Obstetrics

Question 1

Antenatal screening - Conditions which all pregnant women should be offered screening

Answer 1

Anaemia
Bacteriuria
Blood group, Rhesus status and anti-red cell antibodies
Down's syndrome
Fetal anomalies
Hepatitis B
HIV
Neural tube defects
Risk factors for pre-eclampsia
Syphilis

Question 2

Antenatal screening - conditions should be offered depending on the history?

Answer 2

Placenta praevia
Psychiatric illness
Sickle cell disease
Tay-Sachs disease
Thalassaemia

Question 3

Amniotic fluid embolism- definition, epidemiology, aetiology, clinical presentation, diagnosis, mx

Answer 3

Definition:
This is when fetal cells/ amniotic fluid enters the mothers bloodstream and stimulates a reaction which results in the signs and symptoms described below.

Epidemiology:
Rare complication of pregnancy associated with a high mortality rate.Incidence 2/ 100,000 in the U.K .

Aetiology:
- Many risk factors have been associated with amniotic fluid embolism but a clear cause has not been proven. A consistent link has been demonstrated with maternal AGE and INDUCTION of labour. It is widely accepted that maternal circulation must be exposed to fetal cells/ amniotic fluid in order for an amniotic fluid embolism to occur. However the precise underlying pathology of this process which leads to the embolism is not well understood, though suggestions have been made about an immune mediated process.

Clinical presentation:

• The majority of cases occur in labour , though they can also occur during caesarean section and after delivery in the immediate postpartum.
• Symptoms include: chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety and coughing.
• Signs include: cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia. arrhythmia and myocardial infarction.

Diagnosis:
- Clinical diagnosis of exclusion, as there are not definitive diagnostic tests.

Management:
- Critical care unit by a multidisciplinary team, management is predominantly supportive

Question 4

A history of sudden collapse occurring soon after a rupture of membranes is suggestive of …

Answer 4

amniotic fluid embolism

Question 5

Pre-eclampsia- what is it? Predisposes to? High and moderate risk? Features of severe pre-exlampsia?

Answer 5

Pre-eclampsia is a condition seen after 20 weeks gestation characterised by pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria (> 0.3g / 24 hours). Oedema used to be third element of the classic triad but is now often not included in the definition as it is not specific

Pre-eclampsia is important as it predisposes to the following problems

• fetal: prematurity, intrauterine growth retardation
• eclampsia
• haemorrhage: placental abruption, intra-abdominal, intra-cerebral
• cardiac failure
• multi-organ failure

NICE divide risk factors into high and moderate risk:
High risk factors:
- hypertensive disease in a previous pregnancy
- chronic kidney disease
- autoimmune disease, such as systemic lupus erythematosus or antiphospholipid syndrome
- type 1 or type 2 diabetes
- chronic hypertension

Moderate risk factors:
- first pregnancy
- age 40 years or older
- pregnancy interval of more than 10 years
- body mass index (BMI) of 35 kg/m² or more at first visit
- family history of pre-eclampsia
- multiple pregnancy
(SMOKING NOT A RISK FACTOR)

Features of severe pre-eclampsia:

• hypertension: typically > 170/110 mmHg and proteinuria as above
• proteinuria: dipstick ++/+++
• headache
• visual disturbance
• papilloedema
• RUQ/epigastric pain
• hyperreflexia
• platelet count < 100 * 106/l, abnormal liver enzymes or HELLP syndrome

Question 6

Perineal tears- Classification

Answer 6

The RCOG has produced guidelines suggesting the following classification of perineal tears:

• first degree: superficial damage with no muscle involvement
• second degree: injury to the perineal muscle, but not involving the anal sphincter
• third degree: injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (external anal sphincter, EAS and internal anal sphincter, IAS):
• 3a: less than 50% of EAS thickness torn
• 3b: more than 50% of EAS thickness torn
• 3c: IAS torn
• fourth degree: injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (EAS and
  IAS) and rectal mucosa

Question 7

Perineal tears - risk factors

Answer 7

Risk factors for perineal tears

• primigravida
• large babies
• precipitant labour
• shoulder dystocia
• forceps delivery

Question 8

What is Bishop score used for? What does it consist of? Interpretation?

Answer 8

The Bishop score is used to help assess the whether induction of labour will be required.

It has the following components:
Cervical position
Cervical consistency
Cervical effacement
Cervical dilation
Fetal station

Interpretation:

• a score of < 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction
• a score of > 9 indicates that labour will most likely commence spontaneously

Question 9

Magnesium treatment should be started in women with…

How long for?

Answer 9

high risk severe pre-eclampsia, or those with eclampsia

It should be continued for 24 hours after delivery or after last seizure, which ever is later

Question 10

Eclampsia- what is it? Treatment?

Answer 10

Eclampsia may be defined as the development of seizures in association pre-eclampsia. To recap, pre-eclampsia is defined as:

• condition seen after 20 weeks gestation
• pregnancy-induced hypertension
• proteinuria

Magnesium sulphate is used to both prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop. Guidelines on its use suggest the following:
- should be given once a decision to deliver has been made
in eclampsia an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given followed by an infusion of 1g / hour
- urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate and oxygen saturations should be monitored during treatment
–respiratory depression can occur: calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate induced respiratory depression
- treatment should continue for 24 hours after last seizure or delivery (around 40% of seizures occur post-partum)

Other important aspects of treating severe pre-eclampsia/eclampsia include fluid restriction to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload

Question 11

Group B Streptococcus- risk factors , mx?

Answer 11

Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is the most common cause of early-onset severe infection in the neonatal period. It is thought around 20-40% of mothers have GBS present in their bowel flora and may therefore be thought of as ‘carriers’ of GBS. Infants may be exposed to maternal GBS during labour and subsequently develop potentially serious infections.

Risk factors for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) infection:

• prematurity
• prolonged rupture of the membranes
• previous sibling GBS infection
• maternal pyrexia e.g. secondary to chorioamnionitis

Management
The main points are as follows:
- universal screening for GBS should NOT be offered to all women
- the guidelines also state a maternal request is not an indication for screening
- women who’ve had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be informed that their risk of maternal GBS carriage in this pregnancy is 50%. They should be offered maternal intravenous ANTIBIOTIC PROPHYLAXIS (IAP) OR testing in late pregnancy and then antibiotics if still positive
- if women are to have swabs for GBS this should be offered at 35-37 weeks or 3-5 weeks prior to the anticipated delivery date
- maternal intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis should be offered to women with a previous baby with early- or late-onset GBS disease
- maternal intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis should be offered to women in preterm labour regardless of their GBS status
- women with a pyrexia during labour (>38ºC) should also be given intravenous antibiotics
benzylpenicillin is the antibiotic of choice for GBS prophylaxis

Question 12

Normal laboratory findings in pregnancy?

Answer 12

Reduced urea, reduced creatinine, increased urinary protein loss

(Physiological changes to the circulation results in increased perfusion to the kidneys in pregnancy.)

Question 13

Pregnancy: physiological changes- what systems are affected

Answer 13

Cardiovascular system
Respiratory system
Blood
Urinary system
Biochemical changes
Liver
Uterus

Question 14

Pregnancy: physiological changes- cardiovascular system?

Answer 14

• SV up 30%, HR up 15% & cardiac output up 40%
• systolic BP is unaltered
• diastolic BP is reduced in the 1st and 2nd trimester, returning to non-pregnant levels by term
• enlarged uterus may interfere with venous return which can lead to ankle oedema, supine hypotension and varicose veins

Question 15

Pregnancy: physiological changes- Respiratory system?

Answer 15

• Pulmonary ventilation up by 40%, tidal volume from 500 - 700ml (due to effect of progesterone on respiratory centre)
• Oxygen requirements increase by only 20%, therefore over breathing leads to a fall in pCO2 - this can give rise to a sense of dyspnoea that may be accentuated by elevation of the diaphragm
• BMR up 15% - this may be due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones - women may hence find warm conditions uncomfortable

Question 16

Pregnancy: physiological changes- Blood?

Answer 16

• Maternal blood volume up 30%, mostly in 2nd half - red cells up 20% but plasma up 50% Hb falls
• Low grade increase in coagulant activity
• rise in fibrinogen and Factors VII, VIII, X
• fibrinolytic activity is decreased returns to normal after delivery (placental suppression?)
• prepares the mother for placental delivery
• leads to increased risk of thromboembolism
• Platelet count falls
• WCC & ESR rise

Question 17

Pregnancy: physiological changes- Urinary system?

Answer 17

• blood flow increase by 30%
• GFR increases by 30-60%
• Salt and water reabsorption is increased by elevated sex steroid levels
• Urinary protein losses increase

Question 18

Pregnancy: physiological changes- Biochemical changes

Answer 18

• Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy
• especially during 3rd trimester + continues into lactation
• calcium is transported actively across the placenta
• serum levels of calcium and phosphate actually fall (with fall in protein)
• ionised levels of calcium remain stable
• Gut absorption of calcium increases substantially - due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D

Question 19

Pregnancy: physiological changes-Liver?

Answer 19

Unlike renal and uterine blood flow, hepatic blood flow doesn’t change

• ALP raised 50% (due to extra production from placenta)
• Albumin levels fall

Question 20

Pregnancy: physiological changes-Uterus?

Answer 20

100g → 1100g

• hyperplasia → hypertrophy later
• increase in cervical ectropion & discharge
• Braxton-Hicks: non-painful ‘practice contractions’ late in pregnancy (>30 wks)
• retroversion may lead to retention (12-16 wks), usually self corrects

Question 21

Anomaly scan is when?

Answer 21

18 - 20+6 weeks

Question 22

Down’s syndrome screening where nuchal scanning is available - when ?

Answer 22

11 - 13+6 weeks

Question 23

Booking visit - is when?

Answer 23

8 - 12 weeks

Question 24

Rubella and pregnancy- risks, features, diagnosis, mx

Answer 24

Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Following the introduction of the MMR vaccine it is now rare. If contracted during pregnancy there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome. Remember that the incubation period is 14-21 days and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

Risk
in first 8-10 weeks risk of damage to fetus is as high as 90%
damage is rare after 16 weeks

Features of congenital rubella syndrome
sensorineural deafness
congenital cataracts
congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus)
growth retardation
hepatosplenomegaly
purpuric skin lesions
'salt and pepper' chorioretinitis
microphthalmia
cerebral palsy

Diagnosis
suspected cases should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary
IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus
it should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. It is therefore important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss

Management
suspected cases of rubella in pregnancy should be discussed with the local Health Protection Unit
since 2016, rubella immunity is no longer routinely checked at the booking visit
if a woman is however tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella
non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period
MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant

Question 25

Suspected cases of rubella in pregnancy should be ...

Answer 25

discussed with the local Health Protection Unit as they can advise on which type of investigations to perform in each individual case.

Question 26

Galactocele

Answer 26

Galactocele typically occurs in women who have recently stopped breastfeeding and is due to occlusion of a lactiferous duct. A build up of milk creates a cystic lesion in the breast. The lesion can be differentiated from an abscess by the fact that a galactocele is usually painless, with no local or systemic signs of infection.

