departure
  • must be picked up by an engineer on arrival
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106
Q

When we carry FDM data, what does the package look like?

A

It‘s a blue bag with a zip seal.

107
Q

Do we carry cargo?

A

No. Only spare parts.

108
Q

What do you know about carriage of musical instruments?

A

They must fit in the overhead locker.
A small additional piece may be allowed.
If it‘s a larger instrument, an additional seat must be purchased.
It must not be higher than 30cms above the head rest.

109
Q

What can you do if you are in doubt of clearance when manoeuvring on the ground?

A

Ask for a marshaller or wingwalkers.

110
Q

When no headset is available, how will you communicate with the ground crew?

A

Using ICAO signs.

111
Q

What do you know about refusal of embarkation?

A

It‘s the commanders authority to refuse passengers, due to:

  • alcohol
  • drugs
  • illness
  • PRM

When ever required, get help by local police or ask for advice (CDO)

112
Q

What is our concept when it comes to ice on the airframe?

A

Clear aircraft concept.

113
Q

What are active frost conditions?

A

OAT at or below 0°C and aircraft surface below dewpoint.

114
Q

What do you know about clear ice?

A
  • glossy, clear, translutient
  • from slow freezing or supercooled water
  • from cumuliform clouds (at or just below freezing point)
  • tends to flow back on the aircraft
  • adheres firmly
  • may be hidden on the wing below other layers of contamination
  • may melt and refreeze (warm or cold wing temperature)
  • may build up due to cold soak effect (up to +15°C)
115
Q

What‘s the diameter of freezing drizzle?

A

0,5mm

116
Q

What‘s the visibility usually like during freezing fog?

A

Usually less than 1km.

117
Q

When is hoar frost likely to be encountered?

A
  • a/c skin temperature below freezing point
  • air temperature close to dewpoint
  • cloudless sky, calm winds
    or
  • warm front, bringing warm, moist air
118
Q

Describe hail.

A

Small balls / pieces of ice. 5-50mm in diameter.

119
Q

What are ice pallets?

A
  • transparent / translutient
  • grains of ice / small hail
  • 5mm or less in diameter
  • bounce when hitting the ground
120
Q

Describe snow grains. How do you take them into account for HOT calculation?

A
  • ice particles less than 1mm diameter
  • do not bounce when hitting the ground
  • for HOT they are considered to be „snow“
121
Q

Describe snow pallets.

A
  • white, Opale ice
  • round or conical
  • 2-5mm in diameter
  • brittle and easily crushed
  • either bounce or break when hitting the ground
122
Q

What is the usually Type for one-step deicing ?

A

Type 1.

123
Q

If two-step deicing is required, what are the types usually applied?

A

usually type 1, then type 2 or 4.

124
Q

Where will you find a description of de / anti icing fluids?

A

In the OM-A and the winter ops manual.

125
Q

What additional considerations and precautions should be taken for de / anti icing?

A
  • refreezing may occur
  • fluid on the windshield should be avoided
  • engine fan should be turned by hand to check if it is free to move
  • high winds may reduce HOT
  • wing skin temperature may be more appropriate than OAT for HOT calculation.
126
Q

What does the anti icing code consist of? What is confirmed by receiving it? Where will it be entered?

A
  • type, concentration, time at start
  • receiving it confirms that the treated surfaces are clean
  • must be entered in the tech log
127
Q

Are VFR flights allowed?

A

No. Only in exceptional cases by DP.

128
Q

Are flights outside of controlled airspace allowed?

A

Yes. But they should be kept at a minimum.

129
Q

What should you be aware of when operating in advisory airspace?

A

be aware of restrictions in ATC and radar service

130
Q

What is special about airspace E? What are your considerations?

A
  • IFR will be separated from IFR. However VFR traffic is allowed, without radio ATC clearance and transponder. (!)
  • TCAS advisories will only be given if the other a/c is equipped with an active mode C transponder
  • so do not rely on your TCAS
  • recommended max speed is 250kn
  • use landing lights
131
Q

On a departure or approach procedure in IMC, when can you descend below MSA?

