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MT 12 lec > occupational risks (bloodborne pathogens) > Flashcards

occupational risks (bloodborne pathogens) Flashcards

1
Q

these organisms such as bacteria, viruses, and even parasites that are carried in blood and cause diseases in people.

A

pathogenic

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2
Q

examples of primary concerns bloodborne pathogens

A

HIV, HCV, HBV

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3
Q

it is a dna virus that belongs to the hepadnaviridae family

A

HBV

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4
Q

what are the modes of transmission for HBV

A

parenteral, sexual, or perinatal

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5
Q

it is a mode of transmission where HBV is transmitted by intimate contact with HBV contaminated blood or other body fluids such as seminal fluid, vaginal secretions, and saliva

A

Parenteral

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6
Q

mode of transmission where their is a possibility that this bloodborne pathogen to be passed on or transmitter to the baby from the mother, most likely during delivery.

A

perinatal

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7
Q

incubation for HBV

A

45-90 days

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8
Q

HBV has a high chance of progression to

A

chronic state

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9
Q

chronic development of hepatitis will increase the risk of ___________ and also ________

A

liver cirrhosis and cancer of the liver or hepatocellular carcinoma

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10
Q

complications of hepatitis b virus, how many percent of cases may develop chronic hepatitis with increased risk of liver cirrhosis and cancer of the liver or hepatocellular carcinoma

A

10%-90%

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11
Q

HBV can survive at least ____ week in dried blood on environmental surfaces or contaminated needles and instruments

A

1 week

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12
Q

signs and symptoms of HBV

A

fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea, dark urine, vomiting, abdominal pains, joint pains, and jaundice

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13
Q

the main risk for health workers being exposed to HBV is being?

A

being stuck with a HBV contaminated needle or other sharp objects

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14
Q

Measures to prevent HBV infections:

A
  1. screening blood donors
  2. treating plasma-derived products to inactivate HBV
  3. implementing infection control measures
  4. immunization of hepatitis b vaccine
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15
Q

examples of implementing infection control measures

A

no recapping of needles, wearing proper ppe, and prioritizing one’s welfare

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16
Q

an enveloped, single stranded RNA virus belonging to the Flaviviridae family

A

hepatitis c virus

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17
Q

modes of transmission for HCV

A

parenteral, sexual, and perinatal

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18
Q

HCV has a high chance of progression to _____

A

chronic state

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19
Q

HCV patient will really progress to chronic infections because HCV attacks the ____and may lead to inflammation.

A

HCV attacks the liver

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20
Q

what percent of develop chronic infection with increased risk of liver cirrhosis, hepatocellular carcinoma, and autoimmune manifestations in HCV.

A

85%

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21
Q

symptoms of HCV include

A

Jaundice, fatigue, abdominal pain, loss of appetite,, intermittent nausea, dark urine, and joint pains.

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22
Q

some HCV situations don’t show any symptoms at all and don’t know they are infected until decades later when liver damage shows up in ____ tests.

A

routine tests

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23
Q

the etiologic agent of the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

A

human immunodeficiency virus

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24
Q

what are the former names of human immunodeficiency virus the 4 types

A

HIV 1 (discovered 1983-1984)
Human T-cell lymphotropic virus-type III (HTLV III)
Lymphadenopathy-associated virus (LAV)
AIDS-associated retrovirus (ASR)

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25
Q

HIV that causes AIDS attacks the __________ leaving the body at higher risk of developing more serious conditions.

A

human immune system cells

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26
Q

Signs and Symptoms of HIV

A

Flu like symptoms. (Fever, chills, appearance of rash, night sweats, muscle sore, sore throat, fatigue, swollen lymph nodes, or the presence of mouth ulcers.)

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27
Q

the signs and symptoms usually appear _ -_ weeks after infection while other people who are already infected with the virus may not feel sick.

A

2-4 weeks

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28
Q

HIV does not survive long and cannot reproduce outside a human host; so once transmitted, in order for the virus to replicate inside the body it will use the ____?

A

immune system

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29
Q

a related but genetically distinct virus from HIV -1 which discovered in 1986

A

HIV 2

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30
Q

Majority of infection of HIV 1 occurred in

A

West Africa

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31
Q

how is the transmission of HIV 2?

A

it has the same transmission process as HIV 1 and may also cause AIDS

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32
Q

what is the difference between HIV 1 and HIV 2?

A

HIV 2 is less pathogenic and has a lower rate of transmission

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33
Q

What are the 3 major routes of transmission of HIV?

