Obstetrics and gynaecology Flashcards

1
Q

How is gestation estimated? What is the most accurate method?

A

Ultrasonography within the first 13 6/7 weeks of gestation is most accurate method to establish/confirm gestational age

Using LMP:
Expected date of delivery = 280 days (40 weeks) from 1st day of last menstrual period

Naegele’s rule
EDD = LMP + 1 year and 7 days - 3 months

If IVF - days since oocyte retrieval or co-incubation + 14 days

Physical examination:
After 20 weeks - pubic symphysis to fundal height in cm should correlate with week of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the normal process of fertilisation and implantation in pregnancy

A

Fertilisation in fallopian tube
Transportation of embryo along tube
Implantation in endometrium occurs approximately 6 days post-fertilisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the hormonal changes which occur in normal early pregnancy

A

HCG rises exponentially from 4-12 weeks gestation, then falls and levels off at 24 weeks until birth

Progesterone and oestrogen rise from early gestation until birth, initially progesterone higher then oestrogen higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the normal physiological changes which occur in the respiratory system in pregnancy and the clinical consequences of these changes

A

Diaphragm pushed up so decreased expiratory reserve volume, giving the sensation of SOB (increased tidal volume balances out so sensation only)

Reduced CO2 (to draw CO2 out of baby’s blood) so reduced bicarb = compensated respiratory alkalosis

Increased respiratory rate

Increased laryngeal oedema - difficult intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the normal physiological changes which occur in the cardiovascular system in pregnancy and the clinical consequences of these changes

A

Reduced systemic and pulmonary vascular resistance, BP can fall in 2nd trimester and rise slightly in late pregnancy

Cardiac output and stroke volume peak by week 16 - highest risk if pre-existing CVD

Drop in BP causes RAAS activation, leading to sodium and water retention - blood volume increased, physiological (dilutional) anaemia

Constriction of peripheral circulation - Raynaud’s

Can have ejection systolic murmur/third heart sound

ECG’s look different due to different position of heart

Increased risk varicose veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the normal haematological changes which occur during pregnancy

A

Increased plasma volume - dilutional anaemia

EPO release - increased RBC but haemoglobin still low

Modest leukocytosis

High demand for additional iron - serum iron falls, transferrin and total iron binding capacity rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the normal physiological changes which occur in the urinary tract during pregnancy and the clinical consequences they have.

A

Increased blood volume and cardiac output - increased renal blood flow - increased GFR - increased excretion (frequent urination), reduced levels of urea, creatinine, urate and bicarbonate

Mild glycosuria/proteinuria as increase in GFR can exceed ability for reabsorption

Increased water retention, reduction in plasma osmolality

Smooth muscle of renal pelvis and ureter relaxes and dilates, kidneys increase in length and ureters become longer, more curved (increased risk UTI) and increase in residual urine volume

Bladder smooth muscle relaxes, increased capacity, increased risk UTI

Mechanical pressure of uterus on bladder - increased urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the normal physiological changes in the GI tract during pregnancy and the clinical consequences these have

A

Relaxation of smooth muscle - decreased LOS pressure, decreased gastric peristalsis, delayed gastric emptying, increased small and large bowel transit times, reduced gallbladder contraction

= GORD, nausea and vomiting, constipation, gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the normal physiological changes which occur in the skin during pregnancy and the clinical consequences these can have

A

Hyperpigmentation of umbilicus, nipples, abdominal midline (linea nigra) and face
Hyperdynamic circulation and high levels oestrogen - spider naevi and palmar erythema
Striae gravidarum (stretch marks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the normal physiological changes in the musculoskeletal system which occur during pregnancy and the clinical consequences these can have

A

Increased ligament laxity due to relaxin contribute to back pain and pubic symphysis dysfunction
Shift in posture with exaggerated lumbar lordosis - typical gait of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define the terms:

Miscarriage
Stillbirth
Livebirth

A

Miscarriage - any pregnancy loss before 24 weeks
Stillbirth - any fetus born dead at or after 24 weeks gestation
Livebirth - a fetus which shows signs of life after delivery at any gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define these types of miscarriage:

Threatened
Inevitable
Incomplete
Complete
Delayed/missed/early embryonic demise
Septic
Recurrent

A

Threatened - painless bleeding with continuing intrauterine pregnancy, before 24 weeks, cervix closed

Inevitable - bleeding with non-continuing intrauterine pregnancy, cervix may be open

Incomplete - retained products of conception remain in uterus

Complete - full miscarriage has occurred, no products of conception left in uterus

Delayed/missed/early embryonic - fetus died in-utero prior to 24 weeks gestation, no symptoms

Septic - miscarriage complicated by intrauterine infection

Recurrent - 3 or more consecutive miscarriages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the methods for estimation of gestational age by US in each trimester

A

First trimester - crown-rump length
Second trimester - head circumference, femur length
Third trimester - head circumference, femur length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List causes and risk factors for miscarriages

A

Spontaneous usually due to embryonic abnormalities - chromosomal abnormalities, placental defects
No cause found in 50% of recurrent miscarriages

Causes of recurrent:
Thrombophilic abnormalities - factor V leiden mutation, prothrombin gene mutation
Immunological abnormalities - antiphospholipid syndrome
Anatomical/structural - uterine abnormalities (bicornuate or arcuate uterus), cervical abnormalities (cervical incompetence)
Genetic abnormalities
Endocrinological - PCOS, hyperprolactinaemia, thyroid disease, poorly controlled DM
Infective causes - bacterial vaginosis

Risk factors
Maternal age
Previous miscarriages
Occupational/environmental factors - pesticides, radiation
Advanced paternal age
Lifestyle - stress, obesity, smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of miscarriage

A

Pregnant - positive pregnancy test or symptoms of pregnancy (amenorrhoea, missed period, breast tenderness)

Vaginal bleeding (brown spotting to heavy +/- tissue), lower abdominal cramping or backache

Can be asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for miscarriage?

A

Ectopic pregnancy
Molar pregnancy - heavy, prolonged bleeding, uterus large for dates

Pregnancy related:
Ruptured ovarian corpus luteal cyst
Adnexal torsion
Pregnancy-related degeneration of a fibroid

Non-pregnancy related:
Cervicitis, cervical ectropion, cervical polyps
Cancer of cervix, vagina, vulva
Haemorrhoids
Urethral bleeding, UTI
Vaginitis
MSK pain
Constipation
IBS
PID
Appendicitis
Renal colic
Bowel obstruction
Adhesions
Ovarian cyst - torsion, rupture, bleeding
Torsion of fibroid
Pelvic vein thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe assessment/investigations for suspected miscarriages

A

A-E - haemodynamically stable?
Removal of POC (speculum)

US - transabdominal, transvaginal (investigation of choice for diagnosis)

Examination of POC

Serum HCG tracking

Assess FBC, group and save/crossmatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the ultrasound findings used to diagnose miscarriages

A

No fetal heart activity with crown-rump length >7mm on transvaginal scan - repeat scan after 1 week to confirm non-viable pregnancy

Empty sac (no fetal pole) when gestational sac diameter >25mm on transvaginal scan - repeat scan after 1 week to confirm anembryonic pregnancy

Retained tissue seen in incomplete miscarriage

Empty uterus - complete passage of tissue (complete miscarriage), pregnancy too early to visualise or ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the options for management of miscarriages? When is each option appropriate?

A

Expectant management - give 1-2 weeks for miscarriage to occur spontaneously
Used if <6 or >6 weeks gestation if no pain and no other complications or risk factors

Medical/surgical - if increased risk of haemorrhage/infection, previous adverse experience of pregnancy (e.g. stillbirth, miscarriage)

Medical management - misoprostol (oral or vaginal)

Surgical - misoprostol to soften cervix then manual or electric vacuum aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the mechanism of action and side effects of misoprostol

A

Prostaglandin analogue - binds and activates prostaglandin receptors

Prostaglandins soften cervix and stimulate uterine contractions

Side effects:
Heavier bleeding
Pain
Vomiting
Diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the methods of surgical management of miscarriages and when they are appropriate

A

Manual vacuum aspiration - local anaesthetic applied to cervix, syringe through cervix into uterus and aspiration of contents of uterus

Electric vacuum aspiration - general anaesthetic, cervix dilated and products of conception removed through cervix using electric-powered vacuum

Manual - <10 weeks gestation, parous
If products of conception retained or ongoing symptoms after expectant/medical management
Definite indications - infection of retained tissue, haemodynamic instability, gestational trophoblastic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is anti-rhesus prophylaxis required in miscarriages? When is it not required?

A

Rhesus negative women
Surgical management of miscarriage <12 weeks
Any potential sensitising event >12 weeks

Not required:
Threatened or complete miscarriage
Medical management of miscarriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is an incomplete miscarriage managed? Why?

A

Medical management - misoprostol
Surgical management - evacuation of retained products of conception (dilation of cervix and removal through vacuum aspiration and curettage)

Retained product are infection risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a key complication of evacuation of retained products of conception?

A

Endometritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the success rates of different management options for miscarriages

A

Expectant - 60%
Medical - 80-90%
Surgical - 97%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How should women be followed up after expectant management of miscarriage?

A

Return if bleeding continues or pain develops
Repeat urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days, return if positive, if negative miscarriage confirmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

List risk factors for ectopic pregnancy

A

Previous ectopic pregnancy
Damage to fallopian tube - PID, tube surgery
History of infertility
Assisted reproduction techniques - IVF
Smoking
Maternal age >35
Multiple sexual partners
Contraception - if contraception failure higher risk of ectopic pregnancy with IUD, POP, sterilisation compared to other methods of contraception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of ectopic pregnancy

A

Positive pregnancy test or symptoms of pregnancy (missed period etc.)

Usually presents 6-8 weeks gestation

Can be asymptomatic
Lower abdominal/pelvic pain
Can have referred shoulder tip pain (peritonitis)
Vaginal bleeding - brown spotting to heavy
Pain with opening bowels/urination
Cervical motion tenderness
Collapse/hypovolaemic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is a suspected ectopic pregnancy investigated?

A

Transvaginal US is investigation for diagnosis

Serum hCG

Assess FBC, group and save/crossmatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe US findings in ectopic pregnancies

A

Gestational sac with fetal pole in fallopian tube
May just be non-specific mass in tube - blob/bagel/tubal ring sign
Empty uterus
Fluid in uterus - pseudogestational sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How are serial hCG measurements used to dictate management of pregnancy of unknown location?

A

Measure 48 hours apart
Used if PUL on US and patient stable

Increase >66% - likely intrauterine pregnancy, US to determine location 7-14 days later, if hCG >1,500 should be visible

<66% increase or <50% decrease - ectopic, requires close monitoring/management

> 50% decrease - failing PUL, repeat pregnancy test in 2 weeks to confirm miscarriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe emergency and non-emergency management of ectopic pregnancies

A

Emergency:
A-E resuscitation
Early involvement from gynaecology, anaesthetics, haematology (+ blood)
Theatre to remove source of bleeding and stabilise

Non-emergency:
Conservative
Medical - methotrexate
Surgical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When is conservative management of ectopic pregnancy appropriate? What does this involve?

A

Size <35mm
Unruptured
Asymptomatic
No fetal heartbeat
hCG <1,000
Compatible if another intrauterine pregnancy

Closely monitor patient over 48 hours, if hCG levels rise or symptoms manifest need to intervene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When is medical management of ectopic pregnancy appropriate? What does it involve?

A

Size <35mm
Unruptured
No significant pain
No fetal heartbeat
hCG <5000
Not suitable if intrauterine pregnancy
Able to return for follow up
No medical contraindications - anaemia, renal/hepatic impairment, UC, peptic ulcer

Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When can a patient become pregnant again after medical management of ectopic pregnancy? Why?

A

12 weeks after hCG <5
Need to replenish folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the key risks and side effects of medical management of ectopic pregnancy?

A

7% risk fallopian tubal rupture

Side effects
Vaginal bleeding
Nausea and vomiting
Abdominal pain
Stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When is surgical management of ectopic pregnancy appropriate?

A

Size >35mm
Rupture
Pain
Visible fetal heartbeat
HCG >5,000
Compatible with another intrauterine pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe the options for surgical management of ectopic pregnancy

A

Laparoscopy or laparotomy depending on clinical situation

1st line - salpingectomy (if no other risk factors for infertility)

Salpingotomy if risk factors for infertility e.g. contralateral tube damage
1 in 5 need further treatment - methotrexate or salpingectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which women need Anti-D in management of ectopic pregnancy? Which don’t?

A

Rhesus negative, surgical management - need anti-D

Conservative or medical management - don’t need anti-D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe the risk of recurrence of ectopic pregnancies

A

18.5% risk recurrence after ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Define gestational trophoblastic disease

A

A group of conditions characterised by abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic tissue with production of HCG

Includes:
Pre-malignant conditions (more common) - partial molar pregnancy and complete molar pregnancy

Malignant conditions (rarer) - invasive mole, choriocarcinoma, placental trophoblastic site tumour, epithelioid trophoblastic tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a hyatidaform mole?

A

Pre-malignant tumour within uterus arising from an abnormality in chromosomal number during fertilisation

Partial molar pregnancy - one ovum with 23 chromosomes fertilised by two sperm, each with 23 chromosomes, resulting in cells with 69 chromosomes (triploidy), may exist with viable fetus (triploid placenta only)

Complete molar pregnancy - one ovum without any chromosomes is fertilised by one sperm which duplicates or by two different sperm, leading to 46 chromosomes of paternal origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe the malignant types of gestational trophoblastic disease - tissue of origin, common presentations

A

Choriocarcinoma - malignancy of trophoblastic cells of placenta, commonly co-exists with molar pregnancy, metastasises to lungs

Placental site trophoblastic tumour - malignancy of intermediate trophoblasts, normally responsible for anchoring placenta to uterus, can occur after normal pregnancy (most commonly), molar pregnancy or miscarriage

Epithelioid trophoblastic tumour - malignancy of trophoblastic placental cells, can be difficult to distinguish from choriocarcinoma, mimics cytological features of squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

List risk factors for gestational trophoblastic disease

A

Maternal age <20 or >35
Previous gestational trophoblastic disease
Previous miscarriage
OCP use
Asian ethnicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe the clinical features of gestational trophoblastic disease

A

Early pregnancy:
Vaginal bleeding
Abdominal pain
Larger uterus than expected for gestation with a soft, boggy consistency
Shedding of molar vesicles PV

Later symptoms:
Hyperemesis - increased bHCG
Hyperthyroidism - bHCG stimulates thyroid
Anaemia
Large for date uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How should suspected gestational trophoblastic disease be investigated?

A

Urine bHCG - confirm pregnancy
Blood bHCG - elevated at diagnosis, used to monitor
US - complete mole has granular/snowstorm appearance with central heterogeneous mass and surrounding multiple cystic areas/vesicles
Histological examination of POC
If metastatic spread - staging investigations e.g. MRI, CT, US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How is gestational trophoblastic disease managed?

A

Register with GTD specialist centre for follow-up and monitoring in future pregnancies

Molar pregnancy
Suction curettage more effective for complete and non-viable partial moles
Partial mole with fetal development - medial evacuation with urinary bHCG post-treatment
Histological assessment of POC

Malignant GTD - specialist centre treatment, chemotherapy +/- surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Why is medical management of molar pregnancies not recommended?

A

Theoretical risk of embolisation of trophoblastic tissue if managed with oxytocic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Is Anti-D required for gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

If mother Rh negative and surgical management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Define hyperemesis gravidarum. What causes it?

A

Persistent vomiting in pregnancy causing weight loss (more than 5% of body mass), dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

High bHCG levels - stimulates chemoreceptor trigger zone in brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

List risk factors for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

First pregnancy
Previous history hyperemesis gravidarum
Raised BMI
Multiple pregnancy
Gestational trophoblastic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How is the severity of hyperemesis gravidarum measured?

A

Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE)
<7 - mild
7-12 - moderate
>12 - severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When does nausea and vomiting of pregnancy typically occur? When should another diagnosis be considered?

A

4-7 weeks

Consider alternative if symptoms start after 10+6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How should hyperemesis gravidarum be investigated?

A

Weight
Urine dipstick - ketonuria
Mid-stream urine
FBC
U&Es - hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, dehydration
Blood glucose - exclude diabetic ketoacidosis if diabetic
Exclude other causes e.g. LFTs, amylase, TFTs, ABG
US - confirm gestation, exclude multiple pregnancy/trophoblastic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How is hyperemesis gravidarum managed?

A

Mild - in community with oral antiemetics, hydration, dietary advice, reassurance

Moderate - ambulatory day care for IV fluids, parenteral antiemetics, thiamine, until ketonuria resolves

Severe - inpatient management
IV rehydration with electrolyte repletion as required (add potassium chloride)
H2 receptor antagonists/PPI for reflux, oesophagitis, gastritis
Thiamine - prevent Wernicke’s
Thromboprophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which antiemetics are recommended for hyperemesis gravidarium?

A

First line - cyclizine, prochlorperazine, promethazine, chlorpromazine

Second line - metoclopramide (max. 5 days due to risk of EPS), domperidone, ondansetron

Third line - hydrocortisone IV (convert to prednisolone PO once symptoms resolve, reduce dose according to response)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Define infertility

A

Failure to achieve pregnancy after 12 months or more of regular unprotected sex between a man and a woman

Primary - couple never able to conceive
Secondary - couple cannot get pregnant again, despite previously having been able to without any difficulty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Describe the incidence of infertility in the UK

A

1 in 7 couples will struggle to conceive naturally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

List causes of infertility in terms of basic reproductive physiology

A

FEMALE
Disorders of ovulation - hypothalamic-pituitary failure, hypothalamic-pituitary-ovulation dysfunction, ovarian failure, hyperprolactinaemia, pituitary tumours

Tubal causes - PID, sterilisation, endometriosis, pelvic surgery

Uterine/peritoneal causes - endometriosis, pelvic/cervical surgery, fibroids, Asherman’s syndrome

MALE
Oligospermia - <15 million sperm per ml
Teratospermia - <4% normal morphology
Asthenospermia - <32% sperm motility
Azoospermia - no sperm in ejaculate

Obstructive infertility - previous vasectomy, cystic fibrosis, ejaculatory duct obstruction, epididymal obstruction

Non-obstructive infertility - hormonal (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, hyperprolactinaemia), varicocele, genetic causes (Klinefelter’s, androgen insensitivity syndrome, Kallmann syndrome), cryptorchidism, previous testicular trauma (e.g. torsion), malignancy

Coital infertility - ED, premature ejaculation, anejaculation (primary or secondary), retrograde ejaculation, penile deformities (Peyronie’s, hypospadies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Who should be investigated for infertility?

A

Trying to conceive for 1 year after frequent (every 2-3 days) unprotected sexual intercourse

OR

Investigation after 6 months if:
Woman >36
Known cause of infertility
History of predisposing factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What advice should be given to couples trying to conceive?

A

Regular (every 2-3 days) sexual intercourse throughout cycle
Preparation for pregnancy e.g. folic acid daily
Smoking cessation for men and women
Avoid drinking alcohol excessively (women should avoid entirely)
Women should aim for BM 19-25
Reduce stress
No need to time intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How should infertility be investigated?

A

BMI
Chlamydia screening
Semen analysis
Female hormone testing - serum LH and FSH (day 2-5 of cycle), serum progesterone (day 21 or 7 days before end of cycle), anti-Mullerian hormone (ovarian reserve), TFTs, prolactin
Rubella immunity in mother
US pelvis - polycystic ovaries or structural abnormalities
Hysterosalpingogram - patency of fallopian tubes
Laparoscopy and dye test - patency of fallopian tubes, adhesions and endometriosis
Male genetic testing
Male US - structural abnormality
Male hormone analysis - testosterone, FSH, LH, prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Describe management of female factor infertility

A

Medical - stimulate ovulation
Clomiphene - anti-oestrogen, increases GnRH, FSH and LH
Letrozole - aromatase inhibitor with anti-oestrogen effects
Gonadotrophins - if clomiphene resistant infertility
Pulsatile GnRH
Dopamine agonists - if secondary to hyperprolactinaemia
Ovarian drilling for PCOS

Surgery
Tubal surgery if mild tubal disease - catheterisation or cannulation
Uterine surgery for polyps, adhesions or structural abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How is male factor infertility managed?

A

Medical
Gonadotrophins for hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

Surgical
Correction of blockage in genital tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

List options for assisted conception

A

Surgical sperm retrieval - if blockage in male genital tract, collect sperm directly from epididymis

Intrauterine insemination - partner or donor sperm, injected into uterus during natural or stimulated cycles

In vitro fertilisation - used for more severe tubal disease with unexplained fertility, or other treatments unaffective

Intracytoplasmic sperm injection - low sperm count or sexual dysfunction

Donor inseminsation - persistent azoospermia

Oocyte donation - ovarian failure or absence of ovaries

Embryo donation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Define ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, describe the cause and features

A

Complication of some infertility treatments - gonadotropin or hCG treatment (e.g. in IVF)

High levels of vasoactive substances (e.g. VEGF) with multiple luteinised cysts resulting in increased membrane permeability and loss of fluid from intravascular compartment

Features:

Mild:
Abdominal pain
Abdominal bloating

Moderate:
Nausea and vomiting
Ascites

Severe:
Oliguria
High haematocrit
Hypoproteinaemia

Critical:
Thromboembolism
Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Anuria
Tense ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Describe the process of egg retrieval for IVF. What are the potential side effects?

A
  1. GnRH analogue - down-regulation of pituitary
  2. FSH - stimulate ovulation
  3. hCG - egg maturation
  4. Egg retrieval - US guided needle through vagina

Risks/side effects - ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, vaginal bleeding, cramps, multiple births, ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

An ectopic pregnancy in which area of the fallopian tube is highest risk for rupture?

A

Isthmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

List the types of cysts which affect the ovaries and describe their malignant potential

A

Non-neoplastic (no malignant potential)

Functional:
Follicular cysts - developing follicle in first half of menstrual cycle
Corpus luteal cysts - luteal phase after corpus luteum is formed

Pathological
Endometrioma - chocolate cyst, in endometriosis
Polycystic ovaries - US appearance of >12 antral follicles in ovary or volume >10ml
Theca lutein cyst - due to raised hCG, resolves with normal hCG
Mullerian inclusion cyst - implantation of tubal epithelium in ovary at ovulation, can develop into epithelial ovarian cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

List the cancers which affect the ovaries, if they are benign or malignant and the cells they originate from

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Describe the incidence of ovarian cancer

A

6th most common cancer in women in the UK, 2nd most common gynaecological cancer
Highest incidence in 75-79 year olds
Poor prognosis if advanced - 10% survival stage IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

List risk factors and protective factors for ovarian cancer

A

Risk factors - more ovulations
Nulliparity
Age - peak 75
Early menarche
Late menopause
Oestrogen only HRT
Smoking
Obesity

Protective factors - less ovulations
Multiparity
Combined oestrogen and progesterone contraception
Breastfeeding

Genetic risk
Family history
BRCA1&2
Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch II syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of ovarian cancer

A

Non-specific symptoms
GI symptoms - abdominal bloating, early satiety, loss of appetite, constipation or diarrhoea (change in bowel habit)
Pelvic pain - chronic or acute (ovarian torsion)
Mass effect - urinary symptoms (frequency, urgency), constipation, bowel obstruction, abdominal/pelvic mass, compression of obturator nerve (hip/groin pain)
Weight loss
Ascites
Rarely - paraneoplastic syndrome, pleural effusion (SOB)
PV bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Describe the referral criteria for suspected ovarian cancer

A

2-week wait referral if:
Ascites
Pelvic mass (unless clearly due to fibroids)
Abdominal mass

Further investigations (initially CA125) in >50 with:
New symptoms of IBS/change in bowel habit
Abdominal bloating
Early satiety
Pelvic pain
Urinary frequency or urgency
Weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which investigations should be used in suspected ovarian cancer?