A
  • Only when established on an approved approach procedure

- when under positive radar contact

132
Q

What do you know about flying a visual approach?

A
  • use all available cues (visual cues, PAPI, ILS, ND)
  • when a circuit is not avail, plan for a 3° constant descend style approach (in this case plan to be stable at 1000RA)
  • a visual approach at night is approved, unless restricted by CCI / AOI
  • however an instrument approach is preferred
  • always observe safety hazards and airport familiarity
133
Q

When determining cross or tailwind limits for landing, which wind is used?

A

ATC reported wind.

134
Q

When calculating landing performance - what should be considered when entering the weather?

A

Calculation should be based on the latest weather report. It should be issued not more than 30 minutes before landing.

135
Q

What is our standard NADP procedure? Is it mandatory to follow it?

A

NADP 2. Only follow it, if flight safety permits.

136
Q

What can be said in regards to simulated abnormal situations in flight? E.g. simulated situations regarding checklists or simulated IMC?

A

They are not allowed.

137
Q

What should be considered when completing the navlog (OFP) in flight and there is change of routing?

A
  • when ever changes to route are done it should be noted

- detailed descriptions with reasons, time, ETA and fuel should be noted

138
Q

What is the new name of NAT MNPSA?

A

NAT - HLA: North Atlantic High Level Airspace

139
Q

On which NAT HLA routes are flights approved for our company?

A
  • Tango routes

- Blue Spruce routes

140
Q

In what flightlevels are NAT-HLA rules applied?

A

FL285-420

141
Q

Is NAT-HLA airspace also RVSM airspace?

A

Yes. FL290-410 are as well RVSM.

142
Q

In which NAT-HLA OCAs does our company operate?

A

Santa Maria
Shaw ich
Reykjavik

143
Q

Where will you find detailed information about NAT-HLA?

A
  • MEL
  • LIDO
  • OM-D
  • Planning charts
144
Q

Is special crew training required for NAT-HLA?

A

Yes. GND training required in accordance to OM-D

145
Q

What are the navigational requirements for NAT-HLA? Are they generally fulfilled by company aircraft?

A
  • PBN, RNP4, RNP10
  • different requirements for long range navigation systems (check LIDO)
  • Yes - when there are no MEL restrictions. All company aircraft are equipped with two LRNS.
146
Q

What are your considerations regarding communication equipment in NAT HLA?

A
  • There are different requirements. (HF / no HF required)
  • not all of our aircraft are HF equipped
  • depending on the route, VHF and ACARS may not be available
147
Q

What are your options, if required equipment for NAT-HLA fails before entering the airspace?

A
  • re route
  • fly below
  • land prior entry
148
Q

When should clearance for NAT-HLA airspace be obtained?

A

Before entering the airspace

149
Q

What are specific techniques that you should be familiar with, when entering NAT-HLA?

A
  • entry of coordinates
  • fixed mach number technique
  • HF OPS
  • Selcal watch
150
Q

What are important items to complete before entering NAT-HLA?

A
  • time check (clock: GPS)
  • Nav accuracy check (if GPS not primary)
  • RVSM altimeter check
  • SELCAL check (if HF primary means of com)
  • obtain clearance
151
Q

What is important when navigating in NAT-HLA?

A
  • navigate accurately
  • voice position reports may be required
  • LIDO should be checked for regional supplementary information
  • maintain awareness of other aircraft in the vicinity
152
Q

What should be done after a flight in NAT-HLA airspace?

A
  • record malfunctions

- check IRS drift

153
Q

What should be done, if a deviation from the route has occurred during flight in NAT-HLA?

A
  • it must be reported
  • an ASR must be raised
  • additional information can be found in the OM-A
154
Q

PBN.

Are our aircraft capable of „on board monitoring and alerting“?

A

Yes.

