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Spirit Study - Other > OE Prep > Flashcards

OE Prep Flashcards

1
Q

Reject Takeoff
- Below 100kts
- Above 100kts and below V1

A

Below 100 kts:
- Although we cannot list all the causes, the Captain should seriously consider discontinuing the takeoff, if any ECAM warning/caution is activated.

Above 100kts and below V1:
• Fire warning or severe damage.
• Sudden loss of engine thrust.
• The occurrence of the “RETARD” auto callout.
• Malfunctions or conditions that give unambiguous indications
that the aircraft will not fly safely.
• Any red ECAM warning.
• Any amber ECAM caution listed below:
- F/CTL SIDESTICK FAULT
- ENG FAIL
- ENG REVERSER FAULT
- ENG REVERSE UNLOCKED
- ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT

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2
Q

V1 Briefing - Captain

A

Prior to V1:
- It will be my decision to reject.
- I will bring the aircraft to a stop, put the parking brake ON, and call for “Flight Attendant Stations”
- Analyze the situation and call for ECAM actions and/or Emergency Evacuation Checklist, if required

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3
Q

V1 Briefing - First Officer

A

Prior to V1:
- I will call your Reversers/Autobrakes or manual brakes
- Inform ATC we are stopping on the runway and, if required, request emergency equiptment
- Turn the dome light on, then perform ECAM actions and/or Emergency Evacuation Checklist, if required.

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4
Q

V1 Briefing - Pilot Flying

A

After V1:
We will continue.
- If we have an engine fire or failure:
1. The EO SID is (Brief the EO SID, acceleration altitude, and activation of FMS SEC F-PLN, if appropriate)
2. We will plan to land at ___ (Brief return or no return to origin airport considering weight, weather, landing minimums, and if there is a takeoff alternate.)

  • If there is anything else, we will treat it as an in-flight emergency.
  • If all is normal, we will continue with the assigned SID
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5
Q

Average Fuel Consumption Cruise

A

6000 lbs/hr

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6
Q

Fully loaded APU average fuel consumption on ground

From what tank does fuel flow to APU?

A

300 lbs/hr

Left tanks

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7
Q

What is FLEX TEMP?

A

Flex thrust assumes a temperature at which actual takeoff weight would be equal to the maximum. Flex temp is that temperature

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8
Q

What is the OPT FL?

A

Displayed on the MCDU, it is the cruise altitude for minimum cost when ECON MACH is flown and should be followed whenever possible.

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9
Q

What is REC MAX FL?

What is it based upon?

A

It reflects the present engine and wing performance and does not take into account the cost aspect. It provides 0.3g buffet margin

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10
Q

When is takeoff at reduced thrust (FLEX) not permitted?

A
  1. On contaminated runways
  2. For known windshear conditions
  3. When a Special Departure Procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff
  4. When a deferred mx item per the MEL requires full thrust for takeoff
  5. When the flex temp is within 10c of actual OAT

AOM 2 p.186

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11
Q

ISA Correction

A

2 degrees per 1000 ft

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12
Q

How is Vapp calculated?

A

Either VLS + 1/3 wind component (entered in MCDU) or VLS + 5

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13
Q

Flight Attendant A Emergency Briefing

What does TEST stand for?

A

Type of Emergency - What is the problem
Evacuation Necessary - Not all emergencies require evacuation
Special Instructions - Land, sea, exits to block, etc
Time Remaining to Prepare - Full Prep vs Minimal Time to Prep
Signal to Brace and Signal to Evacuate - Signals to be used for both and how they will be given

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14
Q

Low-Time First Officer (100 Hours) Limitations

A

Notify Captain of low time status

Vis - Runways - Winds

Captain must make takeoff and landings in following conditions:
- At Special Pilot Qualification Airports
- Vis < 3/4sm or RVR < 4000
- Runway is contaminated
- Braking action < Good
- Crosswind < 10 kts
- Windshear reported or anticipated
- Ant time captain decides

