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1
Q
  1. A blood component used in treatment of hemophilia A is

a. Whole blood
b. Platelets
c. FFP
d. Factor VIII concentrate

A

d. Factor VIII concentrate

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2
Q
  1. A cold agglutinin will usually have specificity for the

a. e antigen
b. K antigen
c. I antigen
d. D antigen

A

c. I antigen

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3
Q
  1. A donor recently vaccinated of Rubeola is deferred for,

a. 48 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 2 weeks
d. 1 month

A

c. 2 weeks

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4
Q
  1. A lectin with Anti-A1 specificity can be made from

a. Iberis amara
b. Vicia graminea
c. Dolichos biflorus
d. Bandeirae simplicifolia

A

c. Dolichos biflorus

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4
Q
  1. A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body temperature of ____ occurring in association with the transfusion of blood or components and without any other explanation.

a. 5oC or more
b. 5oF or more
c. 1oC or more
d. 1oF or more

A

c. 1oC or more

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5
Q
  1. A low incidence antigen that serves as a useful anthropologic marker for Mongolian ancestry:

a. Doa
b. Yta
c. Dia
d. Xga

A

c. Dia

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6
Q
  1. A pink color serum indicates that it contains ___ hgb.

a. 20 mg/dL
b. 70 mg/dL
c. 50 mg/dL
d. 100 mg/dL

A

a. 20 mg/dL

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7
Q
  1. A positive DAT may be found in which of the following situations?

a. A weak D positive patient
b. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
c. A patient with anti-K
d. An incompatible crossmatch

A

b. Hemolytic disease of the newborn

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8
Q
  1. A unit of Whole blood derived (random donor) platelets should contain at least

a. 5.5 x 1011 platelets
b. 3.0 x 1011 platelets
c. 1.0 x 1010 platelets
d. 5.5 x 1010 platelets

A

d. 5.5 x 1010 platelets

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9
Q
  1. Additive solutions are approved for blood storage for how many days?

a. 7 days
b. 35 days
c. 42 days
d. 21 days

A

c. 42 days

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10
Q
  1. According to AABB standards, what is the minimum pH required for platelets?

a. 7
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

A

d. 6

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11
Q
  1. All of the following test on the donor units are required at the donor center except:

a. HbsAg
b. anti-HTLV 1
c. Anti-Epstein Barr
d. anti-HCV

A

c. Anti-Epstein Barr

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12
Q
  1. Allogeneic donor blood collected and processed from outside sources must have the following tests and repeated by the hospital blood bank.

1-ABO,
2-Rh,
3-HbsAg,
4-Anti-HIV1

a. All
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 2, and 3
d. 3 and 4

A

b. 1 and 2

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13
Q
  1. Allowable shelf life of blood stored in CPDA 1

a. 35 days
b. 21 days
c. Not an anticoagulant
d. 42 days

A

a. 35 days

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14
Q
  1. An iron chelating agent which is important in lowering the body iron stores of patient with thalassemia

a. Desmospressin
b. Steroids
c. Aspirin
d. Deferroxamine

A

d. Deferroxamine

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15
Q
  1. Antibodies compose of IgG immunoglobulin:

a. Can cross the placenta from mother
to fetus
b. Are larger molecules than IgM
antibodies
c. Occur during the primary response to antigen
d. Can be detected in saline crossmatches

A

a. Can cross the placenta from mother
to fetus

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15
Q
  1. Antigen is found on the petite arm of the X chromosome and is noted with higher frequency in females than in males.

a. Yta
b. Doa
c. Dia
d. Xga

A

d. Xga

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16
Q
  1. Antigens are carried on the decay
    accelerating factor (DAF) and are distributed in body fluids and on red cells, white cells, platelets, and placental tissue:

a. Knops
b. Chido/Rogers
c. Gerbich
d. Cromer

A

d. Cromer

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17
Q
  1. Autoantibodies demonstrating blood group specificity in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia are associated more often with which
    blood group system

a. Dufffy
b. P
c. Rh
d. I

A

c. Rh

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18
Q
  1. Blood component most frequently associated with transfusion reaction due to bacterial contamination

a. Platelet concentrate
b. Red cells
c. Fresh frozen plasma
d. Cryoprecipitate

A

a. Platelet concentrate

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18
Q
  1. Based on the following reaction, what is the most probable cause. 4+Anti-A, 0Anti-B, Anti AB3+, A cell2+, B cell2+

a. Rouleaux formation
b. Hypogammaglobulinemia
c. Polyagglutination
d. Leukemia

A

b. Hypogammaglobulinemia

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18
Q
  1. Autologous blood donor units must be tested for:
    1- ABO,
    2 - Rh,
    3 - HbaAg,
    4 - Anti-HIV1

a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. All
d. 3 and 4

A

a. 1 and 2

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18
Q
  1. Characteristic of anti-Fya?