Question 27

Hypertension in pregnancy - who is at high risk? what should they do?

Answer 27

Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin 75mg od from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. High risk groups include: hypertensive disease during previous pregnancies chronic kidney disease autoimmune disorders such as SLE or antiphospholipid syndrome type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus

Question 28

Hypertension in pregnancy - definition

Answer 28

The classification of hypertension in pregnancy is complicated and varies. Remember, in normal pregnancy: blood pressure usually falls in the first trimester (particularly the diastolic), and continues to fall until 20-24 weeks after this time the blood pressure usually increases to pre-pregnancy levels by term Hypertension in pregnancy in usually defined as: systolic > 140 mmHg or diastolic > 90 mmHg or an increase above booking readings of > 30 mmHg systolic or > 15 mmHg diastolic

Question 29

Hypertension in pregnancy - - classification?

Answer 29

1. Pre-existing hypertension - - A history of hypertension before pregnancy or an elevated blood pressure > 140/90 mmHg before 20 weeks gestation - No proteinuria, no oedema - Occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women 2. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH, also known as gestational hypertension) - Hypertension (as defined above) occurring in the second half of pregnancy (i.e. after 20 weeks) - No proteinuria, no oedema - Occurs in around 5-7% of pregnancies - Resolves following birth (typically after one month). Women with PIH are at increased risk of future pre-eclampsia or hypertension later in life 3. Pre-eclampsia - Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria (> 0.3g / 24 hours) - Oedema may occur but is now less commonly used as a criteria - Occurs in around 5% of pregnancies

Question 30

Cord prolapse- risk factors

Answer 30

Cord prolapse involves the umbilical cord descending ahead of the presenting part of the fetus. This occurs in 1/500 deliveries. Left untreated, this can lead to compression of the cord or cord spasm, which can cause fetal hypoxia and eventually irreversible damage or death. Risk factors for cord prolapse include: - prematurity - multiparity - polyhydramnios - twin pregnancy - cephalopelvic disproportion - abnormal presentations e.g. Breech, transverse lie - placenta praevia - long umbilical cord - high fetal station The majority of cord prolapses occur at artificial rupture of the membranes. The diagnosis is usually made when the fetal HEART RATE becomes ABNORMAL and the cord is palpable vaginally, or if the cord is visible beyond the level of the introitus.

Question 31

Bishop score of 5? what does it mean?

Answer 31

The Bishop score is used to predict the success of induction Bishop score is inversely correlated with the labour duration; a patient with score > 8 is likely to achieve a successful vaginal birth without induction. A score of <6 indicates that cervical ripening may be required.

Question 32

What are the medications recommended for epileptics in pregnancy?

Answer 32

Anti-epileptics in pregnancy can be a tricky subject. Many are known to cause severe congenital defects (both structural and intellectual) and as such the first line of care is good contraceptive advice and planning with the patient in question Lamotrigine, carbamazepine and levetiracetam are known to have the smallest effects on the developing foetus, however all epileptics who are either pregnant or are planning to become pregnant should be referred to specialist care as soon as possible.

Question 33

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy increases the risk of ...

Answer 33

Stillbirth or prematurity

Question 34

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy- features, mx

Answer 34

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (also known as obstetric cholestasis) affects around 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is associated with an increased risk of premature birth- increases the risk of stillbirth Features - pruritus - may be intense - typical worse palms, soles and abdomen (without rash in the third trimester) - clinically detectable jaundice occurs in around 20% of patients - raised bilirubin is seen in > 90% of cases Management - induction of labour at 37 weeks is common practice but may not be evidence based - ursodeoxycholic acid - again widely used but evidence base not clear - vitamin K supplementation

Question 35

Caesarean section - Indications, serious and frequent risks, VBAC

Answer 35

There are two main types of caesarean section: lower segment caesarean section: now comprises 99% of cases classic caesarean section: longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus ``` Indications (apart from cephalopelvic disproportion/praevia, most are relative) - absolute cephalopelvic disproportion - placenta praevia grades 3/4 - pre-eclampsia - post-maturity - IUGR - fetal distress in labour/prolapsed cord - failure of labour to progress - malpresentations: brow - placental abruption: only if fetal distress; if dead deliver vaginally - vaginal infection e.g. active herpes - cervical cancer (disseminates cancer cells) ``` The RCOG advise clinicians to make women aware of serious and frequent risks: ``` 'SERIOUS' Maternal: - emergency hysterectomy - need for further surgery at a later date, including curettage (retained placental tissue) - admission to intensive care unit - thromboembolic disease - bladder injury - ureteric injury - death (1 in 12,000) ``` Future pregnancies: - increased risk of uterine rupture during subsequent pregnancies/deliveries - increased risk of antepartum stillbirth - increased risk in subsequent pregnancies of placenta praevia and placenta accreta) 'FREQUENT' Maternal: - persistent wound and abdominal discomfort in the first few months after surgery - increased risk of repeat caesarean section when vaginal delivery attempted in subsequent pregnancies - readmission to hospital - haemorrhage - infection (wound, endometritis, UTI) Fetal: - lacerations, one to two babies in every 100 Other complications which are recognised but not specificially mentioned in the RCOG document include; - prolonged ileus - subfertility: due to postoperative adhesions Vaginal birth after caesarean (VBAC) - If a women has had a previous caesarean section due a factor such as fetal distress the majority of obstetricians would recommend a trial of normal labour - around 70-75% of women in this situation have a successful vaginal delivery - contraindications include previous uterine rupture or classical caesarean scar

Question 36

Post-partum mental health problems- screen

Answer 36

Post-partum mental health problems range from the 'baby-blues' to puerperal psychosis. The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale may be used to screen for depression: - 10-item questionnaire, with a maximum score of 30 - indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week - score > 13 indicates a 'depressive illness of varying severity' - sensitivity and specificity > 90% - includes a question about self-harm

Question 37

Post-partum mental health problems - conditions

Answer 37

1. Baby-blues' - Seen in around 60-70% of women - Seen in around 60-70% of women - Typically seen 3-7 days following birth and is more common in primips - Mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful and irritable Reassurance and support, the health visitor has a key role 2. Postnatal depression - Affects around 10% of women - Most cases start within a month and typically peaks at 3 months - Features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances As with the baby blues reassurance and support are important Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine* may be used if symptoms are severe** - whilst they are secreted in breast milk it is not thought to be harmful to the infant * paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio * *fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life 3. Puerperal psychosis ffects approximately 0.2% of women - Onset usually within the first 2-3 weeks following birth - Features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations) - Admission to hospital is usually required - There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies

Question 38

Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy- risks

Answer 38

Chickenpox is caused by primary infection with varicella-zoster virus. Shingles is caused by the reactivation of dormant virus in dorsal root ganglion. In pregnancy, there is a risk to both the mother and also the fetus, a syndrome now termed fetal varicella syndrome Risks to the mother - 5 times greater risk of pneumonitis Fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) - risk of FVS following maternal varicella exposure is around 1% if occurs before 20 weeks gestation - studies have shown a very small number of cases occurring between 20-28 weeks gestation and none following 28 weeks - features of FVS include skin scarring, eye defects (microphthalmia), limb hypoplasia, microcephaly and learning disabilities Other risks to the fetus - shingles in infancy: 1-2% risk if maternal exposure in the second or third trimester - severe neonatal varicella: if the mother develops rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth there is a risk of neonatal varicella, which may be fatal to the newborn child in around 20% of cases

Question 39

Given a likely diagnosis of pre-eclampsia, what is the most important sign to elicit?

Answer 39

Brisk reflexes are commonly associated with pre-eclampsia

Question 40

Poor interaction with the baby - could suggest?

Answer 40

this is very unusual, including in women with postnatal depression Hence, points towards significant mental health problems

Question 41

Labour stages?

Answer 41

Labour may be divided in to three stages stage 1: from the onset of true labour to when the cervix is fully dilated stage 2: from full dilation to delivery of the fetus stage 3: from delivery of fetus to when the placenta and membranes have been completely delivered

Question 42

Labour: stage 1

Answer 42

Stage 1 - from the onset of true labour to when the cervix is fully dilated. In a primigravida lasts typical 10-16 hours latent phase = 0-3 cm dilation, normally takes 6 hours active phase = 3-10 cm dilation, normally 1cm/hr Presentation 90% of babies are vertex Head enters pelvis in occipito-lateral position. The head normally delivers in an occipito-anterior position.

Question 43

False Labour?

Answer 43

- Occurs in the last 4 weeks of pregnancy - Presentation: contractions felt in the lower abdomen. The contractions are irregular and occur every 20 minutes. Progressive cervical changes are absent.

Question 44

Folic acid- its function, causes and consequences of folic acid deficiency

Answer 44

Folic acid is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF). Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. Functions THF plays a key role in the transfer of 1-carbon units (e.g. methyl, methylene, and formyl groups) to the essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA & RNA ``` Causes of folic acid deficiency: phenytoin methotrexate pregnancy alcohol excess ``` Consequences of folic acid deficiency: macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia neural tube defects Prevention of neural tube defects (NTD) during pregnancy: - all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy (Currently it is recommended that all women who are planning to become pregnant should take a supplement of 400 micrograms of folic acid per day whilst trying to conceive ) - women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a NTD should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy - women are considered higher risk if any of the following apply: - → either partner has a NTD, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a NTD, or they have a family history of a NTD - → the woman is taking antiepileptic drugs or has coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait. - → the woman is obese (defined as a body mass index [BMI] of 30 kg/m2 or more).

Question 45

An ultrasound is indicated if lochia persists beyond...

Answer 45

6 weeks

Question 46

What is Lochia?

Answer 46

Lochia may be defined as the vaginal discharge containing blood mucous and uterine tissue during the puerperium (which may continue for 6 weeks after childbirth) (presents for the first 2 weeks following giving birth, whether this is by vaginal birth or caesarian section.) * Puerperium is the period of approximately six weeks after childbirth during which time the woman's reproductive organs return to normal. Lochia is a normal part of this process..

Question 47

Breech presentation- Risk factors , Management

Answer 47

In a breech presentation the caudal end of the fetus occupies the lower segment. Whilst around 25% of pregnancies at 28 weeks are breech it only occurs in 3% of babies near term. A frank breech is the most common presentation with the hips flexed and knees fully extended. A footling breech, where one or both feet come first with the bottom at a higher position, is rare but carries a higher perinatal morbidity Risk factors for breech presentation - uterine malformations, fibroids - placenta praevia - polyhydramnios or oligohydramnios - fetal abnormality (e.g. CNS malformation, chromosomal disorders) - prematurity (due to increased incidence earlier in gestation) Cord prolapse is more common in breech presentations Management - if < 36 weeks: many fetuses will turn spontaneously - if still breech at 36 weeks NICE recommend external cephalic version (ECV)- this has a success rate of around 60%. The RCOG recommend ECV should be offered from 36 weeks in nulliparous women and from 37 weeks in multiparous women - if the baby is still breech then delivery options include planned caesarean section or vaginal delivery Information to help decision making - the RCOG recommend: - 'Women should be informed that planned caesarean section carries a reduced perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity for babies with a breech presentation at term compared with planned vaginal birth.' - 'Women should be informed that there is no evidence that the long term health of babies with a breech presentation delivered at term is influenced by how the baby is born.'