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15
Q

Max brake temperature before takeoff

A

300 C (brake fans off)

150 C (fans on, must be turned off before takeoff)

AOM 2.310.5 / COM 3.1.61

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16
Q

Engine Warm Up Before Takeoff

A

Shutdown >= 2hrs: 5 min before high power
Shutdown < 2hrs: 3 min before takeoff

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17
Q

Runway or Takeoff Data Change

A

MCDU - Configs - Checklists

  1. FPLN - revise rwy, SID, transition
  2. PERF/ W&B Data - Obtain
  3. Perform Gross Weight Comparison
  4. Flaps
  5. Pitch Trim
  6. Repeat Mini Brief
  7. Repeat Taxi Checklist
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18
Q

For how long is OFP valid?

A

Up to 2 hours (domestic) or 6 hours (international) after OFP ETD (FOM 4.1.4)

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19
Q

Pilot procedure if received amended OFP

A

On one OFP crew copy, record (FOM 4.1.5):
1. Amendment number
2. zulu time
3. dispatcher initials

ex. 1A 0015Z CP ADDED MEL 32-42-01

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20
Q

OFP Shear Values

What are the possible shear values and associated severities?

A

0-3: weak
4-5: moderate
6-7: large
8+ : extreme

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21
Q

Gross Weight Comparison

When do you need an amended release?

A

Compare:
1. GTOW (Takeoff Data)
2. ETOW (Dispatch Release)
3. TOW (MCDU Init B)
4. GW (on ECAM after 1st engine start)

If Actual GTOW > ETOW + 2000lbs, you need an amended release

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22
Q

Why is the accuracy of the ZFW and ZFWCG in the MCDU important?

A

It is used to calculate Green Dot, F, S and VLS

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23
Q

MRTW/LIM Codes

A
B
C
D
F
O
T
V
S

A

A - Max. AFM Chart Weight
B - Brakes
C - Climb
D - Dry Check
F - Field
O - Obstacle
T - Tires
V - VMCG
S - Structural

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24
Q

V2500 Engines Keep-Out-Zone

A

60-74% N1

AOM 2.310.13 (p.633)

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25
Q

On takeoff roll, why do you apply forward sidestick?

When do you apply half forward sidestick?

When do you apply full forward sidestick?

Why do you want to avoid lateral sidestick?

A
  1. To counter the nose-up effect of setting engine takeoff thrust
  2. Half: No tailwind and crosswind <= 20kts
  3. Full: Tailwind or crosswind > 20kts
  4. Because you want to avoid spoiler extension. May use small lateral sidestick in strong crosswind to maintain wings level

(AOM 2 2.170.4)

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26
Q

When PM calls “THRUST SET” at 80kts, what should they be checking?

When should you reject takeoff?

A

Cross check PFD and ISIS speed

In case of airspeed difference > 20kts (same with 100kt call)

Refer to OEB-59: REINFORCED SPEED CHECK FOR ROTATION MODE

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27
Q

When do the flaps automatically retract?

A

Automatic Retraction System

While in CONF 1+F and IAS reaches 210kts, flaps (not slats) automatically retract to 0

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28
Q

When is NAV accuracy checked required?

When is it specifically called for in Normal Procedures

How is it performed?

What are the tolerances?

A

When GPS PRIMARY not available

Specifically called for:
1. Cruise: at top of climb
2. Descent Prep
3. Descent 10,000 ft flows

To perform Nav Accuracy check:
1. Press VOR D on EFIC control panel to find local VOR
2. Manually tune VOR on RAD NAV
3. EFIS: ROSE NAV and VOR needle displayed
4. PROG - enter VOR to get FMGS BRG/DIST
5. Compare to BRG/DIST on ND (raw data radio position)

Tolerance:
Cruise <= 3nm
Approach <= 1nm (or ACCUR HIGH displayed)

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29
Q

Cruise Checks - ECAM SD Pages

ENG
BLEED
ELEC
HYD
FUEL
COND
DOOR
FLT CTL
CRUISE

A

ENG: oil pressure and temperature
BLEED: BLEED parameters
ELEC: Parameters, GEN load
HYD: slight decrease in quantity is normal
- expect fluid contraction during cold soak
- green syst is lower than on ground, following landing gear retraction
FUEL: Fuel distribution
COND: duct temp, compare with zone temp
DOOR: O2 pressure
FLT CTL: note any unusual control surface position
CRUISE: pay regular attention to this page and monitor pax cabin temp

(AOM 2 p.338)

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30
Q

Cruise Fuel Check

A

Check FOB (ECAM) and fuel prediction (FMGC) and compare with flight plan.