A

Initial investigations:
CA125 blood test (>35 significant)
Pelvic ultrasound

CT
Histology - CT guided biopsy, laparoscopy or laparotomy
Paracentesis (ascitic tap) - test ascitic fluid for cancer cells

<40 years with complex ovarian mass - check tumour markers for possible germ cell tumour:
Alpha-fetoprotein
HCG

Calculate risk of malignancy index (RMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the risk of malignancy index for ovarian cancer? How is it calculated?

A

Can be used as risk stratification tool in patients with suspected ovarian cancer

RMI = U (ultrasound score) x M (menopausal status) x CA125

Ultrasound score - 1 point if one feature from list, 3 points if 2 or more features from list:
Multilocular cyst
Solid areas
Metastases
Ascites
Bilateral lesions

Menopausal status
1 point - premenopausal
3 points - postmenopausal

RMI >200, refer for CT scan and MDT input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What causes raised CA125?

A

Glycoprotein antigen

Elevated in:
Malignancies - ovary, pancreas, breast, lung, colon
Benign - menstruation, endometriosis, PID, pleural/pericardial effusions, recent laparotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How are ovarian cancers staged?

A

FIGO staging

Stage IA - confined to one ovary, capsule intact, negative washings
Stage IB - both ovaries involved
Stage IC - 1 or both ovaries with surgical spill/capsule rupture/malignant cells in pleural fluid or washings

Stage IIA - extension to tubes +/- uterus
Stage IIB - extension to other pelvic tissues

Stage IIIA - positive retroperitoneal LNs +/- microscopic mets beyond pelvis
Stage IIIB - macroscopic, extra-pelvic, peritoneal mets <2cm
Stage IIIC - macroscopic, extra-pelvic, peritoneal mets >2cm

Stage IVA - pleural effusion with positive cytology
Stage IVB - hepatic/splenic mesenchymal metastasis, metastasis to extra-abdominal organs including inguinal nodes

Basically:
Stage 1 - confined to ovary
Stage 2 - spread past ovary but within pelvis
Stage 3 - spread past pelvis but inside abdomen
Stage 4 - spread outside abdomen (distant metastasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Describe the prognosis of ovarian cancer and the factors which affect prognosis

A

1 year survival - 70%
5 year survival - 46%
10 year survival - 35%

Affected by factors including:
Histological subtype
Grade
Stage
Co-morbidities
Residual disease at time of surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

List the management options available for ovarian cancer

A

Surgery - staging laparotomy for those with high RMI and attempt to de-bulk tumour
Adjuvant/neoadjuvant chemotherapy - recommended for all except those with early, low grade disease, uses platinum-based compounds

Other options - biological therapy (anti-VEGF e.g. bevacizumab), hormonal therapy (tamoxifen/aromatase inhibitor, if platinum resistant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What tests could be used for ovarian cancer screening? Why is this not done?

A

CA125 - false positive rate too high as raised in many other conditions and not sensitive enough

Transvaginal US - difficult to determine from scan if benign or malignant disease, would need to obtain biopsy to determine which would result in many unnecessary surgeries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which women are high risk for ovarian cancer? How can this risk be reduced?

A

BRCA1(higher risk) or BRCA2 (lower risk), Lynch syndrome, Peutz-Jegher syndrome, Cowden syndrome

Recommended for age 35-40 for BRCA1 and 40-45 for BRCA2

Risk reducing surgery - prophylactic bilateral salpingo-oopherectomy, usually laparoscopic

Reduces risk of ovarian cancer by 96%, breast cancer by 53%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the most common kind of endometrial cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

List the types of cancer which affect the endometrium and their tissues of origin

A

Adenocarcinoma - glandular epithelium
Type 1 - oestrogen dependent, endometrioid most common (75%)
Type 2 - not oestrogen dependent, papillary serous (5%), clear cell (1%)

Sarcoma - muscular
Leiomyosarcoma most common

Uterine carcinosarcoma - rare, aggressive, mixed undifferentiated carcinoma and sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Describe the prevalence of endometrial cancer

A

Most common gynaecological cancer
13th most common cancer UK
65% increase since 1970s
Peak incidence in 70-75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Describe the aetiology of and list risk factors for endometrial cancer

A

Endometrial hyperplasia - precancerous condition, <5% progress to endometrial cancer (same aetiology and risk factors as type 1)

Type 1 adenocarcinoma - unopposed oestrogen (oestrogen without progesterone)

Causes of unopposed oestrogen:
Early menarche or late menopause
Low parity
PCOS
Oestrogen only HRT
Tamoxifen

Other risk factors:
Age
Obesity
Genetic factors - Lynch syndrome, family history
Type 2 diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

List protective factors against endometrial cancer

A

Increased progesterone:
Combined contraceptive pill
Mirena coil
Multiparity

Cigarette smoking - anti-oestrogenic so protective in post-menopausal women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How can the risk of endometrial cancer be reduced in women with PCOS?

A

Endometrial protection with:
Combined contraceptive pill
Intrauterine pill e.g. Mirena coil
Cyclical progestogens to induce withdrawal bleed

Maintain healthy BMI
Avoid diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Describe the genetic pattern and clinical features of Lynch syndrome

A

Lynch I - site-specific colorectal cancer

Lynch II - autosomal dominant
Predisposition to colorectal, breast, ovarian, endometrial, gastric, hepatobiliary, brain, skin, upper urinary tract and small bowel cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How is Lynch syndrome diagnosed?

A

Amsterdam criteria:
Colorectal cancer in 3 or more relatives
Involves at least 2 generations
One case before age 50
Familial polyposis excluded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Describe the similarities and differences between FAP and Lynch syndrome in terms of genetics, clinical consequences and management

A

Both autosomal dominant and cause predisposition to colorectal cancer

FAP - mutation in APC gene
HNPCC - genetic alterations in DNA mismatch repair genes

FAP - colon, rectum, bones, eyes, duodenum affected
HNPCC - colon, endometrium, ovaries, upper urinary tract, skin, brain, stomach, hepatobiliary system affected

FAP - numerous (>100) benign polyps from young age, 100% cancerous transformation
HNPCC - few polyps, 50-70% cancerous transformation

Management:
FAP - prophylactic colectomy for all patients, regular endoscopic check of upper GI tract
HNPCC - no prophylactic surgery recommended, regular colonoscopic/gynaecologic examinations recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of endometrial cancer

A

Post-menopausal bleeding - >1 year after periods have stopped
Pre-menopausal - irregular, heavy or inter-menstrual bleeding
Post-coital bleeding

Rarely -
Clear/white vaginal discharge
Haematuria
Anaemia
Raised platelet count
Abdominal/pelvic mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for post-menopausal bleeding?

A

Endometrial causes - endometrial cancer, endometrial hyperplasia without malignancy, benign endometrial polyps, endometrial atrophy

Vulval causes - vulval atrophy, vulval pre-malignant or malignant conditions

Cervical causes - cervical polyps, cervical cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is post-menopausal bleeding?

A

Unexplained bleeding from the vagina >12 months after menstruation has stopped because of the menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How should a woman presenting with post-menopausal bleeding be assessed and investigated?

A

History:
Age
Timing of menopause
Parity
Risk factors for endometrial cancer - obesity, PCOS, tamoxifen use, T2DM, HRT, Lynch syndrome

Examination - whole lower genital tract including vulva, vagina and cervix, abdominal examination (masses), bimanual examination (size and axis of uterus)

Investigations
Transvaginal US - endometrial thickness
Thickness >3mm or >5mm in COCP/HRT users - endometrial biopsy
If high risk or unable to biopsy in clinic - hysteroscopy with biopsy
If malignancy confirmed - MRI/CT for staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Describe the staging of endometrial cancer

A

FIGO staging:

Stage I: confined to uterus
A - <50% myometrial invasion
B - >50% myometrial invasion

Stage II: cervical stroma invasion but not beyond uterus

Stage III: tumour outside uterus but within pelvis
A - invades serosa or adnexa
B - vaginal/parametrial involvement
C1 - pelvic node involvement
C2 - para-aortic node involvement

Stage IV -
A - invasion into bowel/bladder mucosa
B - distant mets including abdominal mets or inguinal lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Describe the prognosis and survival of endometrial cancer

A

1 year - 90% survival
5 year - 79% survival
10 year - 78% survival

25% present with stage 4 disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Describe the referral criteria for suspected endometrial cancer

A

2-week wait for post-menopausal bleeding

Referral for TV US in >65 with unexplained vaginal discharge or visible haematuria plus raised platelets, anaemia or elevated glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Describe management of endometrial cancer by stage

A

Stage 1/2 - usually total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, take peritoneal washings

Stage 2 - may have radical hysterectomy (vaginal tissue around uterus and supporting ligaments of uterus also removed, assessment and removal of pelvic LNs) +/- adjuvant radiotherapy

Stage 3 - maximal de-bulking surgery, chemotherapy, radiotherapy

Stage 4 - maximal de-bulking surgery although many have palliative approach with low-dose radiotherapy or high dose oral progestogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

List side effects of radiotherapy for endometrial cancer

A

Proctitis
Cystitis
Lethargy
Skin changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Define endometrial hyperplasia, describe the types of endometrial hyperplasia and their malignant potential

A

Precancerous condition involving thickening of the endometrium

Types
Hyperplasia without atypia - 1-4% malignant potential
Atypical hyperplasia - 23% malignant potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

How is endometrial hyperplasia managed?

A

Progestogens:
IUS e.g. Mirena coil
Continuous oral progestogens e.g. levorgestrel, medroxyprogesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the most common type of cervical cancer? List other histological types of cervical cancer and their prevalence

A

70% squamous cell carcinoma
15% adenocarcinoma - mucinous or adenoma malignum
15% mixed type - adenosquamous carcinoma
Rarer - endometrioid, clear cell, serous, neuroendocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Describe the normal histology of the cervix

A

Inner surface (canal) lined by columnar epithelium
Outer surface lined by squamous epithelium
Junction is at transformation zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Describe the incidence of cervical cancer by age

A

50% diagnosed <47, peak in 25-29 and second peak in 80s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Describe the aetiology and risk factors for cervical cancer

A

Usually a progression from cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
Most caused by persistent HPV infection - risk factors for early HPV infection e.g. early sexual activity, increased numbers of sexual partners, sexual partners who have had more partners, not using condoms

Other risk factors:
Smoking
Other STIs
Long-term (>8 years) COCP use
Immunodeficiency e.g. HIV
Not engaging with cervical screening
Increased number of full-term pregnancies
Family history
Exposure to diethylstilbestrol during fetal development (used to prevent miscarriages before 1971)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Describe how HPV causes cancer

A

Produces E6 protein which inhibits p53 and E7 protein which inhibits pRb (p53 and pRb are tumour suppressor genes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Which strains of HPV are associated with cancer? Which cancers are associated with HPV?

A

Type 16 and 18 responsible for 70% of cervical cancers

HPV also associated with anal, vulval, vaginal, penis and head and neck cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of cervical cancer

A

Often asymptomatic in early stages and detected through screening
Abnormal vaginal bleeding - post-coital, intermenstrual or post-menopausal
Vaginal discharge - blood-stained, foul smelling
Dyspareunia
Pelvic pain
Weight loss
Pelvic masses
Abnormal appearance of cervix - ulceration, inflammation, bleeding, visible tumour

Advanced disease
Oedema
Loin pain
Rectal bleeding
Radiculopathy
Haematuria
Obstructive renal failure, hydronephrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Describe the investigation of women presenting with suspected cervical cancer

A

Pre-menopausal
Test for chlamydia - if positive treat, if symptoms persist refer for colposcopy and biopsy, if negative usually require colposcopy and biopsy

Post-menopausal - urgent colposcopy and biopsy

Colposcopy - colposcopy used to view cervix, acetic acid stain to show dysplastic areas, biopsy taken (punch biopsy or large loop excision of transformation zone)

If diagnosis confirmed, further investigations:
CT chest/abdomen/pelvis - metastases
+/- examination under anaesthesia with further biopsies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How should a woman with suspected cervical cancer be assessed?

A

History
Smear history
Risk factors - smoking, family history, immunocompromised
Previous colposcopy or cervical treatments

Examination
Abdominal examination including PR - masses, rectal bleeding, hydronephrosis
Bimanual examination - pelvic masses
Speculum examination - evidence of bleeding, discharge and ulceration (early cervical changes may not be visible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

How is dysplasia graded based on colposcopy appearance of the cervix? What is the prognosis of each grade?

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia - grading system for level of dysplasia in cells of cervix (premalignant change)

CIN I - mild dysplasia, affects 1/3 thickness of the epithelial layer, likely to return to normal without treatment
CIN II - moderate dysplasia, affects 2/3 thickness of epithelial layer, likely to progress to cancer if untreated
CIN III - severe dysplasia, very likely to progress to cancer if untreated (cervical carcinoma in situ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Describe the process and side effects of large loop excision of the transformation zone

A

Performed with local anaesthetic usually during colposcopy procedure
Uses loop of wire with diathermy to removal abnormal epithelial tissue on cervix

Side effects:
Bleeding
Abnormal discharge
Infection - avoid intercourse and tampon use to reduce risk
Preterm labour risk depending on depth of tissue removed from cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How is cervical intraepithelial neoplasia managed? What are the main risks of this?

A

Cone biopsy - sent to histology for analysis

Under GA
Pain
Bleeding
Infection
Scar formation - stenosis of cervix
Increased risk miscarriage and premature labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

How is cervical cancer staged?

A

FIGO staging:

Stage 0 - carcinoma in-situ

Stage 1 - confined to cervix
A - only identifiable under microscopy
B - gross lesions, clinically identifiable

Stage 2 - beyond cervix but not pelvic sidewall/involves upper 2/3 vagina
A - no parametrial involvement
B - obvious parametrial involvement

Stage 3 - extends to pelvic sidewall/involves lower 1/3 vaginal/hydronephrosis not explained by other cause
A - no extension to sidewall, lower 1/3 vagina only
B - extension to sidewall and/or hydronephrosis

Stage 4 -
A - spread to adjacent pelvic organs (bladder, rectum)
B - spread to distant organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Describe the prognosis of cervical cancer

A

1 year 83%

5 years -
Overall 70%
Stage 1 - 95%
Stage 2 - 55%
Stage 3 - 38%
Stage 4 - 5%

10 years 63%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

List options for management of cervical cancer by stage

A

MDT input for all

Options - surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy

Depends if fertility preservation is desired

Gold standard for stage 1b - 3 = chemoradiotherapy

Surgery:
Stage 1a - radical trachelectomy if fertility preservation is priority, laparoscopic hysterectomy with pelvic lymphadenectomy if not

Stage 1b/2a - radical (Wertheim’s) hysterectomy is curative

Stage 4a or recurrent disease - anterior/posterior/total pelvic extenteration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Describe the surgical options for management of cervical cancer

A

Early stage:
Trachelectomy - fertility preserving, removal or cervix and upper vagina

Radical hysterectomy - removal of uterus, vagina and parametrial tissues up to pelvic sidewall + lymphadenectomy

Late stage/recurrent disease:
Anterior/posterior/total pelvic extenteration - removal of all pelvic adnexae plus bladder (anterior), rectum (posterior) or both (total)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Describe palliative options for management of cervical cancer

A

Chemotherapy - cisplatin-based
Single dose radiotherapy for heavy bleeding
Bevacizumab - targets VEGF-A, used in metastatic/recurrent disease
May need nephrostomy/ureteric stents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Who receives the HPV vaccine? When? What strains does it protect against?

A

Offered to every 12-13 y/o (previously only girls)
Also available for MSM <45 at sexual health clinics

Now use 9-valent HPV vaccine - protects against:
6 and 11 - genital warts
16 and 18 - cervical cancer
and 31, 33, 45, 52, 58

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Describe the current cervical screening programme in Scotland

A

Offered to those between 25-64, every 5 years
Cytological sample - tested for high risk HPV, if positive cells examined for dyskaryosis, if negative return to routine screening schedule

Results:
If high risk HPV but no dyskaryosis - repeat screening in 12 months to check HPV cleared
If high risk HPV and dyskaryosis - refer for colposcopy

Smear only done if normal cervical appearance - if not refer for colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

List the possible results from cervical screening cytology

A

Inadequate
Normal
Borderline
Low-grade dyskaryosis
High-grade dyskaryosis - moderate
High-grade dyskaryosis - severe
Possible invasive squamous cell carcinoma
Possible glandular neoplasia (adenocarcinoma)

Can also identify infections e.g. BV, candidiasis, trichomoniasis
Acetinomyces-like organisms - often with IUS, do not require treatment unless symptomatic, if symptomatic may need to remove IUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Describe the incidence of vulval cancers

A

Rare compared with other gynae cancers
Used to be only older women (80s - 90s), but HPV has increased prevalence in young women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is the most common histological type of vulval cancer? List the other histological types of vulval cancer.

A

Most common is squamous cell carcinoma (90%)

Other types:
Malignant melanoma
Adenocarcinoma
BCC
Sarcoma
Metastatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Describe the aetiology and risk factors associated with vulval cancers

A

HPV
Inflammation due to chronic skin conditions - lichen sclerosus, lichen planus
Advanced age (>75)
Immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Describe the precancerous condition associated with vulval cancer

A

Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia

VIN 1 - not a precursor for 2/3, low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion, caused by low-risk HPV, usually resolve without treatment

VIN 2/3 - high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion, caused by ongoing infection with high-risk HPV, usually requires treatment, usually in 35-49 year olds, smokers, immunocompromised

Differentiated VIN - 50-60 years, not usually linked to HPV, found in lichen sclerosus, higher risk of malignant transformation, usually requires surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of VIN

A

Pruritus most common
Pain
Ulceration
Leukoplakia - thickened, white areas
Lump/wart
20% asymptomatic, often identified at cervical screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Describe the malignant potential of VIN

A

9% malignant transformation if untreated
Differentiated and symptomatic have higher malignant potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are the management options for VIN?

A

Observation - watch and wait with close follow-up
Wide local excision
Laser ablation
Imiquimod cream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Describe the clinical features of vulval cancer

A

Lump
Ulceration
Bleeding
Pain
Itch
Lymphadenopathy in groin
Lower limb lymphoedema
Mostly occurs on labia majora (can also be clitoris, perineum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

How is suspected vulval cancer investigated?

A

Biopsy:
Incisional - preferred, original lesion used to plan treatment
Excisional
Under LA as outpatient

Local regional LN assessment - US, MRI, CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Describe the staging of vulval cancer

A

FIGO

Stage I - confined to vulva
A <2cm
B >2cm

Stage II - involvement of lower 1/3 of vagina, urethra or anus

Stage III - extends to upper 2/3 of vagina or urethra or invasion to bladder or rectal mucosa or lymph nodes (non-ulcerated)

Stage IV - ulcerated LNs, disease fixed to pelvic bone or distant mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Describe the prognosis of vulval cancer

A

5 year - 64%
10 year - 53%

Stage 1 - 80%
Stage 2 - 60%
Stage 3 - 40%
Stage 4 - 15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

List options for management of vulval cancer

A

Surgery is gold standard

Early stage
Wide local excision and groin lymphadenectomy (node surgery important for decreasing mortality)

Advanced stage
Radical vulvectomy with resection of bilateral inguinofemoral LNs
Post-op radiotherapy to pelvis and groin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

List the types of surgeries used for vulval cancers

A

Wide local excision - small cancers
Partial radical vulvectomy - if unilateral or anterior/posterior only
Complete radical vulvectomy - if covering a large area
Lymphadenectomy
Often also require reconstructive surgery with flaps/grafts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

List potential complications of groin lymphadenectomy

A

Wound dehiscence
Infection
Lymphocyst formation
Lymphoedema
Immobility
Prolonged hospitalisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Define gravidity

A

Sum of all pregnancies regardless of outcome - includes live birth, pregnancies terminated at <6 months and those which did not result in live birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Define parity

A

Number of births (including live and stillbirths) where pregnancies reached viable gestational age (24 + 0 in the UK)
Multiple pregnancy e.g. twins still counted as one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Calculate gravidity and parity for these scenarios:

  1. Patient is currently pregnant; had two previous deliveries
  2. Patient is not pregnant, had one previous delivery
  3. Patient is currently pregnant, had one previous delivery and one previous miscarriage
  4. Patient is not currently pregnant, had a live birth and a stillbirth
  5. Patient is not pregnant, had a twin pregnancy resulting in two live births
A
  1. G3 P2
  2. G1 P1
  3. G3 P1+1 (+1 refers to pregnancy not carried to 24+0)
  4. G2 P2
  5. G1 P1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

List the main parts of a gynaecological history

A

Presenting complaint

History of presenting complaint - SOCRATES

Gynaecological symptoms - abdominal/pelvic pain, post-coital/inter-menstrual/post-menopausal bleeding, vaginal discharge, dyspareunia, vulval skin changes/itching, systemic symptoms (fatigue, fever, weight loss)

Menstrual history - frequency, duration, volume, date of LMP, dysmenorrhoea, age at menarche, menopause

Reproductive plans - are they considering having children in the future or currently trying to fall pregnant

Past medical history
Pregnancies - births/miscarriages/abortions/ectopics, means of delivery, age of child and birth weight, obstetric complications
Cervical smear - date of last smear, result
Surgical history
Previous gynaecological problems
Previous STIs

Drug history
Contraception
HRT
Other medications
Allergies

Family history
Breast/ovarian/endometrial cancer
Diabetes
Bleeding disorders

Social history
Occupation
Living situation
Smoking and alcohol

Systemic enquiry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Define LMP

A

Last menstrual period - date of first day of last menstrual period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Describe the main hormones of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis involved in the menstrual cycle

A

Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus stimulates luteinising hormone (LH) and follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) release from the anterior pituitary

FSH - binds to granulosa cells to stimulate follicule growth, convert androgens from theca cells to oestrogens and stimulate inhibin secretion

LH - acts on theca cells to stimulate production and secretion of androgens

Controlled by feedback loops:
Moderate oestrogen levels exert negative feedback on HPG axis
High oestrogen levels (without progesterone) positively feedback on HPG axis
Oestrogen in the presence of progesterone exerts negative feedback on the HPG axis
Inhibin selectively inhibits FSH secretion from anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

List the phases of ovarian activity during the menstrual cycle

A

Follicular phase - days 1-14
Ovulation - day 14
Luteal phase - days 14-28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Describe the hormonal changes which occur during the menstrual cycle and the effects they have on the ovaries

A

Follicular phase:
Follicles begin to mature independently of steroid or gonadotropin hormones
Due to low steroid and inhibin levels there is little negative feedback on HPG axis so increased FSH and LH levels, which stimulate follicle growth and oestrogen production
As oestrogen rises, negative feedback reduces FSH levels so all follicles except one regress
Follicular oestrogen becomes high enough to cause positive feedback to HPG axis, increases levels of GnRH and LH (FSH inhibited by inhibin)

Ovulation:
LH surge causes follicle rupture, oocyte migrates to fallopian tube for 24 hours viable for fertilisation
Follicle secretes oestrogen and progesterone, exerts negative feedback to HPG axis - pauses cycle for fertilisation

Luteal phase:
Corpus luteum formed, produces oestrogens, progesterone and inhibin to maintain conditions for fertilisation and implantation
In absence of fertilisation corpus luteum spontaneously regresses after 14 days, fall in hormones, HPG axis resets ready to begin cycle
If fertilisation occurs embryo produces HCG which maintains corpus luteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Describe the hormonal changes which occur during the menstrual cycle and the effect they have on the endometrium

A

Proliferative phase (follicular phase):
Oestrogen causes thickening of endometrium, production of thin alkaline cervical mucus

Secretory phase (luteal phase):
Progesterone causes thickening of endometrium into glandular secretory tissue, thick acidic cervical mucus production (prevent polyspermy)

Menses:
Occurs in absence of fertilisation once corpus luteum breaks down, internal lining of uterus is shed due to lack of progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Define menarche. What is the average age of menarche in the UK?

