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Chelsey Needs to Learn! > Old ID Written Exams > Flashcards

Old ID Written Exams Flashcards

1
Q

2 clinical manifestations of Bordetella henslae?

A

1) Cat Scratch Disease

2) Bacillary Angiomatosis

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2
Q

3 active antibiotics for Bordetella henslae?

A

1) Doxycycline
2) Azithromycin
3) Erythromycin

4) TMP-SMX (for Peds)

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3
Q

Fever, red eyes, arthritis months after leprosy treatment.

A

Reversal Reaction

Erythema Nodosum Leprosum

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4
Q

Mode of transmission of leprosy?

A

Nasal discharge from lepromatous leprosy patients

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5
Q

3 clinical manifestations of Whipples?

A

1) Culture negative endocardititis
2) Chronic GI illness (Classic whipples)
3) CNS - reversible dementia

Also Asymptomatic carriers and ocular disease

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6
Q

How to detect Whipples disease on biopsy?

A

Large Foamy macrophages in lamina propria

Electron microscopy, immunostain or PCR

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7
Q

Treatment for Whipples?

A

Ceftriaxone 2 g IV daily x 2 weeks, then TMP-SMX for 1 year

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8
Q

4 principles to consider when setting up a pet visitation program?

A

1) Hand hygiene before and after animal contact
2) Written policy
3) Designated trained personnel
4) Suitable animals - no reptiles, not <1 year old animals, vaccinated, in good health, no licking, free of fleas, always leashed, not for patients on isolation

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9
Q

4 elements of MRSA infection control program?

A

1) Active surveillance
2) Hand hygiene
3) Patient isolation
4) PPE

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10
Q

Treatment of VGS IE with Penicillin MIC of 1?

A

Ampicillin OR Penicillin G + Gentamycin for 4-6 weeks

Treat like an enterococcus endocarditis

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11
Q

Treatment of MRSA Prosthetic valve IE?

A

Vancomycin 6 weeks + Rifampin 6 weeks + Gentamicin 2 weeks

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12
Q

Treatment of Enterococcus faecalis IE, Amp S and Gent R

A

Ampicillin + Streptomycin for 4-6 weeks

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13
Q

2 Treatments for Legionella?

A

1) Azithromycin x 7-10 days

2) Levofloxacin x 7-10 days

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14
Q

2 measures to stop water associated Legionella outbreaks?

A

1) Flush pipes with water >65 degrees celcius for 30 minutes
2) UV light treatment

Also copper-silver ionization

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15
Q

4 measures to prevent/manage HBV in diaysis patients?

A

1) Vaccination of all dialysis patients
2) Designated machines for positive patients
3) Survillance with annual serology
4) Segretate positive patients

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16
Q

2 reasons differences in HBV vaccination for dialysis patients?

A

1) Double dose of vaccine

2) If titre <10 give a booster dose

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17
Q

2 advantages of live flu vaccine?

A

1) No needle exposure

2) Increased immunogenicity in children

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18
Q

4 contraindications to live flu vaccine?

A

1) Children less than 2 years old
2) Immunocompromised patients
3) Pregnancy
4) History of hypersensitivity to any component of the vaccine

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19
Q

2 parasites that cause biliary obstruction?

A

1) Clonorchis sinensis
2) Opisthorcis viverrini
Also..
3) Fasciola hepatica
4) Ascaris

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20
Q

What organism causes neurocystocercosis?

A

Taenia solium

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21
Q

Treatment of neurocystocercosis?

A

Albendazole x 28 days

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22
Q

Treatment of African Tick Bite fever?

A

Doxycycline x 10 days

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23
Q

Malaria prophylaxis for Haiti:

  • Preferred treatment
  • 2 alternatives if patient is leaving tomorrow
A

Preferred = Chloroquine (once a week, start 1 week before, stop 4 weeks after)

2 alternatives:
Atrovaquone/Proguanil (2 days before, 7 days after)
Doxycycline (2 days before, 28 days after)

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24
Q

Malaria prophylaxis for a pregnant woman going to India?

A

Mefloquine (once a week, start 1 week before, stop 4 weeks after)

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25
Q

Plasmodium vivax in pregnancy:

  • 1 test
  • 1 treatment
A 
Test = G6PD test (before giving primaquine)
Treatment = Chloroquine until delivered then treat for liver form with Primiquine after delivery for 14 days

Can also just give the Chloroquine 0, 6, 24, 48 hours and not treat through the whole pregnancy

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26
Q

4 pseudomonas virulence factors?

A

1) Pyocyanin
2) Pyoveridin
3) LPS
4) Exotoxin A

5) Pili
6) Adhesins
7) Proteolytic enzymes
8) Alginate

27
Q

4 Mechanisms of resistance of pseudomonas?

A

1) Efflux pumps
2) Porin mutations
3) Carbapenemases
4) AmpC

5) Beta lactamases
6) Aminoglycoside modifying enzymes

28
Q

3 steps of treatment for prosthetic knee MRSA?

A

1) 2 step revision
2) Vancomycin
3) Rifampin

29
Q

Trough level for Vancomycin in an MRSA prosthetic joint infection?

A

15-20

30
Q

Diagnosis of acute Histoplasma?

A

Culture organisms
Or serology with positive H band
M band positive in acute and previous infection

31
Q

Principle of the IGRA test?

A

Measures cell mediated immune response to TB antigen. Cells are exposed to a TB antigen (ESAT6 or CFP10) and if there is latent infection they will release interferon resulting in a positive IGRA.

32
Q

3 advantages and 3 disadvantages of the IGRA test?

