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Precepting: Air Evac Bases > OCS EXAM > Flashcards

OCS EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

A thunderstorm has three distinct stages:
a) Cumulus, Mature, and Dissipating
b) Fracto, Lenticularus, and Castellanus
c) Cumulus, Stratus, and Dissipating

A

a) Cumulus, Mature, and Dissipating

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2
Q

There are 4 types of fronts, which are named according to the temperature of the advancing air relative to the temperature of the air it is replacing:
a) Warm Front, Cold Front, Stationary Front, and Occluded Front
b) Arctic Front, Continental Front, Continental Tropical Front, and Maritime Front
c) Dry line, Pressure Front, Air Mass Front, and Maritime Arctic Front

A

a) Warm Front, Cold Front, Stationary Front, and Occluded Front

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3
Q

The Force Created by the rotation of the Earth is known as?
a) pressure force
b) Coriolis force
c) atmospheric force

A

b) Coriolis force

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4
Q

Cloud type is determined by its height, shape and behavior. They are classified according to the height
of their bases as?
a. Low, Middle, High clouds, High clouds with extensive vertical development
b. Stratocumulus, Nimbostratus, Altocumulus, and Altostratus
c. Cirrostratus, Cirrocumulus, Fracto, and nimbus

A

a. Low, Middle, High clouds, High clouds with extensive vertical development

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5
Q

Moisture condenses or sublimates onto miniscule particles of matter like dust, salt, and smoke known
as?
a. Condensation Nuclei
b. Icing
c. Fog

A

a) Condensation Nuclei

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6
Q

The boundary layer between two types of air masses is known as a?
a. Source region
b. Front
c. Fog

A

b) Front

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7
Q

The Coriolis force deflects air to the?
a. Left in the Northern hemisphere
b. Right in the Northern hemisphere
c. Center in the Northern hemisphere

A

b) Right in the Northern Hemisphere

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8
Q

. Temperature at which air can hold no more moisture it is completely saturated and moisture begins to
condense out in the form of fog, dew, frost, clouds, rain, hail, or snow is known as?
a. Relative humidity
b. Dew point
c. Convergence rate

A

b) Dew Point

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9
Q

The relationship between dew point and temperature defines the concept of?
a. Atmospheric stability
b. Relative humidity
c. Temperature inversion

A

b) Relative Humidity

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10
Q

Water is present in the atmosphere in three states?
a. Liquid, Solid, and Gaseous
b. Steam, Liquid, and Clouds
c. Sublimation, Evaporation, Condensation

A

a) Liquid, Solid, Gaseous

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11
Q

The Changing of liquid water to water vapor is called?
a) sublimation
b) evaporation
c) condensation

A

b) evaporation

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12
Q

Which selection is not considered precipitation?
a) fog
b) snow
c) drizzle
d) rain

A

a) fog

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13
Q

For a thunderstorm to form, the air must have sufficient water vapor, an unstable lapse rate, and an initial lifting action to start the process: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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14
Q

Cold fronts, which move at 20 to 35 mph, move more quickly in comparison to warm fronts, which move at only 10 to 25 mph? TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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15
Q

Cold fronts also possess a steeper frontal slope. Violent weather activity is associated with cold fronts, and the weather usually occurs along the frontal boundary such as:
a) sudden storms
b) gusty winds
c) turbulence
d) sometimes hail or tornadoes
e) all of the above

A

e) all of the above

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16
Q

Hail competes with turbulence as the greatest thunderstorm hazard to aircraft: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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17
Q

Water vapor is added in the atmosphere only by the process of evaporation and sublimation: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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18
Q

SIGMETs (WSs) are inflight advisories concerning non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous…
a) to all aircraft
b) to heavy aircraft
c) to light aircraft

A

a) to all aircraft

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19
Q

Dew, frost, and fog are forms of condensation: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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20
Q

Existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft e.g., artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles is Special Use Airspace known as:
a) Prohibited Area
b) Warning Area
c) Restricted Area