Question 48

Absolute contraindications to ECV:

Answer 48

- where caesarean delivery is required - antepartum haemorrhage within the last 7 days - abnormal cardiotocography - major uterine anomaly - ruptured membranes - multiple pregnancy

Question 49

MMR vaccination in pregnancy?

Answer 49

MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant; to avoid becoming pregnant for 28 days after receipt of MMR vaccine

Question 50

Pre-eclampsia and gestational hypertension would occur ...

Answer 50

after 20 weeks gestation

Question 51

Signs of labour include

Answer 51

- regular and painful uterine contractions - a show (shedding of mucous plug) - rupture of the membranes (not always) - shortening and dilation of the cervix

Question 52

Monitoring in Labour

Answer 52

- FHR monitored every 15min (or continuously via CTG) - Contractions assessed every 30min - Maternal pulse rate assessed every 60min - Maternal BP and temp should be checked every 4 hours - VE should be offered every 4 hours to check progression of labour - Maternal urine should be checked for ketones and protein every 4 hours

Question 53

Sheehan's syndrome

Answer 53

- Is a complication of severe postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) - the pituitary gland undergoes ischaemic necrosis - can manifest as hypopituitarism - The most common physical sign of Sheehan's syndrome is a lack of postpartum milk production and amenorrhoea following delivery - Diagnosis - inadequate prolactin and gonadotropin stimulation tests in patients with a history of severe PPH.

Question 54

Mastitis mx

Answer 54

Mastitis affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. The BNF advises to treat 'if systemically unwell, if nipple fissure present, if symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of effective milk removal or if culture indicates infection'. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis may develop into a breast abscess. This generally requires incision and drainage.

Question 55

Minor' breastfeeding problems

Answer 55

- frequent feeding in a breastfed infant is not alone a sign of low milk supply - nipple pain: may be caused by a poor latch - blocked duct (‘milk bleb’): causes nipple pain when breastfeeding. Breastfeeding should continue. Advice should be sought regarding the positioning of the baby. Breast massage may also be tried - nipple candidiasis: treatment for nipple candidiasis whilst breastfeeding should involve miconazole cream for the mother and nystatin suspension for the baby

Question 56

Engorgement - breast feeding

Answer 56

Breast engorgement is one of the causes of breast pain in breastfeeding women. It usually occurs in the first few days after the infant is born and almost always affects both breasts. The pain or discomfort is typically worse just before a feed. Milk tends to not flow well from an engorged breast and the infant may find it difficult to attach and suckle. Fever may be present but usually settles within 24 hours. The breasts may appear red. Complications include blocked milk ducts, mastitis and difficulties with breastfeeding and, subsequently, milk supply. Although it may initially be painful, hand expression of milk may help relieve the discomfort of engorgement.

Question 57

Raynaud's disease of the nipple

Answer 57

In Raynaud’s disease of the nipple, pain is often intermittent and present during and immediately after feeding. Blanching of the nipple may be followed by cyanosis and/or erythema. Nipple pain resolves when nipples return to normal colour. Options of treatment for Raynaud's disease of the nipple include advice on minimising exposure to cold, use of heat packs following a breastfeed, avoiding caffeine and stopping smoking. If symptoms persist consider specialist referral for a trial of oral nifedipine (off-license).

Question 58

What is Fetal fibronectin (fFN)?

Answer 58

a protein that is released from the gestational sac.

Question 59

High Fetal fibronectin - indication?

Answer 59

Having a high level has been shown to be related with early labour, and depending on the level different probabilities can be calculated for labour within one week, two weeks etc. Having a high level however does not mean that early labour is definite, some women will go to term even with a raised fFN

Question 60

Administering steroids can cause what effect on diabetics?

Answer 60

hyperglycemia | -therefore close attention should be paid to the blood glucose measurements.

Question 61

Pregnancy: diabetes mellitus- risk factors

Answer 61

- BMI of > 30 kg/m² - previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or above - previous gestational diabetes - first-degree relative with diabetes - family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes (South Asian, black Caribbean and Middle Eastern)

Question 62

Screening for gestational diabetes

Answer 62

- women who've previously had gestational diabetes: oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal. NICE also recommend that early self-monitoring of blood glucose is an alternative to the OGTTs - women with any of the other risk factors should be offered an OGTT at 24-28 weeks

Question 63

Diagnostic thresholds for gestational diabetes

Answer 63

- fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/l | - 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/l

Question 64

Management of gestational diabetes

Answer 64

- newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week - women should be taught about selfmonitoring of blood glucose - advice about diet (including eating foods with a low glycaemic index) and exercise should be given - if the fasting plasma glucose level is < 7 mmol//l a trial of diet and exercise should be offered - if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise metformin should be started - if glucose targets are still not met insulin should be added to diet/exercise/metformin - if at the time of diagnosis the fasting glucose level is >= 7 mmol/l insulin should be started if the plasma glucose level is between 6-6.9 mmol/l, and there is evidence of complications such as macrosomia or hydramnios, insulin should be offered - glibenclamide should only be offered for women who cannot tolerate metformin or those who fail to meet the glucose targets with metformin but decline insulin treatment

Question 65

Management of pre-existing diabetes

Answer 65

- weight loss for women with BMI of > 27 kg/m^2 - stop oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, and commence insulin - folic acid 5 mg/day from pre-conception to 12 weeks gestation - aspirin 75mg/day from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby, to reduce the risk of pre-eclampsia - detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts - tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates - treat retinopathy as can worsen during pregnancy

Question 66

Targets for self monitoring of pregnant women (pre-existing and gestational diabetes)

Answer 66

Fasting- 5.3 mmol/l 1 hour after meals- 7.8 mmol/l, or: 2 hour after meals 6.4 mmol/l

Question 67

During a lower segment Caesarian section, the following lies in between the skin and the fetus...

Answer 67

``` Superficial fascia Deep fascia Anterior rectus sheath Rectus abdominis muscle (not cut, rather pushed laterally following incision of the linea alba) Transversalis fascia Extraperitoneal connective tissue Peritoneum Uterus ```

Question 68

Red flag for puerperal psychosis

Answer 68

An abrupt change in mental state

Question 69

Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes- complications , mx

Answer 69

Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) occurs in around 2% of pregnancies but is associated with around 40% of preterm deliveries Complications of PPROM - fetal: prematurity, infection, pulmonary hypoplasia - maternal: chorioamnionitis A sterile speculum examination should be performed (to look for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault) but digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios. Management - admission - regular observations to ensure chorioamnionitis is not developing - oral ERYTHROMYCIN should be given for 10 days - antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome - delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation - there is a trade-off between increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis with a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses

Question 70

Ectopic pregnancy- risk factors and features

Answer 70

This is the single most important cause of abdominal pain to exclude in early pregnancy 0.5% of all pregnancies are ectopic Risk factors (anything slowing the ovum's passage to the uterus) - damage to tubes (salpingitis, surgery) - previous ectopic - IVF (3% of pregnancies are ectopic) A typical history is a female with a history of 6-8 weeks amenorrhoea who presents with lower abdominal pain and later develops vaginal bleeding lower abdominal pain: typically the first symptom. Pain is usually constant and may be unilateral. Due to tubal spasm vaginal bleeding: usually less than a normal period, may be dark brown in colour history of recent amenorrhoea: typically 6-8 weeks from start of last period; if longer (e.g. 10 wks) this suggest another causes e.g. inevitable abortion peritoneal bleeding can cause shoulder tip pain and pain on defecation / urination

Question 71

Risk of prematurity (being premature)

Answer 71

``` increased mortality depends on gestation respiratory distress syndrome intraventricular haemorrhage necrotizing enterocolitis chronic lung disease, hypothermia, feeding problems, infection, jaundice retinopathy of newborn, hearing problems ```

Question 72

What is the most common cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)?