Check that the sum of the FOB and fuel used is consistent with FOB at departure

(AOM 2 p.337)

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31
Q

How do you contact Medlink on the ground?

A

On Ground:
Flight crew or agent call 602-239-3627 (saved in phone)

In flight:
Contact ARINC, who will establish 3-way comm with flight, MedLink and Dispatch (Obtain ARINC freq from Jepp chart en route or QRM)

FOM 8.2.1

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32
Q

Cruise PROG page

What is OPT FL?

MAX REC FL?

A

OPT FL: Cruise altitude for minimum cost when ECON MACH is flown

MAX REC FL: Gives aircraft .3g buffet margin with present engine and wing performance

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33
Q
  1. When should you begin deceleration from 250kts to 180?
  2. What is deceleration from 210 kts?
  3. What is already on GS?
A
  1. 4nm from GS* or CDP
  2. 2nm from GS* or CDP
  3. 20nm from rwy

AOM 2 p.457 (OEMAP)

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34
Q

Stabilized Approach Criteria

At OM/FAF
At 1000 above TDZE
Below 1000 above TDZE

A

At OM/FAF:
1. Check altitude vs. distance

At 1000 feet above TDZE:
1. Correct lateral / glidepath (p. 471)
2. Landing Checklist Complete
3. +20/-5 and trending toward target
4. Stable thrust, no excessive param. deviations

Below 1000 feet above TDZE:
1. +10/-5 target speed
2. On centerline

(AOM 2.222.1 p.469)

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35
Q

Normal Flare Height on Landing

What are some situations where an earlier flare may be required?

A

30 feet
(AOM p.570)

May require earlier flare:
1. Steeper than 3 degree approach slope
2. Increasing runway slope (visual perception of being high and late radio altitude callout)
Higher groundspeed and therefore descent rate due tp:
3. High airport elevation (b/c higher ground speed during approach)
4. Tailwind

(AOM p.670)

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36
Q

Crosswind landing technique

  1. Approach
  2. Flare
A
  1. Approach:
    - wings level crab with aircraft positioned on extended centerline
  2. Flare:
    - de-crab using rudder to align aircraft with runway heading
    - roll control to maintain aircraft on runway centerline

(AOM 2 p.672)

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37
Q

When is auto-brake usage recommended?

Low?

Med?

A

Autobrakes recommended:
- Short, wet or contaminated runways
- poor visibility
- autoland

Low recommended:
- long, dry runways

Med recommended:
- short or contaminated runways

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38
Q

Bouncing at touchdown

Light Bounce

High Bounce

A

Light Bounce - maintain pitch (don’t increase) and complete landing

High Bounce - maintain pitch and GO AROUND
- retract flaps one notch and gear only once established in go around

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39
Q

After Landing - Brake Temperature Check

When is MX required?

A
  1. Temp. of any brake > 900c (800c A321)
    • Consider remote parking to allow cooling (MEL Ch. 32 “Ground Brake Cooling Time” table)
  2. Temp. diff. between two brakes of same gear > 150c AND one brake is >= 600c OR <= 60c
  3. Temp diff. between left and right gear avg. brake temps >= 200c
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40
Q

Driftdown Planning

When can flight be dispatched under Method 1?

Method 1 Requirements

A

When MORA will not be violated. Captain will plan to divert to nearest suitable airport.

