Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UAL 777 > Oct 2022 Study Guide > Flashcards

Oct 2022 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Left and right hydraulic systems standpipes provide fluid to which pumps?

A

The engine driven pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The center hydraulic system standpipe provides fluid to which pumps?

A

All Center system pumps (C2 primarily, air-driven demand pump, and RAT), except the primary C1 electric pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where can the hydraulic fluid quantity be checked?

A

Quantities may be checked on the STATUS page or the hydraulic synoptic page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the source of power for the pumps in the left and right hydraulic systems?

A

The left and right primary pumps are engine driven and the demand pumps are electric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the source of power for the Center hydraulic system pumps?

A

The primary pumps are electric and the demand pumps are air driven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When electrical load shedding occurs, which hydraulic pumps are shed?

A

C2 Primary pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When can both center hydraulic system air-driven demand pumps operate simultaneously?

A

When both are selected to the AUTO position of the selectors only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When the center hydraulic system fluid quantity is sensed low and the airspeed is greater than 60 knots, how are systems affected?

A

Alternate brakes are isolated from the center system and remain operable using reserve fluid.
Nose gear actuation and steering are further isolated and remain inoperable.
Leading edge slats and isolated and not allowed to operate in the primary (hydraulic) mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When are nose gear actuation and steering reconnected?

A

Airspeed decreases below 60 kts.
Hydraulic pressure to the center flight controls goes low.
The landing gear is selected down, both engines are normal, and both engine-driven pumps are providing pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In flight the RAT deploys automatically with a loss of what?

A

Both engines are failed and center hydraulic pressure is low.
Both AC transfer busses lose power.
All 3 hydraulic systems have low pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When the landing gear is retracted, what holds the gear in the up and locked position?

A

Hydraulic pressure is removed and uplocks hold the gear up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What occurs when the gear handle is placed to the DN position?

A

EICAS displays a white crosshatch in-transit indication.
Gear free-fall to the down and locked position.
Downlocks move hydraulically to locked position.
Hydraulically actuated gear doors close.
Main gear trucks tilt to flight position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is the gear extended using the alternate gear extension?

A

An electrically driven hydraulic pump and trapped hydraulic fluid from the center system releases
all uplocks on the gear and doors. Gear free fall to the down and locked position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Normal brake pressure is supplied from which Hydraulic system?

A

Right hydraulic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When Normal Brake pressure is lost which hydraulic system provides brake pressure

A

Center hydraulic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antiskid protection for the brakes is provided in which braking system?

A

Antiskid protection is provided in the normal and alternate brake hydraulic systems. The normal
brake hydraulic system provides each main gear wheel with individual antiskid protection.
Alternate/Reserve antiskid system provides tandem wheel pairs for the forward and middle axle
wheels and the aft wheels have individual antiskid protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When the normal brake system is operating, what do autobrakes provide?

A

Automatic breaking at preselected deceleration rates for landing and maximum braking for
rejected takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

With loss of the normal, alternate/reserve brake systems, the accumulator provides brake
pressure. How many applications will the accumulator provide?

A

Several brake applications or one parking brake application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The Autobrake system can be disarmed by what pilot actions?

A

Advancing either throttle after landing
Manual braking
Moving the speed brake lever to the DOWN detent
Selecting DISARM or OFF with the selector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Under what condition will the RTO position of the autobrakes apply maximum brake pressure
when selected prior to takeoff?

A

Groundspeed is above 85 knots and both throttles are retarded to idle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Autobrakes are disarmed under what system conditions?

A

ADIRU failure
Autobrake fault
Normal antiskid system fault
Loss of normal brake pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What indication does the pilot have that the parking brake is set?

A

PARKING BRAKE SET memo message on the upper EICAS screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The parking brake is set when both brake pedals are pressed and the handle raised. How is
the parking brake released?

A

The parking brake is released by pressing the pedals until the PARKING BRAKE lever releases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When a brake is deactivated, the pilot can find it indicated where?

A

The word BRAKE appears on the landing gear synoptic next to the deactivated brake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What indicates antiskid faults?

A

ASKID indication on the landing gear synoptic for the respective wheel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is indicated by 5.1 next to a wheel on the landing gear synoptic?

A

Overheat condition of the indicated brake. Expect a solid amber box in conjunction with any
reading 5.0 and greater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The columns and control wheels are connected through jam override mechanisms. If a jam
occurs in a column or wheel, how can the pilots maintain control?

A

applying force to the other column or wheel to overcome the jam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Asymmetrical spoilers assist in roll control while symmetrical spoilers are used as _____.

