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Med Micro Exam 3 > Old Questions > Flashcards

Old Questions Flashcards

1
Q

how do naked viruses enter host cells?

A

endocytosis

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2
Q

which of the following viral nucleic acids could be translated without further nucleic acid synthesis?

A

positive sense RNA

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3
Q

Type of antigens in the MMR vaccine

A

live attenuated viruses

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4
Q

Family name that includes Hanta virus:

A

bunyaviridae

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5
Q

For enveloped viruses, where does the envelope come from?

A

it is derived from the host cell membrane as the virus leaves the cell

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6
Q

The type of antigen in the injected polio vaccine:

A

inactivated whole viruses

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7
Q

___ indicates rabies infection

A

negri bodies

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8
Q

Which of the following is the typical host for measles?

A

humans

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9
Q

Virus that leads to hand, food, and mouth disease=

A

cocksackievirus

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10
Q

What flavivirus is NOT transmitted by a mosquito?

A

hepatitis c

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11
Q

most common outcome of polio virus infection:

A

viral replication in the GI tract that is asymptomatic

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12
Q

Role of ICAM in rhinovirus infections:

A

viral factor that binds to the host cell receptor

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13
Q

human disease caused by coxsackievirus A16:

A

hand, foot and mouth disease

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14
Q

Which of the following vaccines will protect against GI replication of poliovirus and paralytic disease?

A

sabin

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15
Q

most common seasons for enterovirus infections:

A

summer and fall

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16
Q

What is the virus source of cases of VAPP?

A

the oral polio vaccine

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17
Q

T/F: all common colds are caused by rhinoviruses

A

false

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18
Q

T/F: most of the symptoms of enterovirus infections are restricted to the GI tract

A

False

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19
Q

causeative agent of Hansens disease:

A

Mycobacterium leprae

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20
Q

lesion that contains live, dormant, tubercule bacteria, surrounded by immune cells is called a:

A

granuloma

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21
Q

time required for positive culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis on solid agar plates:

A

6-8 weeks

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22
Q

region of the US with the highest rates of lyme disease

A

northeast

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23
Q

primary means of transmission of leptospira to people=

A

contaminated water inoculated into breaks in the mucosa

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24
Q

joint pain due to lyme disease occurs when?

A

months to years after initial infection

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25
Q

stage of pregnancy when syphilis has the greatest potential to cause harm to the baby

A

early in the pregnancy (8-15 weeks)

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26
Q

chief symptom of primary syphilis:

A

painless chancre

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27
Q

chief symptom of secondary syphilis

A

rash (runny nose, sore throat, aches)

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28
Q

chief symptom of tertiary syphilis

A

gummas (CNS and cardiovascular signs)

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29
Q

T/F: antimicrobial resistances are very common for treponema pallidum

A

false

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30
Q

salpingitis means an infection of:

A

one or both of the fallopian tubes

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31
Q

causative agent of trachoma

A

chlamydia trachomatis

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32
Q

causative agent of lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)=

A

chlamydia trachomatis

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33
Q

causative agent of epidemic typhus=

A

rickettsia prowazekii

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34
Q

chlamydia pneumoniae causes:

A

mild pneumonia

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35
Q

causative agent of Q fever=

A

coxiella burnetii

36
Q

T/F: chlamydial cervicitis can be asymptomatic yet still transmissible

A

true

37
Q

commonly prescribed antimicrobial for the treatment of chlamydial infections:

A

tetracyclines (doxycycline)

38
Q

anatomical site of trachoma:

A

eye

39
Q

which of the following is the cause of a pneumonia following a cold?

A

secondary infections (bacterial or viral)

40
Q

when associated with serious illness, West Nile virus causes:

A

encephalitis

41
Q

which vaccine for polio is currently used in the US?

A

inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)

42
Q

what population is most at risk with respect to mortality from west nile infections?

A

those >50 years old

43
Q

when a person acquires a west nile virus infection, which of the following is most likely to happen?

A

no symptoms

44
Q

Advantage of sabin polio vaccine:

A

produces intestinal immunity (which reduces infections and therefore reduce the incidence of paralytic disease)

This is the active, attenuated vaccine; contains all 3 serotypes of virus. administered as an oral vaccine;

45
Q

Best prevention for infections with west nile virus=

A

avoid mosquitos

46
Q

When would longer therapy or IV administration be necessary for patients with lyme disease?