Requires that aircraft take off at a weight that ensures, in case of engine failure anywhere from V1 to destination, aircraft will clear all obstructions:
- within 5nm on either side of intended route by 1000 feet
- 1500ft above destination

(FOM 2.7.19)

41
Q

Driftdown Planning

When must flight be dispatched under Method 2?

Method 2 Requirements

Requirements for Method 2 Alternates

A

When aircraft cannot meet requirements of Method 2 driftdown

Requires that in case of engine failure, aircraft must be able to divert to suitable airport and clear all obstructions:
- within 5nm on either side of intended route by 2000 feet
- 1500ft above destination

No more than 300nm from abeam point of the route and must meet all alternate airport requirements (unless listed as driftdown diversion airport)

(FOM 2.7.19)

42
Q

Required number of Flight Attendants

A

1 for every 50 passenger seats

A319 - 3
A320 - 4
A321 - 5

FOM 2.4.3 p. 28

43
Q

Takeoff Minimums when minimums not published

Lowest Takeoff RVR? What is required?

A

Takeoff Minimums when minimums not published:
- Use standard (1sm) or lower than standard as authorized by OpSpec C078 (see FOM 5.3.1 for chart summarizing required reports and runway facilities)

Lowest Takeoff RVR: 500 RVR
- CL and HIRL required
- Any two RVR reports: TDZ, MID, R/O (ALL available reports are controlling)
(FOM Table 5.3.1-1

44
Q

Lowest allowable landing minimums

A

300 RVR (CAT III Fail Operational)

FOM 7.4.18 p.461

45
Q

What is exemption 5549?

A

Allows high mins captains to use the standard CAT I or CAT II minimums without increasing the landing minimums

Following conditions must be met:
CAT I -
1. CAT II/III procedures are followed to the DA/DH
2. The autopilot and approach coupler is operational and used to the DA/DH
3. CAT I approaches to CAT I/II/III runways may terminate in autoland

CAT II -
1. CAT II/III procedures are followed
2. The autopilot and approach coupler is operational and used for the approach
3. The approach terminates in an autoland

CAT III approaches are NOT allowed under this Exemption

46
Q

What is Exemption 3585?

Can High Min Captain’s be dispatched under this exemption?

A

(FOM 4.10.3.2)

Allows flights to operate by listing two alternates when wx reports have conditional language “PROB” or “TEMPO” in remarks

Following requirements must be met:
1. Additional alternate required when forecasted weather at destination or first alternate could be less than authorized mins for those airports are indicated in conditional statements

  1. Destination forecasted visibility in conditional language section not less than 1/2 the lowest authorized for the approach expected to be used
  2. First alternate forecasted ceiling and visibility in conditional language section not less than 1/2 that authorized for the airport
  3. METAR and/or TAF for second alternate show in both main body and remarks that ceiling and visibility will be at or above that required for the alternate

Exemption 3585 will be noted in the OFP (“FLIGHT RELEASED UNDER 3585”)

NO - high min captains cannot be dispatched under this Exemption

47
Q

What is considered Extended Overwater Ops?

A

More than 50nm from shoreline

(FOM 4.7 p.355)

48
Q

When is a departure alternate airport required?

What are the requirements for the alternate?

A

When departure airport weather is below landing minimums

Requirements:
1. Within 1 hour, still air, one engine inop (345nm)
2. Weather meets alternate airport minimums
* Departure alternate may be the destination

(FOM 4.5.2 p. 351)

49
Q

For domestic flights, when is an alternate required?

What is Exemption 18504?

When is a second alternate required?

A

“1-2-3” Rule: 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, wx less than 2000ft/3sm

Exemption 18504 (FOM 4.5.4): For domestic flights, no alternate required if 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, wx forecast to be >= 1000ft/ 3sm (CAT I) or 2sm (CAT II/III)

Second alternate required when destination and first alternate are “marginal” (wx expected to be at applicable minimums at ETA) FPM 4.10.3

50
Q

What is Exemption 18504?

With what type of wx forecasted is this exemption not permitted?

Can it be used in conjunction with Exemption 3585?