a. Usually a cold reacting agglutinin
b. Capable of causing hemolytic
transfusion reactions
c. More reactive when tested with enzyme treated red blood cells
d. Often an autoagglutinin

A

b. Capable of causing hemolytic
transfusion reactions

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18
Q
  1. Based upon Kleihauer Betke tests results, which of the following formulas is used to determine the volume of fetomaternal hemorrhage in mL of whole blood?

a. % of fetal cells x 50
b. % of fetal cells x 30
c. % of maternal cells x 30
d. % of maternal cells x 50

A

a. % of fetal cells x 50

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19
Q
  1. Cold agglutinin syndrome is best associated with which of the following blood groups?

a. Ii
b. Rh
c. P
d. Duffy

A

a. Ii

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20
Q
  1. Determine what incompatibility is
    demonstrated. Group A (donor) with Group O (patient)

a. Incompatible in major crossmatch
b. None of these
c. Both
d. Incompatible in minor crossmatch

A

a. Incompatible in major crossmatch

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20
Q
  1. Deglycerolization process on Low Glycerol frozen RBCs

a. 50% Glucose + 5% Fructose 0.9% NaCl
b. 45% NaCl 15% Mannitol 0.9% NaCl
c. 45% NaCl 20% Mannitol 0.9% NaCl
d. 12% NaCl 1.6% NaCl 0.9% NaCl

A

b. 45% NaCl 15% Mannitol 0.9% NaCl

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21
Q
  1. Donor: a 25 year old man who says he had a yellow jaundice right after he was born should be

a. Deferred indefinitely
b. Accepted
c. Deferred 12 months
d. Deferred temporarily

A

b. Accepted

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21
Q

28.Donor, a 65-year old man whose birthday is tomorrow should be:

a. Deferred indefinitely
b. Accepted
c. Deferred temporarily
d. Deferred for 12 months

A

b. Accepted

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22
Q
  1. Each unit of whole blood will yield
    approximately how many units of
    cryoprecipitated AHF?

a. 30
b. 250
c. 80
d. 40

A

c. 80

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23
Q
  1. For autologous blood donation, blood should not be drawn from the donor-patient within _______ hours of the time of the anticipated operation or transfusion

a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 72 hours

A

d. 72 hours

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23
Q
  1. Fever and chills are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?

a. Febrile
b. Circulatory overload
c. Allergic
d. Citrate toxicity

A

c. Allergic

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24
Q
  1. Free hemoglobin on blood after experiencing transfusion reaction is observed after

a. 0-6 hours
b. 24 hours
c. None of these
d. 1-2 days

A

a. 0-6 hours

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25
Q
  1. Full dose of Rh immune globulin contains _____ anti-D

a. 100ug
b. 20ug
c. 300ug
d. 50ug

A

c. 300ug

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25
Q
  1. Graft versus host disease is caused by

a. Erythrocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Granulocytes
d. Platelets

A

b. Lymphocytes

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26
Q
  1. Hydroxyethyl starch (HES) is a rouleaux promoting agent used to

a. Resolve ABO typing discrepancies
b. Increase the harvest of granulocytes
in leukapheresis
c. Stabilize the pH of stored platelets
d. Treat patients following hemolytic
transfusion reaction

A

b. Increase the harvest of granulocytes
in leukapheresis

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27
Q
  1. If a donor weighs 105 lbs, how much blood can safely be drawn?

a. 427 ml
b. 450 ml
c. 440 ml
d. 430 ml

A

d. 430 ml

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28
Q
  1. If a group R1r marries a group O R2r woman, what percentage of the offspring can be expected to be D negative?

a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%

A

b. 25%

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29
Q
  1. If a prospective allogeneic donor has received blood or blood components known to be sources of hepatitis, the donor should be deferred from donating for _____ after the transfusion

a. 3 months
b. 6 weeks
c. 12 months
d. 6 months

A

c. 12 months

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30
Q
  1. If an Rh negative woman recently delivered an Rh positive baby and the Kleihauer-Betke test result is 5%, how many vials of Rh Ig should be administered?