A
  1. intimate sexual contact
  2. contact with blood or any other body fluids (parenteral route)
  3. Perinatal route (infected mother to infant)
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34
Q

transmission of virus may happen through vaginal or anal intercourse (which the major of the cases of HIV infection.)

A

intimate sexual contact

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35
Q

most cases worldwide of HIV can attributed to ____ contact

A

heterosexual contact

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36
Q

in the USA, the largest number of cases has resulted from anal intercourse in _______ males.

A

homosexual males

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37
Q

in order to prevent the transmission of parenteral route, prevention may include__________ and _________________ for HIV

A

screening of the blood and organ donors for HIV

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38
Q

what are the body fluids that are not considered to be infectious unless they contain visible blood.

A

saliva, sputum, nasal secretions, tears, sweat, urine, vomit, and feces.

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39
Q

transmission is through pregnancy, by transfer of blood during delivery or through breast feeding.

A

perinatal route

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40
Q

steps to reduce transmission of HIV through perinatal:
(HAT)

A
  1. HIV screening
  2. Administration of antiretroviral drug for HIV+ pregnant women
  3. The use of infant formula by infected mothers
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41
Q

Disease caused by bloodborne pathogens:

A
  1. syphilis
  2. malaria
  3. zika
  4. babesiosis
  5. brucellosis
  6. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
  7. human t-lymphotropic virus type 1
  8. ebola virus disease
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42
Q

an infection caused by treponema pallidum (spirochete)

A

syphilis

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43
Q

mode of transmission for syphilis

A

sexual contact (primary mode of dissemination) and perinatal route

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44
Q

syphilis sore is usually in what area of the body?

A

genital area

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45
Q

the causative agent of syphilis characteristic has:

A

coils and periplasmic flagella

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46
Q

syphilis has how many stages

A

4 stages

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47
Q

once contact has been made with a susceptible skin site, there will be thickening of ____

A

endothelial cells

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48
Q

thickening of endothelial cells that usually occurs with

A

aggregation of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages

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49
Q

sore appears on the spot where

A

the bacteria entered the body

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50
Q

chancre or the sore usually develops within ___ days after infection, within 21 days being the averaged

A

10-90 days

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51
Q

in men, chancre usually occurs

A

outside the penis

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52
Q

in women chancre usually occurs ___ and may go undetected

A

in the vagina or on the cervix

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53
Q

the primary stag usually lasts from ____ weeks during in which the lession may heal

A

1-6 weeks

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54
Q

it is a stage in syphilis infection where systematic dissemination or the spread of organism usually happens

A

secondary stage

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55
Q

symptoms for secondary stage of syphilis:

A

generalized lymphadenopathy, malaise fever, pharyngitis, and rashes on skin or mucous membrane

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56
Q

these rashes of syphilis may not be itchy and may also be accompanied by ___

A

wart-like sores in the mouth and in genital area

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57
Q

in secondary level, patient may exhibit neurological signs such as

A

visual disturbances, hearing loss, tinnitus, and facial weakness

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58
Q

in secondary level syphilis, lesions persist from a few days to ___ weeks

A

few days to 8 weeks

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59
Q

spontaneous healing may occur, as the __ stage

A

primary stage

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60
Q

the third stage of the syphilis infection level is the

A

latent stage

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61
Q

without treatment, syphilis will ____ in the body even if there are no signs and symptoms

A

remain in the body

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62
Q

it follows the disappearance of the secondary stage

A

the latent stage

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63
Q

in this stage of syphilis, it is characterized by a lack of clinical symptoms.

A

latent stage

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64
Q

the patient of syphilis this time are non-infectious, except for pregnant women

A

latent stage

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65
Q

what are the 2 types of latent stage syphilis

A

early latent syphilis
late latent syphilis

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66
Q

the infection (SYPHILIS) occurred less than 1 year’s duration

A

early latent syphilis

67
Q

the infection occurred more than 1 year previously

A

late latent syphilis

68
Q

the last and final stage of syphilis infection

A

tertiary stage

69
Q

appears anywhere from months to years after secondary infection remains untreated

A

tertiary stage

70
Q

the tertiary stage of syphilis occurs most often between __ and __ yeaars following secondary stage

A

10 and 30 years

71
Q

what are the three manifestations of the tertiary stage

A

Gummas or Gummatous lesions, cardiovascular disease, and neurosyphilis

72
Q

the gummas or gummatous lesions is localized areas of ____ inflammation

A

Granulomatous inflammation

73
Q

complications involve the ascending aorta, and symptoms due to the destruction of elastic tissue

A

cardiovascular disease

74
Q

the cardiovascular disease of syphilis may result to

A

aeutic aneurysm, thickening of the valve, aortic regugatation, and angina pectoris