Answer 72

``` Uterine atony (It entails failure of the uterus to contract fully following the delivery of the placenta, which hinders the achievement of haemostasis. Uterine atony is associated with overdistension, which may be due to multiple gestation, macrosomia, polyhydramnios or other causes.) ```

Question 73

First line management for uterine atony?

Answer 73

IV Syntocinon (oxytocin), | followed by 0.5 mg of ergometrine

Question 74

Postpartum haemorrhage- risk factors

Answer 74

Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is defined as blood loss of > 500mls and may be primary or secondary Primary PPH - occurs within 24 hours - affects around 5-7% of deliveries - most common cause of PPH is uterine atony (90% of cases). Other causes include genital trauma and clotting factors Risk factors for primary PPH include*: - previous PPH - prolonged labour - pre-eclampsia - increased maternal age - polyhydramnios - emergency Caesarean section - placenta praevia, placenta accreta - macrosomia - ritodrine (a beta-2 -adrenergic receptor agonist used for tocolysis) Secondary PPH - occurs between 24 hours to 12 weeks** - due to retained placental tissue or endometritis *the effect of parity on the risk of PPH is complicated. It was previously though multiparity was a risk factor but more modern studies suggest nulliparity is actually a risk factor **previously the definition of secondary PPH was 24 hours - 6 weeks. Please see the RCOG guidelines for more details

Question 75

Postpartum haemorrhage- management

Answer 75

Management - ABC including two peripheral cannulae, 14 gauge - IV syntocinon (oxytocin) 10 units or IV ergometrine 500 micrograms - IM carboprost - if medical options failure to control the bleeding then surgical options will need to be urgently considered - the RCOG state that the intrauterine balloon tamponade is an appropriate first-line ‘surgical’ intervention for most women where uterine atony is the only or main cause of haemorrhage - other options include: B-Lynch suture, ligation of the uterine arteries or internal iliac arteries - if severe, uncontrolled haemorrhage then a hysterectomy is sometimes performed as a life-saving procedure

Question 76

Rheumatoid arthritis: pregnancy- key points

Answer 76

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) typically develops in women of a reproductive age. Issues surrounding conception are therefore commonly encountered. There are no current published guidelines regarding how patients considering conception should be managed although expert reviews are largely in agreement. Key points - patients with early or poorly controlled RA should be advised to defer conception until their disease is more stable - RA symptoms tend to IMPROVE in pregnancy but only resolve in a small minority. Patients tend to have a flare following delivery - methotrexate is NOT safe in pregnancy and needs to be stopped at least 6 MONTHS before conception - leflunomide is not safe in pregnancy - sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine are considered safe in pregnancy interestingly studies looking - TNF-α blockers - not any significant increase in adverse outcome - low-dose corticosteroids may be used in pregnancy to control symptoms - NSAIDs may be used until 32 weeks but after this time should be withdrawn due to the risk of early close of the ductus arteriosus - patients should be referred to an obstetric anaesthetist due to the risk of atlanto-axial subluxation

Question 77

Chorioamnionitis

Answer 77

Chorioamnionitis (which can affect up to 5% of all pregnancies) is a potentially life-threatening condition to both mother and foetus and is therefore considered a medical emergency. It is usually the result of an ascending bacterial infection of the amniotic fluid / membranes / placenta. The major risk factor in this scenario is the preterm premature rupture of membranes (however, it can still occur when the membranes are still intact) which expose the normally sterile environment of the uterus to potential pathogens. Chorioamnionitis is a clinical diagnosis and is suggested by uterine tenderness and foul-smelling discharge. Baseline fetal tachycardia supports the diagnosis. Prompt delivery of the foetus (via cesarean section if necessary) and administration of intravenous antibiotics is widely considered the mainstay of initial treatment for this condition.

Question 78

Early signs of pre-eclampsia include ...

Answer 78

hypertension and proteinuria. Other symptoms of pre-eclampsia include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting and visual disturbance.

Question 79

Management of chickenpox exposure

Answer 79

Management of chickenpox EXPOSURE in pregnancy - if there is any doubt about the mother previously having chickenpox maternal blood should be urgently checked for VARICELLA ANTIBODIES - if the pregnant woman is NOT IMMUNE to varicella she should be given varicella-zoster IMMUNOGLOBULIN (VZIG) as soon as possible (VZIG is effective up to 10 days post exposure) (The purpose of VZIG is to help prevent or attenuate chickenpox in non-immune individuals. VZIG has no therapeutic benefit once the chickenpox rash has started. Aciclovir can be given within 24 hours of the onset of the rash.)

Question 80

pre-eclampsia is defined as..

Answer 80

condition seen after 20 weeks gestation pregnancy-induced hypertension proteinuria

Question 81

Breast feeding: suppressing lactation ?

Answer 81

Techniques: - stop the lactation reflex i.e. stop suckling/expressing - supportive measures: well-supported bra and analgesia - cabergoline is the medication of choice if required

Question 82

Retained products - presentation?

Answer 82

Can happen after caesarean section if care is not taken to make sure that all the placental membranes are removed. - pain and heavy vaginal bleeding since delivery - heavy, offensive lochia - boggy poorly contracted uterus above the umbilicus (The uterus does not contract down well as the products are still in the cavity, and the discharge is offensive suggesting that the products have become infected) This lady needs and urgent examination under anaesthesia to remove the products. The products often pass by themselves without the need for anaesthesia, however after day 1 this is unlikely so intervention is needed

Question 83

Normal CTG?

Answer 83

accelerations present, variability >5bpm (Variability should be 5-25bpm ) no decelerations, HR 110-160

Question 84

What does Cardiotocography monitor?

Answer 84

records pressure changes in the uterus using internal or external pressure transducers - A cardiotocogram (CTG) measures fetal heart rate and uterine contractions.

Question 85

The normal fetal heart rate is?

Answer 85

between 100-160 / min

Question 86

Baseline bradycardia on CTG- what is it? and causes?

Answer 86

Heart rate < 100 /min | - Increased fetal vagal tone, maternal beta-blocker use

Question 87

Baseline tachycardia on CTG? what is it? and causes?

Answer 87

Heart rate > 160 /min | - Maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, prematurity

Question 88

Loss of baseline variability on CTG? what is it? and causes?

Answer 88

< 5 beats / min - due to maternal drugs (such as benzodiazepines, opioids or methyldopa - not paracetamol), - foetal acidosis (usually due to HYPOXIA) - PREMATURITY (< 28 weeks,),

Question 89

Early deceleration on CTG? what is it? and causes?

Answer 89

Deceleration of the heart rate which commences with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal on completion of the contraction - Usually an innocuous feature and indicates head compression

Question 90

Late deceleration on CTG? what is it? and causes?

Answer 90

Deceleration of the heart rate which lags the onset of a contraction and does not returns to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction - Indicates fetal distress e.g. asphyxia or placental insufficiency Therefore: - urgent fetal blood sampling is needed to assess for fetal hypoxia and acidosis ( A pH of >7.2 in labour is considered normal.)

Question 91

Variable decelerations on CTG? what is it? and causes?

Answer 91

Independent of contractions | - May indicate cord compression

Question 92

Venous thromboembolism in pregnancy

Answer 92

- Pregnancy is a risk factor for developing venous thromboembolism (VTE). - A risk assessment should be completed at booking and on any subsequent hospital admission. - A woman with a previous VTE history is automatically considered high risk and requires low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period and also input from experts. - A woman at intermediate risk of developing VTE due to hospitalisation, surgery, co-morbidities or thrombophilia should be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin If diagnosis of DVT is made shortly before delivery, continue anticoagulation treatment for at least 3 month, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy. Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided in pregnancy.

Question 93

Risk factors that increase the womans likelihood of developing VTE ?

Answer 93

``` These risk factors include: Age > 35 Body mass index > 30 Parity > 3 Smoker Gross varicose veins Current pre-eclampsia Immobility Family history of unprovoked VTE Low risk thrombophilia Multiple pregnancy IVF pregnancy ``` Four or more risk factors warrants immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.

Question 94

What blood test is used to monitor treatment of VTE?

Answer 94

Anti-Xa (A way to remember: cleXAne = Xa - clexane is brand name for enoxaparin )

Question 95

Cord prolapse- mx

Answer 95

For management of cord prolapse, the presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression. Tocolytics may be used. If the cord is past the level of the introitus, it should be kept warm and moist but should not be pushed back inside. The patient is asked to go on 'all fours' until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Although this is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery is possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low. If treated early, fetal mortality in cord prolapse is low. Incidence has been reduced by the increase in caesarian sections being used in breech presentations.

Question 96

The umbilical cord is palpable vaginally above the level of the introitus - what does this indicate?

Answer 96

Cord prolapse | which occurs after membrane rupture when the umbilical cord descends below the presenting part of the fetus.

Question 97

Placenta praevia- features, CF, Ix

Answer 97

Placenta praevia describes a placenta lying wholly or partly in the lower uterine segment Associated factors - multiparity - multiple pregnancy - embryos are more likely to implant on a lower segment scar from previous caesarean section Clinical features - shock in proportion to visible loss - no pain - uterus not tender - lie and presentation may be abnormal - fetal heart usually normal - coagulation problems rare - small bleeds previously before large Investigations - placenta praevia is often picked up on the routine 20 week abdominal ultrasound - the RCOG recommend the use of transvaginal ultrasound as it improves the accuracy of placental localisation and is considered safe

Question 98

Placenta praevia - Classical grading?

Answer 98

I - placenta reaches lower segment but not the internal os II - placenta reaches internal os but doesn't cover it III - placenta covers the internal os before dilation but not when dilated IV - placenta completely covers the internal os

Question 99

What treatment would you advise to reduce the risk of pre-eclampsia?

Answer 99

Aspirin 75mg - Women at high RISK of pre-eclampsia are advised to take 75 mg of aspirin daily from 12 weeks until the birth NOTE: (Offer pharmacological treatment if BP remains above 140/90 mmHg') - labetalol

Question 100

HELLP syndrome- what is it?

Answer 100

s a severe form of pre-eclampsia whose features include: Haemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP).

Question 101

HELLP syndrome - CF?

Answer 101

A typical patient might present with: - malaise, nausea, vomiting, and headache. - Hypertension with proteinuria is a common finding, as well as epigastric and/or upper abdominal pain.

Question 102

Pregnancy: jaundice- Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

Answer 102

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (also known as obstetric cholestasis) occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is generally seen in the third trimester. It is the most common liver disease of pregnancy. Features - pruritus, often in the palms and soles - no rash (although skin changes may be seen due to scratching) - raised bilirubin Management - ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief weekly liver function tests women are typically induced at 37 weeks Complications include an increased rate of stillbirth. It is not generally associated with increased maternal morbidity

Question 103

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy

Answer 103

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is rare complication which may occur in the third trimester or the period immediately following delivery. Features - abdominal pain - nausea & vomiting - headache - jaundice - hypoglycaemia - severe disease may result in pre-eclampsia Investigations - ALT is typically elevated e.g. 500 u/l Management - support care - once stabilised delivery is the definitive management

Question 104

Vasa praevia - what is it? features?

Answer 104

- Vasa praevia describes a complication in which fetal blood vessels cross or run near the internal orifice of the uterus. - The vessels can be easily compromised when supporting membranes rupture, leading to frank bleeding. The classic triad of vasa praevia is: - rupture of membranes - followed by painless vaginal bleeding - fetal bradycardia. Unlike placenta praevia, vasa praevia carries no major maternal risk but fetal mortality rates are significant. Although ultrasound scans can detect vasa praevia, many cases are undetectable antenatally.

Question 105

A baby is diagnosed with foetal macrosomia if they have a birth weight ...

Answer 105

>4kg regardless of their gestational age (Foetal macrosomia can cause dystocia which may result in injuries to both the mother and baby. Dystocia may also require an operative vaginal delivery or Caesarean-section) Erb's palsy occurs due to damage to the UPPER brachial plexus most commonly from shoulder dystocia. Damage to these nerve roots results in a characteristic pattern: adduction and internal rotation of the arm, with pronation of the forearm. This classic physical position is commonly called the 'waiter's tip'. Klumpke's palsy occurs due to damage of the lower brachial plexus and commonly affects the nerves innervating the muscles of the hand.

Question 106

Shoulder dystocia

Answer 106

Shoulder dystocia is a complication of vaginal cephalic delivery. Shoulder dystocia is a cause of both maternal and fetal morbidity. It is associated with postpartum haemorrhage and perineal tears with respect to the former, and brachial plexus injury with respect to the latter, amongst other complications. Neonatal death occasionally occurs. Key risk factors for shoulder dystocia include : - fetal macrosomia - high maternal body mass index - diabetes mellitus - prolonged labour It usually occurs due to impaction of the anterior fetal shoulder on the maternal pubic symphysis. Additionally help should be called as soon as shoulder dystocia is identified - and McRoberts' manoeuvre should be performed. - -This manoeuvre entails flexion and abduction of the maternal hips, bringing the mother's thighs towards her abdomen. This rotation increases the relative anterior-posterior angle of the pelvis and often facilitates a successful delivery. An episiotomy will not relieve the bony obstruction but is sometimes used to allow better access for internal manoeuvres. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli manoeuvre can cause significant maternal morbidity and are not first-line options. Oxytocin administration is not indicated in shoulder dystocia.

Question 107

Management of chickenpox in pregnancy

Answer 107

- if a pregnant woman develops chickenpox in pregnancy then specialist advice should be sought - there is an increased risk of serious chickenpox infection (i.e. maternal risk) and fetal varicella risk (i.e. fetal risk) balanced against theoretical concerns about the safety of aciclovir in pregnancy - oral aciclovir should be given if the pregnant women is ≥ 20 weeks and she presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash - if the woman is < 20 weeks the aciclovir should be 'considered with caution'

Question 108

What is a common cause of itch in third trimester of of pregnancy?

Answer 108

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. - give a cholestatic picture of liver function tests (LFTs) with a high ALP and GGT, with a lesser rise in ALT. Patients may also be jaundiced with right upper quadrant pain and steatorrhoea. Ursodeoxycholic acid is a common treatment.

