OD Notes Flashcards

1
Q

3 Theories to Show Proof of Breach

A
  1. Custom or Usage
  2. Violation of Statute (neg. per se)
  3. Res Ipsa Loquitor
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2
Q

Under res ipsa loquitur, the fact that an injury occurred may create an inference that the defendant breached his duty.

Three requirements:

A
  1. The accident causing the injury is a type that would not have occurred absent negligence.
  2. The negligence is attributable to the defendant (usually because the defendant is in exclusive control of the instrumentality causing the injury).
  3. The injury was not attributable to the plaintiff’s own conduct.
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3
Q

The standard of care in a common law negligence case may be established by proving the applicability of a statute that provides for a criminal penalty, NOT a civil penalty. If the statute applies, the ________ will replace the ________.

If the statute in question provides for a civil remedy, the plaintiff will sue directly under the statute: i.e., it is not a common law negligence case.

A

statute’s specific duty will replace the more general common law duty of care

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4
Q

The standard of care in a common law negligence case may be established by proving the applicability of a statute that provides for a criminal penalty, NOT a civil penalty. If the statute applies, the statute’s specific duty will replace the more general common law duty of due care.

For a statute to apply, the specific duty imposed by the statute must be clearly stated. The plaintiff also must show that:

A

(i) She is in the class intended to be protected by the statute; and

(ii) The statute was designed to prevent the type of harm that the plaintiff suffered.

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5
Q

In negligence per se, plaintiff establishes a conclusive presumption of ____________ by showing a violation of an applicable statute. Plaintiff still must establish ____________ to complete the prima facie case for negligence.

A

duty and breach of duty

causation and damages

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6
Q

In negligence per se analysis, a violation of an applicable statute may be excused if:

A

(i) compliance with the statute would cause more danger than a violation
(e.g., a defendant drives onto the wrong side of the road to avoid hitting children who dart into his path), or
(ii) compliance with the statute would be beyond the defendant’s control
(e.g., a blind pedestrian crosses against a light)

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7
Q

Is assumption of risk a defense to negligence per se?

A

No.

Under the defense of assumption of risk, a plaintiff will be denied recovery in a negligence action if he either expressly or impliedly knew of the risk of injury and voluntarily proceeded in the face of the risk.

However, courts refuse to permit an assumption of risk defense in some situations because of public policy considerations. When a statute applies and is enacted to protect a class, members of that class will not be deemed to have assumed any risk. 

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8
Q

A landowner [may/may not] use force to regain real property after being tortiously dispossessed.

A

may NOT

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9
Q

An owner of chattel [may/may not] use force to recapture the chattel.

A

MAY

An owner may use reasonable force to recapture a chattel when in “hot pursuit” of the tortfeasor. A demand for return of the chattel must be made before force is used, unless the demand would be futile or dangerous.

However, force can be used only against the tortfeasor or a third party who knows that the chattel was tortiously obtained. If an innocent third party has obtained the chattel, the owner is no longer privileged to use force to effect a recapture of the chattel.

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10
Q

An owner may use reasonable force to recapture a chattel when in ________ of the tortfeasor.

A demand for return of the chattel must be made before force is used, unless the demand would be futile or dangerous.

A

hot pursuit

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11
Q

A citizen may use force to effect a misdemeanor arrest. However, the citizen is allowed to use only ________________.

A

the amount of force necessary to effect the arrest and never deadly force

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12
Q

________ is the only intentional tort where recklessness is sufficient to prove intent & P had to prove damages.

A

IIED

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13
Q

When is a reasonable mistake allowed as to a property owner’s right to use force in defense of property?

A

A reasonable mistake is allowed as to the property owner’s right to use force in defense of property, where the mistake involves whether an intrusion has occurred or whether a request to desist is required.

A mistake is NOT allowed as to whether an entrant has privilege.

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14
Q

If P establishes res ipsa, D [can/cannot] prevail on a motino for directed verdict.

A

CANNOT

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15
Q

Remedy for Conversion

A

Fair Market Value @ time of conversion

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16
Q

In addition to having ____________ as to the fact of theft, a shopkeeper is required to conduct the detention in a reasonable manner and detain the suspect for a reasonable period of time for the privilege to apply.

A

a reasonable belief

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17
Q

In addition to having a reasonable belief as to the fact of theft, a shopkeeper is required to ________________ and detain the suspect for a reasonable period of time for the privilege to apply.

A

conduct the detention in a reasonable manner

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18
Q

In addition to having a reasonable belief as to the fact of theft, a shopkeeper is required to conduct the detention in a reasonable manner and ________________.

A

detain the suspect for a reasonable period of time for the privilege to apply

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19
Q

Shopkeepers Privilege Elements

A
  1. There must be a **reasonable belief **as to the fact of theft;
  2. The detention must be conducted in a reasonable manner and only nondeadly force can be used; and
  3. The detention must be only for a reasonable period of time and only for the purpose of making an investigation.

A shopkeeper is NOT required to notify the police in a reasonable amount of time to avoid liability for false imprisonment when detaining a suspect for shoplifting.

20
Q

Although ____________ usually applies as a defense to a false imprisonment action, it is equally applicable as a defense to other intentional torts.

A

shopkeeper’s privilege

21
Q

Trespassers cannot recover for injuries inflicted by the landowner’s abnormally dangerous domestic animals in the absence of __________. 

A

negligence

22
Q

Persons who enter the premises for a purpose connected with the landowner’s business are ________. 

A

invitees

23
Q

____________ include those who enter the premises for a purpose for which the land is held open to the public.

A

invitees

24
Q

A person loses his status as an invitee if he _________.

