Official Study Guide 2 Flashcards

1
Q

NIST SP800-53 discusses security controls as a security ___

A

baseline

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2
Q

Communication systems that rely on start and stop flags or bits to manage data transmission are known as ___

A

Asynchronous

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3
Q

___ motion detectors transmit ultrasonic or microwave signals into the monitor area, watching for changes in the returned signals bouncing off objects

A

Wave pattern

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4
Q

___ provides AAA functionality, but is a Cisco proprietary protocol

A

TACACS+

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5
Q

the TCP three-way handshake is ___

A

SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK

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6
Q

The ___ program helps to protect the supply chain for components and devices by ensuring that the companies that produce and supply them are secure

A

US Trusted Foundry

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7
Q

in an IaaS environment, the vendor is only responsible for the hardware and the ___

A

hypervisor

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8
Q

when testing a website, another word for synthetic monitoring (using realistic data) is ___

A

proactive monitoring

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9
Q

___ (or impersonation) attacks use stolen or falsified credentials to bypass authentication mechanisms. ___ attacks rely on falsifying an identity like an IP address or hostname without credentials. ___ attacks are a more specific type of impersonation attack that relies on captured network traffic to reestablish authorized
connections

A

Masquerading; Spoofing; Replay

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10
Q

The ___ evidence rule states that when an agreement between two parties is put into written form, it is assumed to be the entire agreement unless amended in writing

A

parol

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11
Q

The ___ evidence rule says that a copy of a document is not admissible if the original document is available

A

best

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12
Q

___ reviews the use and application of controls in an audited organization. It forms part of the underlying framework for SOC 1, 2, and 3 reports

A

SSAE-18

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13
Q

The Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA) provides safe harbor protection for the operators of ___

A

Internet service providers

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14
Q

___ is a variation in the latency for different packets

A

Jitter

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15
Q

___ are a special form of input validation that ensure that the value remains within an expected range

A

Limit checks

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16
Q

___ via a web portal can require user authentication and can gather data like operating systems, versions, software information, and many other factors that can uniquely identify systems

A

Device fingerprinting

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17
Q

Packets with ___ IP addresses as sources or destinations should never be routed onto the Internet

A

private

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18
Q

The most frequent target of account management reviews are ___ accounts, as they create the greatest risk

A

highly privileged

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19
Q

The courts have applied the ___ rule to include the concept that attorneys may not introduce logs into evidence unless they are authenticated by the system administrator

A

hearsay

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20
Q

Attackers may use ___ as a tool to exploit a TOC/TOU race condition

A

algorithmic complexity

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21
Q

The formula for determining the number of encryption keys required by a symmetric
algorithm is ___

A

((n*(n − 1))/2)

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22
Q

many modern thieves immediately take steps to ensure that mobile devices ___ before they capture data or wipe the device for resale.

A

will not be trackable or allowed to connect to a network

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23
Q

___ server monitoring relies on synthetic or previously recorded traffic

A

Active

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24
Q

___ access control empowers people closer to the resources to control access but does not provide consistent control

A

Decentralized

25
Q

Access control systems rely on ___ and ___ to provide accountability. Effective ___ systems are desirable, but not required, since logs can provide information about who accessed what resources, even if access to those resources is not managed well

A

identification; authentication;

authorization

26
Q

EAP was originally intended to be used on ___ network channels and did not include ___

A

physically isolated; encryption

27
Q

The Linux tool ___ creates a bit-by-bit copy of the target drive that is well suited to forensic use

A

dd

28
Q

___ is specifically defined by HIPAA to include information about an individual’s medical bills

A

Personal health information (PHI)

29
Q

___ include both the access and actions that you can take on an object. ___ usually refer to the ability to take action on an object and don’t include the access to it

A

permissions; Rights

30
Q

___ combine rights and permissions, and roles describe sets of ___ based on job tasks or other organizational artifacts

A

Privileges; privileges

31
Q

___ is a feature in operating systems (such as Windows) that enables computers to automatically self-configure an IP address and subnet mask when their DHCP server isn’t reachable. The IP address range for this is ___

A

Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA);

169.254.0.1 - 169.254.255.254

32
Q

___, or registration, is the initial creation of a user account in the provisioning process

A

Enrollment

33
Q

The ___ role is responsible for making sure systems provide value (balanced with security needs)

A

business or mission owner’s

34
Q

The ___ (Act) makes it a crime to invade the electronic privacy of an individual. It prohibits the unauthorized monitoring of email and voicemail communications

A

Electronic Communications Privacy Act (ECPA)

35
Q

Syslog uses port ___

A

UDP 514 (or TCP 6514)

36
Q

___ is a TCP flag used to clear the buffer, resulting in immediately sending data

A

PSH

37
Q

___ is the TCP urgent flag

A

URG

38
Q

___ is a TCP flag for Nonce concealment protection

A

NS

39
Q

___ is a TCP flag used to reset the connection

A

RST

40
Q

As the incident response progresses, the root cause analysis is a component of the ___ step of the incident response process

A

remediation

41
Q

___ errors are most likely to be missed by automated functional testing

A

Business logic

42
Q

___ sites take a very long time to activate, measured in weeks or months

A

Cold

43
Q

Test coverage is computed using the formula test coverage = number of ___/ total number of ___

A

use cases tested; use cases

44
Q

___ is the first functional goal of physical security mechanisms

A

Deterrence

45
Q

a good alternative to FTP for transferring files is ___

A

SCP—Secure Copy

46
Q

The California Online Privacy Protection Act requires that commercial websites that collect personal information from users in California ___

A

conspicuously post a privacy policy

47
Q

Iris scans have a longer useful life than many other types of biometric factors because ___

A

they don’t change throughout a person’s life span

48
Q

The ___ Act is an example of civil law, whereas most cyber-security laws are criminal

A

Gramm-Leach-Bliley (GLBA)

49
Q

The S/MIME secure email format uses the ___ file format for encrypted email messages

A

P7S

50
Q

___ allows the storage of multiple different pieces of information in a database at different classification levels to prevent attackers from conducting aggregation or inference attacks

A

Polyinstantiation

51
Q

Any primary key is, by definition, also a ___ key

A

candidate

52
Q

to protect the integrity of an email message without encryption, you should ___

A

digitally sign it (no need to hash it)

53
Q

to force cookies to use TLS, you should ___

A

set the Secure attribute on them

54
Q

___ is specifically designed for encrypted file transfer, while ___ is used for secure command-line access

A

SFTP; SSH

55
Q

The disaster recovery test types, listed in order (A-D) of their potential impact on the business from the least impactful to the most impactful, are as follows:

A

A. Checklist review
B. Parallel test
C. Tabletop exercise
D. Full interruption test

56
Q

HIPAA requires that anyone working with personal health information on behalf of a HIPAA-covered entity be subject to the terms of a ___

A

business associates agreement (BAA)

57
Q

an ___ can translate traffic between IPv6 networks and IPv4 networks

A

IPv6 to IPv4 gateway

58
Q

WPA2 encryption has no effect on ___ attacks

A

password

59
Q

in contrast to synthetic user monitoring, passive monitoring is also referred to as ___ monitoring

A

real user