Old Wall Quiz #1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A 23 year old presents for preconception
    counseling for infertility. Family history is
    significant for male relatives with azospermia.
    Genetic testing should include:
A. Chromosome studies
B. Cystic fibrosis screening
C. Pre-implantation genetics to avoid an AD
condition
D. Tay Sachs screening
E. Gauchers disease
A

b

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2
Q
Which of the following is a FDA approved
medication for Osteoporosis treatment that
works by increasing osteoblast numbers and
stimulating bone formation?
A. Calcitonin
B. Alendronate
C. Recombinant Parathyroid hormone
D. Zoledronate
E. Denosumab
A

c

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3
Q
3. A patient presents with a third trimester
ultrasound finding of a maximum vertical
pocket of 18 cm. The most likely cause is:
A. Normal finding
B. Idiopathic
C. Hydrops fetalis
D. Diabetes
E. Thyroid disease
A

b

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4
Q
A 44-year-old female undergoes Robotic
laparoscopic resection of stage IV
endometriosis. Which of the following is most
valuable in detecting a gas embolus
intraoperatively?
A. Hypotension
B. Tachycardia
C. Cardiac arrythmia
D. End tidal CO2
E. Pulse oximetry
A

d

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5
Q
When comparing Tamoxifen to Aromatase
inhibitors, the most likely specific adverse effect
of an Aromatase inhibitor is:
A. Deep venous thrombosis
B. Hot flushes
C. Arthralgia
D. Decreased libido
E. Vaginal dryness
A

c Arthralgia

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6
Q
6. Which of the following best describes the
mechanism of action of bisphosphonates?
A. Stimulation of osteoblasts
B. Inhibition of osteoblasts
C. Stimulation of osteoclast resorption
D. Inhibition of osteoclast resorption
E. Inhibition of osteoblast resorption
A

d

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7
Q

A 19-year-old female presents with no breast
or uterine development. Karotype is 46XY, FSH-
47, testosterone is in normal female range. No
gonads are palpable on exam. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. 17 alpha Hydroxylase deficiency
B. 17-20 Desmolase deficiency
C. Androgen insensitivity
D. Mullerian agenesis
E. Turners syndrome

A

b

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8
Q
  1. A post menopausal patient has a DEXA and is
    found to have a T-score of -3.0. Which of the
    following treatments is least likely to result in
    bone formation?
    A. Alendronate
    B. Estrogen
    C. Raloxifene
    D. Parathyroid hormone
    E. Calcitonin
A

b

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9
Q
9. Which of the following medications is most
likely to result in bone resorption?
A. Diuretics
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Digoxin
D. Lithium
E. Insulin
A

d

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10
Q
  1. In a normal pregnancy, what typically
    happens to the umbilical artery resistance?
    A. Progressively decreases throughout
    pregnancy
    B. Progressively increases throughout pregnancy
    C. Increase only in the first trimester
    D. Decreases in the second trimester then
    increases in the third trimester
    E. Does not change
A

a

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11
Q
12. A patient comes to your office after her
mother developed ovarian cancer and was
found to have the BRCA-1 gene. What is her risk
of inheriting the gene?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%
E. 100%
A

d

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12
Q
  1. Four days after a TVH a 36 y/o patient
    returns to ED complaining of right flank pain,
    fever, and a vaginal watery discharge. The next
    best step will be:
    A. Diagnostic Laparoscopy
    B. Renal Ultrasound
    C. Percutaneous ureteral stent
    D. Ureterneocystotomy
    E. Retrograde pyelography with retrograde
    ureteral stent
A

e

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13
Q
  1. Several months after a vaginal delivery, your
    patient complains of occasional involuntary
    passage of air per vagina, she denies vaginal
    passage of stool. What is the most appropriate
    confirmatory test?
    A. Charcoal by mouth
    B. Methylene blue rectally
    C. Barium enema
    D. Sigmoidoscopy
    E. Sterile milk douche
A