155
Q

What is the meaning of the RNP value?

A

It is the navigational accuracy. It must be equal to or less than the RNP value for 95% of the time.

156
Q

For which navigation specifications does our company hold approval? What is the appropriate RNP value?

A

RNAV1 (P-RNAV) - 1.0
RNAV5 (B-RNAV) - 5.0
RNP1 - 1.0
RNP APPROACH (RNAV(GNSS) or GPS APPROACH) - 0.3

157
Q

Which navigation specification is required in ECAC airspace above FL95? Where is it typically used?

A

B-RNAV

  • Enroute
  • sometimes on arrival and departures routes in combination with a conventional fix
  • above MSA
158
Q

Where is P-RNAV typically used?

A

On departures, arrivals and approaches up to the FAP.

- may involve procedures below MSA

159
Q

What are the nav sources required for P-RNAV?

A
  • DME / DME
  • VOR/DME
  • INS
  • GNSS
  • RAIM (when GNSS used primarily)
  • sometimes dual FMGC is required
160
Q

What should you do if navigation equipment has failed in P-RNAV airspace?

A
  • Check capability and report to ATC if it‘s not given.

- climb above MSA

161
Q

What is important, when it comes to P-RNAV? (Database, waypoints)

A
  • the database must be valid

- waypoints should be checked carefully, especially where the procedure is below MSA

162
Q

When flying a P-RNAV procedure, are you allowed to modify it with waypoint that are not in the database?

A

No.

163
Q

What is the difference between RNAV1 and RNP1? Where is the latter used? What special feature does RNP offer?

A

RNP1 requires on board alerting

  • it is used mainly for terminal airspace
  • may include the „radius to fix“ feature
164
Q

What levels are RVSM airspace? What is the vertical separation in RVSM?

A

FL290-FL410

1000ft

165
Q

Which important RVSM checks do you perform during preflight?

A
  • visual check of the static ports
  • MEL
  • altimeter check (max 75ft between primary altimeters and AD elev)
166
Q

What is the required equipment for RVSM?

A
  • 2 primary altimeters
  • 1 AP ALT hold
  • 1 ALT alert
  • 1 transponder with altitude repeating
167
Q

What is the the maximum difference in altitude of the two primary altimeters in RVSM?

A

200ft

168
Q

What do you know about contingency procedures in RVSM?

A
  • report „unable RVSM“ ASAP
  • report more than moderate turbulence, if encountered
  • if unable to notify ATC before deviating: follow established contingency procedures
  • obtain clearance ASAP
169
Q

When a TCAS TA is triggered - is it recommended to search the area visually?

A

Yes. But do not manoeuvre based on a TA alone.

170
Q

Before departure: What can you do, if the FMS predicts fuel below minimum on arrival?

A

Make sure the flight can be completed, taking into account level, speed and winds

171
Q

What are reasons for inflight fuel check discrepancies?

A
  • APU fuel consumption (not recorded in „fuel used“)
  • FQI errors
  • indicating tolerance of „fuel used“
  • water frozen in fuel tanks
172
Q

In flight: What are your considerations when fuel predicted is less than CNR?

A

take into account

  • traffic
  • operational conditions at destination and alternate

Decide weather to commit or preceded to alternate

173
Q

In flight: FMS predicts an arrival below minimum reserve. What are your actions?

A

Land at an adequate aerodrome with at least final reserve.

174
Q

What are means of fuel conservation in flight?

A
  • decrease speed
  • obtain directs
  • fly close to optimum
  • consider wind
  • select a closer alternate
  • land and refuel
175
Q

Explain „landing assured“.

A

Landing is assured, if in the judgement of the commander, it can be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration in weather and plausible single failure of ground and / or aircraft equipment.

176
Q

What are situations that require in flight re planning? What are the criteria for inflight re planning?

A
  • operational constraints
  • technical issues
  • a/c performance degradations

Normal preflight planning criteria must be used.