Question 109

HIV and pregnancy

Answer 109

Factors which reduce vertical transmission (from 25-30% to 2%) - maternal antiretroviral therapy - mode of delivery (caesarean section) - neonatal antiretroviral therapy - infant feeding (bottle feeding) Screening - NICE guidelines recommend offering HIV screening to all pregnant women Antiretroviral therapy - all pregnant women should be offered antiretroviral therapy regardless of whether they were taking it previously Mode of delivery - vaginal delivery is recommended if viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks, otherwise caesarian section is recommended - a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the caesarean section Neonatal antiretroviral therapy - zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if maternal viral load is <50 copies/ml. Otherwise triple ART should be used. Therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks. Infant feeding - in the UK all women should be advised NOT to breast feed

Question 110

Gestational thrombocytopenia vs immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)

Answer 110

- Gestational thrombocytopenia is a relatively common condition of pregnancy that results from a combination of dilution, decreased production and increased destruction of platelets. Thought to be due to the increased work of the maternal spleen leading to mild sequestration - Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is an autoimmune condition that is usually associated with acute purpuric episodes in children, but a chronic relapsing course may be seen more frequently in women. Gestational thrombocytopenia may be considered more likely if the platelet count continues to fall as pregnancy progresses, but this is not a reliable sign. If the patient becomes dangerously thrombocytopenic, she will usually be treated with steroids and a diagnosis of ITP assumed. Pregnant women found to have low platelets during a booking visit or those with a previous diagnosis of ITP may need to be tested for serum antiplatelet antibodies for confirmation. Gestational thrombocytopenia does NOT affect the neonate, but ITP can do if MATERNAL ANTIBODIES CROSS THE PLACENTA. Depending on the degree of thrombocytopenia in the newborn, platelet transfusions may be indicated. Serial platelet counts can also be performed to see whether there is an inherited thrombocytopenia.

Question 111

Drugs that can be given to mothers who are breastfeeding ?

Answer 111

- antibiotics: penicillins, cephalosporins, trimethoprim - endocrine: glucocorticoids (avoid high doses), levothyroxine* - epilepsy: sodium valproate, carbamazepine - asthma: salbutamol, theophyllines - psychiatric drugs: tricyclic antidepressants, antipsychotics (apart from clozapine) - hypertension: beta-blockers, hydralazine - anticoagulants: warfarin, heparin - digoxin the BNF advises that the amount is too small to affect neonatal hypothyroidism screening

Question 112

Drugs should be avoided during breast feeding?

Answer 112

- antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides - psychiatric drugs: lithium, benzodiazepines - aspirin - carbimazole - methotrexate - sulfonylureas - cytotoxic drugs - amiodarone

Question 113

What can be used to improve the effectiveness of the McRoberts manoeuvre?

Answer 113

McRoberts manoeuvre for Shoulder dystocia | - suprapubic pressure should be used to improve the effectiveness of the McRoberts manoeuvre

Question 114

What should be done to women with a previous baby with GBS disease?

Answer 114

Intrapartum Abx ( this reduces the risk of the baby developing Group B streptococcus.) Maternal intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis should be offered to women with a previous baby with early- or late-onset GBS disease There is no need for antibiotics prior to labour.

Question 115

Transverse lie - what is it ?

Answer 115

The incidence of transverse lie is slightly higher than oblique lie. However, the causes and management options are the same for both. Oblique lie is easier to correct because the foetus is closer to longitudinal lie. Transverse lie is an abnormal foetal presentation whereby the foetal longitudinal axis lies perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. In real terms, this means the foetal head is on the lateral side of the pelvis and the buttocks are opposite. When in transverse lie, the foetus can be either 'scapulo-anterior' (most common) where the foetus faces towards the mother's back or 'scapulo-posterior' where the foetus faces towards the mothers front.

Question 116

What are the types of lie?

Answer 116

'Foetal lie' is the term which refers to the long axis of the foetus relative to the longitudinal axis of the uterus. The 3 types of lie are: 1. longitudinal lie (99.7% of foetuses at term) 2. transverse lie (<0.3% of foetuses at term) 3. oblique (<0.1% of foetuses at term)

Question 117

Transverse lie - risk factors

Answer 117

- Most commonly occurs in women who have had previous pregnancies - Fibroids and other pelvic tumours - Pregnant with twins or triplets - Prematurity - Polyhydramnios - Foetal abnormalities

Question 118

Transverse lie - diagnosis and complications

Answer 118

Diagnosis: - Abnormal foetal lie will be detected during routine antenatal appointments with a midwife during abdominal examination. - Abdominal examination: the head and buttocks are not palpable at each end of the uterus. The foetus can be felt to be lying directly across the uterus. - Ultrasound scan: allows direct visualisation of the foetal lie. Foetal heart rate is also auscultated to assess for distress. Complications: - Pre-term rupture membranes (PROM) - Cord-prolapse (20%) - If allowed to progress to vaginal delivery, compound presentation may occur. This is extremely rare in the UK.

Question 119

Transverse lie - mx

Answer 119

- Before 36 weeks gestation: no management required. The patient should be informed that most foetuses will spontaneously move into longitudinal lie during pregnancy. - After 36 weeks gestation: the patient must have an appointment with the obstetric medical antenatal team to discuss management options: - Active management: perform external cephalic version (ECV) of the foetus. This can be performed late in pregnancy and even early labour if the membranes have not yet ruptured. ECV should be offered to all women who would like a vaginal delivery. Contraindications include maternal rupture in the last 7 days, multiple pregnancy (except for the second twin) and major uterine abnormality. Success rate is around 50% - Elective caesarian section: this is the management for women where the patient opts for caesarian section or ECV has been unsuccessful or is contraindicated. - The decision to perform caesarian section over ECV will be based on the perceived risks to the mother and foetus, the preference of the patient, the patient's previous pregnancies and co-morbidities and the patient's ability to access obstetric care rapidly.

Question 120

Women a risk of neural tube defects?

Answer 120

- Previous child with NTD - Diabetes mellitus - Women on antiepileptic - Obese (body mass index >30kg/m²) - HIV +ve taking co-trimoxazole - Sickle cell thus should take an increased dose of 5mg folic acid. (Folic acid is important for the prevention of neural tube defects and thus it is advised that all women take the standard dose of 0.4mg folic acid a day pre-conception and continue until 13 weeks. Folic acid is started pre-conception because the neural tube is formed within the first 28 days of an embryo’s development – and thus any defect may already be present if a woman waits until her missed period. )

Question 121

What is the cure for pre-eclampsia?

Answer 121

Delivery is the only cure

Question 122

Pre-eclampsia- treatment ?

Answer 122

- consensus guidelines recommend treating blood pressure > 160/110 mmHg although many clinicians have a lower threshold - oral LABETALOL is now first-line following the 2010 NICE guidelines. Nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used - delivery of the baby is the most important and definitive management step. The timing depends on the individual clinical scenario. (After 34 weeks, same day delivery is an option.) (In induced labour, epidural anaesthesia should help reduce BP )

Question 123

What is Mifepristone used for?

Answer 123

medical abortion

Question 124

Prostaglandin E2 is used for?

Answer 124

Initiating labour

Question 125

Indomethacin - can be used as a ...

Answer 125

tocolytics | Indomethacin and salbutamol can be used as tocolytics.

Question 126

What is given after the birth to facilitate delivery of the placenta and to prevent postpartum haemorrhage?

Answer 126

oxytocin/ergometrine

Question 127

FBC of folate or B12 deficiency?

Answer 127

macrocytic anaemia megaloblastic (would see hypersegmented neutrophils- as failure of bone marrow stem cells to make DNA due to B12 or folate deficiency so the nucleus is made up of large clumps of dense chromatin )

Question 128

Oligohydramnios- what is it? causes ?

Answer 128

In oligohydramnios there is reduced amniotic fluid. Definitions vary but include less than 500ml at 32-36 weeks and an amniotic fluid index (AFI) < 5th percentile. This can often present as SMALLER symphysiofundal HEIGHT. Causes - premature rupture of membranes - fetal renal problems e.g. renal agenesis - intrauterine growth restriction - post-term gestation - pre-eclampsia

Question 129

Booking visit- when? What happens?

Answer 129

8 - 12 weeks (ideally < 10 weeks) Booking visit - general information e.g. diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, antenatal classes - BP, urine dipstick, check BMI Booking bloods/urine - FBC, blood group, rhesus status, red cell alloantibodies, haemoglobinopathies - hepatitis B, syphilis - HIV test is offered to all women - urine culture to detect asymptomatic bacteriuria

Question 130

Placental abruption- cause, cf

Answer 130

Placental abruption describes separation of a normally sited placenta from the uterine wall, resulting in maternal haemorrhage into the intervening space Epidemiology occurs in approximately 1/200 pregnancies Cause - not known but associated factors: - proteinuric hypertension - multiparity - maternal trauma - increasing maternal age - cocaine - uterine overdistension - tobacco - previous placental abruption. Clinical features: - shock out of keeping with visible loss (e.g. cold to touch) - Bleeding is present in 80% of cases.Absence of visible bleeding does not rule out this diagnosis. - pain constant - tender, tense uterus - normal lie and presentation - fetal heart: absent/distressed - coagulation problems - beware pre-eclampsia, DIC, anuria

Question 131

Important signs and symptoms to think about when suspecting placental abruption are?

Answer 131

- continuous abdominal pain - shock disproportionate to the amount of blood loss (20% of placental abruptions are 'concealed' - the blood is trapped behind the placenta and does not drain) - the uterus may be in spasm and feel firm or 'woody'- (Tender, tense uterus with normal lie and presentation) - the fetus may be hard to feel - the fetal heart may be hard to auscultate (Fetal heart may be distressed)

Question 132

Early scan to confirm dates - when?

Answer 132

10 - 13+6 weeks

Question 133

First screen for anaemia and atypical red cell alloantibodies-when?

Answer 133

8 - 12 weeks

Question 134

First dose of anti-D prophylaxis to rhesus negative women-n | when?

Answer 134

28 weeks

Question 135

Hydatidiform mole - key features?

Answer 135

- Typically painless vaginal bleeding in first or early second trimester - associated with exaggerated symptoms of pregnancy e.g. hyperemesis - The uterus may be large for dates - serum hCG is very high (The abnormal trophoblastic tissue can produce excessive amounts of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) which may result in hyperemesis gravidarum and thyrotoxicosis (as hCG has a structural resemblance to thyroid stimulating hormone))

Question 136

Bleeding in pregnancy - reasons in 1st trimester?

Answer 136

- Spontaneous abortion - Ectopic pregnancy - Hydatidiform mole

Question 137

What is antepartum haemorrhage defined as?

Answer 137

... as bleeding after 24 weeks

Question 138

Bleeding in pregnancy - reasons in 2nd trimester?

Answer 138

- Spontaneous abortion - Hydatidiform mole - Placental abruption

Question 139

Bleeding in pregnancy - reasons in 3rd trimester?

Answer 139

- Bloody show - Placental abruption - Placenta praevia - Vasa praevia

Question 140

Ectopic pregnancy - key features?

Answer 140

- Typically history of 6-8 weeks amenorrhoea - with lower abdominal pain (usually unilateral) initially and vaginal bleeding later. - Shoulder tip pain and cervical excitation may be present

Question 141

Spontaneous abortion - key features?