A

First menstrual period
Average age 12 Caucasian, 4-8 months later in Afro-Caribbean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Which placental abnormality is associated with IVF?

A

Placenta praevia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Define menopause. What is the average age of menopause in the UK? What is premature menopause?

A

Retrospective diagnosis - permanent end to menstruation, diagnosed after no periods for 12 months

Average age UK = 51, usually between 45-55

Premature menopause - <40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Define climacteric

A

Stage in life starting from decline in ovarian activity to end of ovarian function, including peri-menopause, menopause and post-menopause

Gradual loss of cyclical ovarian activity due to declining numbers of ovarian primordial follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What causes premature menopause?

A

Premature ovarian insufficiency - follicular dysfunction or early loss of eggs

90% idiopathic
Can also be due to:
Autoimmune disease e.g. T1DM, pernicious anaemia, Addison’s, Hashimoto’s
Genetic disorders e.g. Turner’s, Fragile X
Chemo/radiotherapy
Pelvic surgery - oophorectomy, hysterectomy without oophorectomy
Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

List the criteria for diagnosis of premature ovarian insufficiency

A

Amenorrhoea
Hypergonadotropism
Hypoestrogenism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Describe the changes in the HPO axis which lead to menopause

A

Reduction in circulating oestrogen due to reduced sensitivity of ovary to circulating FSH and LH - less follicles so less binding sites

Reduced oestrogen leads to more anovulatory cycles

Levels of FSH and LH increase during menopause as less negative feedback from oestrogen and less inhibin from follicles

In anovulatory cycles there is no corpus luteum to produce progesterone so endometrial lining not supported and frequently breaks down leading to breakthrough bleeding, as frequent as every two weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What risks are associated with early menopause?

A

Infertility
Osteoporosis
Ischaemic heart disease
Pelvic organ prolapse
Urinary incontinence
Higher endometrial cancer risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

How is menopause/perimenopause diagnosed?

A

If >45 can diagnose perimenopause based on typical vasomotor symptoms and menstrual history (irregular periods), menopause if not had period for 12 months

If <45 or >45 with atypical symptoms should measure FSH and consider genetic testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What FSH level is diagnostic of menopause in <45s?

A

Consistently >30mIU/ML (not a one-off value) and no menstrual period for >12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

List symptoms associated with the menopause

A

Irregular menstrual cycle
Vasomotor symptoms - hot flushes, night sweats, can be associated with sweating, palpitations, anxiety
Cognitive impairment and mood disorders - anxiety, mood swings, irritability, sleep disturbance, low mood, poor concentration and memory
Urogenital symptoms - vulvovaginal irritation, discomfort, burning, itching, dryness, dyspareunia, reduced libido, dysuria, urinary frequency/urgency, recurrent UTIs, prolapse
Joint and muscle pains
Headaches
Fatigue
Loss of bone density - increased risk fragility fractures
Ischaemic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Describe the hormonal changes which cause symptoms and clinical consequences of the menopause

A

Vasomotor changes - pulsatile LH influences central temperature control

Urogenital changes - lower circulating oestrogen causes atrophy of vagina, thinning of vaginal walls and dryness, atrophy of bladder and urethra causes urinary symptoms

Bone density - lower circulating oestrogen causes increased bone reabsorption by osteoclasts

Ischaemic heart disease - oestrogen reduces levels of LDL cholesterol and raises HDL cholesterol, less oestrogen causes reversal of this process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What are the indications for HRT?

A

Premature menopause even without symptoms
Reducing vasomotor symptoms
Improving symptoms such as low mood, decreased libido, poor sleep and joint pain
Reducing risk of osteoporosis in women under 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Describe the different preparations of HRT available

A

Oestrogen:
Oral
Transdermal - patches or gels

Progesterone:
Cyclical or continuous
Oral
Transdermal - patches
IUS - Mirena coil

Combined -
Cyclical, continuous oestrogen with progesterone added at specific periods during cycle:
Oral
Patches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What are the risks associated with HRT? How can these risks be minimised?

A

Generally in under 60s, the benefits outweigh the risks - more significant in older women

Increased risk breast cancer, particularly with combined HRT (oestrogen-only has lower risk, risk increases with length of use and returns to normal once stopped for 5 years)
Increased risk endometrial cancer (oestrogen-only higher risk)
Increased risk VTE (2-3x background risk with oral HRT, no difference in risk with patches)
Increased risk stroke and CAD with long term use in older women (no risk with oestrogen-only HRT, risk only if >10 years post-menopausal)
Inconclusive evidence about risk of ovarian cancer, minimal increased risk if any

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

List side effects of HRT (not risks)

A

Oestrogenic:
Bloating
Breast tenderness
Nausea
Headaches
Leg cramps

Progestogenic:
Mood swings
Bloating
Fluid retention
Weight gain
Acne, greasy skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

List resources for information about HRT risks

A

British Menopause Society
Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists
Menopause matters website

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

List contraindications for HRT

A

Undiagnosed abnormal bleeding
Endometrial hyperplasia or cancer
Breast cancer
Uncontrolled hypertension
Venous thromboembolism
Liver disease
Active angina or myocardial infarction
Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

How should HRT formulation be chosen?

A

Step 1 - do they have local or systemic symptoms?
Local - topical e.g. oestrogen cream, pessary
Systemic - go to step 2

Step 2 - do they have a uterus?
No uterus - continuous oestrogen-only HRT
Uterus - add progesterone (combined HRT), go to step 3

Step 3 - have they had a period in the past 12 months?
Perimenopausal - cyclical combined HRT
Postmenopausal - continuous combined HRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Why is it important to give combined HRT to women with a uterus?

A

Addition of progesterone greatly decreases the incidence of endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Describe fertility and contraceptives in peri/postmenopausal women

A

HRT is not contraception

Recommended to use effective contraception until:
12 months after the last period in women > 50 years
24 months after the last period in women < 50 years

Examples of contraceptive options:
Mirena Coil
Progesterone only pill in addition to HRT

Good contraceptive options:
Barrier methods
Mirena or copper coil
Progesterone-only pill
Progesterone implant
Progesterone depot injection (<45)
Sterilisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

List non-hormonal options for management of vasomotor symptoms in menopause and describe the evidence for their efficacy

A

Prescribed - good evidence for efficacy:
Clonidine
SSRI/SNRI - paroxetine, venlafaxine, fluoxetine
Gabapentin

Non-prescribed:
Black cohosh - Small RCTs show reduction in mild-moderate hot flushes
Vitamin E - no benefit
Evening primrose oil - no benefit
Phytoestrogens - may reduce severity
CBT - improved vasomotor symptoms and mood

Alternative:
Acupuncture
Lifestyle - avoid triggers, light clothing etc.
Stellate ganglion blockade - potentially efficacious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of clonidine in reducing vasomotor symptoms of the menopause

A

Alpha-2 adrenergic receptor and imidazoline receptor agonist
Lowers BP, reduces heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

List common side effects of clonidine

A

Dry mouth
Headaches
Dizziness
Fatigue
Sudden withdrawal - rapid increase in BP, agitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

List potential adverse effects of alternative remedies used to manage vasomotor symptoms of menopause

A

Black cohosh - liver damage
Dong quai - bleeding disorders
Red clover - oestrogenic effects, concerning in oestrogen sensitive cancers
Evening primrose oil - significant drug interactions, linked with clotting disorders and seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

List non-hormonal therapies used for urogenital symptoms of the menopause

A

Vaginal moisturisers/lubricants
Urinary incontinence - weight reduction, supervised pelvic floor training, bladder training, antimuscarinics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

List non-hormonal therapies used for management of osteoporosis of the menopause

A

Calculate FRAX to determine if high, medium or low-risk
Lifestyle - smoking cessation, exercise
Calcium and Vitamin D supplementation
Bisphosphonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Define heavy menstrual bleeding

A

Technically >80ml blood loss during menstruation - not measured in practice
Self-reported excessive menstrual loss which interferes with quality of life
Also defined as - need to change menstrual products every 1-2 hours, passage of clots greater than 2.54cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

List causes of heavy menstrual bleeding

A

PALM-COPEEIN

PALM - structural causes
Polyp
Adenomyosis
Leiomyoma (fibroid)
Malignancy and hyperplasia

COPEEIN - non-structural causes
Coagulopathy - anticoagulants, Von Willebrand
Ovulatory dysfunction
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometrial - endometriosis, endometrial cancer, endometrial hyperplasia
Endocrine - PCOS, diabetes, hypothyroidism
Iatrogenic - copper coil
Not yet classified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Describe the clinical assessment of a patient with heavy menstrual bleeding

A

History:
Nature of bleeding and impact on QOL
Symptoms of anaemia
Age at menarche
Cycle length, days menstruating, variation
Intermenstrual and post-coital bleeding
Contraceptive history
Sexual history
Possibility of pregnancy
Plans for future pregnancies
Cervical screening history
Migraines with or without aura
PMH, DH, SH, FH

Examination:
Abdominal palpation - palpable uterus or pelvic mass
Speculum - cervical excitation, inflamed cervix, cervical polyp/tumour, vaginal tumour
Bimanual examination - smooth or irregular uterus (fibroids), bulky uterus (adenomyosis)

Investigations:
Bloods - FBC, TFTs, hormone testing if clinically suspicious (e.g. of PCOS)
Coagulation screening, test for VWD if suspicious of clotting disorder
Biopsy - endometrial cancer
US - structural abnormalities
Cervical smear - no need if up to date
High vaginal and endocervical swabs - infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What are the options for management of heavy menstrual bleeding?

A

If does not want contraception:
Treatment during menstruation for symptomatic relief - tranexamic acid (no associated pain), mefenamic acid (associated pain)

If contraception is wanted/acceptable:
Levonorgestral-releasing IUS (Mirena coil) - first-line
Combined oral contraceptive pill
Cyclical oral progestogens e.g. norethisterone (does not work as contraceptive)
Progesterone-only contraception - pill, depot, implant

If medical management failed:
Endometrial ablation
Hysterectomy - partial or total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of non-hormonal pharmacological management options for heavy menstrual bleeding

A

Tranexamic acid - antifibrinolytic, inhibits plasminogen activator reducing fibrinolytic activity in endometrium

Mefenamic acid - NSAID, prostaglandin synthase inhibitors, reduces pain, and bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of hormonal management options for heavy menstrual bleeding

A

Pseudo-pregnancy - endometrial decidualization and necrosis:
Mirena coil
COCP
Progestogens

Pseudomenopause:
GnRH analogues - suppress FSH and LH, can be used short-term, improve Hb, shrink fibroids

Progesterone receptor modulators:
Esmya - ullipristal acetate
Act directly on endometrium, induce amenorrhoea, shrink fibroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Describe the surgical options for management of heavy menstrual bleeding

A

Endometrial ablation:
Local or general anaesthetic
Ablation of endometrium to myometrium
For those who do not wish to conceive - will need to continue using contraception after

Hysterectomy:
Only definitive treatment - guaranteed amenorrhoea
Abdominal or laparoscopic
Associated morbidity and mortality
Partial - uterus removed only (not cervix)
Total - cervix and uterus removed
Total with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy only if ovaries are abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Define primary amenorrhoea

A

Failure to menstruate by 13 with no evidence of pubertal development
Failure to menstruate by 15 with signs of puberty e.g. breast bud development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Define secondary amenorrhoea

A

Cessation of periods for >6 months after menarche (after excluding pregnancy)
Or >12 months if previous oligomenorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Define oligomenorrhoea

A

Cycle persistently longer than 35 days, menses less frequently than every 35 days
(less than 9 periods per year)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

List the most common causes of primary amenorrhoea

A

Physiological delay
Weight loss/dieting/heavy exercise
PCOS
Imperforate hymen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

List causes of primary amenorrhoea

A

Normal secondary sexual characteristics:
Physiological - constitutional delay, pregnancy
Genito-urinary malformations - imperforate hymen, transverse septum, absent vagina or uterus
Endocrine disorder - hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hyperprolactinaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, PCOS
Androgen insensitivity syndrome

No secondary sexual characteristics:
Primary ovarian insufficiency - genetic (Turner’s, gonadal agenesis), chemo/radiotherapy, autoimmune disease
Hypothalamic dysfunction - excessive exercise/weight loss, chronic systemic illness, hypothalamic or pituitary tumours, cranial irradiation, infection or head injury, Kallman’s syndrome, empty sella symdrome, Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome
Causes of ambiguous genitalia - 5-alpha reductase deficiency, androgen-secreting tumour, congenital adrenal hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Define hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and list examples

A

Deficiency of LH/FSH leading to deficiency of sex hormones (oestrogen)

Hypopituitarism
Radiation/surgical damage to hypothalamus or pituitary
Chronic conditions
Excessive exercise or dieting
Kallman’s syndrome - reduced/absent sense of smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Define hypergonadotropic hypogonadism and list examples

A

Gonads fail to respond to stimulation from LH/FSH, so increased amounts of FSH/LH produced (lack of negative feedback)

Damage to ovaries
Congenital absence of ovaries
Turner’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Describe causes of amenorrhoea in terms of the HPO axis

A

Hypothalamic causes:
Functional disorders - exercise, eating disorders
Severe chronic conditions
Kallman syndrome - failure of migration of GnRH cells

Pituitary causes:
Prolactinomas or other pituitary tumours e.g. acromegaly, Cushing’s syndrome
Sheehan’s syndrome
Destruction of pituitary - radiation, surgery, autoimmune disease
Post-contraception amenorrhoea - Depo-Provera highest risk

Ovarian causes:
PCOS
Turner’s
Premature ovarian failure

Adrenal causes:
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Genital tract abnormalities:
Ashermann’s syndrome - instrumentation of uterus damages basal layer of endometrium, causes intrauterine adhesions which fail to respond to oestrogen
Imperforate hymen, transverse vaginal septum
Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome - agenesis of Mullerian duct system, congenital absence of uterus and upper 2/3 of vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

How are secondary sexual characteristics in females assessed?

A

Tanner staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

List causes of secondary amenorrhoea

A

Physiological:
Pregnancy
Lactation
Menopause

Premature ovarian insufficiency
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy
Autoimmune disease

Hypothalamic causes:
Hypothalamic dysfunction due to stress, excessive exercise, and/or weight loss
Chronic systemic illness
Cranial irradiation, infection or head injury

Pituitary causes:
Prolactinoma, other hormone-secreting tumours
Head injury, cranial irradiation
Hypopituitarism
Sheehan’s syndrome
Sarcoidosis
TB

Uterine causes:
Cervical stenosis
Asherman’s syndrome

Thyroid disease

Iatrogenic:
Contraceptive
Drugs e.g. antipsychotics (hyperprolactinaemia), illicit drug use
Surgery - hysterectomy, endometrial ablation, ovarian surgery

With androgen excess:
PCOS
Cushing’s
Late-onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Androgen-secreting tumours of the ovary or adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Describe the diagnostic criteria for PCOS

A

Rotterdam criteria - 2/3 of:
Oligo- and/or anovulation
Clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism
Polycystic ovaries on imaging (>12 developing follicles in one ovary), or ovarian volume >10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

List features of hyperandrogenism in PCOS

A

Clinical:
Hirustism
Acne
Male pattern hair-loss

Biochemical:
Raised testosterone
Low SHBG
Raised LH
Normal FSH
Low progesterone
May have mildly elevated prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

List the clinical features and complications of PCOS

A

Oligomenorrhoea or amenorrhoea
Infertility
Hirsutism
Obesity
Chronic pelvic pain
Depression
Acne
Acanthosis nigricans - insulin resistance
Male pattern hair-loss
Obesity
Hypertension
Insulin resistance and diabetes
Hypercholesterolaemia
Endometrial hyperplasia and cancer
Obstructive sleep apnoea
Sexual problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

How is PCOS managed?

A

Reduce risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes: lifestyle (weight loss, exercise, smoking cessation), antihypertensives and statins where indicated

Reduce risk of endometrial cancer - Mirena coil (continuous protection), inducing withdrawal bleed at least 3-4 monthly with cyclical progestogens or COCP

Manage infertility - weight loss, clomifene, metformin, letrozole, laparoscopic ovarian drilling, IVF

Manage hirsutism - weight loss, COCP, topical eflornithine, other options e.g. electrolysis, laser hair removal, spironolactone, finasteride, flutamide, cyproterone acetate

Manage acne - COCP, topical retinoid, topical antibiotics, topical azelaic acid, oral tetracycline antibiotics

COCP used for hirsutism/acne = cyprindiol, anti-androgenic but increased risk VTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Define primary and secondary dysmenorrhoea

A

Dysmenorrhoea = painful cramping, usually in the lower abdomen often radiating to legs and back, occurs shortly before and/or during menstruation

Can be accompanied by GI symptoms and malaise

Primary = idiopathic, no identifiable underlying pelvic pathology
Secondary = caused by underlying pelvic pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Describe the features of primary vs secondary dysmenorrhoea

A

Primary:
Usually young females, 6-12 months after menarche once cycles are regular
Pain most severe on day of or prior to start of menstruation

Secondary:
Usually starts many years after menarche after long period of painless periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

List common causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea

A

Endometriosis/adenomyosis
Fibroids
PID
Ovarian cancer
Cervical cancer
IUD insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

How should a woman presenting with dysmenorrhoea be assessed?

A

Need to consider and rule out causes of secondary before diagnosing primary - diagnosis of exclusion

Examination -
Abdominal - masses
Pelvic (not appropriate in adolescents who are not sexually active) - speculum, bimanual, swabs

Investigations - may not be needed if no features of secondary
US - fibroids, adnexal pathology, endometriosis, IUS
High vaginal and endocervical swabs
Pregnancy test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

How is primary dysmenorrhoea managed?

A

Reassurance

Smoking cessation

Pharmacological:
Analgesia (first-line) - NSAIDs (ibuprofen, naproxen, mefenamic acid), inhibit prostaglandins
Paracetamol
3-6 month trial of hormonal contraception (second-line) - monophasic COCP, IUS (Mirena), depo-Provera

Non-pharmacological:
Local application of heat
TENS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Define intermenstrual bleeding

A

Bleeding between periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Define post-coital bleeding

A

Bleeding after intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

List causes of inter-menstrual bleeding, post-coital bleeding and post-menopausal bleeding in terms of anatomical site

A

Uterine:
Polyp
Cancer
IUS
Fibroids
Infection
Pregnancy

Cervix:
Cancer
Ectropion
Infection
Cervical erosion

Vagina:
Atrophic vaginitis
Cancer
Trauma

Vulval:
Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Describe the assessment of inter-menstrual bleeding and post-coital bleeding

A

Cervical smear history - do not take if not due
Speculum and bimanual examination - urgent colposcopy referral if suspicious of cancer
STI screen and treat +/- GUM referral if appropriate
Urine pregnancy test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Which patients should be urgently/routinely referred for inter-menstrual/post-coital bleeding?

A

Urgent:
>35 with persistent (>4 weeks) post-coital or inter-menstrual bleeding

Routine:
<35 with post-coital or inter-menstrual bleeding for >12 weeks
Single heavy episode of post-coital or inter-menstrual bleeding at any age

Reassurance:
<35 with normal findings and results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Define chronic pelvic pain

A

Intermittent or chronic pain in the lower abdomen or pelvis for >6 months, not occurring exclusively with menstruation or intercourse and not associated with pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

List causes of pelvic pain in terms of anatomical location

A

Vulva:
Bartholin abscess
Lichen sclerosus
Herpes
Cancer
Vulvodynia

Uterus:
Fibroids - degeneration or torsion causes acute pain
Endometriosis
Adenomyosis
Cancer

Fallopian tubes:
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Hydrosalpinx

Ovaries:
Ovarian cysts - torsion, haemorrhage, rupture (acute)
Cancer

GI system:
IBS

Urinary system:
Interstitial cystitis

MSK pain

General:
Adhesions
Pelvic organ prolapse
Nerve entrapment e.g. post C-section
Psychological and social issues
Chronic pelvic pain syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

List ovarian cyst accidents and describe their presentation

A

Rupture - sudden onset pelvic pain, can have acute peritonism, shock or be asymptomatic

Haemorrhage - sudden onset pelvic pain, pelvic mass, bloating, vaginal spotting/bleeding, may be asymptomatic

Torsion - common gynaecological emergency, usually sudden onset severe unilateral pelvic pain which gets progressively worse, associated with nausea and vomiting, or can be mild or intermittent pain. Localised tenderness, may have palpable mass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Describe the investigation of pelvic pain where an ovarian cyst event is suspected

A

Pregnancy test
MSU - rule out UTI
Vaginal/cervical swabs - ?PID
FBC + CRP
CA125
Transvaginal US - ‘whirlpool sign’, free fluid in pelvic and oedema of ovary seen in torsion
Definitive diagnosis - laparoscopic surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

How are ovarian cysts managed?