A

exceeds the scope of the invitation

*if he goes into a portion of the premises where his invitation cannot reasonably be said to extend. *

25
Q

Under the “firefighter’s rule,” police officers and firefighters are generally treated like ________, based on public policy or assumption of risk grounds.

A

licensees

They cannot recover for a landowner’s failure to inspect or repair dangerous conditions that are an inherent risk of their law enforcement or firefighting activity.

26
Q

A ________ is one who enters on land with the landowner’s permission, express or implied, for her own purpose or business, rather than for the landowner’s benefit.

A

licensee

27
Q

**Res ipsa loquitur **requires that the plaintiff present evidence connecting the defendant with the negligence that occurred in order to support a finding of liability. This requirement can be satisfied by showing that the instrumentality that caused the injury was ____________, but actual possession of the instrumentality is NOT necessary.

A

in the exclusive control of the defendant

28
Q

The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur is a means of establishing ________; it does not require a showing that the defendant’s conduct was the sole cause of the plaintiff’s injury.

A

breach of duty

29
Q

Res ipsa loquitur [does/does not] establish breach of duty as a matter of law.

A

does NOT

It is still up to the trier of fact to accept or reject the evidence.

30
Q

Does res ipsa loquitor switch the burden of proof to the defendant?

A

No

One of the effects of res ipsa loquitur is that no directed verdict may be given for the defendant, because when the res ipsa element has been proved, the plaintiff has made a prima facie case for negligence.

The doctrine, however, does NOT switch the burden of proof to the defendant and does NOT create a presumption of negligence. Furthermore, it does NOT require the defendant to present evidence of due care in rebuttal.

If the jury elects not to infer negligence, it may find for the defendant even if the defendant presents no evidence on that issue.

31
Q

Does res ipsa loquitor create a presumption of negligence?

A

No.

One of the effects of res ipsa loquitur is that no directed verdict may be given for the defendant, because when the res ipsa element has been proved, the plaintiff has made a prima facie case for negligence.

The doctrine, however, does NOT switch the burden of proof to the defendant and does NOT create a presumption of negligence. Furthermore, it does NOT require the defendant to present evidence of due care in rebuttal.

If the jury elects not to infer negligence, it may find for the defendant even if the defendant presents no evidence on that issue.

32
Q

Does res ipsa loquitor require the defendant to present evience of due care in rebuttal?

A

No.

One of the effects of res ipsa loquitur is that no directed verdict may be given for the defendant, because when the res ipsa element has been proved, the plaintiff has made a prima facie case for negligence.

The doctrine, however, does NOT switch the burden of proof to the defendant and does NOT create a presumption of negligence. Furthermore, it does NOT require the defendant to present evidence of due care in rebuttal.

If the jury elects not to infer negligence, it may find for the defendant even if the defendant presents no evidence on that issue.

33
Q

Does compliance with a statute establish due care?

A

Compliance with an applicable statute does not necessarily establish due care, because due care may require more than is called for by the statute.

Nevertheless, compliance with a statute is admissible as evidence that a defendant may have acted with due care.

34
Q

Defamation is presumed if:

A
  1. libel (in writing or other permanent form)
    or
  2. slander per se (business or profession, loathsome disease, crime of morel turpitude, unchastity of woman)
35
Q

4 categories of slander per se:

A
  1. business or profession
  2. loathsome disease
  3. crime of morel turpitude
  4. unchastity of woman
36
Q

In what defamation cases must a plaintiff prove that the statement was false?

A
  1. P is a **public figure **
    or
  2. defamation involves a matter of public concern
37
Q

Intentional Misrepresentation (Fraud)

A

Misrepresentation by the defendant with scienter (knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard as to truth/falsity) and intent to induce reliance, causation (actual reliance on misrepresentation), justifiable reliance, and damages

38
Q

Negligent Misrepresentation

A

Misrepresentation by the defendant in a business or professional capacity, breach of duty to the plaintiff, causation (actual reliance on misrepre-sentation), justifiable reliance, and damages

39
Q

Interference with Business Relations

A

A valid contractual relationship or business expectancy of the plaintiff and a third party, the defendant’s knowledge of the relationship, intentional interference by the defendant inducing a breach or termination of the relationship, and damages.

40
Q

For discovered and anticipated trespassers, the landowner owes a duty to ____________ known highly dangerous artificial conditions if not obvious to the trespasser.

A

warn or make safe

41
Q

For discovered and anticipated trespassers, the landowner owes a duty to warn of or make safe ________________ if not obvious to the trespasser.

A

known highly dangerous artificial conditions

42
Q

When two acts bring about an injury and either one alone would have sufficed, either of the acts is an actual cause of the injury if it was a ____________ in bringing it about.

A

“substantial factor”

43
Q

A product has a ____________ defect when it varies from the other productsin the manufacturing process and is dangerous beyond the expectation of theordinary consumer

A

manufacturing

44
Q

A product has a ________ defect when all products of the line have dangerous characteristics because of mechanical features, packaging, or inadequate warnings, and a less dangerous modification or alternative was economically feasible.

A

A product has a design defect when all products of the line have dangerous characteristics because of mechanical features, packaging, or inadequate warnings, and a less dangerous modification or alternative was economically feasible.

45
Q

The general rule is that a principal is not vicariously liable for the torts of an independent contractor, unless:

A
  1. The independent contractor is engaged in inherently dangerous activities
  2. The principal’s duty cannot be delegated because of public policy considerations
46
Q

Regardless of whether vicarious liability applies, the defendant can be liable for ________.

A

his own negligence

e.g., negligence in hiring the employee, supervising the child, or entrusting the car to the driver

47
Q

If joint and several liability applies, ________ allows a tortfeasor who paid more than his share of the damages to recover the excess from other tortfeasors in proportion to their fault.

A

contribution