Answer 141

1. Threatened miscarriage - painless vaginal bleeding typically around 6-9 weeks 2. Missed (delayed) miscarriage - light vaginal bleeding and symptoms of pregnancy disappear 3. Inevitable miscarriage - complete or incomplete depending or whether all fetal and placental tissue has been expelled. 4. Incomplete miscarriage - heavy bleeding and crampy, lower abdo pain. 5. Complete miscarriage - little bleeding

Question 142

What is the antibiotic of choice for GBS prophylaxis?

Answer 142

IV Benzylpenicillin

Question 143

Puerperal pyrexia - causes and mx

Answer 143

Puerperal pyrexia may be defined as a temperature of > 38ºC in the first 14 days following delivery. Causes: - endometritis: most common cause - urinary tract infection - wound infections (perineal tears + caesarean section) - mastitis - venous thromboembolism Management - if endometritis is suspected the patient should be REFERRED TO HOSPITAL for IV ABX (clindamycin and gentamicin until afebrile for greater than 24 hours)

Question 144

What is the most common explanation for short episodes of decreased variability on CTG?

Answer 144

That the foetus is asleep - (short episodes <40 mins ) However, if the decreased variability lasts for more than 40 minutes, we start to worry.

Question 145

Why is Anti D given?

Answer 145

- Fetomaternal haemorrhage (FMH) can cause antibodies to form in the maternal circulation that can haemolyse fetal red blood cells. - to prevent complications such as haemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn. - Anti-D works by neutralising RhD-antigens (from RhD-positive fetal red cells) - However, if the woman is known to be sensitised already (antibodies present in her circulation), then this cannot be reversed and anti-D will not work. (Bloods are taken at booking and 28 weeks in RhD-negative woman to look for antibodies, showing previous sensitisation).

Question 146

Rhesus negative pregnancy - pathophysiology?

Answer 146

A basic understanding of the pathophysiology is essential to understand the management of Rhesus negative pregnancies - along with the ABO system the Rhesus system is the most important antigen found on red blood cells. The D antigen is the most important antigen of the rhesus system - around 15% of mothers are rhesus negative (Rh -ve) - if a Rh -ve mother delivers a Rh +ve child a leak of fetal red blood cells may occur - this causes anti-D IgG antibodies to form in mother - in later pregnancies these can cross placenta and cause haemolysis in fetus - this can also occur in the first pregnancy due to leaks

Question 147

When should Anti-D be given within 72 hours?

Answer 147

Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given as soon as possible (but always within 72 hours) in the following situations: - delivery of a Rh +ve infant, whether live or stillborn - any termination of pregnancy - miscarriage if gestation is > 12 weeks - ectopic pregnancy (if managed surgically, if managed medically with methotrexate anti-D is not required) - external cephalic version - antepartum haemorrhage - amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, fetal blood sampling - abdominal trauma

Question 148

Rhesus negative pregnancy | - tests ?

Answer 148

- all babies born to Rh -ve mother should have cord blood taken at delivery for FBC, blood group & direct Coombs test - Coombs test: direct antiglobulin, will demonstrate antibodies on RBCs of baby - Kleihauer test: add acid to maternal blood, fetal cells are resistant

Question 149

Rhesus negative pregnancy- Affected fetus?

Answer 149

- oedematous (hydrops fetalis, as liver devoted to RBC production albumin falls) - jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly - heart failure - kernicterus - treatment: transfusions, UV phototherapy

Question 150

Syntocinon- what does it do?

Answer 150

syntocinon stimulates contractions - can be used in IOL

Question 151

Pregnancy: investigations for patients with a suspected DVT?

Answer 151

Compression DUPLEX ultrasound should be undertaken where there is clinical suspicion of DVT D-dimer is of limited use in the investigation of thromboembolism as it often raised in pregnancy.

Question 152

Pregnancy: investigations for patients with a suspected PE

Answer 152

- ECG and chest x-ray should be performed in all patients - In women who also have symptoms and signs of DVT, compression DUPLEX ultrasound should be performed. If compression ultrasonography confirms the presence of DVT, no further investigation is necessary and treatment for VTE should continue - the decision to perform a V/Q or CTPA should be taken at a local level after discussion with the patient and radiologist D-dimer is of limited use in the investigation of thromboembolism as it often raised in pregnancy.

Question 153

Comparing CTPA to V/Q scanning in pregnancy

Answer 153

CTPA - CTPA slightly increases the lifetime risk of maternal breast cancer - Pregnancy makes breast tissue particularly sensitive to the effects of radiation V/Q scanning - V/Q scanning carries a slightly increased risk of childhood cancer compared with CTPA)

Question 154

What is the Kleihauer test?

Answer 154

A test for FMH which detects fetal cells in the maternal circulation and, if present, estimates the volume of FMH to allow calculation of additional anti-D immunoglobulin. According to BCSH guidelines, it is required for ANY sensitising event after 20 weeks gestation.

Question 155

Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy - if not immune give ...

Answer 155

VZIG | varicella-zoster immunoglobulin

Question 156

Post-term pregnancy? What is it? Potential complications?

Answer 156

Post-term pregnancy as one that has extended to or beyond 42 weeks. Potential complications/consequences: 1. Neonatal - -Reduced placental perfusion - -Oligohydramnios 2. Maternal - -Increased rates of intervention including forceps and caesarean section - -Increased rates of labour induction

Question 157

Monoamniotic monozygotic twins are associated with:

Answer 157

- increased spontaneous miscarriage, perinatal mortality rate - increased malformations, IUGR, prematurity - twin-to-twin transfusions: recipient is larger with polyhydramnios (do laser ablation of interconnecting vessels)

Question 158

What is twin to twin transfusions?

Answer 158

- Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) is a relatively common complication of monochorionic twin pregnancies. - The two fetuses share a single placenta, meaning that blood can flow between the twins. - In TTTS, one fetus, the 'donor' receives a lesser share of the placenta's blood flow than the other twin, the 'recipient'. This is due to abnormalities in the network of placental blood vessels. - The recipient may become fluid-overloaded whilst the donor can become anaemic. - One fetus may have oligohydramnios and the other may have polyhydramnios as a result of differences in urine production, causing additional problems. - In severe cases, TTTS can be fatal for one or both fetuses. TTTS usually occurs in early or mid-pregnancy, thus ultrasound examinations performed between 16 and 24 weeks focus on detecting this condition. After 24 weeks the main purpose of ultrasound examinations is to detect fetal growth restriction.

Question 159

PPH - What is the most appropriate initial surgical intervention?

Answer 159

Intrauterine balloon tamponade

Question 160

What screening tool is used for postnatal depression?

Answer 160

The Edinburgh Scale

Question 161

Nuchal scan- when ? causes on increased nuchal translucency?

Answer 161

nuchal translucency include: - Down's syndrome - congenital heart defects - abdominal wall defects

Question 162

Causes of hyperechogenic bowel?

Answer 162

- cystic fibrosis - Down's syndrome - cytomegalovirus infection

Question 163

When is anti D given?

Answer 163

28 + 34 weeks rhesus negative woman anti-D at 28 weeks followed by a second dose at 34 weeks

Question 164

Group B streptococcus (GBS) bacteriuria is associated with an increased risk of..

Answer 164

- chorioamnionitis | - neonatal sepsis

Question 165

GBS - how should women be managed with respect to delivering her baby in a few weeks time after UTI caused by GBS?

Answer 165

women with GBS bacteriuria should therefore be offered intrapartum antibiotics IN ADDITION addition to appropriate treatment at the time of diagnosis

Question 166

PPROM - Ix?

Answer 166

- sterile speculum examination - if there is no fluid in the posterior vaginal vault then an USS may be used to look for oligohydramnios

Question 167

What is the first line anti-hypertensive for pre-eclampsia in women with severe asthma

Answer 167

Nifedipine

Question 168

What is the first line Ix in PPROM?

Answer 168

Careful speculum examination to look for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault

Question 169

A pregnant woman with abdominal trauma should have...

Answer 169

Blood testing and Rhesus testing | - Rhesus testing asap because women who are Rhesus-negative should be given anti-D to prevent Rhesus isoimmunization.

Question 170

Human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) is secreted by...

Answer 170

syncytiotrophoblast - into the maternal bloodstream, where is acts to maintain the production of progesterone by the corpus luteum in early pregnancy

Question 171

Human chorionic gonadotropin

Answer 171

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone first produced by the embryo and later by the placental trophoblast. Its main role is to prevent the disintegration of the corpus luteum hCG levels double approximately every 48 hours in the first few weeks of pregnancy. Levels peak at around 8-10 weeks gestation. Measurement of hCG levels form the basis of many pregnancy testing kits

Question 172

Placenta praevia- Ix ?

Answer 172

transvaginal ultrasound | - as it improves the accuracy of placental localisation and is considered safe.

Question 173

What is raised in obstetric cholestasis?

Answer 173

bile acids that are raised - obstetric cbolestasis diagnosed if there are abnormal liver function tests, with pruritis in the absence of a skin rash

Question 174

Who should have an increased dose of folic acid in pregnancy?

Answer 174

Should be given high dose 5mg folic acid - obesity - previous pregnancy with NTD - family history of NTD - use of antiepileptic drugs - coeliac - diabetes - thalassaemia trait

Question 175

What would be expected in a trisomy 21 (Down's syndrome) pregnancy?

Answer 175

- Low alpha fetoprotein (AFP) - Low oestriol - High human chorionic gonadotrophin beta-subunit (-HCG) - Low pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) - Thickened nuchal translucency

Question 176

Down's syndrome: antenatal testing

Answer 176

- The combined test is now standard: nuchal translucency measurement + serum B-HCG + pregnancy associated plasma protein A - these tests should be done between 11 - 13+6 weeks - if women book later in pregnancy either the triple* or quadruple test** should be offered between 15 - 20 weeks *alpha-fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, human chorionic gonadotrophin **alpha-fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, human chorionic gonadotrophin and inhibin-A

Question 177

What is used to reduce risk of intrauterine growth retardation due to pre-eclampsia?

Answer 177

low-dose aspirin started at 12-14 weeks' gestation | - reduces perinatal mortality and reducing the risk of babies being born small for gestational age

Question 178

Is placenta abruption painful?

Answer 178

YES Placenta abruption presents with PAINFUL vaginal bleeding (placenta praevia is usually painless)

Question 179

Woman who had her rubella status checked as she didn't have the MMR vaccine and Rubella IgG not detected - what next?

Answer 179

Advise her of the risks and the need to keep away fro anyone who has rubella

Question 180

What manoeuvre should be performed if shoulder dystocia?

Answer 180

Mc Robert's manoeuvre

Question 181

What normally happens to blood pressure during pregnancy?

Answer 181

Falls in first half of pregnancy before rising to pre-pregnancy levels before term.

Question 182

Newborns- GBS -treatment?

Answer 182

Maternal colonisation with group B streptococcus is a minor risk factor for early onset sepsis in the newborn. Newborns with only one minor risk factor for early onset sepsis should remain in hospital for at least 24 hours with regular observations. Two or more minor risk factor or one red flag warrant empirical antibiotic therapy with BENZYLPENICILLIN and GENTAMICIN and a full septic screen.