A

c) Restricted Area

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21
Q

Special Use Airspace containing defined dimensions established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare is known as:
a) Military Operations Area
b) Prohibited Area
c) Alert Area

A

b) Prohibited Area

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22
Q

The term used to express the lack of orientation with regard to the position, altitude or movement of aircraft in space, is known as:
a) vestibular illusion
b) spatial disorientation
c) Coriolis illusion

A

b) spatial disorientation

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23
Q

Each certificate holder is responsible for the operational control and shall list, in the manual required by 135.21, the name and title of each person authorized by it to exercise operational control. Where is the list found?
a) RFM supplement
b) Operations Specifications
c) Airworthiness Certificate

A

b) Operations Specifications

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24
Q

Who is responsible for determining that the airworthy inspections IAW 91.409 of this chapter or 135.419, whichever is applicable have been made?
a) mechanic
b) pilot in command
c) FAA

A

b) pilot in command

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25
Q

AEL helicopters are authorized/certified to operate in icing conditions: TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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26
Q

Company primary weather minimums are:
a) 800/3 daytime operation, and 1000/3 nighttime operations
b) 1000/3 daytime operations, and 1500/5 nighttime operations
c) 1500/5 daytime operations, and 1000/3 nighttime operations

A

b) 1000/3 daytime operations and 1500/5 nighttime operations

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27
Q

Jet A weighs:
a) 6.0 lb US gal.
b) 6.8 lbs US gal.
c) 6.2 lb US gal

A

b) 6.8 lb US gal.

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28
Q

Some of the purposes for establishing Terminal Flight Restrictions are:
a) protect persons and property in the air or on the surface
b) provide safe environment for the operations of disaster relief
c) protect the President, Vice President, or other public figures
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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29
Q

Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZ) have been established to facilitate early identification of aircraft entering U.S. domestic airspace from points outside of the country: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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30
Q

An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other traffic: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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31
Q

AEL pilots shall operate their aircraft clear of all thunderstorms: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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32
Q

Prior to conducting VFR operations, the pilot in command must identify and document the highest obstacle along the route of flight: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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33
Q

If an official surface weather observation report is not available, may the pilot in command use weather information based on the pilot’s own observations or on those competent to supply appropriate observations? YES OR NO

A

Yes

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34
Q

Each certificate holder conducting helicopter air ambulance operations must establish, and document in its operations manual, an FAA-approved preflight risk analysis that includes:
a) flight considerations, in include obstacles and terrain
b) human factors such as fatigue
c) weather including departure, en route, destinations, and forecasted
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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35
Q

No certificate holder may schedule an operations control specialist for more than ______ consecutive hours of duty?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12

A

b) 10

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36
Q

The operator of an aircraft must provide pertinent aeronautical charts: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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37
Q

In current and appropriate form, accessible to the pilot as the pilot station, pilot shall use a cockpit checklist: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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38
Q

Each certificate holder must have procedures established for locating each flight, for which an FAA flight plan is not filed: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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39
Q

What is the name of the manual required by FAR 135.21 that must be used by the certificate holder’s flight, ground, and maintenance personnel in conducting its operations?
a) Minimum Equipment List
b) General Operations Manual
c) Flight Operations Bulletin

A

b) General Operations Manual

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40
Q

Approximately how many gallons of fuel remain when the “Fuel Low” panel caution light illuminates?
a) 15 gallons
b) 10 gallons
c) 12 gallons

A

b) 10 gallons

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41
Q

After two failed starts using external power, if you fail a 3rd start, how long must you wait before another start attempt?
a) 30 seconds
b) 30 minutes
c) 40 minutes

A

b) 30 minutes

42
Q

A dual boost pump failure in a Bell 206L would result in what condition?
a) all remaining fuel would be unusable
b) fuel remaining in rearward tank would be unusable
c) fuel remaining in forward tanks would be unusable

A

c) fuel remaining in forward tanks would be unusable

43
Q

What does the red line on the airspeed indicator represent?
a) Vso, stalling speed
b) Vno, do not exceed except in smooth air
c) Vne, never exceed speed