177
Q

In which cases is in flight replanning not required?

A
  • in flight emergency
  • destination below minima
  • aerodrome closed
  • curfew restrictions
178
Q

What is an additional requirement, if, during preflight stage, it is foreseeable that the destination may not be reached before night ban?

A

Two suitable alternates must be planned.

179
Q

When is the ATC call „minimum fuel“ used?

A

When having committed to an aerodrome, any change of the existing clearance may result in landing below final reserve

180
Q

When is the ATC call „mayday fuel“ used?

A

When, landing at the nearest, where a safe landing can be made, with less than final reserve fuel.

181
Q

What are the hazards connected to thunderstorms?

A
  • severe turbulence
  • gust front
  • icing
  • hail
  • altimeter errors
  • lightning
  • engine water ingestion
182
Q

Where can severe turbulence be encountered in the vicinity of a thunderstorm?

A

several thousand ft above the TS, up to 20 NM away

183
Q

Where can hail be encountered in the vicinity of a thunderstorm?

A

may be encountered several NM away from a dark CB in clear air

184
Q

Where can a gust front be encountered in the vicinity of a thunderstorm? What is the main hazard you can expect?

A

Gust fronts can be encountered up to 15NM in front of thunderstorms.
Rapid and drastic changes of wind may be encountered.

185
Q

How does the baro altimeter behave, when a TS passes?

A

When the TS is approaching, there will be a rapid drop in pressure.
With the first gusts usually comes a sharp rise.
As soon as the TS has moved away, pressure normalizes.
This cycle may happen within 15 minutes and induce altitude errors of up to 1000ft.

186
Q

What are the hazards of a lightning strike?

A

It may blind the crew and induce magnetic compass error.

187
Q

What actions must be taken when the aircraft is struk by lightning?

A
  • check radio comms
  • check navigation equipment
  • check weather radar
  • record in techlog
  • an inspection must be completed before the next flight
188
Q

What is the recommendation on thunderstorm avoidance during takeoff and landing?

A
  • Takeoffs and landings in the face of an approaching TS should be avoided. Turbulence, wind reversal and windshear must be expected.
  • If the thunderstorm is within 15 NM, consider a different direction for departure / arrival. Or consider delaying.
  • Avoid thunderstorms by at least 3 NM in the terminal area. Do not fly under a thunderstorm.
189
Q

Can you fly into an area with embedded thunderstorms?

A

Yes. But only with an operative weather radar.

190
Q

Can you judge the turbulence to be expected in a thunderstorm by the visual appearance of it?

A

No.

191
Q

How should thunderstorms be avoided during climb, enroute and descend?

A
  • The should be avoided by 20 NM, preferrably on the upwind side.
  • 6/10 thunderstorm covered areas should be generally avoided.
  • They should vertically avoided by at least 5000ft.
192
Q

What are the hazards that can be encountered in the vicinity of a thunderstorm on departure / approach? (wind, altimeter)

A
  • tower winds and altimeter reference can be misleading in a gust front
  • microbursts may not be detected by the tower wind
193
Q

When should a thunderstorm be considered extremely hazardous?

A

When the tops are above FL350.

194
Q

Sometimes thunderstorm activity may be masked by supercooled rain or hail. What can you do to avoid this hazard?

A

Avoid weak radar echos associated with thunderstorms at altitudes above freezing point by:
FL300 - 20 NM
FL250 - 15 NM
FL200 - 10 NM

195
Q

What can you do, if flight near a thunderstorm can not be avoided?

A
  • fly on the upwind side
  • avoid flying under the anvil (hail, up to 20 NM away!)
  • avoid cirrus and cirrostratus clouds downwind (hail)
196
Q

What is the technique to penetrate a thunderstorm when this can not be avoided?

A
  • penetrate areas of least precipitation (consider radar echo shapes)
  • penetrate perpendicular or maintain heading
    (overstressing and upset are more likely in a turn)
  • avoid areas of SAT = 0° (severe turbulence, lightning strikes)
  • avoid areas of 10000-20000ft (most dangerous)
  • consider pressure change and altitude error
197
Q

What are the operational procedures when flying through or near a thunderstorm?