Question 183

Reg flags - newborns - GBS?

Answer 183

Red flags include the following: - Suspected or confirmed infection in another baby in the case of a multiple pregnancy - Parenteral antibiotic treatment given to the woman for confirmed or suspected invasive bacterial infection (such as septicaemia) at any time during labour, or in the 24-hour periods before and after the birth [This does not refer to intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis] - Respiratory distress starting more than 4 hours after birth - Seizures - Need for mechanical ventilation in a term baby - Signs of shock

Question 184

What is the definitive treatment for delayed placental delivery in patients with placenta accreta?

Answer 184

Hysterectomy

Question 185

Placenta accreta

Answer 185

Placenta accreta describes the attachment of the placenta to the myometrium, due to a defective decidua basalis. As the placenta does not properly separate during labour there is a risk of post-partum haemorrhage. Risk factors - previous caesarean section - placenta praevia

Question 186

Types of placenta accreta

Answer 186

Strictly speaking, there are 3 different types of placenta accreta, depending on the degree of invasion although this is quite small print: accreta: chorionic villi attach to the myometrium, rather than being restricted within the decidua basalis increta: chorionic villi invade into the myometrium percreta: chorionic villi invade through the perimetrium

Question 187

What are the blood findings on HELLP syndrome?

Answer 187

haemolysis elevated liver enzymes low platelets

Question 188

How does the blood look in placenta praaevia?

Answer 188

bright red | Meanwhile the bleeding associated with placental abruption is associated with pain and is usually dark red.

Question 189

How to differentiate vasa praevia and placental praevia?

Answer 189

Vasa praevia can also present with painless vaginal bleeding - however there would include fetal bradycardia and membrane rupture.

Question 190

When doe amniotic fluid embolism tend to occur?

Answer 190

usually occur during or within 30 minutes of labour

Question 191

What are clear signs of amniotic fluid embolism?

Answer 191

Respiratory distress, hypoxia, and hypotension

Question 192

Triad of chorioamnionitis?

Answer 192

triad of: 1. maternal pyrexia 2. maternal tachycardia 3. fetal tachycardia Should think chorioamniotis in women with preterm -PROM with this triad

Question 193

Management of uterine atony

Answer 193

In addition to the usual steps taken in an episode of PPH (including an ABC approach if the patient is unstable), the following management should be initiated in sequence: - bimanual uterine compression to manually stimulate contraction (UTERINE MASSAGE) - intravenous oxytocin and/or ergometrine - intramuscular carboprost - intramyometrial carboprost - rectal misoprostol - surgical intervention such as balloon tamponade

Question 194

How should pre-eclampsia be managed around 37 weeks?

Answer 194

Recommend delivery within 24-48 hours in those women who has pre-eclampsia with mild or moderate hypertension after 37 weeks. Magnesium sulphate is used to treat women with severe hypertension or severe pre-eclampsia that have already had a seizure. IV magnesium sulphate should also be considered if birth is planned within 24 hours or if there is concern that a woman may develop eclampsia.

Question 195

Pregnant woman with a previous VTE history- treatment ?

Answer 195

LMWH throughout pregnancy until 6 weeks postnatal

Question 196

The causes of a primary PPH ?

Answer 196

The causes of a primary PPH can be divided into the 4 T's: 1. Tone - problems with uterine contraction 2. Tissue - retained products of conception 3. Trauma 4. Thrombin The most common cause of primary PPH is due to uterine atony.

Question 197

What is the first choice pharmacological management to arrest the bleeding in PPH?

Answer 197

IV syntocinon (oxytocin)

Question 198

Medication for mastitis?

Answer 198

The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin for 10-14 days. | - Breastfeeding or expressing SHOULD continue during treatment.

Question 199

Management of cord prolapse initially?

Answer 199

To prevent cord compression, it is recommended that - the presenting part be elevated either manually (place hand into vagina to elevate presenting part) or by filling the urinary bladder.'

Question 200

What is the third stage of labour?

Answer 200

The third stage of labour is measured from the birth of the baby to the expulsion of the placenta and membranes. (Active management of this stage is recommended in order to reduce post-partum haemorrhage (PPH) and the need for blood transfusion post delivery. )

Question 201

Active management of third stage of labour includes?

Answer 201

Active management lasts less than 30 minutes and involves the following: - Uterotonic drugs- 10 IU OXYTOCIN by IM injection (given after ) - Deferred clamping and cutting of cord, over 1 minute after delivery but less then 5 minutes - Controlled cord traction after signs of placental separation

Question 202

What drug is given in the third stage of labour?

Answer 202

Oxytocin

Question 203

What can be used to induce labour?

Answer 203

- membrane sweeping | - vaginal prostaglandin gel

Question 204

What is the combined test?

Answer 204

Downs Syndrome screening tests - The combined test is recommended at 10-14 weeks gestation. - It involves an ultrasound scan for nuchal translucency and - a blood test for levels of Beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-hCG) and pregnancy associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). - In pregnancies with Down Syndrome, PAPP-A is low and beta-hCG raised.

Question 205

Is hep B or hep C routinely screening for during pregnancy?

Answer 205

Hepatitis B

Question 206

What is lactation mastitis?

Answer 206

Is inflammation in the interlobular connective tissue of the breast, which may or may not be associated with infection. It occurs in around 10% on breast feeding women and is most common six weeks post-partum.

Question 207

How does mastitis clinically present?

Answer 207

Accumulation of milk in breast tissue causes an inflammatory response (non-infectious mastitis) with inadequate milk removal predisposing to bacterial growth (infectious mastitis). Clinically this presents as a: - painful breast, with fever, malaise and a tender, red, swollen and hard area of the breast - usually in a wedge-shaped distribution.

Question 208

Infectious mastitis should be suspected if:

Answer 208

- Symptoms do not improve or are worsening after 12-24 hours despite effective milk removal. - The woman has a nipple fissure that is infected. - Bacterial culture is positive (breast milk culture is not routinely required unless mastitis is severe, there has been no response to antibiotics, or this is recurrent mastitis).

Question 209

When is Abx recommended in mastitis?

Answer 209

Antibiotics are only recommended if the lady has an infected nipple fissure, symptoms do not improve or are worsening after 12-24 hours despite effective milk removal, or bacterial culture is positive.

Question 210

What is the definition of PPH?

Answer 210

Primary postpartum haemorrhage is defined as the loss of 500ml or more from the genital tract within 24 hours of the birth of a baby. - This can be further defined as minor haemorrhage (500-1000ml) or major haemorrhage (>1000ml), and causes 6 deaths/million deliveries.

Question 211

What warrants continuous CTG monitoring during labour?

Answer 211

If any of the following are present or arise during labour; - suspected chorioamnionitis or sepsis, or a temperature of 38°C or above - severe hypertension 160/110 mmHg or above - oxytocin use - the presence of significant meconium - fresh vaginal bleeding that develops in labour (Fresh vaginal bleeds developing in labour could be a sign of placental rupture (the most common cause of antepartum haemorrhage) or placental praevia (second most common cause of antepartum haemorrhage) and therefore monitoring of the baby is required.)

Question 212

What is an absolute contraindication for induction of labour?

Answer 212

Previous classical Caesarean section is an absolute contraindication for induction of labour.

Question 213

In addition to Syntometrine or oxytocin - what can be done to help with a PPH situation ?

Answer 213

Based the degree of blood loss this woman should be advised to have Syntometrine or oxytocin to contract her uterus. In addition, clinicians should perform CORD TRACTION during the third stage of labour and massage the uterus after delivery of the placenta. (If this does not work then other measures may be required such as blood transfusion and manual removal of the placenta)

Question 214

What medication is contraindicated in the first trimester of pregnancy?

Answer 214

Trimethoprim -Trimethoprim is a folate antagonist and so is teratogenic in the first trimester of pregnancy. (NICE guidelines advise prescribing nitrofurantoin 50mg qds or 100mg modified release bd for seven days first line for pregnant women with a UTI)

Question 215

Risks of drinking alcohol in pregnancy?

Answer 215

- Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) - learning difficulties - characteristic facies: smooth philtrum, thin vermilion, small palpebral fissures - IUGR & postnatal restricted growth - microcephaly Binge drinking is a major risk factor for FAS

Question 216

Risks of Heroin in pregnancy?

Answer 216

Risk of neonatal abstinence syndrome

Question 217

Induction would be inappropriate when there is ..

Answer 217

an abnormal CTG

Question 218

When is CTG used?