75
Q

the complication that most associated with the tertiary stage

A

neurosyphilis

76
Q

can actually occur anytime after the primary stage and can span all stagees of the disease process

A

tertiary stage

77
Q

a life threatening parasitic disease caused by infection with plasmodium protozoa

A

malaria

78
Q

the mode of transmission of this disease is through an female anopheles mosquito

A

malaria

79
Q

the two plasmodium poses the greatest threat

A

plasmodium falciparum and plasmodium vivax

80
Q

symptoms for malaria are

A

fever, chills, and headaches

81
Q

how many days would the symptoms appear after the ineffective mosquito five

A

10-15 days

82
Q

what is the life cycle plasmodium

A

development in blood feeding insect host
injects parasite into vertebrae host
parasite grow in liver
parasite enters bloodstream to affect rbcs

83
Q

caused by a virus transmitted primarily by the bite of an infected aedes species mosquito

A

zika

84
Q

the two types of Aedes

A

Aedes egypti and Aedes albopictus

85
Q

symptoms of infection include rash, fever, conjunctivitis, muscle and joint pain, malaise headaches, usually lasting 2-7 days

A

zika

86
Q

zika can be transmitted by

A

mother to infant (perinatal)
sexual contact
transfusion of blood
organ transportation

87
Q

the sever manifestation of zika are usually seen in babiies of infected mothers that can result problems in baby like

A

mircocephaly

88
Q

an abnormally small head bexause of the brain that does not developed normally that causes seizure and delay of intellectual develoment

A

microcephaly

89
Q

Caused by Babesia microti

A

babesiosis

90
Q

transmitted by the bite
of infected Ixodes scapularis ticks - typically, by the
nymph stage of the tick, which is about the size of a
poppy seed.

A

babesiosis

91
Q

Babesia parasites infect and destroy red blood cells
which results in hemolytic anemia leading to

A

jaundice and dark urine

92
Q

Babesiosis can be a severe, life threatening
disease especially for people who?

A

people who do not have a spleen
have a weak immune system
have other serious health conditions
very old people

93
Q

Zoonotic infection caused by the bacterial genus
Brucella

A

brucellosis

94
Q

Transmitted from animals to humans by ingestion
through infected food products (milk from cow),
direct contact with an infected animal, or inhalation
of aerosols.

A

brucellosis

95
Q

other names for brucellosis

A

mediterranean fever
malta fever
gastric remittent fever
undulant fever

96
Q

species of brucella

A

b. abortus
b. meltiness
B. suis

97
Q

when the Brucella infects an animal, this usually results in

A

spontaneous abortion

98
Q

if the Brucella infects
humans, this usually leads to

A

fever like undulant fever or
malta fever.

99
Q

A rare brain disorder that leads to dementia believed
to be caused by a protein known as prions.

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)

100
Q

is marked by changes in mental abilities
including personality changes, memory loss,
impaired thinking, blurry vision or blindness,
insomnia, problems with coordination, trouble
speaking or swallowing, and sudden jerky
movements.

A

CJD

101
Q

3 TYPES OF CJD

A

`sporadic cjd
hereditary CD
acquired cjd

102
Q

the disease appears even
though the person has no known risk factors for
the disease. This is by far the most common type
of CJD and accounts for at least 85 percent of
cases.

A

sporadic cjd

103
Q

— the person may have a family
history of the disease and test positive for a
genetic mutation associated with CJD.

A

Hereditary CJD

104
Q

the disease is transmitted by
exposure to brain or nervous system tissue,
usually through certain medical procedures

A

Acquired CJD

105
Q

: A type of CJD called variant CJD (or vCJD) can
be acquired by eating meat from cattle affected by a
disease similar to CJD

A

bovine spongiform
encephalopathy (BSE) or, commonly “mad cow”
disease.

106
Q

Occurs when a person is infected by the human
T-lymphotropic virus type 1 causing

A

T-cell
leukemia/lymphoma.