a. 8
b. 9
c. 7
d. 6

A

b. 9

31
Q
  1. If blood is to be transported, the blood temperature must be kept between

a. 20-40oC
b. 1 to 10oC
c. None of the choices
d. 1-6oC

A

b. 1 to 10oC

32
Q
  1. If the seal is entered on a unit of whole blood stored at 1-6oC, what is the maximum allowable storage period, in hours?

a. 48
b. 24
c. 6
d. 72

A

b. 24

32
Q
  1. If group AB Rh negative patient is admitted with massive bleeding, which of the following units of packed cells would be the least desirable to transfuse?

a. Group A Rh negative
b. Group B Rh negative
c. Group O Rh positive
d. Group O Rh negative

A

c. Group O Rh positive

33
Q
  1. In order serologic testing for blood bag

a. HIV Hepa B Hepa C Syphilis Malaria
b. Hepa B HIV Hepa C Syphilis Malaria
c. Hepa B Hepa B HIV Malaria Syphilis
d. HIV Hepa B Hepa C Syphilis Malaria

A

d. HIV Hepa B Hepa C Syphilis Malaria

34
Q
  1. Inheritance of Sese and the Lewis gene produces the following phenotype:

a. Le (a-b+)
b. Le (a+b+)
c. Le (a+b-)
d. Le (a-b-)

A

a. Le (a-b+)

35
Q
  1. Irradiation of donor blood is done to prevent which of the following adverse effects of transfusion?

a. Cytomegalovirus infection
b. TAGVHD
c. Febrile transfusion reaction
d. TRALI

A

b. TAGVHD

36
Q
  1. Lectins are

a. Plant extracts
b. Enzymes
c. Antibodies
d. Bacterial metabolites

A

a. Plant extracts

37
Q
  1. Leukocyte Poor red blood cells would most likely to be indicated for patients with a history of

a. Hemophilia A
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Febrile transfusion reaction
d. von Willebrand disease

A

c. Febrile transfusion reaction

37
Q
  1. Minimum number of platelets in a platelet concentrate prepared from whole blood by centrifugation

a. 3.0x1011
b. 5.5x1010
c. 5.5 x 1011
d. 3.0x1010

A

b. 5.5x1010

38
Q
  1. Monitoring of refrigerators and freezers in Blood bank section is done when.

a. Every 4 hours
b. Annually
c. Daily
d. Quarterly

A

c. Daily

38
Q
  1. Most common cause of death associated with Transfusion reaction

a. Allergic reaction
b. HTR
c. GVHD
d. Bacterial contamination

A

b. HTR

38
Q
  1. Mutations in the carrier molecule for this blood group system may result in changes of red blood cell shape in the forms of acanthocytosis or ovalocytosis?

a. SC
b. DI
c. CO
d. DO

A

b. DI

39
Q
  1. Of the death caused by bacterial
    contamination of blood components reported to Centers for Disease Control (CDC); most are caused by blood components contaminated by

a. Escherichia coli
b. Yersinia enterocolitica
c. Pseudomonas species
d. None of these

A

b. Yersinia enterocolitica

40
Q
  1. Once defrosted, cryoprecipitate must be administered within ___ hours of thawing.

a. 4
b. 6
c. 12
d. 2

A

b. 6

40
Q
  1. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is often associated with antibodies in which system?

a. MNS
b. Lewis
c. P
d. Rh

A

c. P

41
Q
  1. Polyspecific AHG reagent contains:

a. Anti-IgG
b. Anti-IgG and anti-IgM
c. Anti-C3d
d. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

A

d. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

41
Q
  1. Predominant amount of agglutinated red cells towards the top of the gel column with a few agglutinates staggered below the thicker band.

a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+

A

c. 3+

42
Q
  1. Rejuvenation of a unit of red blood cells is a method used to

a. Filter blood clots and other debris
b. Inactivate viruses and bacteria
c. Restore 2,3 DPG and ATP to normal
levels
d. Remove antibody attached to RBC

A

c. Restore 2,3 DPG and ATP to normal
levels

43
Q
  1. Review the following schematic diagram. PATIENT SERUM + REAGENT GROUP O CELLS INCUBATE READ FOR
    AGGLUTINATION WASH ADD AHG
    AGGLUTINATION OBSERVED. The next step would be to

a. Identify the cause of agglutination
b. Perform DAT
c. Add check ells as a confirmatory
measure
d. Perform an elution technique