A

Speed brakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which flight control mode (s) is/are represented by the following signal sequence: Pilot inputs->
ACEs-> PFCs-> ACEs-> Control Surfaces?

A

Normal and Secondary

30
Q

PFCs change airplane pitch based on pilot control column or autopilot commands and airspeed.
For what do PFCs automatically compensate?

A

Flap and sppedbrake configuration changes
Speed brake configuration changes
Turns up to 30 degrees bank

31
Q

When must the pilot make control column inputs or trim changes to maintain a constant flight
path?

A

Airspeed changes- not necessary for configuration changes

32
Q

In flight, the pitch trim switches do not position the stabilizer directly, but make inputs to the
PFCs to change_____.

A

Trim Reference Speed

33
Q

Alternate pitch trim is controlled by the dual alternate pitch trim levers on the aisle stand. What
does moving both do?

A

Changes the trim reference speed (normal mode) and
Directly moves the stabilizer (all modes)

34
Q

When is hydraulic power to the STCM automatically shut off?

A

When uncommanded motion is sensed.

35
Q

The stabilizer trim indicators display the takeoff green band indication calculated by pilot
CDU inputs of CG, Gross Weight, and Takeoff Thrust. What three green band segments can
be illuminated for takeoff?

A

Midband
Nose down band (added forward of midband)
Nose up band (added forward of midband)

36
Q

Automatic autothrottle engagement (autothrottle wake up) can occur in all flight control modes
but will not be supported under which pitch modes or flight conditions?

A

Pitch mode is FLCH or TO/GA.
Airplane below 400 feet AFE on takeoff.
Airplane below 100 feet RA on approach.
During a descent in VNAV SPD, the autothrottle may be in HOLD and will not support stall
protection

37
Q

The autothrottle can support stall protection if armed and not engaged. If speed decreases to
near stick shaker activation, the autothrottle engages in the SPD and THR REF mode and
advances thrust to maintain ______.

A

minimum maneuvering speed or the speed set in the MCP speed window, whichever is greater

38
Q

Pitch Envelope Protection functions do not reduce the pilot’s authority. What do these functions
consist of?

A

Stall protection
Overspeed protection

39
Q

All three hydraulic systems supply the spoilers. Each hydraulic system is dedicated to a different
set of spoiler pairs to provide what?

A

To provide isolation and maintain symmetric operation in the event of hydraulic system failure

40
Q

The wheel-to-rudder cross-tie system operates in flight below 210 knots in the Normal mode.
What does wheel-to-rudder cross-tie permit?

A

Allows control wheel input to deflect the rudder up to 8 degrees.

41
Q

When will TAC automatically disengage?

A

When engine thrust data is lost. May also disengage following a severe engine damage or surge.

42
Q

Pilot inputs-> ACEs-> Control Surfaces is the signal sequence for the Direct Flight Control
Mode. The aircraft can enter the Direct Mode as a result of ____.

A

The ACE’s automatically transition to the direct mode when they detect a Failure of all three
PFCs or lose communication with the PFC
Manually by placing the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS switch to DISC

43
Q

In what flight control mode(s) are the following not available: automatic pitch compensation
for thrust changes, gear configuration changes, turbulence, flap changes, speed brake
configuration changes, and turns?

A

Secondary and Direct flight control modes do not provide automatic pitch compensation.

44
Q

In Secondary and Direct flight control modes, the elevator feel system provides two force levels
that change with ____.

A

Flap position

45
Q

In the Secondary and Direct flight control modes, spoilers ______
are locked out as speed brakes.

A

4, 5, 10, and 11

46
Q

To protect against inadvertent deployment during cruise, when is flap and slat extension from
the UP position inhibited?

A

At speeds greater than 250 knots (200A), 265 knots (200B/C) , 275 knots (322), and at altitudes
above approximately 20,000 feet

47
Q

In the primary flap mode, the flap load relief system protects the flaps from air load damage. If
placarded flap airspeed limits are exceeded with the flaps in the ____
through ______
position, the
flaps automatically retract to a position commensurate with airspeed.

A

15, 30

48
Q

22) Slat load relief is available in the secondary flap mode because slats are fully extended in all flap
positions in the secondary flap mode. If airspeed exceeds_____ knots (200B/C) or ____ knots
(200A), or _____ knots (322), the slats retract to mid position.

A

239, 215, 265

49
Q

In the secondary flap mode, the flaps and slats are positioned by electric motors, and movement
is considerably slower than primary mode. Because autoslats are unavailable, the slats are ___extended at the flaps___ through ____ detents.

A

fully, 1, 30

50
Q

The alternate flap mode must be manually selected. The alternate flap mode allows direct
manual operation of the flaps and slats through the _____.