A

c) Vne, never exceed speed

44
Q

In the figure below, what is the minimum altitude an aircraft can fly between the fixed FEVKO and DIOLS?
a) 1060 MSL
b) 2000 MSL
c) 1060 AGL
d) 2000 AGL

A

b) 2000 MSL

45
Q

Regarding restricted airspace (SUA), what does the dagger represent?
a) other times by arrival
b) other times by NOTAM
c) other times by departure

A

b) other times by NOTAM

46
Q

A clearance must be requested from ATC facility having jurisdiction before operating in which airspace?
a) CLASS G
b) CLASS C
c) CLASS B

A

c) CLASS B

47
Q

If airspace not designated as Class A, B, C, D and is controlled, is it Class G: TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

48
Q

Two-way radio communication must be established with ATC facility having jurisdiction of which class of airspace?
a) Class C
b) Class E
c) Class G

A

b) Class E

49
Q

If the fuel low light illuminates approximately how many gallons of fuel remain?
a) approximately 10 gallons
b) approximately 15 gallons
c) approximately 20 gallons

A

a) approximately 10 gallons

50
Q

How many fuel cells are installed in a Bell 206?
a) one crash resistant fuel cell
b) three crash resistant fuel cells
c) two crash resistant fuel cells

A

b) three crash resistant fuel cells

51
Q

As fuel is burned in a Bell 206L and Bell 407, the center of gravity shifts: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

52
Q

For planning, the Bell 206 L3/4 indicates 105 KIAS: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

53
Q

The Full Authority Digital Electronic Control (FADEC) system manages all engine parameters: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

54
Q

If the Battery switch is turned off, which electric boost pump will be off-line?
a) left electric fuel boost pump
b) right electric fuel boost pump
c) center electric fuel boost pump

A

b) right electric fuel boost pump

55
Q

Fatigue is frequently associated with pilot error: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

56
Q

Landing site and duration of flight are at the discretion of the pilot. Extended flight beyond nearest approved landing area is not recommended:
a) land as soon as practical
b) land as soon as possible

A

a) land as soon as practical

57
Q

Basic Vne BH206 is:
A) 110 KIAS
B) 120 KIAS
C) 130 KIAS

A

C) 130 KIAS

58
Q

Maximum Hp operating altitude BH206?
a) 10,000 feet
b) 15,000 feet
c) 20,000 feet

A

c) 20,000 feet

59
Q

No aircraft refueling or de-fueling may be conducted with thunderstorms within how many miles:
a) 3 miles
b) 5 miles
c) 7 miles

A

b) 5 miles

60
Q

During nighttime operations, a scattered cloud layer will be viewed as a ceiling: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

61
Q

Unless established on final approach, except to avoid obstacles, no turns will be made below 300 feet AGL and 60 knots? TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

62
Q

Maximum surface winds for startup and shutdown are 40 knots and/or a 15 knot gust spread. This limitation is for startup and shutdown only: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

63
Q

What is the international VHF distress or urgency communication frequency and transponder mode A/3 squawk code?
a) 122.6Mhz/7500
b) 121.5Mhz/7700
c) 123.0Mhz/7600

A

b) 121.5Mhz/7700

64
Q

Regarding Vicinity “VC” qualifier in a METAR is a reference of what distance from the observation:
a) 5 to 10 SM
b) 7 to 12 SM
c) 8 to 15 SM

A

a) 5 to 10 SM

65
Q

The mature stage of a thunderstorm is recognized by:
a) rain begins at the surface
b) continuous updraft
c) continuous downdraft

A

a) rain begins at the surface

66
Q

Cold fronts move faster than warm fronts: TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

67
Q

To provide a common reference, the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) has been established. These standard conditions are the basis for certain flight instruments and most aircraft performance data. At sea level, Standard temperature and Standard pressure are defined as:
a) 15C and 29.92 Hg
b) 10C and 29.92 Hg
c) 59F and 1013.2 mb

A

a) 15C and 29.92 Hg

68
Q

A stable atmosphere makes vertical movement difficult, and small vertical disturbances dampen out
and disappear. When this atmospheric condition exists, as you ascend through the atmosphere the
temperature changes is 2C per 1,000 feet of altitude gain, this is called?
a. Average lapse rate
b. Convergence rate
c. Temperature Inversion

A

a) average lapse rate

69
Q

Squall lines present a serious hazard to pilots as squall type thunderstorms are intense and move
quickly. Where do they most often form?
a. Ahead of a Cold front
b. Ahead of a Warm front
c. Ahead of a Stationary front

A

a) ahead of a cold front

70
Q

Which cloud type would indicate areas of instability and develop thunderstorms?
a. Altostratus clouds
b. Cirrus clouds
c. Towering cumulus

A

c) towering cumulus

71
Q

The first layer of atmosphere that extends from sea level up to 20,000 feet at the poles and up to
48,000 feet over the equatorial regions where the vast majority of weather occurs is known as the:
a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Mesosphere

A

a) troposphere

72
Q

Unless otherwise specified in the certificate holder’s operation specifications, when conducting VFR
helicopter air ambulance operations in Class G airspace, at pilots discretion, Company alternate
weather minimums apply:
a. Non mountainous non local flying areas Day 800 feet, 3 statute miles/Night 1000 feet 3 statute miles
b. Non mountainous non local flying areas Day 1,000 feet, 3 statute miles/Night 1000 feet 3 statute miles
c. Non mountainous non local flying areas Day 900 feet, 3 statute miles/Night 1,200 feet 5 statute miles

A

a. Non mountainous non local flying areas Day 800 feet, 3 statute miles/Night 1000 feet 3 statute miles

73
Q

VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements in Class B airspace?
a. Clear of clouds
b. 3 statute miles, Clear of clouds
c. 5 statute miles, Clear of clouds

A

b) 3 statute miles, clear of clouds

74
Q

What is the basic VFR weather minimums, visibility, and cloud clearance requirements to operate in
Controlled airspace, Class C, Class D and Class E.
a. 3 statute miles, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above and 2,000 feet horizontal
b. 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet below, 500 feet above and 2,000 feet horizontal
c. 3 statute miles, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above and 2,000 feet horizontal

A

a. 3 statute miles, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above and 2,000 feet horizontal

75
Q

Microbursts can be found almost anywhere that there is convective activity? TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

76
Q

What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing inflight in temperatures near or below
freezing?
a. Cold winter months
b. Visible moisture such as rain or cloud droplets
c. Temperature, dew point with 2 degrees

A

b) visible moisture such as rain or cloud droplets

77
Q

Convective SIGMET-How fast and from what direction are these storms moving?
WSUS31 KKCI 091455
SIGE
Convective SIGMET 37E
Valid until 1655Z
NC SC GA CSTL WTRS
From 60SSW ILM-150ESE ILM-200SE CHS-90SE CHS-60SSW ILM AREA EMBD TS MOV FROM 19015KT.
TOPS FL420
a. 200-degrees @ 90 knots
b. 150-degrees @ 60 knots
c. 190-degrees @ 15 knots
d. Not reported

A

c. 190-degrees @ 15 knots

78
Q

TAF-When will be the first opportunity for a pilot to accept a flight to KMCN?
KMCN 091121Z 0912/1012 06009KTS 5SM –RADZ BR OVC007
FM091500 06008KT 6SM –RADZ BR OVC008
TEMPO 0915/0919 2SM SHRA BR SCT008 OVC012
FM091900 06007KTS 6SM –RA BR SCT008 BKN012
FM2300 05005KT 4SM –DZ BR OVC007
FM100300 03003KT 2SM –DZ BR OVC004
FM 100900 35002KT 1/2M FG OVC002
a. 1200Z
b. 1500Z
c. 1900Z
d. Weather does not meet AEL minimums

A

c) 1900Z

79
Q

METAR – In the following, overcast at OVC007 is the lowest CIG reported?
KMSL 091353Z AUTO 0000KT 10SM OVC007 12/10 A3019 RMK AO2 CIG004V012 SLP220 T01170100
a. True
b. False

A

FALSE

80
Q

Which ATC facility’s primary function is to separate aircraft on the airport surface?
a. Control Tower
b. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)
c. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)
d. None of the above

A

A) control tower

81
Q

At the cruise airspeed of 105kts and a headwind of 50kts would result in a ________ ground speed?
a. 105 kts
b. 95 kts
c. 55 kts
d. 160 kts

A

c) 55 kts

82
Q

If satellite tracking indicates our aircraft is indicating 150 kts it may suggest:
a. The aircraft is near Vne
b. The aircraft has encountered a strong headwind
c. The aircraft has encountered a strong tailwind
d. The aircraft is in a steep dive

A

c) the aircraft has encountered a strong tailwind

83
Q

Mountains, hills, valleys, and lakes are examples of Local Area Terrain Features? TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

84
Q

Wires, Towers, Smokestacks, are examples of Local Area Prominent obstructions? TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

85
Q

Only the PIC is responsible for identifying hazards to flight? TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

86
Q

MEF is a quick way to determine a conservative HFE? TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

87
Q

What does MSA indicate on an instrument approach procedure?
a. Mean Sea Altitude
b. Minimum Setting of Altimeter
c. Maximum Safe Altitude
d. Minimum Safe Altitude

A

d) minimum safe altitude

88
Q

What does the Maltese Cross represent on the profile view of an instrument Approach procedure?
a. Minimum Safe Altitude
b. Minimum Decent Altitude
c. Final Approach Fix
d. Initial Approach Fix

A

c) final approach fix

89
Q

In a IIMC event, the following distractions must be avoided to allow the pilot to focus on flying the aircraft.
a. Radio Chatter
b. Crew Chatter (enforce sterile cockpit)
c. All the above

A

c) all of the above

90
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?
a. 1200
b. 7600
c. 7700

A

a) 1200

91
Q

. What does the Red Line on an airspeed indicator represent?
a. Maneuvering speed
b. Turbulent or rough-air speed
c. Never exceed speed

A

c) never exceed speed

92
Q

Which is true regarding Class E airspace?
a. The basic VFR minimums are greater than those associated with Class D airspace
b. Class E airspace may start at the surface, but usually begins at an altitude of 700 feet or 1,200 feet above the surface
c. Class E airspace begins at the surface and extends upward to FL6000

A

b. Class E airspace may start at the surface, but usually begins at an altitude of 700 feet or 1,200 feet above the surface

93
Q

A clearance is required to operate in which airspace?
a. Class C
b. Class E
c. Military Operations Area
d. Class B

A

d) Class B

94
Q

In the GOM, where can you locate an index of all current FOABs?
a. End of Chapter 5
b. Behind the cover page
c. In the OPSSPECS

A

b) behind the cover page

95
Q

Night reconnaissance flights are prohibited, except in which case?
a. Downed aircraft
b. Drowning victim in the water
c. Forest fire patrol
d. When NVG’s are in use

A

a) downed aircraft

96
Q

Clear Air Mode regarding RADAR can be used to detect:
a. Gust fronts
b. Light snow
c. Cloud bases
d. All the above

A

b) light snow

97
Q

Baldwin pre-flight risk analysis is designed to provide the pilot with a quantitative evaluation of risk to assist the determining “Go/No-Go” decision of flight? TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

98
Q

After April 22nd 2016, can a pilot lift an AEL helicopter on a Helicopter Air Ambulance operation prior to receiving an OCS Acknowledgment of their pre-flight risk analysis?
a. Yes
b. No

A

b) No

99
Q

Sterile Cockpit shall be practiced on AEL aircraft during critical phase of flight, other than cruise? TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

100
Q

Which of the following is not an error enhancer?
a. Fatigue/excessive stress
b. Lack of oxygen/water/nutrition
c. Distractions/Interruptions
d. Good Ergonomic design

A

d) good ergonomic design

Precepting: Air Evac Bases (2 decks)

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