A

Depends on type of cyst

If ovarian cancer suspected - two-week wait to gynaecological oncology specialist

Dermoid cysts - ?surgery

Simple ovarian cysts
Pre-menopausal - <5cm will likely resolve on their own, do not need management or follow-up scan, 5cm-7cm require routine referral to gynaecology and yearly US monitoring, >7cm consider MRI or surgical evaluation
Post-menopausal - measure CA125, if raised two-week wait referral, if normal and <5cm may be monitored with US 4-6 monthly

Persistent/enlarging cysts - surgical intervention, usually laparoscopic, ovarian cystectomy +/- oophorectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Define pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Ascending infection of the upper genital tract, spreads from endocervix to cause one or more of:
Endometritis - endometrium
Salpingitis - fallopian tubes
Parametritis - parametrium (connective tissue around uterus)
Oophoritis - ovaries
Tubo-ovarian abscess - adnexa
Pelvic peritonitis - peritoneal membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

What are the most common causes of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

STIs:
Chlamydia trachomatis
Neisseria gonorrhoea
Mycoplasma genitalium

Other:
Gardnerella vaginalis
Haemophilus influenzae
E. Coli
Streptococcus agalactiae

Can commonly be pathogen-negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

List complications of pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Ectopic pregnancy
Infertility
Tubo-ovarian abscess
Chronic pelvic pain
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome - RUQ pain, peri-hepatitis, especially associated with chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Describe the presentation of pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Can be asymptomatic
Lower abdominal/pelvic pain
Deep dyspareunia
Menstrual abnormalities e.g. menorrhagia, dysmenorrhoea, intermenstrual bleeding
Post-coital bleeding
Dysuria
Abnormal vaginal discharge - purulent, malodorous

If advanced - severe lower abdominal pain, fever, nausea and vomiting

On examination
Tenderness of uterus/adnexae or cervical excitation
Palpable mass in lower abdomen
Abnormal vaginal discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

How should suspected pelvic inflammatory disease be investigated?

A

NAAT swab for gonorrhoea, chlamydia, mycoplasma genitalium
HIV test
Syphilis test
High vaginal swab for bacterial vaginosis, candidiasis and trichomoniasis
Microscopy of vaginal/endocervical swabs - pus cells, absence is useful for excluding PID but presence is not specific for PID diagnosis
Pregnancy test - exclude ectopic pregnancy
ESR/CRP
MSU - exclude UTI
Transvaginal US if tubo-ovarian abscess is suspected
Laparoscopy if diagnosis uncertain or no improvement after initial management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

How is PID managed?

A

Antibiotics - 14-day course, broad spectrum with good anaerobic coverage
Start immediately, before swab results are available

Options for Abx:
Doxycycline + ceftrixone + metronidazole
Ofloxacin + metronidazole

Analgesics e.g. paracetamol
Avoid sexual intercourse until Abx course complete and partner(s) are treated
Referral to GUM - contact tracing, test all sexual partners from previous 6 months

More severe - admission for IV antibiotics
Pregnant (including ectopic), signs of sepsis/pelvic peritonitis, unresponsive to oral Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Define endometriosis

A

Chronic condition with growth of ectopic endometrium-like tissue outside the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Describe the aetiology of endometriosis

A

Several theories:

Retrograde menstruation - endometrial cells flow from uterine cavity through fallopian tubes and out into pelvic cavity where they implant on tissues and seed and grow

Lymphatic or circulatory dissemination - endometriotic tissue travels through lymphatic system or in bloodstream to ectopic sites

Genetic predisposition - well documented, no specific genes identified

Metaplasia - cells in pelvis and abdominal area change into endometrial-type cells of the germinal epithelium

Embryonic cells - embryonic cells remain outside uterus during development and later develop into ectopic endometrial tissue

Environmental factors

Immune dysfunction - those with endometriosis seem to have reduced immunity to other conditions, unknown if this is a contributor or consequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

List sites for endometriosis to develop

A

Pelvic most common:
Ovaries
Pouch of Douglas
Uterosacral ligaments
Pelvic peritoneum
Rectum
Sigmoid colon
Bladder
Distal ureter

Extra-pelvic sites rarer:
Bowel
Diaphragm
Umbilicus
Pleural cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of endometriosis

A

Can be asymptomatic
Cyclical pelvic pain - occurs during menstruation
May be constant pain if adhesions have formed
Dysmenorrhoea
Dyspareunia
Dysuria
Dyschezia (painful defecating)
Subfertility
Urinary symptoms
Bowel symptoms

Examination:
Fixed, retroverted uterus
Uterosacral ligament nodules
Endometrial tissue visible in vagina
General tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Describe the assessment and investigations of women with suspected endometriosis

A

Examination - abdominal and pelvic examination (speculum and bimanual)

Gold standard for diagnosis = laparoscopy
Typical findings - chocolate cysts, adhesions, peritoneal deposits, powder burn lesions
Biopsy of lesions
Can also be used as treatment - remove endometriomas, divide adhesions

Pelvic US should be done before surgery - determine severity of endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

List potential complications of endometriosis

A

Endometriomas - rupture, torsion
Fertility problems - mechanism not clear
Adhesion formation - chronic pelvic pain
Bowel obstruction
Chronic pain without visible disease
Reduced quality of life
?Link between endometriosis and ovarian cancer - evidence not clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

List management options for endometriosis

A

Initial management:
Analgesia as required for pain - NSAIDs and paracetamol first line (follow analgesic ladder)

Hormonal management:
COCP
Progesterone only pill
Depo-provera
Nexplanon implant
Mirena coil
GnRH agonists (induce menopause-like state)

Surgical management:
Laparoscopic surgery to excise or ablate endometrial tissue + adhesiolysis (relapses likely, may need repeated surgery)
Hysterectomy + bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Define adenomyosis

A

Endometrial tissue inside the myometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Describe the micturition cycle

A

Storage/continence phase:
Controlled by pons continence centre, which control sympathetic continence centres of spinal cord –> hypogastric nerve (T10-T12)
Storage requires relaxation of the detrusor muscle (via B3-adrenoreceptors) and contraction of the internal urethral sphincters (via A1-adrenoreceptors) and external urethral sphincters (via pudendal nerve S2-4 –> cholinergic receptors)

As bladder fills detrusor relaxes and volume of bladder expands - intra-vesical pressure remains constant and lower than the urethral pressure = receptive relaxation

Micturition/voiding phase:
Under parasympathetic control, afferent signals from bladder travel through spinal cord to pontine micturition centre to excite sacral preganglionic neurons
Parasympathetic stimulation of pelvic nerve (S2-4), release of acetylcholine which acts on muscarinic Ach receptors on detrusor muscle, which causes it to contract, also inhibition of Onuf’s nucleus with reduction in sympathetic stimulation to internal urethral sphincter, causing it to relax
Conscious reduction in voluntary contraction of external urethral sphincter from cerebral cortex, distension of urethra, passing of urine

224
Q

List the structures which help to maintain continence in women

A

Brain - pons continence centre
Spinal cord - spinal continence centre, T10-L2
Nerves - pelvic nerve, pudendal nerve
Bladder - detrusor muscle
Urethral sphincters - internal (sympathetic control) and external (voluntary control)
Pelvic floor - supports pelvic organs and tightens urethral opening

225
Q

Define urinary incontinence

A

Involuntary loss of urine which can be objectively demonstrate and which is a social or hygienic problem

226
Q

Define the types of urinary incontinence in women

A

Stress urinary incontinence - involuntary leakage of urine on effort or exertion, or on sneezing/coughing (increased intra-abdominal pressure)

Urgency urinary incontinence involuntary leakage accompanied by or immediately preceded by a sudden compelling desire to pass urine which is difficult to defer (urgency), part of larger symptom complex of overactive bladder syndrome

Overactive bladder syndrome - urinary urgency (with or without urgency incontinence) usually associated with increased frequency and nocturia

Mixed urinary incontinence - both stress and urgency

Overflow incontinence - detrusor under activity or bladder outlet obstruction results in urinary retention and leakage of urine, may have straining to urinate or feeling of bladder incompletely emptying

227
Q

List the clinical types of overactive bladder syndrome

A

OAB wet - incontinence present
OAB dry - incontinence absent

228
Q

Define urodynamic stress incontinence

A

Urodynamic proven leakage of urine with increased intra-abdominal pressure (old term = genuine stress incontinence)

229
Q

List risk/aetiological factors for overactive bladder

A

Mostly idiopathic
Systemic neurological conditions - Parkinson’s, MS, injury to pelvic/spinal nerves
Obesity
T2DM
Chronic UTI
Drugs which cause detrusor overactivity - parasympathomimetics (muscarinic receptor agonists, acetylcholinesterase inhibitors), antidepressants, hormone replacement
Diuretics, caffeinated, acidic or alcoholic drinks - increase urinary frequency

230
Q

List risk/aetiological factors for stress incontinence

A

Increasing age
Pregnancy and vaginal delivery - weakens muscles and connective tissue, damage to pudendal and pelvic nerves
Obesity - pressure on pelvic tissues, stretching and weakening of muscles and nerves
Constipation - straining can weaken pelvic floor muscles
Deficiency in supporting tissues - prolapse, hysterectomy, lack of oestrogen at menopause
Family history
Smoking
Drugs - ACE inhibitors (cause cough)

231
Q

List the complications of urinary incontinence

A

Impaired quality of life - employment and leisure activities
Psychological problems - depression, anxiety, embarrassment/shame, low self esteem
Social isolation, avoidance of leaving home
Sexual problems
Loss of sleep
Falls and fractures

232
Q

List the important points in a history of urinary incontinence

A

Does it occur when coughing, sneezing or on exertion (stress)?
Is there sudden urgency, frequency and nocturia (urge)?
Is there difficulty voiding (overflow)?
Ask about fluid intake - amount and type of fluids
Red flag symptoms - haematuria, bladder or urethral pain, recurrent UTI, constant leakage (fistula)
How often? At what times?
Use of pads, changing of clothing

Drug history - alpha-1 adrenoreceptor antagonists (tamsulosin, doxazosin), antipsychotics, anticholinergics, anti-Parkinsonism drugs, antidepressants, benzodiazepines, diuretics, HRT

PMHx - urinary tract disorders, spinal surgery, prolapse, hysterectomy, O+G history, neurological conditions (MS, Parkinson’s), systemic disease (DM, heart failure)

SH - impact on QOL, insomnia, sexual functioning

233
Q

How should a woman with urinary incontinence be examined?

A

General - weight, gait, indicators of neurological disease

Abdominal - palpable bladder or mass

Pelvic examination -
Cough with comfortably full bladder - observe for leakage
Assess pelvic muscle tone and contraction during bimanual examination - squeeze finger (Oxford grading system)
Evidence of prolapse, atrophic vaginitis, urethral diverticulum

234
Q

How should a woman with urinary incontinence be investigated?

A

Urine dipstick - all women with urinary incontinence

Bladder diary for minimum 3 days

Post-void residual volume measurement with bladder scan (or catheterisation) - symptoms suggestive of voiding dysfunction or recurrent UTI

Cystoscopy and renal tract imaging - if haematuria, recurrent UTIs

Urodynamic testing - urge incontinence, voiding dysfunction, prolapse, failed conservative management

235
Q

List management options for urinary incontinence associated with overactive bladder syndrome

A

Conservative:
Exclude/manage treatable causes
Advice on fluid intake and lifestyle measures - reduce caffeine, avoid drinking excessive amounts, weight loss, smoking cessation
Bladder training

Medical management:
Antimuscarinic - oxybutynin, tolterodine, darifenacin (if symptoms persist with bladder training)
Beta-3 agonist if antimuscarinic contraindicated (Mirabegron)

Surgical management:
Botulinum toxin injection
Detrusor myomectomy and augmentation cystoplasty - only if debilitating symptoms resistant to other treatment

236
Q

List management options for stress incontinence

A

Conservative:
Lifestyle - weight loss, caffeine reduction, smoking cessation
Treat risk factors e.g. chronic cough
Supervised pelvic floor muscle training for at least 3 months

Medical:
Duloxetine - SNRI

Surgical:
Burch colposuspension
Laparoscopic colposuspension
Tension free vaginal tape

237
Q

Define uterovaginal prolapse and list types of prolapse

A

Protrusion of the uterus and/or vagina beyond normal anatomical confines

Uterine prolapse - uterus descends into vagina
Vault prolapse - in women who have had hysterectomy, vault (top of vagina) descends into vagina
Rectocele - rectum prolapses forwards into vagina (due to defect in posterior vaginal wall)
Cystocele - bladder prolapses backwards into the vagina (due to defect in anterior vaginal wall), most common
Urethrocele - descent of the anterior vaginal wall where the urethra sits, second most common
Enterocele - upper vagina, descent of vagina and peritoneal sac (pouch of Douglas), usually contains loops of small bowel

238
Q

Describe the structure of the pelvic floor

A

Funnel shaped
Attaches to walls of lesser pelvis, separating pelvic cavity from perineum inferiorly
Two significant holes in pelvic floor - urogenital hiatus (anterior), rectal hiatus (central)

Main muscles of pelvic floor - levator ani (pubococcygeus, puborectalis, iliococcygeus) and coccygeus

239
Q

Describe the support of the uterus and vagina

A

Primary support is via tone of pelvic floor

Also ligaments:
Broad - double layer of peritoneum attaches sides of uterus to pelvis
Round - from uterine horns to labia majora via inguinal canal
Ovarian - ovaries to uterus
Cardinal ligament - cervix to lateral pelvic valls, contains uterine artery and vein
Uterosacral ligament - cervix to sacrum

240
Q

List the aetiological factors which contribute to uterovaginal prolapse

A

Increasing age/menopause - loss of oestrogen and connective tissue strength
Vaginal deliveries - particularly multiple, instrumental, prolonged or traumatic delivery
Raised intra-abdominal pressure - obesity, chronic cough, chronic constipation
Abnormal collagen metabolism

241
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of uterovaginal prolapse

A

Can be asymptomatic
Sensation of pressure, fullness, heaviness
Dragging sensation
Sensation of bulge, ‘something coming down’
Worse on straining or bearing down
Urinary symptoms - incontinence, urgency, frequency, weak stream, retention
Bowel symptoms - constipation, incontinence, urgency
Sexual dysfunction - pain, altered sensation, reduced enjoyment

242
Q

Describe how to examine for a vaginal prolapse

A

Patient empty bowels and bladder before examination
Can use dorsal and left lateral position
Sim’s speculum used to support vaginal wall on one side to examine other sides - anterior wall to check for rectocele, posterior wall for cystocele
Cough or bear down to assess full descent of prolapse

Abdominal/bimanual examination - pelvic masses

243
Q

Describe the grading system for uterovaginal prolapse

A

Pelvic organ prolapse quantification (POP-Q) system
Grade 0: Normal
Grade 1: The lowest part is more than 1cm above the introitus
Grade 2: The lowest part is within 1cm of the introitus (above or below)
Grade 3: The lowest part is more than 1cm below the introitus, but not fully descended
Grade 4: Full descent with eversion of the vagina

Introitus = opening of vagina

244
Q

List the management options for uterovaginal prolapse

A

Conservative:
Physiotherapy - pelvic floor exercises
Weight loss
Lifestyle changes for associated stress incontinence - reduce caffeine intake, anticholinergic medications
Vaginal oestrogen cream

Vaginal pessaries
Ring, shelf/Gelhorn, cube, donut, hodge

Surgical:
Colporrhaphy (anterior for cystocele/posterior for rectocele)
Vaginal hysterectomy
Manchester repair - cervical amputation, shortening of transcervical ligament
Sacrohysteropexy - mesh to attach uterus to anterior longitudinal ligament
Sacrospinous ligament fixation
Sacrocolpopexy - vault attached to sacrum using mesh
Colpocleisis - vaginal closure, if do not wish to have vaginal intercourse

245
Q

How can uterovaginal prolapse be prevented?

A

Weight reduction
Treatment of constipation
Treatment of chronic cough & smoking cessation
Avoidance of heavy lifting
Encourage pelvic floor exercises
Good Intrapartum care - avoid unnecessary instrumental trauma and prolonged labour

246
Q

Describe the visit schedule for antenatal care

A

Healthy with no risk factors/obstetric problems - all care by midwives in the community
With risk factors/health problems/obstetric problems - see other members of MDT including obstetricians

First contact - pre-booking
Booking appointment, arrange screening - by 10 weeks
16 week, 18-20 week (anomaly scan), 28, 34, 36, 38, 41, 42 weeks
+ 25, 31, 40 in prims

247
Q

What antenatal care is given in the first trimester?

A

Identify risks, including domestic abuse
Screen for abnormalities or illness
Develop rapport, encourage future attendance
Health promotion - smoking cessation, dietician, dental care, folic acid, alcohol, food hygiene
Social work involvement if required
Baseline observations - BMI, BP, HR, abdominal exam, urinalysis
Determine likely gestation
Screening - FBC, blood group, sickle cell and thalassaemia, hep B/syphilis/HIV

248
Q

Which investigations are offered for fetal screening? When?

A

Combined test at 11-14 weeks - Down’s (T21), Edward’s (T18), Patau’s (T13)
NIPT - cell free fetal DNA, if high risk from combined test
Chorionic villus sampling (11 weeks) or amniocentesis (15 weeks) to confirm diagnosis if NIPT positive
Fetal anomaly scan (18-22 weeks)

249
Q

What antenatal care is given in the second trimester?

A

Fetal anomaly scan (18-22 weeks)
AN appointments - BP, urinalysis, auscultation of fetal heart from 18 weeks
Ask about pain/vaginal loss
Identify and manage common problems in pregnancy e.g. nausea and vomiting, heartburn, haemorrhoids

250
Q

What antenatal care is given in the third trimester?

A

BP, urinalysis, auscultation of fetal heart
Ask about pain/vaginal loss
Ask about common problems in pregnancy
Ask about fetal movement
Abdominal examination
Evaluation of fetal growth - 24 weeks+

251
Q

List factors which can make a pregnancy high risk

A

Personal history/current health:
Fertility treatment
Medical conditions
Surgical history
Low/high BMI
Mental health issues
Social difficulties

Family history:
Congenital abnormalities
Medical conditions
Mental health

Obstetric history:
Miscarriages >14 weeks/stillbirth/neonatal death
Recurrent miscarriages
Premature birth
Gestation diabetes, rhesus disease, antepartum haemorrhage, induction of labour, pre-eclampsia
Operative birth
Post-partum haemorrhage

Current pregnancy:
Hyperemesis
Vaginal bleeding
Abdo pain
USS findings

252
Q

List screening tests offered at the booking appointment and the implications of these

A

FBC - anaemia, thrombocytopaenia
Blood group - ABO, rhesus (anti-D treatment)
Sickle cell and thalassaemia
HIV - anti-retrovirals during pregnancy, bottle feed if viral load detectable
Hepatitis B/C - B vaccine given to baby after birth, no preventative measures for C (less likely to pass on)
Syphilis - treat with penicillin
Rubella immunity - don’t give MMR if not immune (live vaccine)
Blood glucose

253
Q

Which screening test results indicate higher risk of Down’s syndrome?

A

Higher nuchal translucency
Higher B-HCG
Lower pregnancy associated plasma protein A
Lower serum oestriol
Higher inhibin-A

254
Q

Describe the incidence of multiple pregnancies

A

15 per 1000 UK

255
Q

List risk factors for multiple pregnancies

A

Assisted conception - IVF, ovulation induction
Maternal age
Ethnic origin - West African
Family history - maternal inheritance

256
Q

Define:
Zygosity
Chorionicity
Amniocity

A

Zygosity - number of fertilised eggs
Chorionicity - number of placentas
Amniocity - number of sacs

257
Q

List the types of multiple pregnancies in terms zygosity, chorionicity, amniocity

A

Dizygotic - two eggs, two sperm, as genetically similar as siblings

Monozyogtic - start as one fertilised egg then split:
Before day 4 - dichorionic, diamniotic (1/3)
Day 4-8 - monochorionic, diamniotic (2/3)
From day 9 - monochorionic, monoamniotic (rare)

258
Q

List the maternal risks of multiple pregnancies

A

All minor complications increased
Hyperemesis gravidarum
Pre-eclampsia (x 2-3)
Gestational diabetes
Placenta praevia
Polyhydramnios
Hypertension
Malpresentation
Instrumental delivery or caesarean
Post-partum haemorrhage

259
Q

List the fetal risks of multiple pregnancies

A

Miscarriage
Congenital anomalies
Fetal growth restriction
Prematurity
Twin-twin transfusion syndrome
Twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence

260
Q

Describe the pathophysiology and consequences of twin-twin transfusion syndrome

A

In monochorionic pregnancies

Connection between blood supplies of fetuses, recipient receives majority of blood, donor is starved of blood

Recipient gets fluid overloaded, heart failure and polyhydramnios

Donor has growth restriction, anaemia, oligohydramnios

261
Q

What is twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence?

A

Similar to twin-twin transfusion syndrome but less acute - one twin anaemic, other polycythaemic

262
Q

How are multiple pregnancies managed antenatally?

A

Managed by specialist obstetric team
Additional monitoring for anaemia - FBC at booking clinic, 20 weeks, 28 weeks
Additional USS for fetal growth restriction, unequal growth, twin-twin transfusion - 2 weekly scans from 16 weeks for monochorionic, 4 weekly scans from 20 weeks for dichorionic

263
Q

Describe the management of multiple pregnancies in delivery

A

Planned birth offered between:
32-33+6 for uncomplicated monochorionic monoamniotic twins
36-36+6 - for uncomplicated monochorionic diamniotic twins
37-37+6 - uncomplicated dichorionic diamniotic twins
Before 35+6 for triplets

Delivery:
Monoamniotic - elective caesarean section
Diamniotic - vaginal delivery for first baby with cephalic presentation, caesarean for second baby
Elective caesarean if presenting twin not cephalic

Analgesia for mum - often epidural

Monitoring during labour - BP, IV access, fluids, continuous CTG, abdominal and fetal scalp electrode,

264
Q

Describe postnatal management of multiple pregnancy

A

Increased risk postpartum haemorrhage
Increased risk of postnatal depression, anxiety, relationship difficulties - counselling, emotional support, low threshold for suspecting perinatal psychological disturbance

265
Q

List the specific complications which are associated with monochorionic twin pregnancies

A

Acute transfusion
Twin-twin transfusion syndrome
Twin reversed arterial perfusion sequence

266
Q

Define acute transfusion in monochorionic twin pregnancies

A

Death of one twin in utero leads to increased risk of hypoxic-ischaemic injury in survivor due to acute transfusion from healthy to dying twin

267
Q

Define twin reversed arterial perfusion syndrome

A

Two cords linked by a large arterio-arterial anastamosis, retrograde perfusion - ‘pump twin’ and ‘perfused twin’
Pump twin - normal, drives blood flow through both fetuses, can develop heart failure
Perfused twin - acardiac, no chance of survival

268
Q

Describe the three stages of labour

A

First stage - onset of labour until cervix fully dilated, further divided into two stages:
1. Latent - onset of contractions until cervix fully effaced and 3-4cm dilated
2. Active - until full cervical dilatation (10cm)

Second stage - from full cervical dilatation (10cm) until baby is delivered, further divided into two stages:
1. Propulsive - full dilatation until head has descended onto pelvic floor
2. Expulsive - from time mother has an irresistible urge to bear down and push until baby is delivered

Third stage - from delivery of baby until expulsion of placenta and membranes

269
Q

Define effacement and dilatation of the cervix and describe how these processes occur

A

Effacement - thinning, begins with internal os and proceeds downwards to external os until cervical tissue becomes continuous with uterine walls
Dilatation - opening up of external os

Prim: effacement before dilatation
Parous: effacement and dilatation can occur simultaneously

270
Q

List the signs that labour is starting and the criteria for confirming labour

A

Signs of labour starting:
Contractions
‘Show’ - mucus plug in cervix falls out
Back pain
Urge to move bowels - baby’s head pressed on bowel
Waters breaking (spontaneous rupture of membranes)

Labour confirmed if:
Regular contractions and fully effaced cervix
Spontaneous rupture of membranes and regular uterine activity

271
Q

List the factors which lead to the initiation of labour

A

Inhibition of pro-pregnancy factors:
Progesterone - levels same but difference in receptors?
Nitric oxide?
Catecholamines?