A

Exemption 18504: For domestic flights, no alternate required if 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, wx forecast to be >= 1000ft/ 3sm (CAT I) or 2sm (CAT II/III)
- Flight crew, aircraft and airport must all be capable of the type of approach to be utlized

Not permitted if thunderstorms are forecasted

No, may not be used in conjunction with Exemption 3585

FOM 4.5.4

51
Q

When is an alternate required for international destination?

A

An alternate is require unless:
- Flight <= 6 hours and
- 1 hr before to 1 hr after ETA, wx will be:
- Ceiling: At least 1500ft above lowest IAP min (or lowest circling MDA if required) or 2000 ft above airport elevation
- Visibility: 3sm, or 2sm more than lowest IAP min (whichever is greater)

FOM 4.5.5 (p 353-354)

52
Q

Destination alternate weather minimums

What do you need to do if wx falls below alternate minimums at specified alternate while enroute?

A

Airport with at least one operation Navaid:
- Add 400ft to Cat I DA/MDA
- Add 1sm or 1600 RVR to visibility
ex. Typically CAT I ILS alternate wx minimum: 600-1 1/2

Airport with at least two operational Navaids (GPS only counts as one even if to multiple runways)
- Add 200ft to highest DA/MDA of the two approaches
- Add 1/2sm or 800 RVR to highest visibility of two approaches
ex. 1: Airport with ILS (200-1/2) and VOR (400-3/4) approaches, required wx is 600- 1 1/4
ex. 2: Airport with two ILSs (200-1/2), required wx is 400-1

OFP must be ammended to include an alternate that is within fuel range of the aircraft and approved in OpSpecs

FOM 4.5.1

53
Q

When must PIC notify Dispatch of lateral or vertical deviation from planned route/altitude?

Change to ETA?

A

Lateral deviation > 200nm
Vertical deviation > 4000ft

When actual ETA exceeds planned ETA by more than 15 minutes

FOM 4.5.4.3

54
Q

Domestic Reserve Fuel Requirements

International Reserve Fuel Requirements

A

Domestic: 45 minutes Normal Cruise Fuel Consumption

International: 10% total trip time + 30 minutes @ 1500’ ISA

FOM 4.11.1

55
Q

Fuel Planning - Domestic

A

Sufficient fuel on board to:
1. Fly to and land at destination
2. Fly to most distant alternate
3. Thereafter, fly more 45 minutes at normal cruise consumption

FOM 4.11.2.1 (p. 362)

56
Q

Fuel Planning - International

A

Sufficient fuel on board to:
1. Fly to and land at destination
2. After that, fly for 10% total trip time from depart -> dest airport
3. Fly to most distant alternate
4. Thereafter, fly more 30 minutes at holding speed 1500’ above airport ISA conditions

FOM 4.11.2.1 (p. 362)

57
Q

Non-radar position reports

Where can you find this information in the MCDU?

A

Aircraft Identification
Position
Time
Altitude
Position (Next)
Time
Position (Next)

Example:
“Havana center, SpiritWings 320, position”
“SpiritWings 320, go ahead”
“Havana Center, SpiritWings 320, CANOA, FL350, estimate VINKA at 1700z”

MCDU PROG page -> REPORT (2L)

58
Q

Tolerance for 100kt speed check

A

+/- 20kts

59
Q

Altimeter Ground Check Tolerance

A

PFDs:
+/- 25 feet of airport elevation
+/- 20 feet between PFDs

ISIS:
+/- 75 feet of airport elevation

AOM 2 2.115.14 (p. 136)

60
Q

SCUBA diving limitations

A

No diving within 24 hours of flight duty

48 hours if decompression stop required

(FOM 3.6.2)

61
Q

International Operations

What is the different between Transition Altitude and Transition Level?