A

late stages of the disease with neurological involvement or myocarditis

47
Q

causative agent of human monocytic ehrlichiosis=

A

erhlichia chaffeensis

48
Q

rickettsia typhi causes:

A

endemic typhus

49
Q

much of the damage to the host during infection with chlamydia is due to:

A

the host immune response

50
Q

a unique feature of the mycobacterial cell wall is that it:

A

contains mycolic acid

51
Q

what makes mycobacterium “acid fast”?

A

mycolic acid in its cell wall

52
Q

why is the nymph tick the usual tick form to transmit lyme disease to humans?

A

b/c it can stay attached to the body long enough to transmit the bacteria without being seen. the larger adult tick is usually discovered before the tick has fed long enough to transmit the bacteria

53
Q

structurally, spirochetes are:

A

gram negative

54
Q

LGV is a form of chlamydia that:

A

is more invasive and tends to involve the lymph nodes; treatable with antibiotics (longer treatments)

55
Q

The BCG vaccine tends to work better in:

A

children than in adults

56
Q

T/F: someone who has received the BCG vaccine will test positive for TB with the PPD test

A

true

57
Q

The lesions associated with primary syphilis are known as:

A

syphilitic chancres

58
Q

___ are soft tissue masses associated with tertiary syphilis

A

gummas

59
Q

Where are gummas found?

A

can be found in almost any organ or tissue

60
Q

typical transmission route for rocky mountain spotted fever=

A

bite of an infected dog tick

61
Q

What is the feeding time for a tick to transmit R.rickettsii?

A

(rocky mountain spotted fever)

6-24 hours

62
Q

how is epidemic typhus spread?

A

among people with body lice

63
Q

Why is a rash seen in patients with rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

R. rickettsii are obligate intracellular parasites that live inside the endothelial cells lining the blood vessels. The rash is caused by damage to these blood vessels when the bacteria are growing

64
Q

smallest prokaryotes capable of growth on cell-free media=

A

mycoplasma

65
Q

What is a common cause of salpingitis?

A

chlamydial infections

66
Q

what happens to the bacteria during stage 2 lyme disease?

A

the bacteria enter the blood and travel throughout the body which results in variable symptoms

67
Q

Where do spirochetes replicate with regards to syphilis?

A

at the site of inoculation of the spirochetes

68
Q

what is the main symptoms associated with secondary syphilis?

A

systemic rash that usually begins on palms of hands and soles of the feet

69
Q

Erythema migrans is often described as a:

A

bulls eye rash

70
Q

What strains of C.trachomatis are associated with chlamydia?

A

D-K

71
Q

What strains of lymphogranuloma venereum are associated with chlamydia?

A

L1-L3

72
Q

Why is treating syphilis so important?

A

Early treatment prior to tertiary syphilis can prevent irreversible damage to organ systems

73
Q

How does leptospirosis get into bodies of water?

A

infected animals shed the bacteria in the urine which will contaminate bodies of water. the bacteria can then gain access to the tissue via small breaks in the skin when the person is swiming

74
Q

What does RPR stand for?

A

rapid plasma reagin test

75
Q

What does VDRL stand for?

A

venereal disease reference laboratory test

76
Q

How do you diagnose syphilis?

A
  1. nontreponemal tests (RPR or VDRL). If results are + then..
  2. treponeme-specific test must be administered
77
Q

How long does a tick need to feed to transmit the bacteria that causes lyme disease?

A

more than 2 days

78
Q

What is the typical route for acquiring psittacosis?

A

birds have the bacteria which is present in their feces and then on their feathers. Humans then inhale the fecal dust which contains the bacteria

79
Q

testing the STD form of chlamydia currently involves:

A

growth of the organisms on blood agar plates

80
Q

Where do rhinoviruses like to live/grow/be?

A

cooler temperatures in upper respiratory tract

81
Q

although most common colds are due to rhinoviruses, about 30% are due to:

A

coronaviruses

82
Q

Poliovirus is in the ___ family

A

picornaviridae

83
Q

Hepatitis A is in the ___ family

A

picornaviridae

84
Q

Rhinovirus is in the ___ family

A

picornaviridae

85
Q

Coxsackievirus is in the __ family

A

picornaviridae

86
Q

Advantage of the sabin polio vaccine=

A

produces intestinal immunity (this is the live attenuated vaccine)

Med Micro Exam 3 (1 decks)

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