Activation of pro-labour factors:
Oxytocin - increase in receptor levels, increased frequency and force of contractions
Prostaglandins - increased levels, cervical ripening and uterine contractility
Inflammatory cells and cytokines - cervical ripening, membrane rupture

272
Q

How is cervical ripening assessed?

A

Bishop score - 0, 1, 2 for:
Dilatation - <1, 1-2, 3-4
Length of cervix (effacement) - >2, 1-2, <1
Station of presenting part - spines-3, spines-2, spines-1
Consistency - firm, medium, soft
Position - posterior, central anterior

273
Q

Define engagement and station

A

Engagement of the presenting part - on abdominal examination how many fifths of the fetal head are palpable above the pelvic brim, refers to widest part of fetal head descending into maternal pelvis
Fully engaged when fetal head is 3/5th palpable or less

Station of the presenting part - position of widest part of fetal head in relation to ischial spines, spines is zero station, above spines -1, -2 etc., below spines +1, +2 etc.

274
Q

How is the position of the fetal head determined in labour? What is the normal orientation of the head during labour?

A

Orientate using position of fontanelles - posterior fontanelle is triangle shaped, anterior is diamond shaped

Begins in right or left occipitotransverse at pelvic brim
When head reaches pelvic floor, rotates to occipitoanterior
Shoulders deliver in AP diameter, head follows in external rotation (restitution)

275
Q

Describe the passage of the baby through the pelvis and the normal delivery of a baby

A

Cardinal movements of labour:
Engagement - engaged when fetal head is 3/5ths or less palpable above pelvic brim
Descent - measured in relation to ischial spines (engagement)
Flexion - head at pelvic brim in R/L occipitotransverse position, neck flexed so that presenting part is suboccipitobregmatic (smallest diameter)
Internal Rotation - rotates to occipitoanterior
Extension - head delivers by neck extension
Restitution and external rotation - shoulders rotate to AP diameter, continued descent, head follows in external rotation (restitution)
Expulsion - anterior shoulder delivers with lateral flexion, posterior shoulder delivers

276
Q

How is a CTG recorded?

A

Two transducers on abdomen - one records fetal heart rate using US, other monitors contractions of uterus by measuring the tension of the abdominal wall

277
Q

How is a CTG interpreted?

A

Mnemonic - DR C BraVADO

DR - define risk
Is pregnancy high or low risk?
Based on maternal PMHx, obstetric complications, SHx e.g. smoking

C - contractions
Number present in 10 minutes - peaks in 10 big squares
Duration and intensity (palpation)

Bra - baseline rate of fetal heart
Average HR in 10 minutes (ignore accelerations and decelerations)
Tachycardia >160
Bradycardia <110, severe prolonged is <80 for more than 3 minutes

V - variability
Normal (reassuring) - 5-25bpm
Non-reassuring - <5bpm for 30-50 minutes or >25 for 15-25 minutes
Abnormal - <5 for >50 minutes or >25 for >25 minutes, sinusoidal

A - accelerations
Abrupt increase in baseline HR of >15bpm for >15 seconds - reassuring

D - decelerations
Abrupt decrease in baseline HR of >15bpm for >15 seconds
Early decelerations - start wen uterine contractions begin, recover when uterine contractions stop, physiological
Variable decelerations - rapid fall in baseline HR with variable recovery phase, usually caused by umbilical cord compression
Accelerations before and after variable decelerations = shoulders of deceleration, means fetus is adapting to reduced blood flow, not yet hypoxic, if persistent need close monitoring
Without shoulders - suggests they are becoming hypoxic
Late deceleration - begin at peak. ofcontraction, recover when contraction ends, indicates fetal hypoxia
Prolonged deceleration - >2 minutes, 2-3 is non-reassuring, >3 minutes is abnormal
Sinusoidal - smooth, regular wave, no beat-to-beat variability, very worrying with high mortality

O - overall impression
Reassuring
Suspicious
Abnormal

278
Q

Describe the use of a partogram and the observations recorded on them

A

Provides a graphic record of clinical findings and any relevant events during labour

Records maternal observations (BP, HR, temp), fetal heart rate, progressive cervical dilatation, descent of the presenting part, strength and frequency of contractions, and colour of amniotic fluid.

Uterine activity recorded over a 10 minute period

Two lines which indicate is labour is not progressing adequately, labelled ‘alert’ and ‘action’ - crossing alert line is an indications for an amniotomy and repeat examination in 2 hours, crossing action means care should be escalated to obstetric-led care

279
Q

Describe the anatomical changes which occur in the uterus during pregnancy

A

Uterus increases in size - expands outside of pelvic cavity into abdominal cavity, displaces abdominal organs
100mg –> 1.1kg
Hypertrophy of myometrium and blood vessels in uterus
Fundus moves down after week 38 to prepare for labour

280
Q

Describe the changes which occur in the cervix during pregnancy

A

Increased oestrogen may cause cervical ectropion and increased cervical discharge

281
Q

List the uterotonic hormones commonly used in practice and describe their uses

A

Oxytocin (syntocinon):
First line for stimulation of contractions during labour (failure to progress), infusion started at low rate and titrated up at intervals of at least 30 minutes as required, aim for 4-5 contractions per 10 minutes
Active management of third stage of labour - reduces risk of primary postpartum haemorrhage, 5-10 units IM for vaginal deliveries, 5 units IV for CS
Management of post-partum haemorrhage (primary/secondary)

Other uterotonics:
Syntometrine (oxytocin + ergometrine)
Carboprost (prostoglandin F2)
Misoprostol (prostaglandin E1)

282
Q

Describe the mechanism of action, side effects and contraindications of uterotonic drugs

A
283
Q

Define tocolysis and give examples of tocolytic drugs

A

Using medications to suppress uterine contractions in premature labour - short term measure for <48 hours
First-line - nifedipine (CCB)
Second-line - atosiban (oxytocin receptor antagonist)

284
Q

Define pre-term birth

A

Birth before 37 weeks gestation
Under 28 weeks - extreme preterm
28-32 weeks - very preterm
32-37 - moderate to late preterm

285
Q

List the risk factors for pre-term delivery

A

Aetiology largely unknown
Association with infection/inflammation - intrauterine infection, urinary tract infection, bacterial vaginosis
Previous pre-term birth - strongest predictive factor
Multiple pregnancy
1st or 2nd trimester bleeding
Antepartum haemorrhage
Placenta praevia
Pre-labour rupture of membranes
Fetal growth restriction
Congenital fetal anomaly
Polyhydramnios
Congenital uterine anomaly
Pre-eclampsia
Psychological stress, DV

286
Q

Define pre-term labour and pre-term pre-labour rupture of the membranes

A

Pre-term labour: regular uterine contractions accompanied by effacement and dilatation of the cervix after 20 weeks and before 37 weeks
Pre-term Pre-labour rupture of the membranes (PPROM): rupture of the fetal membranes before 37 completed weeks and before the onset of labour

287
Q

List complications associated with pre-term delivery

A

Perinatal mortality - non-viable before 23 weeks, 10% chance of survival

Neonatal problems:
Respiratory distress syndrome
Hypothermia
Hypoglycaemia
Poor feeding
Apnoea and bradycardia
Neonatal jaundice
Intraventricular haemorrhage
Retinopathy of prematurity
Necrotising enterocolitis
Immature immune system and infection

Long term effects:
Long term disability in 10% overall e.g. chronic lung disease of prematurity, cerebral palsy, blindness, deafness
Lesser developmental/behavioural problems
Susceptibility to infections, especially respiratory tract infections

288
Q

How is pre-term labour managed?

A

Prophylaxis - high risk e.g. previous pre-term birth or loss, cervical length <25mm
Vaginal progesterone, cervical cerclage (stitch in cervix)

Pre-term pre-labour rupture of membranes - prophylactic antibiotics

Dilated cervix and unruptured membranes (16-27 weeks) - emergency cervical cerclage

Unruptured membranes in suspected/diagnosed pre-term labour (24-33+6 weeks) - tocolysis with nifedipine

Maternal corticosteroids (IM betamethasone or dexamethasone) - for suspected, diagnosed, established, planned pre-term labour or P-PROM, up to 2 cources, for 24-35+6 weeks

289
Q

Why are maternal steroids given in pre-term labour?

A

Cross the placenta and increase the amount of pulmonary surfactant produced by type II fetal pneumocytes - reduces the incidence of respiratory distress syndrome (hyaline membrane disease)
Also reduce - intraventricular cerebral haemorrhage, neonatal death, necrotizing enterocolitis, neonatal intensive care admission
No adverse neurological or cognitive effects
No identifiable increase in the incidence of maternal or fetal infection, but contraindicated if there is active maternal sepsis

290
Q

Define post-dates/term pregnancy

A

Prolonged/post-term - pregnancy which persists up to and beyond 42 weeks gestation
Post-dates - pregnancy extended beyond the estimates delivery date

291
Q

What are the clinical problems of post-term pregnancy for the mother?

A

Labour dystocia
Severe perineal lacerations
Operative vaginal delivery
Caesarean section
Post-partum haemorrhage
Chorioamnionitis

292
Q

What are the clinical problems of post-term pregnancy for the fetus?

A

Increased perinatal mortality rate - stillbirths and early neonatal deaths
Causes - meconium aspiration syndrome, neonatal acidosis, neonatal encephalopathy
Macrosomia - shoulder dystocia, fractured humerus/clavicle, brachial plexus injury, prolonged labour
Dysmaturity syndrome - utero-placental insufficiency

293
Q

List the methods used for induction of labour

A

Unfavourable cervix (Bishop <6)
Vaginal prostaglandins - tablet, gel, pessary, one cycle per 24 hours
Cervical ripening (Cook’s) balloon - silicone balloon inserted into cervix and inflated to dilate cervix

Favourable cervix (Bishop >6)
Artificial rupture of membranes - amniotomy using amnihook, with oxytocin infusion

Membrane sweep - not full method of induction, used to assist before full IOL, used from 40 weeks

294
Q

List indications for induction of labour

A

Post-term pregnancy - 41-42 weeks
Prelabour rupture of membranes
Fetal growth restriction
Pre-eclampsia
Obstetric cholestasis
Existing diabetes
Intrauterine fetal death

295
Q

What should be done if a post-term women declines induction of labour?

A

Twice weekly CTG monitoring and USS with amniotic fluid measurement to identify fetal distress - may need CS

296
Q

What are the contraindications for induction of labour?

A

Absolute:
Cephalopelvic disproportion
Major placenta praevia
Vasa praevia
Cord prolapse
Transverse lie
Active primary genital herpes
Previous classical Caesarean section

Relative:
Breech
Triplet or higher order
Two or more previous low transverse caesarean sections

297
Q

How should women in whom labour has been induced be monitored?

A

Bishop score
CTG

298
Q

What are the complications of IOL?

A

Failure of induction
Uterine hyperstimulation - causes fetal distress, can be managed with tocolytic agents
Cord prolapse - especially if fetal head position is high
Infection
Pain - often need epidural
Increased rate further intervention vs spontaneous e.g. emergency CS
Uterine rupture - rare

299
Q

List the criteria for diagnosis of failure to progress at each stage of labour

A

First stage - less than 2cm cervical dilatation in 4 hours, slow of progress in multiparous women
Second stage - 2 hours in nulliparous, 1 hour in multiparous
Third stage - >30 minutes active management, >60 minutes physiological

300
Q

How is failure to progress managed?

A

Amniotomy if intact membranes
Oxytocin infusion
Instrumental delivery
Caesarean section

301
Q

List the options for pain management in labour

A

Non-pharmacological:

Breathing and relaxation techinques
Massage techniques
Birthing pool
Environment - music, mobilise, different positions
Education
Other - acupuncture, acupressure, hypnosis, TENS (limited evidence)

Pharmacological:

Non-regional
Inhalational analgesia - Entonox (50:50 mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide)
IV and IM opioids - pethidine, diamorphine, PCA (remifentanil)
General anaesthetic

Regional
Epidural
Spinal
Pudendal nerve block

302
Q

Compare the options for regional anaesthesia in labour

A

Epidural:
Generally used for labour, can be topped up for instrumental delivery
Usually given on maternal request, indications e.g. twin delivery
Extra-dural catheter placement
May have patchy analgesic effect

Spinal:
Used for operative delivery/surgical management of post-partum complications
Subarachnoid injection
One-off, lasts 2-4 hours
Dense, reliable anaesthetic blockade

303
Q

List potential adverse effects of regional anaesthesia in labour

A

Dural puncture headache
Hypotension - blockage of sympathetic tone to peripheral vessels
Local anaesthetic toxicity - if injected into blood vessel, CV collapse and death
Accidental total spinal block - injection of epidural doses into subarachnoid space, travels up spinal column leading to loss of consciousness, respiratory depression, hypotension
Neurological damage - abscess, stretch injury, nerve ischaemia
Longer second stage of labour
Increased chance of vaginal instrumental birth
Motor weakness of legs
Bladder dysfunction - overdistension due to loss of sensation, catheterise if voiding difficulties

304
Q

List side effects of non-regional analgesia used during labour

A

Entonox - lightheadedness, nausea, drowsiness
Opioids - drowsiness, nausea in mother (give anti-emetic), respiratory depression in baby if given too close to birth, may interfere with breastfeeding

305
Q

How many pregnancies are affected by diabetes in the UK

A

5% of pregnancies in the UK affected by diabetes:
87.5% GDM
7.5% T1DM
5% T2DM

306
Q

Define type 1 diabetes, type 2 diabetes and gestational diabetes

A

Diabetes = metabolic disorder characterised by persistent hyperglycaemia (random BM >11) with disturbances of carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism resulting from defects in insulin secretion (leading to insulin deficiency), insulin action (leading to insulin resistance) or both

Type 1 - absolute insulin deficiency causes persistent hyperglycaemia
Type 2 - insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency result in persistent hyperglycaemia
Gestational diabetes - hyperglycaemia develops during pregnancy and usually resolves after delivery, although woman is at increased risk of type 2 diabetes in the future

307
Q

Describe normal glucose physiology in pregnancy

A

Increasing insulin resistance (or reduced insulin sensitivity) - gluconeogenesis and fatty acid levels increase to counter this
Fasting glucose decreased (dilutional due to blood volume increase, increased glucose utilisation by fetus) and post prandial increased compared to non-pregnant
Placenta produces human placental lactogen which increases insulin resistance and human chorionic somatotrophin which increases production of insulin
Normal women double insulin production from 1st to 3rd trimester
Glycosuria common (filtered Glucose > tubular resorption capacity)
Ketosis also more common in pregnancy

308
Q

Describe how maternal insulin requirements change with gestation

A

1st trimester - static or decrease
2nd trimester - increase
3rd trimester - increase, may reduce slightly towards term

309
Q

Describe the maternal risks of pre-existing diabetes in pregnancy

A

Infections, particularly UTI
DKA
Pre-eclampsia
Hypoglycaemia
Macrosomia - birth trauma (e.g. tears), induction of labour, instrumental and caesarean section deliveries (50% operative deliveries)
Retinopathy
Nephropathy

310
Q

Describe the fetal risks of pre-existing diabetes in pregnancy

A

Polyhydramnios (fetal polyuria) - unstable lie, malpresentation, pre-term labour
Miscarriage
Congenital malformations
Stillbirth
Neonatal death
Fetal macrosomia - birth trauma (e.g. dystocia)
Transient neonatal morbidity - hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, hyperbilirubinaemia, polycythaemia, idiopathic respiratory distress syndrome, delayed lung maturity
Obesity/diabetes in later life

311
Q

How can the risks of pre-existing diabetes in pregnancy be reduced?

A

Pre-conception care
Avoid unwanted/unplanned pregnancy - contraceptive
Good glycaemic control prior to pregnancy ideally - aim for HbA1c 48 or less (avoid if >86)
Folic acid 5mg/day from 3 months pre-conception until 12 weeks gestation
Education about risks
Aim for BMI <27
How to manage pregnancy-associated hypoglycaemia, reduced hypoglycaemic awareness, pregnancy-related nausea and vomiting
Pre-pregnancy retinal and renal assessment

Antenatal care
Increased monitoring - obstetric review 4 weekly until 28 weeks, 2 weekly until 36 weeks, then weekly
Offer serum screening and detailed anomaly and cardiac scan
Retinal and renal screening at booking and 28 weeks

Intrapartum
Planned delivery 37 - 38+6 weeks
Usually sliding scale for type 1, keep BM 4-7

Post-partum
Encourage breastfeeding - early and regular
Rapid reduction of insulin requirement, usually back to pre-pregnancy dose immediately

312
Q

Describe target blood glucose and HbA1c levels prior to pregnancy

A

Fasting plasma glucose - 5-7 on waking
4-7 before meals or other times of day
Keep HbA1c <48
Avoid pregnancy if HbA1c >86

313
Q

Describe the use of antihyperglycaemic medications and medications used in complications of diabetes in pregnancy

A

Metformin can be used during pregnancy, all other oral blood glucose-lowering agents should be stopped before pregnancy, use insulin instead

Stop ACEi and ARBs before conception or as soon as pregnancy confirmed - use alternative anti-hypertensive agents suitable for pregnant women
Stop statins before pregnancy or as soon as pregnancy confirmed

314
Q

Who should be offered screening for gestational diabetes? How is this done?

A

Any of these risk factors:
BMI >30
Previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5kg or more
Previous gestational diabetes
Family history of diabetes (first-degree relative)
Ethnicity with high prevalence of diabetes

Use 75g 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to rest for gestational diabetes in women with any risk factors, at 24-28 weeks
Normal results:
Fasting <5.6
At 2 hours <7.8

315
Q

Describe the short term implications of gestational diabetes for the mother and fetus

A

Maternal:
Gestational hypertension
Pre-eclampsia
Birth trauma
Induction of labour
Operative delivery

Fetal:
Macrosomia - shoulder dystocia and other birth trauma
Fetal hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia
Hyperbilirubinaemia
Polycythaemia
Respiratory distress
Perinatal death
?Congenital anomalies

316
Q

Describe the long term implications of gestational diabetes for the mother and fetus

A

Maternal:
Increased risk subsequent gestational diabetes
Increased risk persistent T2DM

Fetal:
Increased risk of obesity and T2DM
Increased risk of cardiovascular disease

317
Q

Describe the antenatal care of women with gestational diabetes

A

Diet and exercise - low glycaemic index diet
Education - importance of good glycaemic control, teach how to monitor
It blood glucose targets not met with diet and exercise changes within 1-2 weeks - give metformin
If blood glucose targets not met with metformin, offer insulin as well
Advise delivery no later than 40+6 weeks
Retinal and renal assessment
US screening including cardiac abnormalities at 20 weeks
Monitor fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume every 4 weeks from 28-36 weeks
1-2 weekly joint diabetes and antenatal clinics

318
Q

Describe intrapartum care of women with gestational diabetes

A

Advise to give birth no later than 40+6 weeks - elective birth by induced labour or CS if haven’t given birth by this time (earlier if complications)
Keep blood glucose 4-7 - use IV dextrose and insulin infusion

319
Q

Describe postpartum care of women with gestational diabetes

A

Babies BM 2-4 hourly after birth
Feed as soon as possible after birth (within 30 minutes), continue at frequent intervals until pre-feed BM is a minimum of 2
Only use additional measures (e.g. tube feeding, IV dextrose) if BM <2, abnormal clinical signs, baby will not feed orally
Immediately reduce insulin/oral antihyperglycaemics after birth
Give lifestyle advice
Fasting plasma blood glucose 6-13 weeks post-partum to exclude diabetes - >7 indicates T2DM

320
Q

Describe the prevalence of thyroid disease in pregnancy

A

Affects 5-7% of pregnancies

321
Q

Describe the changes in thyroid function related to pregnancy

A

Fetalthyroxine is wholly obtained from maternal sources in early pregnancy since the fetalthyroidgland only becomes functional at 12 weeks
Thyroxine is essential for fetalneurodevelopment
In pregnancy,iodide losses through the urine and the feto-placental unit contribute to a state of relativeiodine deficiency
Pregnant women require additional iodine intake - recommended 250µg per day
Total thyroid hormone concentrations in blood are increased in pregnancy, partly due to the high levels ofoestrogen and due to the weak thyroid stimulating effects ofhuman chorionic gonadotropin(hCG) that acts likeTSH.
Thyroxine (T4) levels rise from about 6–12 weeks, and peak by mid-gestation; reverse changes are seen with TSH.

322
Q

How should thyroid function tests be interpreted in pregnant women?

A

Use pregnancy specific ranges
Variable at different gestations

323
Q

Describe the development of thyroid function in the fetus

A

Fetal thyroid gland develops 7-9 weeks

Placental transfer of T4 prior to 12 weeks

From 12 weeks fetal thyroid function independent (in presence of adequate iodine)

324
Q

List the potential complications associated with maternal hypothyroidism in pregnancy

A

Miscarriage/stillbirth
Anaemia
Small for gestational age
Pre-eclampsia
Abnormal neurophysiological development - loss of IQ points
Placental abruption
Prematurity

325
Q

How should women with hypothyroidism be managed before and during pregnancy?

A

Check TFTs before conception - if euthyroid on levothyroxine safe to conceive, if not euthyroid advise delaying conception to stabilise on levothyroxine
Monitor TFTs throughout pregnancy using adjusted reference ranges - adjust levothyroxine dose as required
Contentious - changing dose in early pregnancy even if euthyroid?

326
Q

What possible complications are associated with maternal hyperthyroidism in pregnancy?