A

Transition Altitudes
- transitioning from low altitude -> flight levels
- change altimeter to standard (29.92)

Transition Levels
- transitioning from flight level -> low altitudes
- change altimeter to local setting

*** found on Jepp departure and arrival charts

62
Q

Holding Speeds

US vs PANS OPS

Bahamas

Canada

Mexico

A

US
<= 6000: 200kts
6001-14000: 230kts
>14000: 265kts

PANS OPS (on approach plate, left side of mins chart)
<= 6000: 210kts
6001-14000: 220kts
>14000: 240kts

Bahamas:
<= 6000: 210kts
6001-14000: 220kts

Canada:
<= 14000: 230
> 14000: 265

Mexico:
<= 6000: 200kts
6001-14000: 210kts
>14000: 230kts

QRM 60.1 and 60.2

63
Q

How do you mark an international flight plan?

A

Write MASTER on top of flight plan (if there are additional copies, only use Master)

Checkmark next to each waypoint after:
- wp name on flight plan agrees with MCDU
- magnetic course and distance between agrees between fpln and MCDU

In flight, PM puts slash through checkmark upon passing waypoint

Circle waypoint when send company position report (every 90 minutes via ACARS)

64
Q

When are company position reports required on international flights?

How often do you need to send company position report on international flights?

A

When south of 15 degrees north latitude

Every 90 minutes via ACARS

65
Q

Company Policy for when to slow to 250 at international airports

A

Do not exceed 250kts below 10,000 AGL

ex. SJO at 13,000 GUA at 15,000 and BOG at 18,000

66
Q

RVSM airspace

Required equiptment

A

FL290 to FL410

Required equiptment:
- 2 independent altitude measurement systems
- An altitude alerter
- Autopilot
- Operating transponder

On A320 aircraft, this corresponds to:
- 2 ADR + 2 DMC
- 1 Transponder
- 1 AP function
- 1 FCU Channel (for altitude target selection and OP CLB/OP DES mode engagement)
- 2 PFD functions (for altitude indications)
- 1 FWC (for altitude alert function)

67
Q

At what speed does nose wheel steering disconnect?

A

130 kts

68
Q

On takeoff and climb, when can wing anti-ice be used?

A

After flap retraction

69
Q

Cruise tasks - when should winds and temps be entered?

A

Winds - enter if differences greater than 30kts/30 degrees
Temps - if difference > 5c

70
Q

Cruise tasks - how often are fuel checks required?

A

Every 30 min

71
Q

How far out should you obtain ATIS? For which airports?

A

200nm, for destination and alternate

72
Q

When can you reset a tripped circuit breaker?

In flight
On ground

A

In flight:
- Only as a last resort, if Captain deems it necessary for safe continuation of flight, and only one reengagement should be attempted

On ground:
- DO NOT re-engage any CB for fuel pump
- Otherwise, coordinate with MX

73
Q

When can a system reset be performed in flight?

A
  1. When ECAM/OEB/COM procedure requests to reset the system
    or
  2. System reset table permits
74
Q

When is a manual start recommended?

A

After aborting start due to:
1. Engine stall
2. Engine EGT Overlimit
3. LO START AIR PRESS
4. No N1 Rotation
5. Hung Start

When expecting start abort because of:
1. Degrading bleed performance, due to hot conditions, or at a high-altitude airfield.
2. An engine with a reduced EGT margin, in hot conditions, or at a high-altitude airfield.
3. Marginal performance of the external pneumatic power group.
4. Tailwind greater than 10 kt.

COM 2 3.270.12-19

75
Q

What are some indications of Window Arcing?

A
  1. Electrical Arcing of the cockpit windshield
  2. Burning smell or smoke identified as coming from the
    bottom right corner of CAPT windshield or bottom left corner of the F/O windshield.

COM 2 3.80.11

76
Q

What should you do if you suspect windshield/window is cracked?

Max altitude with cracked window (on inside)

A
  1. FASTEN SHOULDER HARNESS
  2. Touch crack with pen to determine if crack is on inside or outside
  3. If crack on inside, don O2 mask
    Follow COM 2 3.80.12 procedure

FL230 or MEA

77
Q

What is a limitation to remember when an external air start is required?

A

APU bleed must not be used

Would probably do this procedure if APU MELed?
(COM 3.270.8)

78
Q

What are differences between NEO exterior inspection of cowls?