b

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14
Q
16. The most common cause of endometrial
bleeding in a post menopausal patient is?
A. Atrophic endometrium
B. Endometrial carcinoma
C. Simple endometrial hyperplasia
D. Complex endometrial hyperplasia
E. Sarcoma
A

a

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15
Q
23. A 17 y/o patient presents to your office
with a positive GC test and negative
chlamydia. What is the best treatment?
A. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Ampicillin and gentamycin
D. Cefixime
E. Azithromycin
A

a

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16
Q
  1. Your patient presents for genetic
    counseling. She states she has the hemophilia gene. What is the chance one of her sons will have the disease?
    A. 0%
    B. 25%
    C. 50%
    D. 75%
    E. All of her children will have hemophilia
A

c

17
Q
25. A woman taking combined oral
contraceptive pills for three years develops a deep vein thrombosis. The least helpful test in
her evaluation is:
A. Clotting time
B. Protein C
C. Protein S
D. Antithrombin III
E. Anticardiolipin antibody
A

a

18
Q
26. A postmenopausal woman s/p anterior
colporrhaphy presents with complaints of stress urinary incontinence. She is found to have a low urethral closure pressure. She is a good candidate for which procedure?
A. Retropubic sling procedure
B. Kelly plication
C. Paravaginal repair
D. Repeat anterior colporrhaphy
E. Uterosacral ligament suspension
A

a

19
Q

Hormone replacement therapy is known to decrease the incidence of which cancer?

A. Lung
B. Thyroid
C. Breast
D. Colon
E. Cervix
A

d

20
Q
29. As compared with the general population, obese woman with Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) are not at higher risk for:
A. Endometrial Cancer
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Thyroid disease
E. Infertility
A

d

21
Q
30. Which uterine anomaly is most likely
responsible for recurrent pregnancy loss:
A. Didelphys
B. Bicornuate
C. Unicornuate
D. Septate
E. Arcuate
A

d

22
Q
  1. Hypovolemic shock is best characterized
    by:
    A. Decreased PCWP, Decreased SVR, Decreased CO
    B. Decreased PCWP, Decreased SVR, Increased CO
    C. Decreased PCWP, Increased SVR, Increased CO
    D. Decreased PCWP, Increased SVR, Decreased CO
    E. Increased PCWP, Increased SVR, Decreased CO
A

d

23
Q
32. Of the following, tension headache is
most characterized by:
A. Abrupt onset
B. Greater than 4 hours duration
C. Nausea
D. Aura
E. Frontal and occipital location
A

e

24
Q
33. The most likely fetal response to exercise
is:
A. Decreased variability
B. Growth restriction
C. Increase in fetal heart rate
D. Variable decelerations
E. Respiratory alkalosis
A

c

25
Q
35. The most common cause of a shoulder
presentation is?
A. Prematurity
B. Android pelvis
C. Placental location
D. Fibroid tumors
E. Septate uterus
A

a

26
Q
39. What is the first fetal indication of a
ruptured uterus?
A. Maternal tachycardia
B. Abnormal change in fetal heart rate
C. Loss of station
D. Heavy vaginal bleeding
E. Abdominal pain
A

b

27
Q
41. Which of the following is the most significant risk of an amniocentesis?
A. Vaginal spotting
B. Limb defects
C. Pregnancy loss
D. PROM
E. Chorioamnionitis
A

c

28
Q
45. What is the most likely cause of a
persistent or chronic cough?
A. Pneumonia
B. Bronchitis
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
D. TB
E. Peptic ulcer disease
A

c

29
Q
  1. What is the most serious outcome if a
    patient in labor undergoes artificial rupture of membranes (AROM)?
    A. Chorioamnionitis
    B. Arrest of labor
    C. Hemorrhage
    D. Umbilical cord prolapse
    E. Cesarean section
A

d

30
Q
47. A patient is referred to your office with a diagnosis of Androgen insensitivity syndrome. On physical exam you are most likely to see?
A. Temporal balding
B. Clitormegaly
C. Small uterus
D. Blind vaginal pouch
E. Tanner 1 stage breasts
A

d