A

a. Identify the cause of agglutination

44
Q
  1. Rh immune globulin provides _______ protection against fetal D antigen.

a. Active
b. Antibody-stimulated
c. Antigen-stimulated
d. Passive

A

d. Passive

45
Q
  1. Select the acceptable alternative for a packed red cell transfusion if ABO group specific blood were not available

a. Group O recipient with a group A donor
b. Group B recipient with group AB donor
c. Group AB recipient with a group B
donor
d. Group A recipient with group B donor

A

c. Group AB recipient with a group B
donor

45
Q
  1. Select the condition that would NOT cause a blood unit to be quarantined for possible contamination

a. Purple color to the red cell mass D.
Blood in the ports
b. Green appearance to the plasma
c. Blood in the ports
d. Hemolysis just above the red cell mass

A

c. Blood in the ports

46
Q
  1. Shelf life of red blood cells in CPDA-1

a. 1 year
b. 35 days
c. 24 hours
d. 5 days

A

b. 35 days

47
Q
  1. The antibodies of Kidd blood group system

a. Do not generally react with antigen
positive, enzyme treated RBCs
b. Are predominantly IgM
c. Often cause allergic transfusion
reactions
d. React best by the indirect
antiglobulin test

A

d. React best by the indirect
antiglobulin test

48
Q
  1. The antibody in the Lutheran system that is best detected at lower temperature is

a. anti-Lub
b. Anti-Lu3
c. anti-Luab
d. anti-Lua

A

d. anti-Lua

49
Q
  1. The drug cephalosporin can cause a positive direct antiglobulin test by which of the following mechanisms?

a. Membrane modification
b. Immune-complex formation
c. Autoantibody production
d. Complement fixation

A

a. Membrane modification

50
Q
  1. The mechanism that best explains hemolytic anemia due to penicillin is

a. Autoantibody production
b. Drug absorption
c. Immune complex formation
d. Membrane modification

A

b. Drug absorption

51
Q
  1. The minimum hemoglobin concentration in g/dL in fingerstick from male blood donor is

a. 15.0
b. 12.0
c. 13.5
d. 12.5

A

d. 12.5

51
Q
  1. The most important step in the safe administration of blood is to

a. Perform compatibility testing
b. Accurate identification of donor unit and recipient
c. Exclude disqualified donor
d. Get an accurate patient history

A

d. Get an accurate patient history

52
Q
  1. The most severe form of HDN is associated with

a. anti-B
b. anti-A
c. anti-D
d. anti-K

A

c. anti-D

53
Q
  1. The principal purpose of the crossmatch is to

a. Prevent immunization of the recipient
b. Prove that a recipient does or does not have an unexpected antibody in the serum
c. Verify that the donor and recipient are Rh-identical
d. Detect recipient antibodies that are
directed against donor red cell antigens

A

d. Detect recipient antibodies that are
directed against donor red cell antigens

53
Q
  1. The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as

a. absorption
b. lyophilization
c. elution
d. Diffusion

A

c. elution

54
Q
  1. The radiation source for irradiation of blood product is

a. 137Ce
b. 131 I
c. 14 C
d. 131Te

A

a. 137Ce

54
Q
  1. The required hemoglobin and hematocrit for autologous donation should be at least:

a. 11 g/dL hgb, 38% Hct
b. 11 g/dL hgb, 33% Hct
c. 12.5 g/dL hgb, 33% Hct
d. 12.5 g/dL hgb, 38% Hct

A

b. 11 g/dL hgb, 33% Hct

55
Q
  1. The result of Kleihauer Betke stain indicate a FMMH of 35 mL of whole blood. How many vials of Rh immune globulin would be required?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 2

A

d. 2

55
Q
  1. This is the prime factor determined as a fundamental flaw causing fatal transfusion reaction

a. Clerical error
b. Bacterial contamination
c. NPF
d. HTR

A

d. HTR

56
Q
  1. This type of transfusion reaction may occur in Ig-A deficient patients who demonstrate potent IgG anti-IgA and who are exposed to IgA containing plasma products

a. Allergic
b. Hemolytic
c. Anaphylactic
d. Circulatory overload

A

c. Anaphylactic

57
Q
  1. To evaluate the reaction obtained in the antiglobulin test, one can

a. Use green antiglobulin reagent
b. Add IgG-coated red cells to each
positive reaction
c. Add IgG-coated red cells to each
negative reaction
d. Add IgG-coated red cells to each test tube