A
  • approaching thunderstorms: seatbelts on
  • select appropriate speed
  • one pilot should control attitude, the other should monitor flight instruments closely
  • select a height that ensures terrain clearance and includes margins for altimeter errors
  • check operations of anti icing systems
  • turn on cockpit lights to avoid blinding
  • monitor wx radar closely
198
Q

What procedures should be applied when flying through or near a thunderstorm - when required?

A
  • “flight in severe turbulence”
  • “operations near / in heavy rain, hail or sleat”
  • “operations in windshear / downburst conditons”
199
Q

Icing is considered one of the most dangerous hazards for aviation. When is takeoff prohibited?

A
  • in moderate or heavy freezing rain (FZRA, +FZRA)

- heavy snow, ice pellets, small hail and hail (+SN, -PL/PL, -GS, GR) - if adhering contaminants or fluid failure

200
Q

Describe light turbulence.

A
  • momentarily slight, erratic changes in attitude and / or altitude
  • occupants may feel a slight strain against seat belts / shoulder straps
  • unsecured objects may be displaced slightly
  • food service may be conducted
  • little or no difficulty walking
201
Q

Describe moderate turbulence.

A
  • similar to light turbulence, but more intensity
  • changes of attitude and / or altitude occur, but aircraft remains in positive control at all times
  • usually variations in airspeed
  • occupants feel definite strains agains seat belts and shoulder straps
  • unsecured objects dislodged
  • food service and walking are difficult
202
Q

Describe severe turbulence.

A
  • large abrupt changes in altitude and or attitude
  • large variations in indicated airspeed
  • aircraft may be momentarily out of control
  • occupants forced violently against seat belts and shoulder straps
  • unsecured objects tossed about
  • food service and walking impossible
203
Q

Describe extreme turbulence.

A
  • aircraft violently tossed about
  • practically impossible to control
  • may cause structural damage
204
Q

How can you make ATC and other aircraft aware of turbulence?

A

Always report turbulence when encountered.

205
Q

How can you make ATC and other aircraft aware of windshear?

A

Always report windshear when encountered.

206
Q

Is our company allowed to operate in areas of low / med actual vulcanic ash concentration?

A

Yes. But visual ash must be avoided. (check the OM-A for specific rules)

207
Q

Is our company allowed to operate in areas of high forecasted vulcanic ash concentration?

A

Yes. But only if “no fly zones” are annotated on the ash chart. (check the OM-A for specific rules)

208
Q

What are your actions if you have encountered vulcanic ash in flight?

A
  • follow the procedures in the FCOM / QRH
  • report to ATC
  • push the event button
  • note your position
209
Q

How can you recognize vulcanic ash?

A
  • smoky / acrid smell
  • st. elmos fire, sparks, white glow at the leading edges
  • engine problems, restarts
  • haze in aircraft, dust settling
  • blocked pitots (indicated airspeed decreasing or fluctuating)
  • change of cabin pressure
  • landing lights cast sharp shadows
  • loss of visibility due to windshield cracks / sandblast effect
210
Q

When is a surge or a flameout due to heavy precipitation most likely?

A
  • at high speed and idle thrust (typically in descend)
211
Q

What threats are associated with heavy precipitation?

A
  • reduced visibility
  • risk of icing at low temperatures
  • significant downdrafts and windshear
  • degraded landing performance
212
Q

What are your considerations in regards to ground operations during sandstorms?

A
  • reverse may reduce visibility
  • braking actions may be reduced
  • taxi with both engines to minimize thrust required
  • account for wind direction when making turns
  • consider bleed use to minimise cabin contamination
213
Q

What are possible effects of a significant temperature inversion?