A
  1. Anti-ice valve access ports (RH Side) - check closed
  2. Thrust reverser pressure relief door (LH Side) - check closed
79
Q

When should FULL reverse thrust be used?

A

After main landing gear touches down when needed due to:
1. landing distance
2. high altitude airports
3. high altitude airports when not equipped with brake fans
4. wet or contaminated runways
5. landing with a tailwind

80
Q

What are some advantages to landing in flaps CONF 3? CONF FULL?

A

Advantages of Landing CONF 3 include:
- Improved handling in strong gusts or crosswind.
- Improved windshear escape performance.
- Improved one engine inoperative go-around performance (go-around in CONF 2) on A319 and A321 only.
- Slightly faster VAPP (situationally useful).
- More economical operation of the aircraft.
- Approximately 4 dB noise reduction at approach thrust.
- Emissions reduction.

Advantages of Landing CONF FULL include:
- Small reduction to landing distance on dry runway. Increasingly significant benefit as runway condition deteriorates.
- Lower pitch attitude at touchdown, reducing tailstrike risk, especially on A321.
- Improved one engine inoperative go-around performance (go- around in CONF 3) on A320 only.
Note: On A320 only, in the same flight conditions, the angle of attack is more than 1° higher in CONF 2 than in CONF 3. Therefore, on A320 only, CONF 3 is less weight limiting than CONF 2 in approach climb.
- Faster deceleration to VAPP and achievement of stabilized approach criteria on demand.
- Slightly slower VAPP (situationally useful).
- Less than 10% average brake energy reduction.
- Small reduction in direct maintenance cost of tires.
Note: The above two cost savings are minor compared to the cost of fuel.

AOM 2.202.2

81
Q

For which ECAM messages are there OEBs?

A

AIR ENG 1(2) BLEED ABNORM PR or AIR ENG 1+2 BLEED FAULT

HYD ENG PUMP LO PR followed by HYD RSVR OVHT

ENG 1(2) SYSTEM FAULT (NEOs)

82
Q

What should you do on a go around if SRS and GA TRK modes remain engaged and other guidance modes cannot be selected or engaged as expected?

A

OEB-46: NO ENGAGEMENT OF GUIDANCE MODE

  1. Disconnect APs
  2. Both FDs - OFF then ON (reverts to HDG V/S)
  3. Re-engage guidance modes as appropriate

Note: LVR CLB will not be displayed at thrust reduction altitude

  1. For the approach that follows the Go Around, do not arm the G/S mode
83
Q

What is something you should keep in mind with speedbrake extension on the NEOS

A

OEB-57: SPEEDBRAKE LIMITATION IN APPROACH WITH CG 35% OR IN OVERWEIGHT LANDING

For approach, if CG>35% OR in an overweight landing condition:
- do not used speedbrakes below 240kts
- If need to decelerate faster, consider extending the landing gear

84
Q

Tarmac Delays

When must passengers be given the options to deplane?

When will OCC start evaluating and facilitating a gate return?

When must food and water services begin?

A

Domestic: prior to 3 hours
International: prior to 4 hours
Unless Flight Crew determines there is a safety or security related reason (weather, directive from govt agency), or if ATC advises PIC that returning to gate would cause significant airport disruptions

Start evaluating gate return: 2hr 15min mark. Gate return should be initiated at 2.5hr mark

Food and water service: Prior to 2 hours from time when door was closed, unless takeoff imminent or safety would be compromised
- start evaluating go/no-go decision at 1.5 hour mark

FOM 4.27

85
Q

If return to gate due to ground delay, is a new or amended OFP required before departing again?

A

Yes

FOM 4.29

86
Q

For an on gate delay, when must first delay announcement be made?

When must Captain advise Dispatch of delay

A

Within 5 minutes following scheduled departure time

Captain must advise passengers one time if the delay will exceed 30 minutes (per DOT regulations)

Advise Dispatch of delay 15 minutes or more

87
Q

For windshear avoidance, what are some weather conditions to be aware of?