Answer 218

``` A cardiotocogram (CTG) measures fetal heart rate and uterine contractions. It is used when there are risk factors for foetal hypoxia, such as pre-eclampsia, post-dates gestation, induction of labour, epidural use and prolonged labour. ```

Question 219

mnemonic is helpful in interpreting CTGs

Answer 219

DR C BRA VADO: - DR- define risk: why is this patient on a CTG monitor? e.g. pre-eclampsia, antepartum haemorrhage, maternal obesity, maternal ill health - C- contractions. Look at the bottom of the trace, each contraction is shown by a peak. In established labour you would expect 5 contractions in 10 minutes. Each large square = 1 minute duration, so count the number of contractions in 10 squares. - BRA- baseline rate. The fetal baseline rate should be approximately 110-160 beats per minute. Each large square = 10 beats and each small square = 5 beats. A fetal bradycardia is below 110 beats per minute and a fetal tachycardia is above 160 beats per minute. - V- baseline variability. The fetal heart rate should vary between 5 to 25 beats per minute. Below 5 beats per minute, the variability is said to be reduced. - A- accelerations. Are there accelerations in fetal heart rate? Accelerations are a rise in fetal heart rate of at least 15 beats lasting for 15 seconds or more. There should be 2 separate accelerations every 15 minutes. Accelerations typically occur with contractions. - D- decelerations. Are there decelerations in fetal heart rate? These are a reduction in fetal heart rate by 15 beats or more for at least 15 seconds. Decelerations are generally abnormal and should prompt senior review. In particular, late decelerations, which are slow to recover are indicative of fetal hypoxia. - O- overall impression/diagnosis. As a medical student it is important to be aware of two features- terminal bradycardia and terminal decelerations. A terminal bradycardia is when the baseline fetal heart rate drops to below 100 beats per minute for more than 10 minutes. A terminal deceleration is when the heart rate drops and does not recover for more than 3 minutes. These make up a 'pre-terminal' CTG and are indicators for Emergency Caesarean section.

Question 220

How to look if a foetus has acidosis?

Answer 220

Investigated with fetal scalp blood sampling and an ABG, looking for acidosis.

Question 221

What oral hypoglycaemics is safe when breastfeeding?

Answer 221

Metformin

Question 222

Obstetric cholestasis is caused by?

Answer 222

The impaired flow of bile. This, in turn, causes a build-up of bile salts which can then deposit in the skin (causing pruritus) as well as the placenta. Although the pruritic symptoms can be distressing for the mother, the build of bile salts can also be detrimental to foetal well-being. The combination of the immature foetal liver's ability to cope with breaking down the excessive bile salt levels as well as the vasoconstricting effect of bile salts on human placental chorionic veins, has been theorised to be the cause of sudden asphyxial events in the foetus leading to anoxia and death.

Question 223

What is first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate induced respiratory depression

Answer 223

Calcium gluconate

Question 224

Anaemia in pregnancy - cut off values?

Answer 224

- first trimester Hb less than 110 g/l - second/third trimester Hb less than 105 g/l - postpartum Hb less than 100 g/

Question 225

Pregnant women are screened for anaemia at?

Answer 225

- the booking visit (often done at 8-10 weeks), and at | - 28 weeks

Question 226

C-offs to determine whether a woman should receive oral iron therapy:

Answer 226

Booking visit < 11 g/dl | 28 weeks < 10.5 g/dl

Question 227

Mild hypertension?

Answer 227

Systolic: 140-149 mmHg Diastolic: 90-99 mmHg

Question 228

Moderate hypertension?

Answer 228

Systolic: 150-159 mmHg Diastolic: 100-109 mmHg

Question 229

Severe hypertension?

Answer 229

Systolic: >160 mmHg Diastolic: >110 mmHg

Question 230

If you can't give labetalol due o asthma - what can you give for HTN?

Answer 230

- nifedipine | - methyldopa

Question 231

serum ALP can be raised in pregnancy due to ...

Answer 231

placental ALP

Question 232

When is ECV offered?

Answer 232

external cephalic version (ECV). ECV should be offered from 36 weeks if the baby is still breech. If the lady was multiparous ECV would be offered from 37 weeks.

Question 233

Can rivaroxaban be used?

Answer 233

Novel oral anticoagulants are contraindicated for use in pregnancy and therefore women already on NOACs should be changed over to low molecular weight heparin

Question 234

A molar pregnancy is also called a ...

Answer 234

Hydatidiform mole - and is a pre-cancerous form of gestational trophoblastic disease Molar pregnancies are caused by an imbalance in chromosomes in pregnancy. They are non viable pregnancies.

Question 235

USS - Hydatidiform mole?

Answer 235

On ultrasound, the mole appears as a solid collection of echoes with numerous small anechoic spaces which resembles a bunch of grapes (also known as 'snow-storm' appearance).

Question 236

Gestational trophoblastic disorders- what is it

Answer 236

Describes a spectrum of disorders originating from the placental trophoblast: - complete hydatidiform mole - partial hydatidiform mole - choriocarcinoma

Question 237

Complete hydatidiform mole- features and mx

Answer 237

Benign tumour of trophoblastic material. Occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that then duplicates its own DNA, hence the all 46 chromosomes are of paternal origin Features - bleeding in first or early second trimester - exaggerated symptoms of pregnancy e.g. hyperemesis - uterus large for dates - very high serum levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) - hypertension and hyperthyroidism* may be seen (*hCG can mimic thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)) Management urgent referral to specialist centre - evacuation of the uterus is performed effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months Around 2-3% go on to develop choriocarcinoma

Question 238

Partial mole

Answer 238

In a partial mole a normal haploid egg may be fertilized by two sperms, or by one sperm with duplication of the paternal chromosomes. Therefore the DNA is both maternal and paternal in origin. Usually triploid - e.g. 69 XXX or 69 XXY. Fetal parts may be seen

Question 239

Hepatitis B and pregnancy

Answer 239

- all pregnant women are offered screening for hepatitis B - babies born to mothers who are chronically infected with hepatitis B or to mothers who've had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy should receive a complete course of vaccination + hepatitis B immunoglobulin - studies are currently evaluating the role of oral antiviral treatment (e.g. Lamivudine) in the latter part of pregnancy - there is little evidence to suggest caesarean section reduces vertical transmission rates - hepatitis B cannot be transmitted via breastfeeding (in contrast to HIV)

Question 240

Does IOL increase or decrease the incidence of shoulder dystocia?

Answer 240

Induction of labour at term can actually reduce the incidence of shoulder dystocia in women with gestational diabetes.

Question 241

Nutritional supplements in pregnancy

Answer 241

- folic acid 400mcg should be given from before conception until 12 weeks to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Certain women may require higher doses (women who take antiepileptics) - iron supplementation should not be offered routinely - vitamin A supplementation (intake above 700 micrograms) might be tetragenic. Liver is high in vitamin A so consumption should be avoided - vitamin D: 'women should be advised to take a vitamin D supplement (10 micrograms of vitamin D per day), as found in the Healthy Start multivitamin supplement. Women who are not eligible for the Healthy Start benefit should be advised where they can buy the supplement'. Particular care should be taken with higher risk women (i.e. those with darker skin or who cover their skin for cultural reasons)

Question 242

Food-acquired infections

Answer 242

- listeriosis: avoid unpasteurised milk, ripened soft cheeses (Camembert, Brie, blue-veined cheeses), pate or undercooked meat - salmonella: avoid raw or partially cooked eggs and meat, especially poultry

Question 243

Air travel during pregnancy

Answer 243

- women > 37 weeks with singleton pregnancy and no additional risk factors should avoid air travel - women with uncomplicated, multiple pregnancies should avoid travel by air once >32 weeks - associated with increased risk of venous thromboembolism - wearing correctly fitted compression stockings is effective at reducing the risk

Question 244

Exercise in pregnancy

Answer 244

- women should be informed that beginning or continuing moderate exercise is not associated with adverse outcomes - certain activities should be avoided e,g, high-impact sports where there is a risk of abdominal trauma and scuba diving

Question 245

Common indications of Instrumental delivery?

Answer 245

- a prolonged active second stage - maternal exhaustion - fetal distress - breech presentation and prophylactic use in medical conditions e.g. cardiovascular disease, hypertension. - It can also be used to rotate a malpositioned fetal head.

Question 246

The requirements for instrumental delivery...

Answer 246

Can be easily remembered by the mnemonic FORCEPS: - Fully dilated cervix generally the second stage of labour must have been reached - OA position preferably OP delivery is possible with Keillands forceps and ventouse. The position of the head must be known as incorrect placement of forceps or ventouse could lead to maternal or fetal trauma and failure - Ruptured Membranes - Cephalic presentation - Engaged presenting part i.e. head at or below ischial spines the head must not be palpable abdominally - Pain relief - Sphincter (bladder) empty this will usually require catheterization There must also be a clear indication for instrumental delivery

Question 247

Indications for a forceps delivery include...

Answer 247

- fetal distress in the second stage of labour - maternal distress in the second stage of labour - failure to progress in the second stage of labour - control of head in breech deliver

Question 248

The diagnosis of postpartum thyroiditis is based upon...

Answer 248

clinical manifestations and thyroid function tests alone

Question 249

Postpartum thyroiditis can be definitively diagnosed based on three criteria:

Answer 249

1) Patient is within 12 months of giving birth 2) Clinical manifestations are suggestive of hypothyroidism 3) Thyroid function tests support diagnosis

Question 250

Post-partum thyroiditis

Answer 250

Three stages 1. Thyrotoxicosis 2. Hypothyroidism 3. Normal thyroid function (but high recurrence rate in future pregnancies)

Question 251

Post-partum thyroiditis - Management

Answer 251

- the thyrotoxic phase is not usually treated with anti-thyroid drugs as the thyroid is not overactive. Propranolol is typically used for symptom control - the hypothyroid phase is usually treated with thyroxine

Question 252

Which may cause a patient to have a raised AFP?

Answer 252

AFP - raised with fetal abdominal wall defects (e.g. omphalocele).

Question 253

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein produced by...

Answer 253

the developing fetus

Question 254

Increased AFP causes

Answer 254

- Neural tube defects (meningocele, myelomeningocele and anencephaly) - Abdominal wall defects (omphalocele and gastroschisis) - Multiple pregnancy

Question 255

Decreased AFP causes

Answer 255

- Down's syndrome - Trisomy 18 - Maternal diabetes mellitus

Question 256

Stage 2 of labour

Answer 256

Stage 2 - from full dilation to delivery of the fetus - 'passive second stage' refers to the 2nd stage but in the absence of pushing (normal) - active second stage' refers to the active process of maternal pushing - less painful than 1st (pushing masks pain) - lasts approximately 1 hours - if longer than 1 hour (can be left longer if epidural) consider Ventouse extraction, forceps delivery or caesarean section - episiotomy may be necessary following crowning - associated with transient fetal bradycardia

Question 257

Target BP

Answer 257

aim for BP <135/85mmHg

Question 258

Target diastolic blood pressure ?

Answer 258

80-100mmHg

Question 259

What is the correct definition of primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)?

Answer 259

The loss of 500 ml or more of blood from the genital tract within 24 hours of the birth of a baby

Question 260

Molar pregnancy - beta HCG?

Answer 260

Molar pregnancies are characterised by significantly high levels of beta hCG for gestational age, and are therefore used as a tumour marker of gestational trophoblastic disease. (The biochemical structure of beta hCG is very similar to that of luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). That being said, high levels of beta hCG can stimulate the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine (T4), and then triiodothyronine (T3). This can result in signs and symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. High levels of T4 and T3 have a negative feedback effect on the pituitary gland to stop secretion of TSH, causing and overall reduction in TSH levels. )

Question 261

What would tests be expected to show in molar pregnancy?

Answer 261

High beta hCG low TSH high thyroxine

Question 262

What treatment should be given to the baby if mother is surface antigen positive (Hep B)?

Answer 262

- Hep B vaccine immediately - 0.5 milimetres of HBIG within 12 hours of birth - a further hepatitis vaccine at 1-2 months - a further vaccine at 6 months

Question 263

The woodscrew manoeuvre

Answer 263

The woodscrew manoeuvre describes the action of putting a hand in the vagina an rotating the foetus 180 degrees in attempt to 'dislodge' the anterior shoulder from the symphysis pubis. - in shoulder dystocia

Question 264

What is the bacterium which causes Group B Streptococcal disease (GBS)

Answer 264

Streptococcus agalacticae

Question 265

Epilepsy + pregnancy , implications for folic acid?

Answer 265

5mg folic acid

Question 266

Which diabetes medication is contradicted in pregnancy?

Answer 266

Both gliclazide and liraglutide are contraindicated in pregnancy.

Question 267

What is the commonest cause of cardiac abnormality occurring in pregnant women.

Answer 267

Mitral stenosis - Mitral stenosis causes a mid diastolic murmur which may be difficult to auscultate unless the patient is placed into the left lateral position. These patients are at risk of atrial fibrillation (up to 40%), which can also contribute to rapid decompensation - Balloon valvuloplasty is the treatment of choice.

Question 268

Aortic dissection is associated with ...

Answer 268

he 3rd trimester of pregnancy, connective tissue disorders (Marfan's, Ehlers- Danlos) and bicuspid valve

Question 269

Are cephalosporins safe to use in breastfeeding?

Answer 269

Cephalosporins in breastfeeding are considered safe to use | e.g. ceftriaxone

Question 270

Galactocele - differentiated from a breast abscess ?

Answer 270

Galactocele can usually be differentiated from a breast abscess by clinical history and examination findings alone, without need for further investigation

Question 271

After 24 weeks you would only expect the fundal height to increase by ...

Answer 271

 1cm a week.

Question 272

ALT

Answer 272

Shouldn't be higher than 32- sign of OC, PET, infection (immunological cause )