A
  • aircraft performance degradation
  • reduction of aircraft cruise performance
  • prolonged periods of haze and fog
214
Q

What is the wake turbulence category of our company airplanes?

A

ICAO - medium

UK - lower medium

215
Q

How is responsible for wake turbulence separation?

A

ATC is responsible. However the commander must be satisfied with the separation provided.

216
Q

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation following a “heavy” or “super” on takeoff from the same position (or parallel runway less than 760m apart)?

A

heavy: 2 minutes
super: 3 minutes

217
Q

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation following a “heavy” or “super” on takeoff from an intermediate position on the same runway (or parallel runway less than 760m apart)?

A

heavy: 3 minutes
super: 4 minutes

218
Q

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation following a “medium” on takeoff from the same position?

A

Not required for wake turbulence reasons.

219
Q

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation following a “super” on takeoff, when the “super” has landed on the same runway with displaced threshold?

A

3 minutes

220
Q

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation following a “super” on crossing runways, when the projected flight path will be at the same altitude or less than 1000ft below?

A

3 minutes

221
Q

What are the wake turbulence separation minima on final approach, following a “super”?

A

7 NM (and a minimum of 3 minutes)

222
Q

What are the wake turbulence separation minima on final approach, following a “heavy”?

A

5 NM

223
Q

What are the wake turbulence separation minima on final approach, following a “upper medium”?

A

4 NM (UK only)

224
Q

What are the wake turbulence separation minima on final approach, following a “medium”?

A

Not required for wake turbulence reasons.

225
Q

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation on approach following a “super” that is taking off, when the projected flight paths are expected to cross?

A

3 minutes

226
Q

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation when a “heavy” or “super” has performed a low approach or missed approach and takeoff / landing is performed in the opposite direction on the same runway (or a runway separated by less than 760m)?

A

heavy: 2 minutes
super: 3 minutes

227
Q

RECAT-EU is a different procedure for wake turbulence separation.
What is the minimum separation following a “super heavy” (A380, AN124) on departure / approach?

A

140 seconds / 5 NM

228
Q

RECAT-EU is a different procedure for wake turbulence separation.
What is the minimum separation following a “upper heavy” (A332, B744) on departure / approach?

A

100 seconds / 4 NM

229
Q

RECAT-EU is a different procedure for wake turbulence separation.
What is the minimum separation following a “lower heavy” (MD11, B763) on departure / approach?

A

80 seconds / 3 NM

230
Q

What is the recommendation when taking meals during flight?

A

Meals should be taken separately.

231
Q

What do you know about controlled rest on flight deck?

A
  • the pilot will be “off task”
  • it may include sleep
  • should be applied only during low workload
  • the resting pilot should use the shoulder harness and a seating position so as not to interfere with the controls
  • the non-resting should be briefed
  • maximum 45 minutes of rest should be taken
  • more then one rest is allowed, if required
  • the non-resting should be checked by the cabin every 20 minutes
  • the rest should be finished at least 30 minutes before TOD
  • a fatigue report must be submitted
232
Q

When must safety belts be used by the flight crew?

A
  • during takeoff and landing
  • in turbulence conditions
  • when the seatbelt sign is on
  • when one pilot is on the flightdeck only
233
Q

When is the flightdeck door normally closed? When may it be opened again?

A

It is normally closed when the aircraft doors are closed and opened after engine shutdown.

234
Q

Is it acceptable to keep the flightdeck door open with aircraft doors closed?

A

Yes, as long as the engines are off.

235
Q

For what reasons may the flight crew leave the flightdeck only?

A

For health and safety reasons.

236
Q

Where can you find information about access to the flightdeck and the use of the flight deck jump seat?

A

OM-A chapter 8.3.12

237
Q

May vacant cabin crew seats be used by other than operating crew? (before dispatch)

A

In some cases, check OM-A

238
Q

May vacant cabin crew seats be used by other than operating crew? (in flight)

A

In case a pax seat has become unserviceable, it may be authorized by commander in agreement with SCCM
Consideration must be given to age, agility, physical and mental health of the person (minimum age: 16) and he / she must be briefed properly

239
Q

Which two categories of crew incapacitation exist?