A

If uncontrolled:
Miscarriage
Intrauterine growth restriction
Preterm delivery
Perinatal morbidity

327
Q

Describe the clinical features of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy

A

Pregnancy symptoms can be similar to hyperthyroidism symptoms so can be difficult to tell - heat intolerance, palpitations, palmar erythema, emotional lability, tachycardia, increased T4/decreased TSH

Distinguishing features:
Weight loss
Eye signs
Pre-tibial myxoedema
Tremor

328
Q

Describe the effect of pregnancy on thyrotoxicosis

A

Often improves, especially in 2nd/3rd trimester
State of relative immunosuppression, fall in TSH-stimulating antibody
No effect on Grave’s ophthalmology

329
Q

How is hyperthyroidism managed in pregnancy?

A

Antithyroid drugs - carbimazole or propylthiouracil
Block thyroid hormone synthesis and immunosuppressive
Both can cross placenta - use lowest effective dose as can potentially cause fetal thyroid suppression (at high doses)

Propranolol (monitor fetal growth)

Serial TFT monitoring - at least monthly

Rarely surgery indicated
Radioactive iodine contraindicated

Check neonatal TFTs at regular intervals if breast feeding mother on high doses PTU or carbimazole (less PTU secreted in breast milk so safer)

330
Q

Describe the immunological basis of Grave’s disease and the relevance of this in pregnancy

A

TSH receptor antibodies - mimic TSH and stimulate production of thyroid hormone
Antibodies can in theory cross placenta and stimulate fetal TSH receptor

331
Q

How are women with Grave’s disease monitored in pregnancy?

A

If currently thyrotoxic or history of thyrotoxicosis treated with surgery/radioactive iodine:

Monitor signs of fetal hyperthyroidism - IUGR, fetal goitre, heart rate
Measure antibodies in last trimester - if high consider neonatal hyperthyroidism
TFTs monitored
Plan for postnatal medication and suitability for breastfeeding

332
Q

Describe how maternal Grave’s disease can affect the fetus

A

Miscarriage
Stillbirth
IUGR
Fetal/neonatal thyrotoxicosis

333
Q

Define post-partum thyroiditis

A

Changes in thyroid function within 12 months of delivery, affecting women with a history of thyroid disease
Can involve thyrotoxicosis , hypothyroidism or both

334
Q

Describe the typical pattern of postpartum thyroiditis

A

Thyrotoxicosis - usually in first three months
Hypothyroid - 3-6 months
Thyroid function gradually returns to normal (usually within a year)

335
Q

How is postpartum thyroiditis managed?

A

Low threshold for testing thyroid function, especially in postnatal depression - test TFTs 6-8 weeks after delivery
Thyrotoxicosis - symptomatic control e.g. propranolol
Hypothyroidism - levothyroxine

Annual monitoring of TFTs to identify those with long-term hypothyroidism

336
Q

Describe the incidence of epilepsy in pregnancy

A

0.3-0.7% of obstetric population
Most common neurological condition in pregnancy

337
Q

What is the impact of epilepsy on fertility and contraceptives?

A

Fertility:
Doesn’t affect fertility itself but some anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) do e.g. phenobarbitol

Contraceptives:
Enzyme-inducing AEDs (carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital, primidone, oxcarbazepine, topiramate and eslicarbazepine) can affect efficacy of some hormonal contraceptives - if on these AEDs should be offered IUD (copper or Mirena) or medroxyprogesterone acetate injection, copper coil for emergency contraception
Non-enzyme-inducing AEDs (e.g. sodium valproate, levetiracetam, gabapentin, vigabatrin, tiagabine and pregabalin) can be offered all methods of contraception

338
Q

Why is pre-pregnancy planning necessary for women with epilepsy?

A

Discuss risks to unborn child of AEDs - assess risks and benefits of individual treatment options (specifically risk of sodium valproate - contraindicated in pregnancy), review medication options, importance of adherence to medications, do not stop medication without supervision
High dose folic acid 5mg daily - higher risk of neural tube defects, AEDs reduce availability of folate

339
Q

Describe the teratogenicity of anti-epileptic drugs

A

Sodium valproate - avoid pregnancy, causes neural tube defects e.g. spina bifida, congenital heart defects, withdrawal, neurodevelopmental problems (ADHD, ASD), facial malformation e.g. cleft palate, hypospadias, polydactyly

Phenytoin - congenital malformations, neurodevelopmental problems, cleft lip

Safer anti-epileptics in pregnancy - levetiracetam, lamotrigine, carbamazepine

Worse with polypharmacy and higher doses

340
Q

Describe the effects of pregnancy on seizure control

A

First trimester - 64% no change, 16% better, 17% worse
Reduced compliance with AEDs, reduced absorption (N+V), reduced sleep, reduced drug levels (increased volume of distribution, increased metabolism - lamotrigine)
Seizures not harmful to pregnancy other than risk of physical injury

341
Q

Describe antenatal management of epilepsy

A

Notify pregnancy - UK epilepsy and pregnancy register

Therapeutic drug monitoring - individual ‘therapeutic target level’ set pre-pregnancy

Screening for birth defects -
11-13 weeks for acrania, nuchal
20 weeks for neural tube defect, heart, face, limbs
+/- serum screening

Advice on bathing etc.

342
Q

Describe the complications of pregnancy associated with maternal epilepsy

A

May have increased seizure activity
Sudden unexplained death with epilepsy - more common in pregnancy
Teratogenic effects of AEDs - neural tube defects, cardiac malformations, neurodevelopmental defects, cleft lip
Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn - AEDs induce fetal hepatic enzyme activity, lower Vitamin K, neonatal bleeding

343
Q

Describe the intrapartum management of epilepsy

A

IV access
Continue AEDs at normal time - give parenterally if can’t be tolerated orally
Avoid maternal exhaustion
Adequate analgesia
Long-acting benzodiazepines considered if high risk of seizures
Should terminate seizures in labour as soon as possible to avoid maternal and fetal hypoxia and fetal acidosis

344
Q

Describe postnatal management of epilepsy

A

Continue AEDs
Minimise triggers - sleep deprivation, stress, pain
Plasma levels of AEDs fluctuate (up to 8 weeks) - monitor and adjust dose
Mostly no increased risk to baby with breastfeeding
Consider contraceptives

345
Q

Describe the varicella zoster virus and its method of spread and infectivity

A

DNA virus which causes chickenpox (primary infection), shingles (viral reactivation)

Highly contagious, spread through direct contact with lesions or infected droplets from cough or sneeze

Become symptomatic 10 days to 3 weeks after exposure

Stop being contagious after lesions have crusted over

346
Q

Describe the incidence of varicella zoster virus infection in pregnancy

A

> 90% seropositive for IgG antibody
Primary infection 1 in 1000

347
Q

Describe maternal complications of varicella zoster virus infection in pregnancy

A

Pneumonia
Encephalitis - ataxia
Conjunctival lesions
Dehydration
Bacterial superinfection
Reactivation later in life as shingles or Ramsay-Hunt syndrome

348
Q

Describe the fetal complications of maternal varicella zoster virus infection before 20 weeks

A

Intrauterine infection –> fetal varicella syndrome - Skin scarring in dermatomal distribution
Eye defects - microphthalmia, chorioretinitis, cataracts, optic atrophy
Hypoplasia of limbs
Neurological abnormalities - microcephaly, cortical atrophy, learning difficulties, dysfunction of bowel and bladder sphincters, seizures, Horner’s syndrome

349
Q

Describe the neonatal consequences of maternal varicella zoster virus infection in late pregnancy

A

If in the last 4 weeks of pregnancy there is significant risk (50%) of varicella infection of the newborn
Infection can be transplacental, vaginal or through direct contact after birth
Can be asymptomatic
If symptomatic often severe chickenpox infection - fever, rash, can develop disseminated or haemorrhagic varicella

350
Q

Describe the risk assessment of women exposed to varicella zoster virus in pregnancy

A

Assess risk from history - if known to be immune (previous chickenpox) then no further action required
If unknown or no previous infections used serum varicella zoster IgG to confirm immunity status
IgM serum testing/PCR for varicella zoster DNA can be used to confirm acute infection

351
Q

How is varicella zoster managed in pregnancy and in neonates?

A

If seronegative for varicella zoster IgG pre-pregnancy or post-partum can be vaccinated - not recommended during pregnancy as is a live virus

Suspected varicella contact and non-immune -
<20 weeks - give varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) within 10 days of contract and before onset of rash
>20 weeks - VZIG or aciclovir from days 7-14 following exposure
Potentially infectious from 8-28 days

Maternal chickenpox
Aciclovir (800mg PO 5 tds) if within 24 hours rash onset and >20 weeks gestation
Serial US examinations to identify fetal abnormalities

Varicella of the newborn - VZIG +/- aciclovir

352
Q

Describe the inheritance of rhesus status

A

D antigen gene (positive) is dominant, d (lacking D antigen so negative) is recessive

If mother is negative (homozygous) and father is positive (heterozgous) child has 50% chance of being positive, if father is positive (homozygous) child has 100% chance of being positive

353
Q

Describe the immunological response which occurs when an Rh negative mother carries a Rh negative baby

A

Mother exposed to fetal rhesus-D antigens e.g. during delivery, produces anti-D antibodies against these antigens = sensitisation
Usually doesn’t cause problems during first pregnancy, during subsequent pregnancies the anti-rheusus D antibodies can cross the placenta into the fetus, if fetus is rhesus positive maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells

354
Q

List potential rhesus sensitising events

A

Management of ectopic pregnancy
Management of molar pregnancy
Therapeutic termination of pregnancy
<12 weeks vaginal bleed which is heavy, repeated or associated with severe pain
<12 weeks medical or surgical management of miscarriage
Potentially sensitising event >12 weeks
Obstetric interventions - CVS, amniocentesis, external cephalic version in breech presentation
Abdominal injury e.g. fall, blow to abdomen
Pre-pregnancy sensitisation - ?blood transfusions
Intrauterine death
Delivery - normal, instrumental or caesarean

355
Q

Describe haemolytic disease and its presentation and consequence in the antenatal period

A

Polyhydramnios

Thickened placenta

Hydrops fetalis -
Sub-cut oedema
Pleural/pericardial effusions
Ascites
Hepato-splenomegally

In-utero demise

Anaemia

356
Q

Describe haemolytic disease and its presentation and consequences for the newborn

A

Jaundice
Hepato-spenolmegaly
Pallor
Kernicterus - bilirubin-induced brain dysfunction, causes movement disorders, auditory dysfunction, visual impairment, dental problems
Hypoglycaemia
Anaemia - can cause high-output heart failure

357
Q

Describe the monitoring of pregnancy antenatally for rhesus incompatibility and the consequences of this

A

Maternal blood group and antibody titres at booking visit and 28 weeks - determine ABO and RhD groups and detect any antibodies directed against RBC surface antigens (previous sensitisation), if rhesus-positive no further management required

If rhesus-negative without previous sensitisation - after delivery, rhesus status of baby should be checked, if RhD+ a feto-maternal haemorrhage test should be performed (Kleihauer test) - tests how much fetal blood has entered maternal circulation to determine dose of anti-D

If rhesus-negative with previous sensitisation - anti-D not effective, pregnancy monitored more closely (frequent USS), can do fetal blood group amniocentesis, free fetal DNA, paternal blood group to determine fetal Rh status

358
Q

Describe methods of preventing Rh disease and the use of Anti-D

A

All women who are RhD- are offered routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks gestation (some centres give single larger dose at 34 weeks)

Management of sensitising events:
<12 weeks - ectopic pregnancy, molar pregnancy, termination or heavy uterine bleeding, give 250 IU anti-D within 72 hours of event
12-20 weeks - any potential sensitising event, 250 IU anti-D within 72 hours of event
>20 weeks - any potential sensitising event, 500 IU within 72 hours of event, dose increased depending on size of feto-maternal haemorrhage

359
Q

How is in-utero haemolytic disease managed?

A

Neonatal exchange transfusion
Early delivery

360
Q

List the common physiological changes to the skin in pregnancy

A

Increased skin pigmentation due to increased melanocyte stimulating hormone - linea nigra and melasma
Striae gravidarum - stretch marks on expanding abdomen
Pruritus - can be normal, can indicate obstetric cholestasis
Spider naevi
Palmar erythema
Greasier skin
Hair and nail changes - increased growth during pregnancy then post-partum hair loss

361
Q

Describe the presentation of atopic eruption of pregnancy

A

Onset early in pregnancy - <3rd trimester
Trunk and limbs involved
20% have previous history of eczema

Eczematous type - rough, red patches
Prurigo - bumps

362
Q

How is atopic eruption of pregnancy managed?

A

Emollients
Aqueous cream and menthol 1-2%
Topical steroids
Antihistamines
Narrow band UVB 2nd line
Oral steroids if severe (30mg pred)

363
Q

Describe the presentation of polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

A

3rd trimester or post-partum
3/4 primigravid
Pruritic eruption lower abdomen and striae with umbilical sparing and distant spread

364
Q

How is polymorphic eruption of pregnancy managed?

A

Provide self-care advice to relieve itching
Prescribe symptomatic treatment where necessary
Emollients can be used liberally to soothe the skin
Moderately-potent topical corticosteroids can be used to reduce inflammation
Offer a sedating antihistamine (such as chlorphenamine or promethazine) if itch is causing sleeping difficulties (off-label indication)

365
Q

Describe the presentation of pemphigoid gestationis, its pathophysiology and associated risks

A

Rare
2nd/3rd trimester
Urticarial lesions, wheals and bullae, umbilical area

Pathophysiology
Autoimmune - binding of IgG to basement membrane

Risks are rare and include
Premature delivery
Fetal growth restriction
Transient blistering on the infant that resolves with clearance of maternal antibodies (about 3-4 months) – 10%
Secondary infection, which may leave scarring

366
Q

How is pemphigoid gestationis managed?

A

Refer to derm and obs
Mild - topical steroids, antihistamines
Moderate and severe - systemic steroids
Additional monitoring due to risk of pre-term birth and reduced fetal growth

367
Q

Which antihypertensives are contraindicated in pregnancy and which are safe to use?

A

Should be stopped:
ACE inhibitors
ARBs
Thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics

Not known to be harmful:
Labetalol (beta-blocker)
Calcium channel blockers e.g. nifedipine
Alpha blockers e.g. doxazocin

368
Q

Describe the risk of VTE in pregnancy

A

Pregnancy is a major risk factor for VTE - 4-5x increased risk
Risk increases as pregnancy progresses - highest risk is post-partum

369
Q

List risk factors for VTE in pregnancy

A

Pre-existing factors:
Age >35
BMI >30
Parity >3
Smoking
Varicose veins
Thrombophilia
Medical co-morbidities e.g. cancer

Obstetric factors:
Multiple pregnancy
Pre-eclampsia
Caesarean section
Prolonged labour
Stillbirth
Pre-term birth
PPH

Transient factors:
Surgical procedures
Dehydration e.g. hyperemesis
Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
Admission or immobility
Systemic infection
Long distance travel

370
Q

How is VTE in pregnancy managed?

A

LMWH immediately following diagnosis - titrated against booking weight
Anticoagulation maintained throughout pregnancy if confirmed VTE until 6-12 weeks post-partum
Omit dose 24 hours before any planned induction of labour or caesarean section, and should not take dose if they think they are going into labour

Warfarin never used - teratogenic, can lead to foetal loss through haemorrhage

371
Q

Describe prophylaxis of VTE in pregnancy

A

Assess risk in early pregnancy, intrapartum and postnatal periods

Thromboprophylaxis (LMWH) given if - >4 risk factors in first 2 trimesters, >3 in 3rd and >2 in post-partum period

Continue until 6 weeks post-partum

372
Q

What are the effects of CKD on pregnancy?

A

Increased risk of adverse outcomes e.g. pre-eclampsia, fetal growth restriction, pre-term delivery, accelerated loss of maternal renal function

Some medications contraindicated e.g. myophenolate mofetil (teratogenic), antihypertensives (ACEi, ARBs)

Risk of inherited renal diseases - genetic counselling

Optimisation of management pre-pregnancy recommended including blood pressure control, glycaemic control

Assess renal function in pregnancy with serum creatinine (eGFR not reliable)

Increased risk VTE (LMWH prophylaxis?), anaemia (iron, erythropoietin stimulating agents), vitamin D deficiency,

373
Q

Describe the presentation of obstetric cholestasis

A

Typically in 3rd trimester
Pruritis - palms or hands and soles of feet
Fatigue
Dark urine
Pale, greasy stools
Jaundice
No rash
Deranged LFTs - ALT, AST, GGT, bilirubin

374
Q

Describe the normal change in ALP which occurs during pregnancy

A

Placental produces ALP - rises during pregnancy

375
Q

How is obstetric cholestasis managed?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid
Symptomatic management of itch - emollients, antihistamines

Water-soluble vitamin K if clotting (prothrombin time) deranged

Monitor LFTs during pregnancy and after delivery to ensure condition resolves

May need planned pregnancy after 37 weeks if LFTs severely deranged, risk of stillbirth

376
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of acute fatty liver or pregnancy

A

Impaired processing of fatty acids in the placenta due to fetal condition which impaires fatty acid metabolism (most common is long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency, autosomal recessive)
Fatty acids enter maternal circulation, accumulate in liver –> acute hepatitis

377
Q

Describe the presentation of acute fatty liver of pregnancy

A

Symptoms of hepatitis:
General malaise and fatigue
Nausea and vomiting
Jaundice
Abdominal pain
Anorexia
Ascites

Raised ALT/AST, raised bilirubin, raised WBC, deranged clotting, low platelets

378
Q

How is acute fatty liver of pregnancy managed?

A

Obstetric emergency - admission and delivery
Treatment of acute liver failure, consideration of liver transplant

379
Q

How are women monitored for anaemia during pregnancy?

A

Screened for anaemia at booking clinic and 28 weeks

Hb >110 at booking, >105 at 28 weeks, >100 post-partum

Offered haemoglobinopathy screening at booking clinic for thalassaemia and sickle cell disease (sickle cell only in those with higher risk)

Additional investigations to determine cause of anaemia e.g. ferritin, B12, folate

380
Q

How is anaemia in pregnancy managed?

A

Iron replacement
B12 replacement
Folic acid supplement

381
Q

How is anti-phospholipid syndrome managed in pregnancy?

A

LMWH + aspirin to reduce risk of complications

382
Q

How are maternal deaths reported in the UK?

A

Mothers and Babies: Reducing Risk through Adult and Confidential Enquires across the UK (M-BRRACE)

Surveillance of all maternal deaths, confidential enquiries into maternal deaths up to a year after the end of pregnancy, enquiries into cases of serious maternal morbidity, surveillance of perinatal deaths

383
Q

Define maternal death

A

Death of a pregnant mother due to complications related to pregnancy, underlying conditions worsened by the pregnancy or management of these conditions

384
Q

Define direct, indirect, coincidental and late maternal death

A

Direct - as a consequence of a disorder specific to pregnancy
Indirect - deaths resulting from previous existing disease, or disease that developed during pregnancy and which was not due to obstetric causes but aggravated by pregnancy
Coincidental - incidental/accidental deaths not due to pregnancy or aggravated by pregnancy
Late - occurring more than 42 days but less than a year after the end of pregnancy

385
Q

What is the leading cause of indirect maternal death in the UK?

A

Cardiac disease

386
Q

What is the leading cause of direct maternal death in the UK?

A

Thrombosis and thromboembolism

387
Q

What is the leading cause of late maternal death in the UK?

A

Incidental malignancy (then suicide)

388
Q

Define antepartum haemorrhage

A

Bleeding from or in to the genital tract, occurring from 24+0 weeks of pregnancy and prior to the birth of the baby

389
Q

List causes of antepartum haemorrhage

A

Plactental abruption
Placenta praevia
Vasa praevia
Uterine rupture
Circumvallate placenta
Placental sinuses
Lower genital tract sources - cervical polyps, cervical erosions and carcinoma, cervicitis, vaginitis, vulval varicosities

390
Q

Define placenta praevia

A

Placenta fully or partially attached to lower uterine segment
Minor (grade 1/2) - placenta low in uterus but does not cover the internal cervical os
Major (grade 3/4) - placenta lies over internal cervical os

391
Q

List risk factors for placenta praevia

A

Previous caesarean section
High parity
Maternal age >40
Multiple pregnancy
Previous placenta praevia
History of uterine infection (endometritis)
Curettage of endometrium after miscarriage or termination

392
Q

Describe the presentation of placenta praevia

A

Antepartum haemorrhage - painless vaginal bleeding, can be from spotting to major haemorrhage
Can be pain if in labour
Typically non-tender uterus
Lie and presentation may be abnormal
Low lying placenta on 20-week scan

393
Q

How should a woman with antepartum vaginal bleeding be assessed?

A

History:
How much?
When did it start?
Was it fresh red or brown, mixed with mucus?
Could the waters have broken?
Was it provoked (post-coital)?
Abdominal pain? Fetal movements?
Risk factors for abruptions - smoking, drug-use, trauma - especially domestic violence

Examination:
A-E if potentially clinically unstable
Abdominal tenderness?
Uterus consistency - woody, tense = abruption
Palpable contractions?
Lie and presentation of fetus
CTG if >26 weeks

Assess bleeding
Cusco speculum examination - only after placenta praevia excluded by USS
Genital swabs to exclude infection if bleeding minimal
Digital vaginal examination - only when placenta praevia excluded, can determine cervical dilation, avoid if membranes have ruptured

394
Q

How is placenta praevia diagnosed?

A

Ultrasound - short distance between lower edge of placenta and internal os

395
Q

How is placenta praevia managed?

A

A-E approach if significant bleeding
Definitive control of bleeding - emergency CS, uterine artery ligation or embolisation, intrauterine balloon tamponade, emergency hysterectomy
(Give anti-D within 72 hours of onset of bleeding if rhesus D negative)

If identified in asymptomatic patient on 20-week US
Minor - repeat scan at 36 weeks, likely to have moved superiorly
Major - repeat scan at 32 weeks, plan for delivery

Confirmed placenta praevia - caesarean section is safety mode of delivery, usually elective at 38 weeks

396
Q

Define placenta abruption and describe the main patterns of disease

A

Complete or partial detachment of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery

Revealed - blood tracks down from site of placental separation between membranes and out of cervix causing vaginal bleeding
Concealed - bleeding remains within the uterus, typically forming a clot retroplacentally, bleeding is not visible but can be severe

397
Q

List risk factors for placental abruption

A

Previous placental abruption
Pre-eclampsia and other hypertensive disorders
Abnormal lie of baby e.g. transverse
Polyhydramnios
Abdominal trauma
Smoking or drug use e.g. cocaine
Bleeding in first trimester
Underlying thrombophilias
Multiple pregnancy
Increased maternal age

398
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of maternal abruption

A

Antepartum haemorrhage - painful vaginal bleeding (may be concealed)
Pain between contractions if in labour
Back pain if posterior abruption
Symptoms of shock - loss of consciousness, dizziness
Woody uterus (constantly tense), painful on palpation
Absent/distressed fetal heart

399
Q

How is placental abruption diagnosed?

A

Clinical diagnosis
USS if patient stable - identify location of bleeding, poor negative predictive value so should not be used to exclude abruption

400
Q

How is placental abruption managed?

A

A-E approach if significant bleeding
Emergency delivery if maternal/fetal compromise - usually CS unless spontaneous delivery is imminent or operative vaginal birth is possible
Induction of labour - haemorrhage at term without maternal or fetal compromise
Conservative management - partial or marginal abruptions not associated with maternal or fetal compromise

Give anti-D within 72 hours of onset of bleeding if woman is rhesus D negative

401
Q

What are the potential complications of placental abruption for the mother and fetus?

A

Mother:
Major haemorrhage
Shock - Sheehan syndrome
DIC - due to release of thromboplastin from placental haematoma
Post-partum haemorrhage

Fetus:
Placental insufficiency - hypoxia and intrauterine growth restriction
Premature birth
Stillbirth

402
Q

Define vasa praevia

A

Fetal blood vessels (the two umbilical arteries and single umbilical vein) are within the fetal membranes and run across the internal cervical os

403
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of vasa praevia

A

Painless vaginal bleeding
Rupture of membranes
Fetal bradycardia
Soft-non-tender uterus

404
Q

How is vasa praevia managed?

A

If seen on US - elective CS at 34-36 weeks
Steroids given from 32 weeks to promote fetal lung maturity
If antepartum haemorrhage - emergency caesarean section

405
Q

Define uterine rupture

A

Full-thickness disruption of the uterine muscle and overlying serosa

Incomplete - peritoneum overlying uterus is intact, uterine contents remain in the peritoneal cavity
Complete - peritoneum is torn, uterine contents escape into peritoneal cavity

406
Q

List risk factors for uterine rupture

A

Previous caesarean section - vertical (classical) incisions are highest risk
Previous uterine surgery
Induction or augmentation of labour - particularly with prostaglandins
Obstruction of labour
Multiple pregnancy
Multiparity

407
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of uterine rupture

A

Sudden severe abdominal pain which persists between contractions
Shoulder-tip pain
Vaginal bleeding
Regression of presenting part
Scar tenderness
Palpable fetal parts
Signs of hypovolaemic shock
Fetal distress or absent heart sounds

408
Q

How is uterine ruptured managed?

A

A-E assessment
Resuscitation - protect airway, oxygen, assess circulatory compromise and manage, monitor GCS
Delivery by caesarean section, uterus repaired or removed (hysterectomy)
Decision-incision interval should be less than 30 minutes

409
Q

Define post-partum haemorrhage and list types of PPH

A

Any bleeding from or in to the genital tract following delivery of the infant

Primary – occurring within 24 hours of delivery

Secondary – occurring between 24 hours and 12 weeks postnatally

Minor – loss of 500-1000ml
Moderate - loss of 1000-2000ml
Severe – loss of >2000ml
Moderat/severe = major

410
Q

List causes of primary post-partum haemorrhage

A

Tone - uterine atony:
Maternal factors - age >40, BMI >35, Asian
Uterine over-distension - multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnios, fetal macrosomia
Labour - induction, prolonged (>12 hours)
Placental problems - placenta praevia, placental abruption, previous PPH

Tissue - retention of placental tissue

Trauma - damage sustained to reproductive tract during delivery e.g. vaginal tears, cervical tears
Instrumental vaginal deliveries - forceps or ventouse
Episiotomy
C-section

Thrombin - coagulopathies and vascular abnormalities which increase the risk of PPH
Vascular - placental abruption, hypertension, pre-eclampsia
Coagulopathies - VWD, haemophilia A/B, ITP, DIC, HELLP

411
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of primary PPH

A

Bleeding from the vagina
Dizziness, palpitations, SOB
Haemodynamic instability - tachypnoea, prolonged CRT, tachycardia, hypotension
Missing cotyledon or ragged membranes of placenta - could have retained tissue

412
Q

Describe the general principles of management of primary PPH

A

Simultaneous
T - teamwork
R - resusciation
I - investigations and monitoring
M - measures to arrest bleeding (definitive management)

Resusciation - A-E

Investigations:
FBC
Crossmatch 4-6 units of blood
Coagulation profile
U&Es
LFTs

Definitive management - dependent on cause:
Uterine atony - bimanual compression, pharmacological measures (uterotonics), surgical measures (balloon tamponade, haemostatic suture around uterus, bilateral uterine or internal iliac artery ligation, hysterectomy)
Trauma - primary repair of laceration, hysterectomy
Tissue - IV oxytocin, manual removal or placental, prophylactic antibiotics
Thrombin - correct coagulation abnormalities with blood products

413
Q

Describe measures which are used to manage primary PPH caused by uterine atony

A

Bimanual compression - insert gloved hand into vagina, form a fist inside anterior fornix to compress anterior uterine wall and other hand applies pressure on abdomen at posterior aspect of uterus (empty bladder with catherisation)

Uterotonic drugs:
Syntocinon (injection & infusion)
Ergometrine (injection)
Carboprost (Haemabate) (IM injection)
Misoprostol (suppository)

Surgical measures:
Intrauterine balloon tamponade
B-lynch suture - haemostatic suture around uterus
Bilateral uterine or internal iliac artery ligation
Hysterectomy

414
Q

Describe the ABC approach to management of PPH

A

A
Protect airway - reducing consciousness

B
Oxygen mask 15L

C
Fluid resuscitation - IV Hartmann’s or blood transfusion
Keep patient warm

Investigations/monitoring
14G cannulae x2
FBC, coagulation, U&Es, LFTs
Crossmatch - 4 units RBC, FFP, PLT, cryoprecipitate
ECG
Oximeter
Foley catheter
Hb bedside
Consider central/arterial lines
Weigh all swabs to estimate blood loss

415
Q

List causes of secondary PPH

A

Uterine infection - endometritis
Risk factors - caesarean section, premature rupture of membranes, long labour

Retained placental fragments or tissue

Abdominal involution of placental site - inadequate closure and sloughing of spiral arteries at placental attachment site

Trophoblastic disease - rare

416
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of secondary PPH

A

Excessive vaginal bleeding - usually not as severe as primary, 10% prevent with massive haemorrhage
Endometritis - fever/rigors, lower abdominal pain, foul smelling lochia, lower abdominal tenderness
Retained placenta - uterus high

417
Q

How is secondary PPH managed?

A

Antibiotics - ampicillin + metronidazole
+ gentamicin if endomyometritis or overt sepsis

Uterotonics - syntocinon, syntometrine, carboprost, misoprostol

Surgical measures if excessive or continued bleeding
Intrauterine balloon catheter
Removal or retained products of conception (risk of uterine perforation)

418
Q

What are the two main causes of significant haemorrhage in early pregnancy?

A

Miscarriage - usually visualised vaginally, can cause cervical shock if POC or clots in os
Ectopic pregnancy - often concealed bleeding, can become unstable quickly

419
Q

Describe the changes in blood pressure which occur during pregnancy

A

BP decreases during 1st and 2nd trimesters
Increases during third trimester, returning close to preconception levels post-partum

420
Q

Define hypertension in pregnancy and describe classification of hypertension in pregnancy

A

Hypertension - DBP 90-109 and/or SBP 140-159

Severe hypertension - DBP >110 and/or SBO >160

Chronic hypertension - hypertension present at or prior to booking visit or before 20 weeks gestation

Gestational hypertension - new hypertension after 20 weeks gestation without significant proteinuria

421
Q

Define pre-eclampsia and severe pre-eclampsia

A

New onset hypertension (>140 SBP and/or >90 DBP) after 20 weeks of pregnancy and the co-existence or 1 or more of the following new-onset conditions (end-organ dysfunction):
Proteinuria
Renal insufficiency - creatinine >90
Liver involvement - elevated ALT/AST, RUQ/epigastric pain
Neurological complications - eclampsia, altered mental status, blindness, stroke, clonus, severe headaches, persistent visual scotoma
Haematological complications - thrombocytopaenia, DIC, haemolysis
Uteroplacental dysfunction - fetal growth restriction, abnormal umbilical artery doppler, stillbirth

Severe pre-eclampsia - SBP >160 and/or DBP >110 with worsening maternal organ dysfunction or worsening fetal growth restriction

422
Q

Define eclampsia

A

Occurrence of one or more seizures in a woman with pre-eclampsia (in the absence of any other neurological or metabolic causes)

423
Q

List risk factors for pre-eclampsia

A

Moderate risk factors:
Nulliparity
Maternal age >40
Maternal BMi >35
Family history
Pregnancy interval >10 years
Multiple pregnancy

High risk factors:
Chronic hypertension
HTN, pre-eclampsia or eclampsia in previous pregnancy
Pre-existing CKD
Diabetes
Autoimmune diseases e.g. SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome

424
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of pre-eclampsia

A

Severe headaches - usually frontal, increasing frequency not relieved by regular analgesics
Visual disturbance - blurred vision, flashing lights, double vision, floaters
Persistent new epigastric pain or RUQ pain
Vomiting
Breathlessness
Sudden swelling of face, hands, feet
Hyperreflexia
Reduced urine output

425
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of pre-eclampsia

A

High vascular resistance in the spiral arteries and poor perfusion of the placenta, causes oxidative stress in the placenta, and release of inflammatory chemicals into the systemic circulation, leading to systemic inflammation and impaired endothelial function in the blood vessels

426
Q

List the potential maternal complications of pre-eclampsia

A

Eclampsia - seizures
Acute renal failure
Liver dysfunction
Coagulation abnormalties - DIC
Intracranial haemorrhage
Cerebral infarction
Cerebral oedema
Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Pulmonary oedema
Hepatic rupture
HELLP syndrome - haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
Death

427
Q

List the potential fetal complications of pre-eclampsia

A

Prematurity
Intrauterine growth restriction
Placental abruption
Intra-uterine fetal death
Stillbirth
Neonatal death

428
Q

Describe interventions used to reduce the risk of developming pre-eclampsia

A

75mg aspirin per day for women with 1 high risk factor or 2 or more moderate risk factors - from 12 weeks gestation until birth

Monitored at every antenatal appointment for evidence of pre-eclampsia:
Blood pressure
Symptoms
Urine dipstick for proteinuria

429
Q

Describe the management of chronic hypertension in pregnancy

A

Lifestyle advice - exercise, healthy diet, restrict dietary salt
Make aware of risk of pre-eclampsia
Stop ACEi, ARBs, thiazide/thiazide-like diuretics
Use anti-hypertensives safe for pregnancy - labetalol, nifedipine, methyldopa

430
Q

List pharmacological anti-hypertensive agents used in pregnancy, describe their mechanism of action and common side effects

A
431
Q

List investigations used in pre-eclampsia

A

Blood pressure
Urinalysis for proteinuria - abnormal if >30
Bloods - FBC, U&Es, LFTs, coagulation (end-organ dysfunction
Placental growth factor testing - measure between 20-35 weeks to rule-out pre-eclampsia, low in pre-eclampsia

432
Q

Describe the principles of management of pre-eclampsia

A

Usually require inpatient management - scoring systems e.g. fullPIERS or PREP-S
VTE prevention - LMWH
Manage fluid balance - risk of renal failure vs pulmonary oedema
Antihypertensives - reduce risk of maternal complications, don’t alter disease course
Delivery - definitive treatment, planned early birth if BP can’t be controlled or complications occur, steroids given to help mature fetal lungs

433
Q

Describe pharmacological therapy in pre-eclampsia

A

Antihypertensives:
1st line - labetalol
Nifedipine
Methyldopa
IV hydralazine - in ICU

IV magnesium during labour and during 24 hours after - prevent seizures

434
Q

How is pre-eclampsia monitored post-natally?

A

Monitor for seizures for at least 24 hours post-partum
Switch to one or combination of - enalapril (1st line), nifedipine or amlodipine, labetolol or atenolol

435
Q

How is eclampsia managed?

A

IV magnesium sulphate

436
Q

Define HELLP syndrome

A

Complication of pre-eclampsia and eclampsia
Haemolysis
Elevated liver enzymes
Low platelets

437
Q

Describe the ABC management of eclampsia

A

Call for help
Control seizures - IV magnesium sulphate
Airway - left-lateral position, intubation?
Breathing - high flow oxygen
Circulation - IV access and bloods

438
Q

Describe the clinical presentation and management of magnesium sulfate toxicity

A

Signs:
Loss of deep tendon reflexes
Respiratory depression
Respiratory arrest
Cardiac arrest

Management:
Stop magnesium sulfate
Start BLS
IV calcium gluconate
Intubate early and ventilate until respiration resumes

439
Q

Describe the long-term implications of pre-eclampsia and eclampsia

A

Increased risk of pre-eclampsia in future pregnancies - 1 in 6
If severe pre-eclampsia/HELLP/eclampsia - early planned delivery in subsequent pregnancies

Increased risk hypertension and complications in later life (3-4x increased risk)

440
Q

Define maternal collapse

A

An acute event involving the cardiorespiratory systems and/or brain, resulting in a reduced or absent conscious level (and potentially death), at any stage in pregnancy and up to six weeks after delivery

441
Q

Describe the incidence of maternal collapse and the significant of this

A

Rare - healthcare workers not used to managing, need to give training for initial resuscitation, initial investigations and diagnosis, directed continuing management

442
Q

Describe the ABC approach to maternal collapse

A

Call for help
Check responsiveness - A-E approach, aim for SpO2 94-98%, normal PaCO2, 12-lead ECG, treat precipitating cause, targeted temperature management
Open airway
Check for breathing
If unresponsive and not breathing normally - ALS algorithm

443
Q

List consideration for resuscitation in a pregnant patient

A

Cardiovascular:
Increased plasma volume - dilutional anaemia, reduced oxygen carrying capacity
Increased heart rate, cardiac output, decreased venous return - increased CPR circulation demands
Cardiac output reduced by pressure of uterus on IVC
Uterine blood flow - potential for rapid massive haemorrhage
Arterial blood pressure lower - decreased reserve

Respiratory:
Respiratory rate increased, residual capacity decreased, arterial PCO2 decreased - acidosis more likely
Oxygen consumption increased by 20% - hypoxia develops more quickly
Laryngeal oedema - difficult intubation

Other:
Decreased gastric motility, lower oesophageal sphincter tone - increased risk aspiration
Uterus aortocaval compression causes supine hypertension, reduced venous return, reduces residual capacity
Increased weight makes ventilation more difficulty

444
Q

Describe the resuscitation council ALS algorithm

A

Patient unresponsive and not beathing normally
Call resusciation team
CPR 30:2 - attach defibrillator/monitor, minimise interruptions
Assess rhythm - shockable, non-shockable, return of spontaneous circulation

445
Q

Describe the additional steps required for resuscitation of a pregnant women

A

Displace uterus (left lateral) >20 weeks
Call obstetric team, resuscitation team, neonatal team
100 O2, intubate early, 2x wide bore cannulae
If no response to CPR after 4 minutes proceed to delivery/perimortem caesarean section - primarily to save mothers life (makes resuscitation easier)

446
Q

List the broad causes of collapse in obstetrics and gynaecology

A

4 Hs
Hypoxia
Hypovolaemia
Hypo/hyperkalaemia
Hypothermia

4 Ts
Thromboembolism
Toxic
Tamponade
Tension pneumothorax

In pregnancy
Eclampsia, including magnesium toxicity
Amniotic fluid embolism

447
Q

Describe the categorisation of caesarean sections

A

1 - immediate threat to life of woman or fetus
2- maternal or fetal compromise that is not immediately life-threatening
3 - no maternal or fetal compromise but needs early delivery
4 - elective

448
Q

List endications for an elective caesarean section

A

Breech at term
Other malpresentations e.g. unstable lie, transverse lie, oblique lie
Twin pregnancy - first twin not cephalic
Maternal medical conditions where labour would be dangerous for mother
Fetal compromise - early onset growth restriction, abnormal fetal doppler (labour dangerous for fetus)
Transmissible disease - HIV with detectable viral load
Primary genital herpes in third trimester
Placenta praevia
Maternal diabetes - fetal weight >4.5kg
Previous major shoulder dystocia
Previous 3rd/4th degree perineal tear
Maternal request

449
Q

Describe the pre-operative management of women undergoing a caesarean section

A

FBC and group and save
H2-receptor antagonist - risk of aspiration and pneumonitis
Risk of VTE assessed - anti-thromboembolic stockings +/- LMWH

450
Q

List the layers which have to be dissected during a caesarean section

A

Skin - pfannenstiel or Joel-Cohen incision
Scarpa’s fascia
Rectus sheath
Rectus muscle
Abdominal peritoneum - parietal
Parietal peritoneum
Uterus

451
Q

List complications of caesarean section

A

Immediate:
PPH
Wound haematoma
Intra-abdominal haemorrhage
Bladder/bowel trauma
Neonatal - transient tachypnoea of the newborn, fetal lacerations

Intermediate:
Infections - UTI, endometritis, respiratory
VTE

Late:
Urinary tract trauma (fistula)
Subfertility
Rupture/dehiscence of scar at next labour
Placenta praevia/accreta
Caesarean scar ectopic pregnancy

452
Q

What are the options for delivery in a patient who has previously had a caesarean section?

A

Vaginal birth after Caesarean section (VBAC)
Planned elective repeat Caesarean

453
Q

Describe the risks and benefits of VBAC

A

Risks -
Uterine rupture - 0.5%
Anal sphincter injury
Maternal death
Transient respiratory difficulties for neonate
Hypoxic ischamic encephalopathy in neonate
Stillbirth risk >39 weeks while waiting for spontaneous labour

Benefits -
Lower risk of maternal death than elective CS
Shorter hospital stay and recovery if successful
Good chance of future successful VBACs if successful
Lower risk transient neonatal respiratory morbidity than elective CS
Lower risk placental problems vs elective CS

454
Q

What are the contraindications to VBAC?

A

Absolute - classical caesarean scar, previous uterine rupture, contraindications to vaginal birth e.g. placenta praevia
Relative - complex uterine scares or >2 prior lower segment caesarean sections

455
Q

Describe management of VBAC

A

Continuous CTG monitoring
Monitor for signs of uterine rupture e.g. increased analgesic requirements
Avoid induction and augmentation

456
Q

Define lie, presentation and position. What is considered normal for each of these?

A

Lie - relationship between long axis of fetus and mother e.g. transverse, longitudinal, oblique
Longitudinal normal at term

Presentation - fetal part that first enters the maternal pelvis
Cephalic vertex normal

Position - position of fetal head as it exists the birth canal
Occipito-anterior normal

457
Q

How is abnormal fetal lie managed?

A

Attempt external cephalic version - between 36-38 weeks
50% success in primiparous, 60% in multiparous

If unsuccessful - trial of vaginal birth or elective caesarean section

458
Q

What are the risks and contraindications of external cephalic version?

A

Risks - fetal distress, premature rupture of membranes, antepartum haemorrhage, placental abruption, need for emergency caesarean

Contraindications - recent antepartum haemorrhage, ruptured membranes, uterine abnormalities, previous C-section

459
Q

How is malpresentation managed?

A

Dependent on presentation:

Breech - attempt ECV before labour, vaginal breech deliver or C-section

Brow - C-section

Face
Chin anterior - normal labour, may be prolonged and require C-section
Chin posterior - C-section

Shoulder - C-section

460
Q

How is malposition managed?

A

90% spontaneously rotate to normal
If doesn’t rotate - rotation and operative vaginal delivery can be attempted, or C-section

461
Q

List the types of breech presentation

A

Complete (flexed) breech – both legs are flexed at the hips and knees (fetus appears to be sitting ‘crossed-legged’)

Frank (extended) breech – both legs are flexed at the hip and extended at the knee, most common

Footling breech – one or both legs extended at the hip, so that the foot is the presenting part

462
Q

List risk factors for breech presentation

A

Uterine:
Multiparity
Uterine malformations e.g. septate utrus
Fibroids
Placenta praevia

Fetal:
Prematurity
Macrosomia
Polyhydramnios
Multiple pregnancy
Abnormality e.g. anencephaly

463
Q

How is breech presentation managed?

A

ECV

If unsuccessful C-section recommended - increased perinatal morbidity and mortality in planned vaginal breech birth in term babies, no difference in maternal outcomes

Vaginal brrech birth - if maternal choice or prsenting in advanced labour
Contraindicated in footling delivery
Don’t put traction on baby - can cause head to extend and get caught
Need to flex knees, use Lovsett’s manoeuvre to rotate body and delivery shoulders and use the Mauriceau-Smellie-Viet manoeuvre to deliver the head by flexion (or forceps)

464
Q

List complications of breech presentation

A

Cord prolapse
Fetal head entrapment
Premature rupture of membranes
Birth asphyxia
Intracranial haemorrhage

465
Q

Define polyhydramnios

A

Polyhydramnios refers to an abnormally large level of amniotic fluid during pregnancy.

It is defined by an amniotic fluid index that is above the 95th centile for gestational age.

466
Q

Describe the aetiology of polyhydramnios

A

Idiopathic in 50-60%
Anything which stops fetus from swallowing - oesophageal atresia, CNS abnormalities, muscular dystrophies, congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Duodenal atresia - ‘double bubble’ sign on US
Anaemia
Fetal hydrops
Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome
Increased lung secretions
Genetic or chromosomal abnormalities
Maternal diabetes
Maternal ingestion of lithium - fetal diabetes insipidus
Macrosomia

467
Q

Describe diagnosis of oligohydramnios/polyhydramnios

A

Via USS

Amniotic fluid index - maximum cord-free vertical pocket of fluid in four quadrants, add together

OR

Maximum pool depth - vertical measurement in any area

468
Q

How is polyhydramnios managed?

A

Usually no intervention required

Severe maternal symptoms e.g. breathlessness can consider amnioreduction but risk of infection and placental abruption

Indomethacin - enhances water retention, associated with premature closure of ductus arteriosis, not used >32 weeks

If idiopathic baby should be examined by paediatrician before feeding - NG tube passed to ensure there is no oesophageal abnormalities

469
Q

Define oligohydramnios

A

Low level of amniotic fluid during pregnancy

Amniotic fluid index below the 5th centile for gestational age

470
Q

List causes of oligohydramnios

A

Preterm prelabour rupture of membranes
Placental insufficiency
Renal agenesis - Potter’s syndrome
Non-functioning fetal kidneys
Obstructive uropathy
Genetic/chromosomal anomalies
Viral infections - may cause polyhydramnios

471
Q

How is oligohydramnios managed?

A

Ruptured membranes - labour likely to commence within 24-48 hours, if doesn’t start induction should be considered around 34-36 weeks (in the absence of infection)
Course of steroids for fetal lung development, antibiotics to reduce risk of ascending infection

472
Q

Define placenta accreta

A

Abnormal trophoblast invasion of part or all of the placenta into the myometrium of the uterine wall

Range of pathologic adherence of the placenta, including placenta increta, placenta percreta, and placenta accreta
Accreta - implants in surface of myometrium but not beyond
Increta - attaches deeply to myometrium
Percreta - invades past myometrium and perimetrium, potentially reaching other organs such as bladder

473
Q

List risk factors for placenta accreta

A

Previous placenta accreta
Previous endometrial curettage procedures (e.g. for miscarriage or abortion)
Previous caesarean section
Multigravida
Increased maternal age
Low-lying placenta or placenta praevia

474
Q

Describe the presentation of placenta accreta

A

Asymptomatic typically
Can cause antepartum haemorrhage in third trimester
May be noticed on US
May only present at birth when difficult to deliver placenta
Post-partum haemorrhage

475
Q

How is placenta accreta managed?

A

Blood transfusion
Intensive care for mother and neonate

Planned delivery 35 - 36+6 weeks
Hysterectomy recommended
Can also do uterus preserving surgery with resection of myometrium with placenta
Expectant management - leave placenta to be reabsorbed over time, risks of bleeding and infection

476
Q

List types of barrier contraception and benefits/drawbacks of each

A

Male condom:
Protective against many STIs
Incorrect use/failure common - 16% failure with typical use

Female condom:
Less likely to tear
May protect against some STIs
21% failure with typical use

Diaphragm:
Require planning to insert
Require measuring and fitting
Higher risk UTIs
Don’t protect against UTIs

Higher failure rates than long acting reversible options but protection against STIs from some

477
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of combined hormonal contraceptives

A

Inhibit ovulation due to negative feedback effect of oestrogen and progesterone on HPO axis, prevents LH surge thus preventing ovulation
Progesterone also inhibits proliferation of endometrium, increases thickness of cervical mucus

478
Q

List the forms of combined hormonal contraception

A

COCP:
Monophasic - same level of oestrogen and progesterone throughout
Phasic - levels change throughout cycle

Transdermal patch

Vaginal ring

479
Q

List advantages and disadvantages of combined hormonal contraceptives

A

Advantages:
Non-invasive
More effective than barrier if taken correctly
Doesn’t interrupt sex
Menses lighter, less painful, more regular
Reduced risk of ovarian, uterine and colon cancer
Reduced risk functional ovarian cysts
Normal fertility immediately after stopping

Disadvantages:
User dependent
Adverse effects - headaches, breast tenderness, mood changes
BP increase
VTE risk
MI/stroke risk
Breast/cervical cancer risk

480
Q

What are the contraindications to combined hormonal contraception use?

A

BMI >35
Breast feeding
Smoking over the age of 35
Hypertension
History of or family history VTE
Prolonged immobility due to surgery or disability
Diabetes mellitus with complications e.g. retinopathy
History of migraines with aura
Breast cancer or primary liver tumours

481
Q

List options for emergency contraception

A

Morning after pill - emergency hormonal contraception
Levonorgestrel
Ulipristal acetate

Intrauterine device - copper coil

482
Q

Describe the use and contraindications of emergency contraceptive options

A

Levonorgestrel - delays ovulation, licensed for use within 72 hours of UPSI, contraindicated in malabsorption, high BMI, with enzyme inducing drugs, if refuses IUD then double dose

Ulipristal acetate - delays ovulation, licensed for use within 120 hours of UPSI, contraindicated in malapsorption, severe hepatic dysfunction, enzyme inducing drugs, breast feeding, uncontrolled asthma, drugs which increase gastric pH (omeprazole, ranitidine)

Copper IUD - used within 5 days of UPSI, prevents implantation, provides cover for 5-10 years, contraindicated in conditions which distort uterine cavity e.g. fibroids, PID, STI

483
Q

How should women taking emergency contraception be followed-up? List the potential adverse effect they may experience

A

Hormonal:
Seek help if vomiting with 2 hours of levonorgestrel or 3 hours ulipristal
No protection for rest of cycle
Pregnancy test after >3 weeks to exclude pregnancy
Adverse effects - nausea, dizziness, menstrual disturbance, abdominal pain

IUD:
Increased relative risk of ectopic pregnancy following IUD insertion - be alert if period is >5 days late especially with reduced bleeding and severe lower abdominal pain
Adverse effects - pelvic infections, expulsion, bleeding, pelvic pain

484
Q

How should the COCP be started?

A

Start on first day of cycle - protected straight away
If started >5 days through cycle - require extra contraception (e.g. condoms) for first 7 days of consistent pill use
Ensure not already pregnant when starting

485
Q

How should missed COCPs be managed?

A

Missed pill = pill >24 hours late

Missing one pill (<72 hours since last pill):
Take missed pill ASAP, no extra protection required as long as pill before and after taken correctly

Missing more than one pill (>72 hours since last pill):
Take most recent pill ASAP
Additional contraception needed until they have taken the pill regularly for 7 days straight
If day 1-7 of packet need emergency contraception if they have had sex
Day 8-14 - no emergency contraceptive needed
Day 15-21 - no emergency contraception needed, take next pack back-to-back

486
Q

When should the COCP be stopped prior to surgery?

A

Stop COCP four weeks before a major operation (lasting more than 30 minutes) or any operation or procedure that requires the lower limb to be immobilised

487
Q

List options for propgesterone only contraceptives

A

Progesterone only contraceptive pill - traditional or desogestrel
Progesterone only implant - nexaplanon
Progesterone only injectable contraception - depo-provera

488
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of progesterone-only contraceptives

A

Progesterone thickens cervical mucus to prevent entry of pserm and fertilisation of the oocyte
Suppresses ovulation to varying degrees
Thins endometrium to inhibit implantation

489
Q

List advantages and disadvantages of progesterone only contraceptives

A

Advantages:
Can be used when combined contraindicated
Very effective
Reduce risk endometrial cancer?

Disadvantages:
Pill user dependent
Adverse effects - headaches, breast tenderness, skin changes
Weight gain
Increased risk breast cancer
Injection - loss of bone mineral density with long-term use
Altered bleeding patterns including persistent bleeding

490
Q

Describe use of the POP

A

Traditional - can’t be delayed >3 hours
Desogestrel - can be taken up to 12 hours late

Starting on day 1-5 of cycle - immediate protection
Started at any other time in cycle - additional contraception for 48 hours

491
Q

How are missed POPs managed?

A

Take a pill as soon as possible, continue with next pill at usual time, use extra contraception for next 48 hours of regular use
Emergency contraception required if had sex since missing pill or within 48 hours of restarting pills

492
Q

List the types of intra-uterine devices and describe their mechanisms of action

A

Copper coil - toxic to ovum and sperm, alters endometrium to inhibit implantation

Levonorgestrel intrauterine system - thickens cervical mucus, alters endometrium, inhibits ovulation in some

493
Q

List advantages, disadvantages and contraindications to intrauterine devices

A

Advantages:
Reliable, long-term, reversible
Copper - no hormones so safe for those with risk of VTE, history of hormone-related cancers, can be used as emergency contraceptive
Hormonal - lighter periods or no periods, improve dysmenorrhoea, no increased VTE risk

Disadvantages:
Requires procedure for insertion
No STI protection
Increased risk ectopic pregnancies
Can fall out
Can cause pelvic pain
Copper - heavy or intermenstrual bleeding
Hormonal - irregular bleeding, systemic side effects

Contraindications -
PID of infection
Immunosuppression
Unexplained bleeding
Pelvic cancer
Uterine cavity distortion e.g. fibroids
Wilson’s disease - copper

494
Q

Define uterine inversion

A

Rare complication of birth, where the fundus of the uterus drops down through the uterine cavity and cervix
Incomplete/partial - fundus descends inside uterus or vagina, not as far as introitus
Complete - descends through vagina to introitus

495
Q

How is uterine inversion managed?

A

Johnson manoeuvre - 1st line, push fundus into correct position, give uterotonic medications create tendion to hold in place
Hydrostatic methods - fill vagina with fluid to inflate uterus back to normal position
Surgery - if both methods fail

+ Treatment of PPH

496
Q

Define umbilical cord prolapse and describe types

A

Umbilical cord descends through the cervix, with (or before) the presenting part of the fetus

Occult (incomplete) - cord alongside but not beyond presenting part
Overt (complete) - cord past the presenting part
Cord presentation - umbilical cord between presenting part and cervix, can occur with or without intact membranes

497
Q

What are the clinical consequences of umbilical cord prolapse?

A

Fetal hypoxia because of:
Occlusion - presenting part of fetus presses on umbilical cord, occluding blood flow to fetus
Aterial vasospasm - exposure of umbilical cord to cold atmosphere causes arterial vasospasm

498
Q

List risk factors for umbilical cord prolapse

A

Breech presentation – especially footling breech
Unstable lie - >37 weeks consider admission until delivery
Artificial rupture of membranes – particularly when the presenting part is high
Polyhydramnios
Prematurity

499
Q

How does umbilical cord prolapse present?

A

Non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern - especially fetal bradycardia
Absent membranes
Digital vaginal examination - feel cord

500
Q

How is umbilical cord prolapse managed?

A

Avoid handling cord to reduce vasospasm
Manually elevate presenting part
Left lateral position or knee-chest position - reduce pressure on cord from presenting part
Consider tocolysis - delay delivery for transfer e.g. to theatre
Delivery by emergency C-section usually

501
Q

Describe the presentation of amniotic fluid embolism

A

Acute onset:
Hypoxia
Hypotension
Fetal distress
Seizures
Shock
Confusion
Cardiac arrest
DIC

502
Q

How is amniotic fluid embolism managed?

A

Resuscitation - A-E approach
Perimortem section if cardiac arrest or severe maternal compromise occur to facilitate CPR
ECG - ischaemic damage
CXR - pulmonary oedema
ICU admission

503
Q

List common causes of sepsis in pregnancy

A

Chorioamnionitis
UTIs

504
Q

Describe the aetiology and presentation of chorioamnionitis

A

Infection of the chorioamniotic membranes and amniotic fluid
Caused by variety of bacteria - gram-positive, gram-negative and anaerobes

Presentation:
Fever
Signs of sepsis - tachycardia, tachypnoea, hypotension, altered consciousness, reduced urine output, fetal compromise on CTG
Abdominal pain
Uterine tenderness
Vaginal discharge

505
Q

Describe the aetiology of shoulder dystocia

A

After delivery of the head, the anterior shoulder of the baby becomes stuck behind the pubic symphysis of the pelvis

506
Q

List risk factors for shoulder dystocia

A

Pre-labour:
Previous shoulder dystocia
Macrosomia - >4.5kg
Diabetes
Maternal BMI >30
Induction of labour

Intrapartum:
Prolonged 1st stage of labour
Secondary arrest
Prolonged second stage of labour
Augmentation of labour with oxytocin
Assisted vaginal delivery - forceps or ventouse

507
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of shoulder dystocia

A

Difficulty in delivery of fetal head or chin
Failure of restitution
Turtle neck sign - fetal head retracts into pelvic so that neck is no longer visible

508
Q

How is shoulder dystocia managed?

A

Call for help
Tell mother to stop pushing
Avoid downwards traction on fetal head - increases risk of brachial plexus injury
Do not apply fundal pressure - increases risk of uterine rupture
Consider episiotomy - makes access for manoeuvres easier

1st line manoeuvres:
McRoberts - hyperflex maternal hips, 90% success rate
Suprapubic pressure - sustained or rocking, pressure behind anterior shoulder to disimpact it from under the maternal symphysis

2nd line (internal) manoeuvres:
Posterior arm - insert hand into sacral hollow and grasp posterior arm to deliver
Internal rotation (corkscrew manoeuvre) - pressure to front of one shoulder and behind over to move baby 180 degrees or into an oblique position
If these fail roll onto all fours and repeat

Further manoeuvres:
Cleidotomy - fracture fetal clavicle
Symphysiotomy - cut pubic symphysis
Zavenelli - fetal head back into pelvis to deliver via C-section

Active management 3rd stage - risk of PPH

509
Q

List maternal and fetal complications of shoulder dystocia

A

Maternal – 3rd or 4th degree tears, post-partum haemorrhage
Fetal – humerus or clavicle fracture, brachial plexus injury, hypoxic brain injury

510
Q

Describe the legal status of female genital mutilation

A

Female genital mutilation is illegal as stated in the Female Genital Mutilation Act 2003, and there is a legal requirement for healthcare professionals to report cases of FGM to the police

511
Q

Describe the epidemiology of FGM

A

Highest rates:
Somalia
Ethiopia
Sudan
Eritrea
Yemen
Kurdistan
Indonesia

512
Q

List the types of FGM

A

Type 1 (clitoridectomy) – removing part or all of the clitoris
Type 2 (excision) – removing part or all of the clitoris and the inner labia , with or without removal of the labia majora
Type 3 (infibulation) – narrowing the vaginal opening by creating a seal, formed by cutting and repositioning the labia
Type 4 - other harmful procedures to the female genitals, including pricking, piercing, cutting, scraping or burning the area

513
Q

List complications of FGM

A

Immediate - pain, bleeding, infection, swelling, urinary retention, urethral damage and incontinence

Long-term - vaginal infections, pelvic infections, UTIs, dysmenorrhoea, sexual dysfunction and dyspareunia, infertility and pregnancy complications, significant psychological issues

514
Q

How is asymptomatic bacteriuria managed during pregnancy? Why?

A

Give antibiotic prescription
Risk of adverse outcomes associated with UTIs - preterm delivery, low birth weight, pre-eclampsia, pyelonephritis

515
Q

How are UTIs managed during pregnancy?

A

7 day course of antibiotics - options:
Nitrofurantoin - avoid in 3rd trimester, risk of neonatal haemolysis
Amoxicillin - after sensitivities known
Cefalezin

Trimethoprim contraindicated in first trimester - folate anatagonist (can cause neural tube defects), generally also avoided later in pregnancy

516
Q

Describe the cause and consequences of congenital rubella syndrome

A

Maternal rubella infection during first 20 weeks - risk highest before 10 weeks

Features:
Congenital deafness
Congenital cataracts
Congenital heart disease - PDA and pulmonary stenosis
Learning disability

517
Q

Describe use of the MMR vaccine to protect against congenital rubella syndrome

A

Planning to become pregnant - ensure they have recieved MMR vaccine

If unsure, can be tested for rubella immunity, if don’t have antibodies can be vaccinated with two MMR doses, three months apart

Should not receive MMR if pregnant - live vaccine

518
Q

How is listeria transmitted? What are the effects of listeria infection in pregnancy?

A

Unpasteurised dairy products, processed meats and contaminated foods - avoid high-risk foods and practice good food hygiene

Listeriosis has high rate of miscarriage or fetal death, can cause severe neonatal infection

519
Q

What causes congenital toxoplasmosis? What are the effects of toxoplasmosis infection during pregnancy?

A

Infection with the Toxoplasma gondii parasite, primarily spread by contamination with faeces from infected cat

Triad of features:
Intracranial calcification
Hydrocephalus
Chorioretinitis

520
Q

List complications of parvovirus B19 infection during pregnancy

A

Miscarriage or fetal death
Severe fetal anaemia
Hydrops fetalis
Maternal pre-eclampsia-like syndrome

521
Q

List the features of congenital Zika syndrome

A

Microcephaly
Fetal growth restriction
Other intracranial abnormalities, such as ventriculomegaly and cerebellar atrophy

522
Q

What causes bacterial vaginosis?

A

Disruption of normal vaginal flora - reduction in numbers of lactobacilli, usually maintina acidic pH
Increased pH allows growth of other microorganisms - polymicrobial, garnerella, anaerobes, mycoplasmas

523
Q

List risk factors for BV

A

Sexual activity - new partner or multiple partners
IUD
STI
Vaginal douching
Recent antibiotics
Ethnicity - black women
Smoking

524
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of BV

A

50% asymptomatic
Offensive smelling vaginal discharge
Thin, white/grey, homogenous vaginal discharge

525
Q

How is BV diagnosed?

A

Microscopy - high vaginal smear (HVS) is gram stained and evaluated for:

The presence of ‘clue cells’ – vaginal epithelial cells studded with Gram variable coccobacilli
Reduced numbers of lactobacilli
Absence of pus cells

526
Q

How is BV managed?

A

Metronidazole - oral (5-7 days or single dose) or topical gel

527
Q

What causes vulvovaginal candidiasis? List risk factors.

A

90% candida albicans

Risk factors:
Pregnancy
Diabetes
Antibiotics
Steroids
Immunosuppression

528
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of vulvovaginal candidiasis

A

Pruritus
White, curd-like and non-offensive discharge
Dysuria
Erythema and swelling of vulva
Satellite lesions - red, pustular lesions with superficial white/creamy pseudomembraneous plaques that can be scraped off

529
Q

How is vulvovaginal candidiasis managed?

A

Intravaginal antifungal - clotrimazole or fenticonazole
Oral antifungal as alternative - fluconazole, itraconazole

530
Q

What causes chlamydia?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis - gram-negative bacteria, intracellular

531
Q

How is chlamydia diagnosed?

A

NAAT swab

532
Q

How does chlamydia present?

A

Majority asymptomatic
Abnormal vaginal discharge
Pelvic pain
Abnormal vaginal bleeding
Dyspareunia
Dysuria
Epidiymo-orchitis
Reactive arthritis
Lymphogranuloma venereum - painless ulcer, lymphadenitis, proctitis

533
Q

How is chlamydia managed?

A

Doxycycline 100mg BD for 7 days

534
Q

List potential complications of chlamydia

A

PID
Infertility
Ectopic pregnancy
Epididymo-orchitis
Conjunctivities
Lymphogranuloma venereum
Reactive arthritis
Pregnancy-related complications - pre-term delivery, premature ROM, low birth weight, endometritis, neonatal infection

535
Q

What causes gonorrhoea?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae - gram-negative diplococcus bacteria
Infects mucous membranes with a columnar epithelium, such as the endocervix in women, urethra, rectum, conjunctiva and pharynx
Spreads via contact with mucous secretions from infected areas

536
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of gonorrhoea

A

Likely to be symptomatic
Female - odourless purulent discharge, green/yellow, dysuria, pelvic pain
Male - odourless purulent discharge, green/yellow, dysuria, epididymo-orchitis
Rectal/pharyngeal - more likely to be asymptomatic

537
Q

How is gonorrhoea diagnosed?

A

NAAT swab

538
Q

How is gonorrhoea managed?

A

Single dose IM ceftriaxone
Test of cure recommended - NAAT if asymptomatic, cultures if symptomatic

539
Q

List potential complications of gonorrhoea

A

PID
Chronic pelvic pain
Infertility
Epididymo-orchitis
Prostatitis
Conjunctivitis
Disseminated gonococcal infection
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
Septic arthritis
Endocarditis
Gonococcal conjunctivitis in neonate

540
Q

Describe the presentation and complications of mycoplasma genitalium

A

Usually asymptomatic
Urethritis
Epidiymitis
Cervicitis
Can lead to PID, reactive arthritis, preterm delivery in pregnancy, tubal infertility

541
Q

How is mycoplasma genitalium investigated/managed?

A

NAAT - first urine sample in morning in men, vaginal swabs in women

Doxycyclin then azithromycin

542
Q

What causes trichomoniasis?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis - protozoa

543
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of trichomonas vaginalis

A

50% asymptomatic
Vaginal discharge - frothy, yellow-green, fishy smell
Itching
Dysuria
Dyspareunia
Balanitis
Strawberry cervix

544
Q

How is trichomonas vaginalis diagnosed?

A

Posterior fornix vagina swab
Urethral swab or first-catch urine
Charcoal swab with microscopy

545
Q

How is trichomonas vaginalis managed?

A

Metronidazole

546
Q

What causes genital herpes?

A

Typically herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2), can be HSV-1

547
Q

Describe the presentation of genital herpes

A

Asymptomatic
Can be asymptomatic for long time then develop symptoms months-years after initial infection
Initial episode most severe, recurrent episodes milder
Ulcers or blistering lesions around genital area
Neuropathic pain - tingling, burning, shooting
Flu-like symptoms
Dysuria
Inguinal lymphadenopathy

548
Q

How is genital herpes diagnosed?

A

Clinical diagnosis
Viral PCR swab can confirm

549
Q

How is genital herpes managed?

A

GUM referral
Aciclovir
Symptom management - analgesia, lidocaine gel, warm salt bath

550
Q

How is genital herpes managed during pregnancy? What are the potential complications?

A

Primary genital herpes <28 weeks - aciclovir during initial infection, then regular prophylactic aciclovir starting from 36 weeks to reduce risk of genital lesions during labour and delivery
If asymptomatic can have vaginal delivery if >6 weeks after initial infection, CS if symptoms present

Primary genital herpes >28 weeks - aciclovir during initial infection then immediately prophylactic aciclovir, CS recommended

Recurrent genital herpes, regular prophylactic aciclovir considered from 36 weeks to reduce risk of symptoms at time of delivery

Risk of neonatal herpes simplex infection - can cause disseminated herpes, CNS herpes

551
Q

What causes syphilis? How is it transmitted?

A

Treponema pallidum - spirochete bacteria

Transmission:
Oral, vaginal, anal sex
Vertical transmission from mother to baby
IV drug use
Blood transfusion and other transplants

552
Q

Describe the natural course of syphilis infection and the clihnical features at each stage

A

Primary syphilis - chancre (painless ulcer) at initial site of infection, local lymphadenopathy, lasts 3-8 weeks

Secondary syphilis - systemic symptoms, maculopapular rash, condylomata lata, fever, lymphadenopathy, alopecia, oral lesions

Latent syphilis - asymptomatic, early <2 years, late >2 years

Tertiary syphilis - gummatous lesions, aortic aneurysm, neurosyphilis (dementia, paralysis, Argyll-Robertson pupil)

553
Q

How is syphilis diagnosed?

A

Antibody testing can be used for screening
Confirmed with PCR or dark field microscopy

554
Q

How is syphilis managed?

A

Single dose IM benzylpenicillin

555
Q

Describe the classification of perineal tears

A

First-degree – injury limited to the frenulum of the labia minora (where they meet posteriorly) and superficial skin
Second-degree – including the perineal muscles, but not affecting the anal sphincter
Third-degree – including the anal sphincter, but not affecting the rectal mucosa
Fourth-degree – including the rectal mucosa

556
Q

How are perineal tears managed?

A

First degree usually don’t need stitches, larger do
3rd/4th degree - repair in theatre

Broad-spectrum antibiotics
Laxatives
Physiotherapy

If symptomatic after 3rd/4th degree tears offered elective CS in subsequent pregnancies

557
Q

List potential complications of perineal tears

A

Short-term:
Pain
Infection
Bleeding
Wound dehiscence or wound breakdown

Long-term:
Urinary incontinence
Anal incontinence
Rectovaginal fistula
Sexual dysfunction and dyspareunia
Psychological consequences