A

Secondary drive electric motors.

51
Q

Alternate mode flaps and slat extension is limited to slats mid and Flaps 20. What is not
available in the alternate mode?

A

Asymmetry protection, uncommanded motion protection, autoslats, and flap/slat load relief

52
Q

When does the EICAS automatically show compacted engine display?

A

EICAS displays engine indications in compact format whenever:
Secondary engine display is automatically selected, and the lower multifunction display is
failed, unpowered, or is occupied, or
Secondary engine display is manually selected to the lower center MFD nd the lower MFD is
failed, unpowered, or occupied with EICAS

53
Q

(200A/B) Describe engine indications and limitations when EEC operate in the soft alternate
mode.

A

EPR indication is blank.
Thrust limit protection is not available.
No reference/target indications are displayed.
Overspeed protection is available.
Autothrottle remains engaged.

54
Q

(200A/B) Describe engine indications and limitations when EEC operate in the hard alternate
mode.

A

EPR indication is blank.
Thrust limit protection is not available.
Reference/target N1 is displayed.
Overspeed protection is available.
Autothrottle remains engaged.

55
Q

The EEC selects minimum or approach idle automatically. In flight, when is Approach idle
selected?

A

Engine anti-ice is operating.
Flaps are commanded to 25 or greater for a two engine approach.
One hydraulic system air-driven demand pump is inoperative, and the flaps are out of the
UP position.
The opposite engine bleed valve is closed.

56
Q

During an autostart, what indication does the EEC monitor until idle RPM is reached?

A

EGT
N2
Other engine parameters

57
Q

On the ground, autostart can make two attempts to start an engine. Under what conditions will
the autostart system only make one start attempt?

A

No N1 rotation
Insufficient air pressure
Starter shaft failure
Start time exceeding starter duty cycle.

58
Q

Operation of the EECs in the normal mode maximum thrust is available from the engines. What
indicates maximum thrust? ____200A/B
____200C, 322

A

(200A/B) An amber line at the top of the EPR dial
(200C, 322) An amber line at the top of the N1 dial

59
Q

Each engine has two ignitors. How are ignitors operated during a ground start and during
an inflight start?

A

The EEC automatically selects the appropriate ignitor(s) and alternates ignitors for successive
ground starts
Both ignitors are utilized for all inflight start attempts.

60
Q

With the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN, continuous ignition is selected in what configurations?

A

START/IGNITION selector CON.
START/IGNITION selector NORM and one or both of the following:
1. Flap lever out of UP position
2. Engine anti-ice on (automatically or manually selected)
3. During auto-relight flameout protection

61
Q

What controls operate spar and engine fuel valves?

A

FUEL CONTROL switch
Engine fire handle

62
Q

Each engine has two oil filters installed in series. (200A/B) Which filter can be bypassed?

A

The primary oil filter

63
Q

Oil quantity is displayed to the nearest quart. What is the minimum oil quantity limit?

A

12) There is no minimum oil quantity limit (no amber or red line limit): however, a low oil quantity
causes automatic display of the secondary engine display and reverses the display indication to
show black numbers on a white background.

64
Q

What occurs when the thrust reverser levers are raised to the interlock position?

A

Autothrottles disengage.
Autospeed brakes deploy.

65
Q

The engine vibration monitoring system can display a range from 0.0 to 5.0. What will cause the
secondary engine indications to automatically display?

A

14) There is no certified vibration limit, but when a high vibration level is reached, the secondary
engine parameters are automatically displayed.

66
Q

What engine failure warning indications occur with an engine failure (actual thrust is less than
commanded thrust) during takeoff with airspeed between 65 knots and 6 knots prior to V1?

A

An aural alert “Engine Fail”
Master Warning Light
PFD ENG FAIL message

67
Q

Rotating the APU selector to START begins the automatic start sequence. When the APU air
inlet door reaches the full open position, which starter engages?

A

The air turbine starter is selected automatically when there is sufficient bleed air duct pressure.
If insufficient bleed air pressure, the electric starter using the APU battery engages.

68
Q

In flight, when does the automatic start of the APU occur?

A

When power is lost to both AC transfer busses.

69
Q

What source automatically supplies fuel for APU operation?

A

Left forward fuel pump when AC power is available and cannot be turned off on the ground. DC fuel pump in the left main tank when AC power is not available.

70
Q

When an engine is running or starting (attended mode), or when the airplane is in flight, what
does an APU SHUTDOWN EICAS message indicate?

A

Fire/inlet over temperature
Overspeed/loss of overspeed protection
APU controller failure
Speed droop

UAL 777 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions