OCS Flashcards

1
Q

Define and explain what is meant by the term ADS-C

A

Automatic dependent surveillance – contract (ADS-C): A means by which the terms of an ADS-C agreement will be exchanged between the ground system and the aircraft, via a data link, specifying under what conditions ADS-C reports would be initiated, and what data would be contained in the reports.

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2
Q

Define and explain what is meant by the term CPDLC

A

A means of communication between controller

and pilot, using data link for ATC communications

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3
Q

Explain what is meant by the term Area of Conlict

A

For lateral separation purposes, an area within which horizontal separation between particular flights does not exist

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4
Q

Provided safety is not jeopardised, how shall traffic priorities be applied?

A

• an aircraft known or believed to be in a state of emergency or impaired operation has priority over
all other aircraft; and
• an aircraft landing, or in the final stages of an approach to land, has priority over a departing
aircraft; and
• an aircraft landing or taking off has priority over taxiing aircraft

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5
Q

Where practical and following a request from the pilot, aircraft involved in, or positioning for, what form of activities shall be granted priority?

A
  • ambulance or mercy missions; and
  • search and rescue; and
  • civil defence or police emergencies; and
  • carriage of heads-of-state, heads-of-government, or equivalent dignitaries.
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6
Q

Define coordination

A

Coordination is the process of negotiation between two or more parties that results in an agreed course of action. To ensure a common understanding and continuity in the provision of an air traffic service to aircraft concerned, coordination shall be carried out between affected sectors/units for all IFR and controlled VFR flights, with agreement being reached on:

  • clearances/instructions, as appropriate;
  • estimate messages;
  • information estimate messages;
  • transfers of control;
  • revisions to the significant point or level contained in an estimate message;
  • approval requests;
  • advice or information to be issued to aircraft.
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7
Q

A verbal revision shall be passed to a radar sector when the transfer of control point ETO changes by how many minutes?

A

3 minutes

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8
Q

What phraseology is used by the TRANSFERRING CONTROLLER for an approval request?

A

“APPROVAL REQUEST (aircraft callsign, level) VIA (significant point) (any other relevant details)”

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9
Q

Following an approval request, what phraseology is used by the ACCEPTING controller?

A

“(aircraft callsign) (level) APPROVED [conditions/restrictions]”,
or
“(aircraft callsign) UNABLE TO APPROVE (alternative instructions/reasons)”

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10
Q

Where should the RTF contact point be?

A

The RTF contact point should be a time but may be a position or level if these can be related to a time by the accepting controller

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11
Q

When would consider effecting a transfer of radio guard prior to an aircraft reaching the transfer of control point?

A

to enable the accepting controller to issue instructions which would become effective at the transfer of control point

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12
Q

What phraseology is used to effect a transfer of radio guard?

A

“AT [or PASSING] (time/position/level) CONTACT (unit or operating position) (frequency)”

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13
Q

What is the proviso when issuing an aircraft a clearance to operate within a block of levels?

A

provided that other aircraft are not denied use of a level within the block

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14
Q

When an aircraft is required to hold, name the elements that make up the clearance for the aircraft to hold

A
  • instructions to join the holding pattern;
  • identification of the holding pattern;
  • level instructions (at or above the minimum holding level);
  • maximum holding speed if required (e.g. for lateral separation or terrain)
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15
Q

In the case where a flight deviated from an ATC clearance due to a TAWS or GPWS alert, weather or other emergency, what procedures apply?

A
  • No control instructions shall be issued to the aircraft making the deviation, and
  • Where separation is lost or likely to be lost, instructions shall be issued to other aircraft involved
    which will re-establish separation with a minimum of delay, and
  • Traffic or essential traffic information shall be issued if appropriate.
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16
Q

Is the Auckland Oceanic FIR designated as RVSM airspace? If so between what flight levels?

A

Yes between F290 and F410 inclusive

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17
Q

When may an RVSM level be used outside the RVSM stratum?

A

RVSM levels shall not be used outside RVSM airspace when aircraft are in the cruise unless as part of a block clearance.

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18
Q

When are aircraft that are entering airspace within which a larger lateral separation minimum applies rather than that being exited considered to be separated? State the navigation systems requirement to be met when applying this separation

A

provided that aircraft are flying on tracks that:

  • are separated by the appropriate (lateral or radar) minimum for the airspace being exited, and then
  • diverge by 15 degrees or more until the applicable larger separation minimum is established, and
  • the aircraft have the navigation capability necessary to ensure accurate track guidance.
  • Inertial Navigation Systems (INS); or
  • Inertial Reference Systems in conjunction with a Flight Management System (IRS/FMS); or
  • Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) approved aircraft; or
  • Required Navigation Performance 10 (RNP 10) or less approved aircraft.
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19
Q

What longitudinal separation standards may be used in the oceanic environment between aircraft climbing, descending or maintaining the same level on the same track?

A
  • T15, or
  • T10RNP, or
  • D50, or
  • D30, or
  • MNT Time Separation
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20
Q

State the longitudinal separation minima applied in the oceanic environment between aircraft flying on crossing tracks

A

T15

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21
Q

State the separation minima applied in the oceanic environment between aircraft flying on reciprocal tracks

A
  • For T10 prior to and after the estimated time of passing (ETP), where the estimated time of passing is determined to be the time at which the aircraft are the closest to each other, or
  • Until the aircraft have passed each other by at least D50 or D30 as appropriate.

These standards need not apply when it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other by:

  • Both aircraft having reported crossing a common exact reporting point, or
  • Mutual sighting, provided that there is no possibility of incorrect identification, or
  • Another separation standard.
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22
Q

With respect to the oceanic environment, state the occasions where reciprocal track separation minima standards need not apply

A
  • Both aircraft having reported crossing a common exact reporting point, or
  • Mutual sighting, provided that there is no possibility of incorrect identification, or
  • Another separation standard.
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23
Q

True or false: the VOR/DME lateral separation table published in MATS RAV 5 is approved for us on tracks based on the YSNF and NCRG VOR/DME

A

True

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24
Q

With respect to an active SUA, within what distance of that SUA will OCS indicate a conflict?

A

50NM, or profiled to enter a SPACE DEBRIS area

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25
Q

Define what is meant by the term RNP

A

RNP is defined as a statement of the navigation performance accuracy necessary for operation within a defined airspace and is based on a navigation performance accuracy value which is expected to be achieved at least 95% of the time by the population of aircraft operating within the airspace.

26
Q

When are pilots required to advise ATC that their aircraft is unable to meet their filed RNP value?

A
  • 30 minutes prior to entry to RNP airspace, or

* Immediately, when within 30 minutes of, or in, RNP airspace.

27
Q

May aircraft which are non-RNP10 compliant be permitted to operate within Auckland Oceanic RNP airspace?

A

Yes

28
Q

With respect to RNP navigation in Oceanic Airspace, how is a navigational deviation defined?

A

A navigational deviation is defined as:
• An unauthorised lateral deviation of 15 NM or more, observed by any means;
• A variation of 10 NM or more from a specified longitudinal distance standard, observed by ADS-C;
• A variation of 3 minutes or more from a specified time given for a reporting point or FIR boundary.

29
Q

Which field(s) and indicator(s) does OCS use to identify the datalink and ADS capabilities of an aircraft?

A
  • Field 10a - The indicators J1 to J7 as applicable to indicate data link capability;
  • Field 10b - The indicator D1 or G1 to indicate ADS capability;
30
Q

When should pilots perform the initial AFN logon?

A

Prior to takeoff, where permitted or required - No earlier than 45 minutes prior to ETD - Current ATSU for the FIR that the departure airport is located within

15 minutes or more prior to FIR boundary estimate - above 10,000 feet - Current ATSU for the FIR in which the aircraft is operating

Less than 15 minutes prior to FIR boundary estimate - above 10,000 feet - Next ATSU that provides CPDLC and/or ADS-C services for the FIR on that flight

Following an unsuccessful data link transfer to another ATSU. - When detected by the flight crew or upon receipt of instruction from ATC - As instructed or per above

31
Q

MATSOS states controllers should manage CPDLC connections to ensure a certain requirement is met. What is this requirement?

A

to ensure that the ATSU with control for the flight holds the active CPDLC connection

32
Q

Describe the effect of sending a CPDLC message to an aircraft when the ATSU has an inactive connection

A

the aircraft system rejects the message and sends DM 63 NOT CURRENT DATA AUTHORITY to the ATSU

33
Q

Describe how the aircraft system deals with the receipt of multiple NDA messages and its effect on ATSU CPDLC connections. What is the interesting point to note?

A

The aircraft system will replace the original NDA message with the new NDA message unless the facility designation in the message is the same as the facility designation already held by the aircraft system. If the facility designation is different, the aircraft will terminate any inactive CPDLC connection that an ATSU may have already established.

34
Q

When should the MONITOR/CONTACT and END SERVICE message normally be sent?

A

MONITOR/CONTACT prior to END SERVICE

END SERVICE normally sent 3 minutes prior to boundary

35
Q

What actions should a controller take on becoming aware that the END SERVICE message was not delivered or fails to trigger a disconnection?

A

send another END SERVICE message. If this is also unsuccessful, the pilot shall be instructed to terminate the CPDLC connection and log on to the next unit

36
Q

When are freetext messages permitted to be used?

A

only when an appropriate standard message element does not exist

37
Q

If a CPDLC dialogue is interrupted by a system shutdown, what process shall be followed?

A

the entire dialogue shall be re-commenced by voice communication

38
Q

How shall controllers respond to a downlinked clearance request that must be denies due to conflicting traffic?

A

the controller shall use the element UNABLE (not NEGATIVE) followed by the reason in the uplink response

39
Q

Name the appropriate responses that may be received from an aircraft following a negotiation request. (e.g. can you accept altitude…. at time….)

A

AFFIRM or NEGATIVE

40
Q

Assuming no associated accompanying alert has been received, when and in what form should a pilot or controller consider re-sending a message?

A

After a reasonable period of time, sent as a query message. WHEN CAN I EXPECT

41
Q

What process should a controller follow if a second identical downlink request is sent by the pilot after a reasonable period (more than 10 minutes) has passed since receiving a STANDBY response to an earlier request? Why should this process be followed?

A

the controller should respond with UNABLE REQUEST DEFERRED. This will close out the second message, inform the pilot that the reply will take longer, and will leave only one open message requiring a response.

42
Q

MATSOS states that controllers shall ensure that conditional altitude change clearances are managed by a particular process. Explain this process.

A

The potential exists for the restriction AT contained at the beginning of the following conditional clearances to be missed by aircrew and consequently the clearance may be executed prematurely. Controllers shall ensure that UL# 21, 22, 24 and 25 are preceded with UL# 19 MAINTAIN [altitude] indicating to aircrew to maintain their present altitude until the condition of the clearance is satisfied.

43
Q

How shall a controller cancel a previously issued block clearance?

A

the controller shall prefix the vertical clearance with “CANCEL BLOCK CLEARANCE” followed by an appropriate vertical instruction

44
Q

How should controllers respond to multiple clearance requests in one message where only part of the request can be approved?

A

When a multi-element clearance request is received and part of it can be approved and part of it cannot, the uplink shall not contain the single word UNABLE and a clearance. If UNABLE is used within a clearance message, it must contain a qualifier to remove any ambiguity.

45
Q

How must pilots respond to a message from an ATSU which contains only freetext or freetext combined with elements that do not require a response?

A

the pilot must respond to the free text with a ROGER response before responding to the actual contents of the message

46
Q

When are the pilots required to downlink a CPDLC position report?

A
  • An initial CPDLC connection is established (when inbound from an area not providing CPDLC services); or
  • A CPDLC connection transfer has been completed, or
  • When crossing an FIR boundary.
47
Q

Name the 3 types of ADS-C contracts that can be established with an aircraft

A
  • Periodic contract;
  • Event contract; and
  • Demand contract.
48
Q

State how many simultaneous ADS-C connections may exists for an aircraft

A

FANS-1/A equipped aircraft can have up to five ADS-C connections. One of the five connections is reserved for use by the AOC. The aircraft has the capacity to report to four different ATSUs simultaneously using ADS-C.

49
Q

When all available ADS-C connections with an aircraft are taken by other ground facilities what will result when a controller attempts to establish an ADS-C connection? What process should be followed?

A

will receive a DISCONNECT REQUEST message with “reason code 1” (Congestion).

the current controlling authority should be notified. The controlling authority should resolve the situation

50
Q

When and how are ADS-C contracts terminated? What provisions exist for extended ADS-C monitoring of flights?

A

The OCS automatically terminates the ADS contract at VSP minutes past the Auckland Oceanic FIR.
The flight crew may terminate ADS-C connections, which cancels ADS contracts, when exiting ADS-C surveillance areas.
If a particular ADS-C connection is required past this point then controllers shall manually initiate an ADS-C connection with the aircraft.

51
Q

Under what circumstances might a controller consider increasing ADS-C reporting rates?

A
  • When the aircraft is approaching a crossing route on which there is other traffic; or
  • When the aircraft is approaching or within areas of known significant weather; or
  • During periods of turbulence; or
  • When an unauthorized deviation from the clearance is detected; or
  • When an aircraft is experiencing abnormal operations or it is known or suspected that an aircraft is in a state of emergency.
52
Q

What is the vertical tolerance applied to ADS-C reports within OCA airspace?

A

+/- 200ft

53
Q

How should controllers respond to an emergency CPDLC message?

A

by the most appropriate means available (voice or CPDLC)

if using CPDLC:
ROGER MAYDAY or
ROGER PAN

54
Q

How should controllers respond to and ADS-C emergency code which is activated without a CPDLC emergency message or voice confirmation?

A

the controller should send

CONFIRM ADS-C EMERGENCY

55
Q

Name the 3 OCD contingency phases

A
  • Recovery
  • Limited ATS
  • Restoration of ATS delivery to the OCS
56
Q

State the objective of the OCS “Recovery” phase

A

to ensure a safe air traffic environment until aircraft, that at the time of the multiple OCS failure were operating within or about to enter the Auckland OCA, have vacated the area

57
Q

During the OCS Recovery contingency phase, when are aircraft permitted to enter the Auckland OCA?

A

No further aircraft should be permitted entry into the Auckland OCA unless the aircraft has been previously coordinated and accepted, until:
• Limited ATS procedures are activated, or
• Either the OCS Main or Reserve platform has been restored to service.

58
Q

What is the objective of the OCS “Limited ATS” contingency phase? What restrictions, if any, apply to aircraft during this phase?

A

The objective of this phase is to provide a safe air traffic environment to the extent possible given the circumstances and allow aircraft to operate within the Auckland Oceanic FIR.
During this phase:
• The Auckland OCA remains Class A airspace and an air traffic control service shall be provided
• Traffic flow management procedures will be implemented
• All ATS fixed routes remain available. User preferred routes are not available.

59
Q

Who is responsible for issuing the OCS flow NOTAM?

A

the oceanic team leader

60
Q

Who is responsible for deciding when ATS delivery shall be resumed from either the OCS Main or Reserve platforms?

A

TC releases platform - oceanic team leader does the rest