OEC Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Good Samaritan laws generally:
A: protect a ski patroller from being sued in every situation
B: apply to people who do not receive compensation for helping people.
C: The same in every state
D: provide enough protection so that you need not know whether your mountain has insurance

A

B: Apply to people who do no receive compensation for helping people.

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2
Q
The failure to exercise the care that a reasonably prudent persons with similar training would exercise in a similar circumstance is knows as:
A: negligence 
B: assault
C: gross negligence 
Dare of care breach
A

A: negligence

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3
Q
You have just finished your shift, and while driving home still wearing your patrol jacket you come upon a car collision in which people appear to be injured.  The collision wearing your patrol jacket, members of the public may have reasonable expectation that you will provide care. This expectation is known as:
A: the absence of neglect
B: professional ethics
C: moral obligation
D: the doctrine of public reliance
A

D: the doctrine of public reliance

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4
Q

Upon finding an unconscious patient at the scene of a bad accident, your next step should be to:
A: assume “implied consent” and begin to examine and treat the patient
B: delay your examination and ask other patrollers to respond as witnesses
C:delay your examination until you can locate a spouse or a friend of the patient
D:begin your assessment but do not provide any treatment until another patroller arrives

A

A: assume “implied consent” and begin to examine and treat the patient.

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5
Q
The structure that regulates body temperature is the:
A: brain stem
B: hypothalamus
C: medulla
D: cerebellum
A

B: hypothalamus

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6
Q

Metabolism:
A: always involves insulin from the pancreas
B: involves only glucose and enzymes
C: is the same as the digestive process
D: is defined as the chemical process occurring within a living cell or organism.

A

D: is defined as the chemical process occurring within a living cell or organism.

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7
Q

Conduction is the transfer of heat:
A: when the skin is in contact with air or water
B: through reflection
C: through respiration
D: from a warm object to a cold object through direct contact

A

D: from a warm object to a cold object through direct contact

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8
Q
The primary fuel source for muscles is(are):
A: proteins 
B: oxygen
C: carbohydrates
D: sodium
A

C: carbohydrates

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9
Q

Which of the following tasks is the first component of a scene size up:
A: identify the number of patients involved
B: determine the MOI
C: determine whether additional resources are needed
D: scene safety

A

D: scene safety

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10
Q
A common MOI (mechanism of injury) that OEC technicians will encounter is:
A: a respiratory problem
B: a cardiac problem
C: altered mental status
D: blunt force
A

D: blunt force

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11
Q
Which of the following anatomical statements is true?
A: the hand is proximal to the elbow
B: the shoulder is distal to the hand
C: the hip is distal to the knee
D: the knee is proximal to the ankle
A

D: the knee is proximal to the ankle

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12
Q
A new patroller tells you that he injured a tendon above his patella three years ago. You recognize that ''tis involves a structure that:
A: connects muscles to the patella
B: connects the cartilage in the knee
C: holds and secure the bone of the knee
D: attaches a ligament to the knee
A

A: connects muscles to the patella

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13
Q
Involuntary or smooth muscles are found in which of the following structures?
A: muscles of the arms and legs
B: blood vessels and intestines
C: the central nervous systems
D: the heart and blood vessels
A

B: blood vessels and intestines

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14
Q
Which of the following groups of bones could be involved in a patient with a "broken leg"?
A: acetabulum, calcaneous, carpals
B: femur, tibia, fibula
C: orbit, maxillae, mandible
D: radius, ulna, humerus
A

B: femur, tibia, fibula

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15
Q
The Lower jaw is also called the:
A: mandible
B: zygoma
C: maxilla
D: mastoid
A

A: mandible

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16
Q
When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which one of the following occurs?
A: inhalation
B: release
C: inspiration 
D: exhalation
A

D: exhalation

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17
Q
Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping blood to the lungs?
A: the left atrium
B: the left ventricle 
C: the right ventricle 
D: the right atrium
A

C: the right ventricle

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18
Q

The left atrium:
A: receives blood from the veins of the body
B: receives blood from the pulmonary veins
C: pumps blood to the lungs
D: pumps blood to the body

A

B: receives blood from the pulmonary veins

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19
Q
The Pressure exerted on the inside walls of artery when the left ventricle contracts is called:
A: systolic pressure
B: arterial pressure
C: diastolic pressure
D: residual pressure
A