A

3 advantages:

  • Only requires 1 visit
  • No cross reaction with BCG vaccination
  • Less subjectivity in reading results

3 disadvantages:

  • Cross reaction with M. africum, M. bovis, M. microtti
  • Expensive
  • Requires a fresh blood sample
  • Requires laboratory equipment
33
Q

List 3 airborne pathogens

A

1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
2) Measles
3) SARS
4) Varicella

34
Q

6 fungi resistant to echinocandins?

A

1) Cryptococcus
2) Histoplasma
3) Blastomyces
4) Coccioides
5) Fusarium
6) Pseudoalecheria boydii

7) Trichosporon
8) Sporothrix
9) Mucor

35
Q

4 complications of persistent yeast in the blood?

A

1) Endocarditis
2) Endophthalmitis
3) Hepatic absecess
4) Splenic absecess
5) Osteomyelitis
6) Death

36
Q

4 signs of poor prognosis for cryptococcus meningitis?

A

1) CSF WBC 1:1024

4) Increased ICP

37
Q

2 natural reservoirs of cryptococcus?

A

1) Bird droppings

2) Soil

38
Q

3 drugs to treat CMV and 1 adverse reaction of each?

A

1) Ganciclovir - Neutropenia
2) Foscarnet - Renal failure, electrolyte imbalances
3) Cidofovir - Nephrotoxicity

39
Q

3 indications for suppressive HSV genital ulcer treatment?

A

1) Immunocompromised
2) Decrease transmission to partner
3) Recurrence associated with systemic symptoms

40
Q

Extragenital complications of genital HSV

A
  • aseptic meningitis
  • thigh and buttock lesions
  • saccral autonomic nervous system dysfunction
41
Q

2 non beta lactam regimes for gonorrhoea?

A

1) 2 g azithromycin x 1

2) Doxycyline 100 mg PO bid x 7 days

42
Q

4 viruses causing encephalitis from Thialand?

A

1) HSV
2) Japenese encephalitits
3) Rabies
4) Nipah virus

5) Me Tri virus
6) Far Eastern Virus

43
Q

4 manifestations of Dengue severity?

A

1) Hemorrhage
2) Plasma leak
3) AST or ALT >1000
4) Impaired consciousness

44
Q

4 respiratory viruses that cause severe disease in HSCT?

A

1) RSV
2) Influenza
3) Adenovirus
4) Parainfluenza

5) Rhinovirus
6) Human Metapneumovirus

45
Q

Oseltamivir:

  • Coverage?
  • Dose/Duration?
  • Side Effects?
  • Age
  • Contraindications
A 
Flu A and B
75 mg PO BID x 5 days
GI upset
>1 year old
CI = Hypersensitivity
46
Q

Zanamivir:

  • Coverage?
  • Dose/Duration?
  • Side Effects?
  • Age
  • Contraindications
A 
Flu A and B
10 inhaled BID x 5 days
GI, Bronchospasm
>=7 years old
CI: Hypersensitivity
47
Q

Amantidine

  • Coverage?
  • Dose/Duration?
  • Side Effects?
  • Age
  • Contraindications
A 
NOT Flu B, H3N2 or pH1N1
100 mg po BID x 5 days
CNS side effects (insomnia, dizzy) renal toxicity
>1 year
Hypersensitivity
48
Q

4 reasons HIV viral load is not suppressed after 6 months?

A

1) Resistant virus
2) Non compliance
3) Malabsorption of medications
4) Drug interactions

49
Q

1 treatments for HIV with TB (other than NRTIs).

A

Efavrinez

50
Q

2 classes of HIV drugs contraindicated in TB/HIV?

A

1) NNRTIs

2) ??

51
Q

5 manifestations of parvovirus B19?

A

1) Erythema infectiosum
2) Fetal hydrops
3) Transient aplastic anemia
4) Pure red blood cell aplasia
5) Arthropathy

52
Q

GNB grows from joint after having monoarthritis after diarrheal illness?

A

Campylobacter

53
Q

3 organisms that cause reactive arthritis?

A

Salmonella
Shigella
Yersinia
Neisseria gonorrhea

54
Q

Mechanism of action of daptomycin?

A

Binds to bacterial membrane and causes rapid depolarization of the membrane potential causing inhibition of protein, DNA and RNA synthesis

55
Q

Spectrum of daptomycin

A

Staphyloccous, Enterococcus

56
Q

3 indications for daptomycin?

A

Complicated skin and soft tissue infection caused by susceptible organism
MRSA or MSSA Bacteremia
MRSA or MSSA Endocarditis
VRE

57
Q

4 techniques for antimicrobial stewardship?

A

1) Formulary restrictions
2) Automatic substitutions
3) Audit and feedback
4) Educational programs

58
Q

Baylisascaris procyonis disease and animal?

A

Racoon

Acute Eosinophilic meningitis

59
Q

Monkey disease and organism?

A

Herpes B Virus

Encephalomyelitis

60
Q

Organism and vector for relapsing fever?

A 
Borrelia recurrentis (Louse)
Borrelia hermsii (Tick)
61
Q

3 tests before HCV treatment that affect prognosis?

A

1) HCV viral load
2) Genotype
3) Liver fibrosis stage
4) HIV test
5) Il28 polymorphism (fails interferon)

62
Q

4 hematological manifestations of TMP-SMX?

A

1) Agranulocytosis
2) Thrombocytopenia
3) Aplastic anemia
4) Acute hemolytic anemia

5) Leukopenia
6) Methylglounemia

63
Q

5 microbes associated with cancer?

A

1) HTLV-1
2) EBV
3) HPV
4) HCV
5) HBV

6) Helicobacter pylori
7) HHV8

64
Q

Treatment of toxoplasma lymphadenopathy?

A

Self limiting unless:
Immunocompromised, pregnant or severe

Then: Pyramethamine + Sulfadiazine

Chelsey Needs to Learn! (9 decks)

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