A
  1. Thunderstorm cells within 5nm of the airport of planned flight path
  2. Virga located along the approach or departure flight path
  3. Blowing dust or dust devils, blowing snow or swaying tree tops
  4. Approaching weather fronts:
    - Warm fronts: as they approach the airport (ws threat will be long-term due to slow movement of warm fronts)
    - Cold fronts: immediately after passing the airport (short term ws threat)

FOM 2.9.4 (p. 229)

88
Q

What is a windshear advisory?
What is a windshear alert?

A

Advisory:
- used by ATC when windshear condition has existed at the airport within the past 20 minutes. Can be created either by detection from airport ground based equipment or a PIREP reports the shear. ATIS will include windshear advisory info

Alert:
- runway specific (domestic airports) and include threshold or extended threshold area
- detected by ground based automated equipment
- updated approx. every minute

FOM 2.9.4

89
Q

Spirit definition of windshear

A

A condition of abrupt or even violent changes in wind direction and/or speed. Spirit airlines defines the following conditions as windshear:
- Occurring at or below 1000 feet AGL and
- Resulting in an uncommanded airspeed increase or decrease of greater than 15 knots

FOM 2.9.4 (p. 230)

90
Q

When are predictive windshear alerts inhbited?

A

Speed > 100kts up to 50ft

91
Q

What are some configuration considerations when landing with possibility of windshear?

A
  1. Select FLAPS 3 to optimize climb gradient capability in case of go-around
  2. Use managed speed, because it provides GS mini function
  3. May increase VAPP up to VLS+15kts (COM BK 1 - VAPP Determination without Failure)
  4. A/THR response time may not be sufficient to manage instantaneous loss of airspeed
92
Q

For Wake Turbulence separation, what category is A320?

When cleared for a visual approach, who is responsible for wake turbulence separation?

How much separation between A320 and Cat A aircraft (A380) on approach?

A

D

Pilot accepts responsibility for separation and wake turbulence avoidance

7nm

FOM 5.1.1

93
Q

TCAS Warning

Any CLIMB RA during approach in CONF 3 or FULL

A

GO AROUND … PERFORM
- Follow SRS GA Mode

VERTICAL SPEED … MONITOR
- check vertical speed remains out of red area

ATC … NOTIFY

94
Q

Where is the Least Risk Bomb Location?

A

The center of the RH aft cabin door

COM 2 3.80.5 (p. 1033)

95
Q

What are some considerations if a bomb is suspected on the aircraft?

A

Land and evacuate the aircraft immediately. If unable to do this within 30 minutes, follow the COM 2 Bomb on Board procedure.

  • The cabin altitude should not exceed the value at which the bomb was discovered
  • The aircraft should fly at 1 PSI differential pressue as long as possible to help the blast go outward in case of detonation. Use manual pressure control to achieve this. 1 PSI differential is achieved at approx. cabin alt. + 2500 feet.
  • Reduce speed as much as practical to reduce consequences of possible structural damage
  • If fuel allows, configure with gear down and flaps CONF 1 in case detonation damages landing systems.

COM 2 3.80.3 (p.1031)

96
Q

Above what cabin temperature is passenger boarding not allowed?

A

85F or higher per the Forward Attendant Panel

(FOM 4.20.1)

97
Q

Where is the “washout” point, where THR CLB, THR MCT, and TOGA are all the same?

What should you do if ATC tells you to expedite a climb?

A

Typically happens in the mid-20s

To expedite a climb:
1. Select lower speed on FCU, but not less than Green Dot
2. Once request met, return to managed speed
* Avoid V/S, especially at higher altitudes, because more difficult to recover airspeed

(23-01 Standards Newsletter)

98
Q

What is the approximate N1 on approach?

A

About 65%

(23-01 Standards Newsletter)

99
Q

What should the pilot do to get out of TOGA LOCK?

A
  1. Push instinctive disconnect push buttons
  2. Move TLs to CL detent, if not already there
  3. Re-engage autothrust

Spirit Study - Other (1 decks)

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