A: systolic pressure

20
Q
The terms Occipital, Frontal, and Pariental refer to what part of the body?
A: the chest
B: the cranium
C: the pelvis
D: the spine
A

B: the cranium

21
Q
Basic unit of all living things is:
A: the cell
B: an organ
C: a hormone
D: plasma
A

A: the cell

22
Q

Which of the following lists presents the order in which an OEC technician should assess a patient in a field setting?
A: primary assessment, reassessment, secondary assessment
B: scene size up, secondary assessment, primary assessment
C: scene size up, primary assessment, secondary assessment
D: scene size up, history, secondary assessment, primary assessment

A

C: scene size up, primary assessment, secondary assessment

23
Q

You have been dispatched to an 89-year-old female with an unspecified complaint. When assessing this patient, which one of the following will the OEC Technician do as quickly as possible to develop a better understanding of the emergency?
A: obtain the patient’s vital signs and current medications.
B: gather a medical history, including information on allergies.
C: contact medical direction for advice.
D: determine if the complaint is medical (NOI) or trauma related (MOI).

A

D: determine if the complaint is medical (NOI) or trauma related (MOI).

24
Q

You are assessing a four-year-old patient whose panicked mother states that she cannot wake him. The child is breathing but his eyes are closed. To best determine the child’s mental status, you should first:
A: apply pressure to the child’s nail beds
B: say loudly, “open your eyes!”
C: ask the mother how long the child has been asleep
D: consider the child to be unresponsive

A

B: say loudly, “open your eyes!”

25
Q

A secondary assessment consists of which of the following three steps?
A: medical history, physical exam, and vital signs
B: ABCD’s, on-going exam, and vital signs
C: medical history, trauma exam, and vital signs
D: on-going exam, detailed physical exam, and vital signs

A

A: medical history, physical exam, and vital signs

26
Q

An OEC Technician’s assessment of a trauma patient’s circulation status during a primary assessment should include:
A: carotid pulse, capillary refill, blood pressure, and skin color
B: radial pulse, examination for the presence of external bleeding, and LOR
C: skin color, pulse rate, blood pressure, and skin temperature
D: pulse rate, blood pressure, capillary refill, and skin condition

A

B: radial pulse, examination for the presence of external bleeding, and LOR

27
Q

A 44-year-old male was on the latter cutting limbs from the tree when he fell. He is found to be unresponsive with normal respirations. His breathing is adequate at a rate of 12 per minute and his Caroid pulse is strong at 88 per minute. Following the primary assessment and initial management, which of the following actions will the OTC technician complete the performing the secondary assessment?
A: get a medical history from a family member
B: start positive pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask
C: place an oral airway and put a cervical collar on the patient
D: perform a jaw-thrust maneuver to open the airway

A

A: get a medical history from a family member

28
Q

DCAP-BTLS is mnemonic to assist you in remembering:
A: A trauma patients vital signs
B: what to assess for while inspecting and palpating a patient
C: medications, allergies, and the patient’s medical history
D: The order in which to assess a patient during a physical exam

A

B: what to assess for while inspecting and palpating a patient

29
Q

A complete set of vitals is taken at the:
A: beginning and end of the secondary assessment
B: beginning of the secondary assessment
C: end of the secondary assessment
D: end of the primary assessment

A

A: beginning and end of the secondary assessment

30
Q
The key to a successful assessment is:
A: A systematic and universal approach
B: toe to head physical exam
C: A rapid trauma exam
D: interviewing bystanders
A

A: A systematic and universal approach

31
Q
Which of the following findings is a sign, not a symptom?
A: an open leg facture
B: and upset stomach
C: A sharp headache
D: chest pain
A

A: an open leg facture

32
Q

Which of the following findings is a symptom?
A: A deep laceration
B: Hives resulting from an allergic reaction
C: difficulty breathing
D: ringing in the ears

A

D: ringing in the ears

33
Q
What letter in a SAMPLE interview indicates that a patient has a history of seizures?
A: S
B: A
C: M
D: P
A

D: P

34
Q
What letter of the OPQRST mnemonic reflects a medical emergency patients report and difficulty in breathing became worse about two hours ago?
A: Q
B: R
C: S
D: T
A