107
Q

human t-lymphotropic virus type 1

A

blood transfusions, sexual
contact and sharing needles; mother to child during
birth or breastfeeding (Perinatal Transmission)

108
Q

If a person has HTLV-1, the nucleus of the
lymphocytes looks like

A

flower

109
Q

ebola virus was formally known as _______, a rare but severe, often fatal illness in humans

A

Ebola hemorrhagic fever

110
Q

Symptoms of EVD can be sudden and include:

A

Fever, fatigue, muscle pain, headache, sore
throat
○ Vomiting, diarrhea, rash, impaired kidney and
liver function, internal and external bleeding

111
Q

modes of transmission for ebola virus

A

fruit bat and zoonotic

112
Q

the risk of exposure on the healthcare setting is high because

A

most of the time we are always dealing with specimens coming from patients

113
Q

the main source for contamination source is the

A

blood (the human blood, human blood components, and products made from human blood)

114
Q

other potential infectious materials

A

human body fluids
any unfixed tissue or organ from human
culture, culture mediums, or other solutions
experimental animal blood, tissues, or organs infected with HIV and HBV

115
Q

Since we are constantly exposed to these sources when
working in healthcare, it is also important to remember
that we need to protect ourselves by

A
  • practicing standard guidelines of processing specimen
  • wearing PPE
116
Q

spread of blood borne pathogens occurs through:

A

direct contact
indirect contact
respiratory transmission
vector-borne transmission

117
Q

Wherein infected blood or body fluids from one
person is transferred directly to another

A

direct contact

118
Q

Wherein a person touches an object that may
contain the blood or body fluid of an infected
person.

A

indirect contact

119
Q

The person inhales respiratory droplets from an
infected person through coughing or sneezing.

A

respiratory transmission

120
Q

Wherein a person’s skin is penetrated by a bite
from an organism that carries the disease (e.g.
mosquitos and ticks).

A

vector-borne transmission

121
Q

how does an exposure occurs

A

needlestick injuries
cuts from other contaminated sharps
contacts of mucous membrane with contaminated blood or opim

122
Q

Unbroken skin forms an impervious barrier against
bloodborne pathogens. However, infected blood can
enter your system through:

A

open sores
abrasions
cuts
acne
any sort of damaged or broken akin such as sun burn or blisters

123
Q

Occupations at Risk

A

● First aid responders
● Housekeeping personnel in some industries
● Nurses and other healthcare personnel

124
Q

CDC estimates ___ million workers in healthcare
and related occupations are at risk.

A

5.6

125
Q

All occupational exposure to blood or OPIM
places ___ at risk.

A

workers

125
Q

Percent of occupational groups of
healthcare workers which are exposed to blood or
body fluids. With ____, ___, ___
accounting for most of the incident.

A

nurses, physicians, and technicians

126
Q

Healthcare work locations where
exposures usually occur. With____
(medical or surgical wards, and intensive care units,
as well as operating rooms) account for the majority
of the exposure sites.

A

inpatient facilities

127
Q

Data from the National Surveillance System for
Healthcare Workers show that _________sustain the
highest number of percutaneous injuries.

A

nurses

128
Q

They are the predominant occupational group
injured by needles and other sharps, because they
are the largest segment of the workforce at most
hospitals.

A

nurses

129
Q

Although sharp injuries happen everywhere, data
also shows that the majority of injuries happen at
____ units particularly in medical floors, ICUs,
operating rooms; after use and before disposal of
sharp devices; during use; during or after disposal of
sharp devices.

A

in-patient

130
Q

written plan to eliminate or minimize
occupational exposures.

A

exposure control plan

131
Q

ECP is a mandated written document that:

A
  1. Identifies sources of exposure
  2. Communicates information to employees
  3. Provides methods of compliance
  4. Records training/vaccinations/incidents
132
Q

When an ECP is established, there is also a need to
______ and _____ the plan _____

A

review and update; annually

133
Q

When an ECP is established, there is also a need to
review and update the plan annually or:
1. Whenever _____ or ____ task or procedures
affect occupational exposures.

A

new or modified tasks or procedures

134
Q

When an ECP is established, there is also a need to
review and update the plan annually or:

  1. When there is a new or revised ___________ position with occupational exposure.
A

employee position with occupational exposure.

135
Q

Required elements of ECP
(ESP)

A
  1. Exposure determination
  2. Schedule and method of implementation
  3. Procedure for evaluation of exposure incidents
136
Q

ECP must include:

A

● Potential exposure determination
● Safe work practices
● Changes in technology that reduce/eliminate
exposure
● Decontaminating equipment
● Selecting and using PPE

137
Q

ECP must include:

A

● Handling biohazard waste
● Labels and signs
● Training requirements for healthcare workers
● Recordkeeping requirements
● Annual review and update

138
Q

This is important because it
helps you protect your workers from exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials. By protecting the workers, you also control exposure incident costs.

A

exposure control plan

139
Q

ECP must meet OSHA’s criteria.:
It must be written ___ for the facility
It must be reviewed and updated at least____.
It must be ___________ to all workers.

A

● It must be written specifically for the facility.
● It must be reviewed and updated at least yearly.
○ To reflect changes such as new worker positions
or technology-use to reduce exposure to blood or
other bodily fluids.
● It must be readily available to all workers.

140
Q

The key to not being able to acquire infections from
bloodborne pathogens lies in ______ the exposures.

A

controlling

141
Q

this is the observe _______ such as:
● Treating all blood and bodily fluids as if they are
contaminated
● Proper cleanup and decontamination

A

Observe Universal Precautions

142
Q

Engineering and Work Practice Controls

A
  1. Safer medical devices
  2. Sharps disposal containers
  3. Hand hygiene
143
Q

One of the risk mitigation controls. According to the
hierarchy of controls, this is the least effective but the most commonly implemented risk mitigation control.

A

PPE

144
Q

This is the responisibilty of ?
● Perform hazard assessment
○ He/She must pinpoint areas where there is risk of
being exposed to bloodborne pathogens or risk of
acquiring infections caused by bloodborne
pathogens.
● Identify and provide appropriate PPE to employee at
no cost
● Train employees on use and care
● Maintain/replace PPE
● Review, update, evaluate PPE program

A

Employer’s Responsibilities

145
Q

PPE Selection

A

● Safe design and construction
● Fit comfortably

146
Q

Required PPE Training
Employers are required to train the workers on how to use the PPE to know:

A

● When it is necessary
● What kind is necessary
● Proper donning, adjusting, wearing, doffing
● Limitations
● Proper care, maintenance, useful life, disposal

147
Q

Written schedule for cleaning and
decontamination

A

Housekeeping

148
Q

Picking up broken glass is prohibited it should be:

A

● Not picked up by hands
● Mechanical means only

149
Q

proper Clean-up and Decontamination

A

● Wear protective gloves or PPE
● Use appropriate disinfectant
● Clean and disinfect contaminated equipment and
work surfaces
● Thoroughly wash up immediately after exposure
● Properly dispose of contaminated PPE, towels, rags,
etc.

150
Q

OSHA mandates that the disposal of the infectious
waste is in accordance with ____ state and ___
regulations,

A

federal and local

151
Q

OSHA mandates that the disposal of the infectious
waste. that the surface is left wet with the
disinfectant for ___ seconds for HIV-1 and ___ minutes
for HBV.

A

30 seconds for HIV-1 and 10 minutes
for HBV.

152
Q

refer to the following categories of
waste which requires special handling.

A

Regulated waste

153
Q

The bloodborne pathogen standard, uses the term
Regulated Waste to refer to the following categories of waste which requires special handling:
(5)

A
  1. Liquid or semi-liquid blood or other potentially
    infectious materials (OPIM).
  2. Items contaminated with blood or OPIM, and which
    would release these substances in a liquid or
    semi-liquid state if compressed.
  3. Items that have dried blood, and are capable of
    releasing these materials during handling.
  4. Contaminated sharps.
  5. Pathological and microbiological wastes containing
    blood or OPIM.
154
Q

Dispose of contaminated sharps in

A

closable,
puncture-resistant, leakproof (red)

155
Q

Dispose of regulated waste in

A

closable, leak-proof
red or biohazard labeled bags or containers

156
Q

who are needed to attain the training

A

● All employees with occupational exposure to blood
or other potentially infectious material (OPIM)
● Employees who are trained in first aid and CPR
No cost; during working hours

157
Q

When is training needed or happen

A

● Initial assignment
● Annually; or with new/modified tasks

158
Q

this is Offered to all potentially exposed employees
Provided at no cost to employees (within 10 days to
employees with occupational exposure)

A

Hepatitis B vaccination:

159
Q

If the employee declines, the employer must
ensure that the employee signs a HBV
_____ form

A

Declination form

160
Q

No vaccinations available for:

A

● Hepatitis C
● HIV

161
Q

this is result of an employee’s duties. Specific eye, mouth, or other mucous membrane,
non-intact skin, parenteral contact with blood or OPIM that results from the performance of an employee’s
duties.

A

exposure incident

162
Q

Immediate Actions to do when exposed to BBP and OPIM

A

● Wash exposed area with soap and water
● Flush splashes to nose, mouth, or skin with water
● Irrigate eyes with water and saline

163
Q

Confidential Medical Evaluation and Follow-up.
These steps are important to ensure and to reassure
that the healthcare worker is really undergoing the
process of knowing if he or she is affected or
infected with the bloodborne pathogen.

A

● Route(s) of exposure and circumstances
● Source individual
● Collect/test blood for HBV and HIV serological status
● Post exposure prophylaxis (when medically
indicated)
● Counseling
● Evaluation

MT 12 lec (5 decks)

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