A

c. Add IgG-coated red cells to each
negative reaction

58
Q
  1. True about ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn

a. Frequently results in still birth
b. Usually requires an exchange
transfusion
c. Is usually seen only in the newborn
of group O mothers
d. Most often occurs in first born children

A

c. Is usually seen only in the newborn
of group O mothers

59
Q
  1. Washed red cell are indicated in which of the following situations?

a. An Ig-A deficient patient with history
of transfusion associated anaphylaxis
b. A newborn with hematocrit of <30%
c. A pregnant woman with a history of
HDN
d. A patient with a positive DAT and red cell autoantibody

A

a. An Ig-A deficient patient with history
of transfusion associated anaphylaxis

60
Q
  1. When performing ABO typing by the gel method in microtubes, the cells appear pelleted at the bottom after centrifugation. What is the
    interpretation of this appearance?

a. The test is negative
b. The test is positive
c. The test cannot be interpreted until the cells are resuspended
d. The test is strongly positive

A

a. The test is negative

61
Q
  1. Which donor may be considered for autologous donation but not with allogenic whole blood donation?

a. Donor with a temperature of 37.5 C
b. Donor with a hemoglobin of 12.6 g/dl
c. Donor that is 15 yrs old age
d. Donor with a blood pressure of 120/90

A

c. Donor that is 15 yrs old age

62
Q
  1. Which of the following antigens gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody following treatment of the red cell with
    proteolytic enzymes?

a. S
b. M
c. E
d. Fya

A

c. E

62
Q
  1. Which of the following blood components is the best source of factor IX?

a. Cryoprecipitated AHF
b. Single-donor plasma
c. Fresh frozen plasma
d. Prothrombin complex

A

d. Prothrombin complex

63
Q
  1. Which of the following has the greatest amount of H antigen?

a. Grp AB red cells
b. Grp A red cells
c. Grp B red cells
d. Grp O red cells

A

d. Grp O red cells

63
Q

86.Which of the following is a characteristic of Anti-I?

a. Is usually IgG
b. Often associated with HDN
c. Reacts best at 37 C
d. Frequently a cold agglutinin

A

d. Frequently a cold agglutinin

64
Q

87.Which of the following is a characteristic of Anti-I?

a. Associated with warm autoimmune
hemolytic anemia
b. Found only in the serum of Grp O
individuals
c. Detected at lower temperature in the serum of normal individuals
d. Found in the serum of patients with
infectious mononucleosis

A

d. Found in the serum of patients with
infectious mononucleosis

65
Q
  1. Which of the following is positive for the compound antigen Ce(f)?

a. R2r2
b. All of these
c. R1R2
d. rr

A

d. rr

66
Q
  1. Which of the following is the proper storage temperature requirement for granulocytes?

a. 1 to 60c
b. Room temp with constant agitation
c. Room temp without agitation
d. 1 to 10C

A

c. Room temp without agitation

67
Q
  1. Which of the following transfusion reactions occurs after infusion of only a few milliliters of blood and gives no history of fever?

a. Anaphylactic
b. Hemolytic
c. Circulatory overload
d. Febrile

A

d. Febrile

68
Q
  1. Which of the following would be the component of choice for increasing red cell mass of patient with anaphylactic reaction?

a. Washed red cell
b. Leukocyte-reduced
c. Packed RBC
d. Irradiated RBC

A

a. Washed red cell

69
Q
  1. ZZAP is used to remove antibody from sensitized RBCs and to enzyme treat the at the same time. It is a mixture of

a. CPD and ficin
b. Dithiothreitol and ficin
c. Dithiothreitol and papain
d. CPD and papain

A

c. Dithiothreitol and papain

69
Q

94.A Kleihauer-Betke acid elution stain for post partum fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH) is reported to be 1.3%. What is the total volume of
fetomaternal hemorrhage?

a. 13 mL
b. 26 mL
c. 6.5 mL
d. 65 mL

A

d. 65 mL

70
Q
A
71
Q
A
72
Q
A
73
Q
A
74
Q
A
75
Q
A

PLE - BB (1 decks)

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