D: T

35
Q

Which of the following findings is an Objective finding made during a patient assessment?
A: patients complaint of nausea
B: blood pressure of 114/68 mmHg
C: patients rating of pain as 10 out of 10
D: patient complaint of headache for the past 12 hours

A

B: blood pressure of 114/68 mmHg

36
Q

A nauseated patient’s report of abdominal pain should be documented:
A: as a Treatment finding
B: as a subjective finding
C: as an objective finding
D: this information need not be documented

A

B: as a subjective finding

37
Q
When asked, an alert and oriented 44-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure reports that he called for help because "my chest is hurting." He is diaphoretic and nauseated, has a pulse of 88 and a BP of 156/92, and says that his pain "feels just like a heart attack two years ago." Based on this information, how would you document his chief complaint on the patient care report?
A: "my chest is hurting"
B: possible heart attack
C: myocardial infarction 
D: chest pain with hypertension
A

A: “my chest is hurting”

38
Q

Which of the following lists best describes the path that oxygen must travel to get from the air to blood cells?
A: nasopharynx, oropharynx, trachea, bronchioles
B: oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles
C: nose, pharynx, esophagus, alveoli
D: pharynx, larynx, trachea, alveoli, bronchioles

A

B: oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles

39
Q

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has an accurate understanding of breathing?
A: “when a person inhales, carbon dioxide is drawn into the lungs, and when he exhales, oxygen leaves he body”
B: “respiration is best described as the process of moving air into and out of the body”
C: “inhalation is an active process, whereas for most patients exhalation is a passive process”
D: “in between breaths, the epiglottis closes over and protects the trachea”

A

C: “inhalation is an active process, whereas for most patients exhalation is a passive process”

40
Q

Which of the following patients would benefit from the head tilt-chin lift maneuver?
A: a 39-year-old male who just had seizure and has snoring respirations.
B: a 45-year-old female who is alert and vomiting blood
C: a 67-year-old female who fell down a flight of stairs and is unresponsive
D: a 85-year-old female who hit her head on a tree limb and is now responsive to painful stimuli

A

A: a 39-year-old male who just had seizure and has snoring respirations.

41
Q

Why is the jaw-thrust maneuver indicated for a patient with a possible spinal injury?
A: is it a permanent intervention that does not require insertion of an airway if performed correctly
B: it minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine
C: it is less painful for the patient
D: it is the rescuer’s preference as to whether to use the jaw-thrust maneuver

A

B: it minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine

42
Q

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands how to use an oropharyngeal airway?
A: “once it has been placed, the head tilt-chin lift is no longer needed”
B: “if it is too small, it could push the epiglottis over the opening of the trachea”
C: “it protects the patient from aspirating vomit or other secretions”
D: “I must watch the patient for vomiting or gagging even with the proper insertion”

A

D: “I must watch the patient for vomiting or gagging even with the proper insertion”

43
Q

A patient in early shock informs you that he has had sever diarrhea and vomiting over the past four days. Giving this history, you would recognize the pathophysiology of the shock is probably related to:
A: the loss of red blood cells
B: decreased formed elements in the blood
C: leakage of the capillaries
D: the loss of plasma volume

A

D: the loss of plasma volume

44
Q
A patient with severe gastrointestinal bleeding is in shock. This type of shock is known as:
A: hypervolemic
B: cardiogenic
C: hemorrhagic
D: distributive
A

C: hemorrhagic

45
Q

The four major categories of shock are:
A: Hemorrhagic, distributive, hypoxic, and obstructive
B: burn, hypovolemic, distributive, and hypoxic
C: hypoglycemic, obstructive, distributive, and hypovolemic
D: hypovolemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive

A

D: hypovolemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive

46
Q

Which of the following conditions could be responsible for causing obstructive shock?
A: infection throughout the body
B: loss of blood in the urine
C: Blood clots in the lungs
D: Poor transfer of oxygen at the capillary level

A

C: Blood clots in the lungs

47
Q

Which of the following situations is occurring in the body of a person in shock?
A: the cells are getting glucose and other nutrients but not oxygen
B: the amount of oxygen reaching the cells is adequate, but carbon dioxide is not being removed
C:the blood contains an adequate amount of oxygen but not enough but not enough nutrients for cells to survive
D: a state of inadequate tissue perfusion

A

D: a state of inadequate tissue perfusion