A

obvious and subtle

240
Q

How can you recognize crew incapacitation?

A

Be alert to errors and SOP mistakes.

Use the “two communications” rule

241
Q

Describe the “two communications” rule.

A

Whenever the crew member does not respond to two communications
or whenever he/she does not respond to a verbal communication associated with a significant deviation from standard profile
- suspect incapacitation

242
Q

You are on approach, landing is assured. Then you notice your colleague is incapacitated. What are your actions?

A

continue to land.

243
Q

In flight you notice your colleague is incapacitated. What are your initial actions?

A
  • control the airplane, switch the autopilot on
  • get help to restrain the incapacitated colleague
    (shoulder harness lock, seat fully back, backrest fully aft)
244
Q

In flight your colleague became incapacitated but then recovered. Can he continue as PF?

A

No. He may not continue with any flight duties.

245
Q

What is our companies policy on automation?

A

Make use of highest level of automation appropriate to the phase of flight and the airspace.
However, for training purpose, it is encouraged to fly manually (full or partial) on a regular basis.

246
Q

When is manual flight for training purpose not appropriate?

A
  • in dense airspace
  • when frequent step climbs / descends are expected
  • in RVSM
  • on PBN procedures with RNP value less than 5 and on RNAV (GNSS) approach
  • in marginal weather
  • in mountainous terrain in IMC
  • on an aircraft with a significant system downgrade
247
Q

What is our companies policy for approach?

A
  • use highest level of approach guidance avail
  • a lower level is permissible, if relevant factors are considered
    (a practice non-precision approach is encouraged)
248
Q

Is practicing a lovis approach encouraged? What about practice LVO minima?

A

No. Unless ATC can verify that the ILS is protected.

Practice LVO minima may be inserted - but legal minima must be confirmed.

249
Q

What is our companies comm policy?

A
  • ICAO standard
  • observe local ATC procedures
  • use plain language when required
  • be efficient, clear, concise, unambiguous
250
Q

What is important when using VHF2?

A
  • continue monitoring VHF1
  • if a clearance is given, PM will suspend VHF2 com and monitor VHF1.
  • if PM could not hear the clearance on VHF1, he must reconfirm it.
251
Q

What is the latest point you should try to reach OPS via VHF / HF?

A

15 NM prior to TOD (unless a long level segment is expected afterwards)

252
Q

What is our companies headset policy?

A
  • on ground headsets must be worn when receiving a clearance and when engines are running
  • in flight until TOC and from TOD until engine shutdown
  • whenever deemed necessary by the commander
253
Q

May bluetooth be used to connect to the aircraft headset and listen to music or podcasts?

A

No.

254
Q

May converted leisure headsets be used in the flight deck?

A

No, unless approved by TSO.

255
Q

Is it allowed to use the EFB (tough pad) at all times during the flight?

A

Yes.

256
Q

Is it allowed to use the IPad at all times during the flight?

A

Not during the critical phases, when the device has to be stowed with the screen off.

257
Q

Is it allowed to charge the IPad via the aircrafts power supply during flight?

A

No.

258
Q

Is there a restriction on EFB (tough pad) usage during flight?

A

Both pilots should not use the EFBs at the same time during critical phases of flight.

259
Q

Where will you find EFB contingency procedures?

A

in the MEL

260
Q

Is the IPad considered to be a part of the aircraft?

A

No.

261
Q

What are the items that need to be checked on EFB power up?

A
  • EFB validity

- battery status

262
Q

What is the minimum power that should be avail on both Ipads combined?

A

40%

263
Q

Can you use the Ipad during critical phases of flight?

A

Only when needed. In that case: handheld and for a short time only.

264
Q

What is the policy for PED usage on the flight deck?

A

Same as for passangers.

Alex (3 decks)

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