obstetrics Flashcards

1
Q

What is gravidity?

What is parity?

How would you record the gravidity and parity of a pregnant patient, with one live delivery at 40 weeks, 1 miscarriage at 20 weeks and 1 TOP at 10 weeks?

A

GRAVIDITY = How many times a woman has been pregnant, incl:

  • Miscarriage
  • Ectopic
  • Termination
  • Live birth
  • Still birth
  • Molar
  • CURRENT PREGNANCY!

PARITY = How many babies a woman has delivered at 24+ weeks gestation

G4P1+2 = pregnant patient, with one live delivery at 40 weeks, 1 miscarriage at 20 weeks and 1 TOP at 10 weeks.

(nb twins count as one in terms of G + P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

definition of nulliparous and multiparous? (incl gestation dates)

difference between miscarriage and stillbirth?

A

NULLIPAROUS = no delivery of a baby >24 weeks gestation

MULTIPAROUS = has had 1 or more deliveries of baby >24weeks

miscarriage = loss at <24wks
still birth = loss at >24wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the gestation weeks for the three pregnancy trimesters?

What is the definition of ‘term’?

A

1st Trimester = weeks 1 -12

2nd Trimester = weeks 13-27

3rd Trimester = weeks 28 – delivery.

37-42 weeks

nb term +3 menas baby is 3 days over due date

eg 20+4 means baby has gestation of 20wks and 4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a normal foetal heart beat?

What should you always do while auscultating foetal heart beat?

A

100-160bpm

make sure to palpate maternal radial pulse while auscultating FHR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is ‘normal’ labour?

A

Where 37-40 weeks gestation, with singleton pregnancy. Where presentation is cephalic. No medical issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What changes occur during spontaneous labour to the:

  • myometrium (of uterus)? 2
  • cervix? 2
  • hormones? 2
A

Myometrium

  • Stretching increases muscle excitability & contractility
  • Contractions

Cervix
- Decrease in collagen and increase in water content -> cervix softens effaces and dilates

Hormones

  • Increased oestrogen -> prostaglandins and oxytocin
  • Prostaglandins and oxytocins are myometrial stimulants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the difference between latent and established labour in terms of contraction frequency and dilatations?

what are the 3 stages of established labour? (incl dilatations etc)

A

Latent phase of labour
= Dilation up to 4cm
= Contractions every hour to every 10 mins

Established labour
= Dilation from 4cm and more
= Contractions every 3-4mins with 1min of contractions

Stages of established labour

FIRST = From onset of established labour (4cm) to full dilation of cervix (10cm)

SECOND = From full dilitation to birth of bay

THIRD = From birth of the baby to expulsion of the placenta and membranes

Nb during contractions, the myometrium doesn’t fully relax between contractions so progressively gets shorter which pushes the baby out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the best thing a woman can do when in the 1st stage of labour?

why does this help?

A

MOBILISING

  • walking
  • squatting
  • kneeling
  • hands + knees
  • birthing ball
  • Assists progression of labour in 1st stage
  • Waling around and remaining in upright position

reduces risk of needing LSCS, epidural and generally speeds up duration of labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two stages of the second stage of established labour?

A

PASSIVE STAGE

  • Full dilatation until the head reaches the pelvic floor + desire to push.
  • Rotation and flexion commonly completed – stage may last a few minutes but can be much longer.

ACTIVE STAGE = mother is pushing

  • Pressure of head on pelvic floor produces irresistible desire to bear down. Pushing with contractions.
  • Perineal bulging plus anal dilatation.
  • 1-2 hours for primiparous, av. 1hr in multiparous.
  • Head delivered and restitutes, shoulders delivered (anterior shoulder first).
  • Midwife to note time of delivery of head – if shoulder dystocia occurs

nb in active stage can use a warm wet towel on perineum to reduce risk / severity of tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

THIRD STAGE OF LABOUR:

  • how long does it normally take?
  • normal blood loss?
  • difference between active and passive management? (incl drug name for active)
A

ie from delivery of infant to delivery of placenta

Up to 30 minutes

Normal blood loss is 500ml

Uterine muscle fibres contract to compress the blood vessels formally supplying the placenta, which shears away from uterine wall

In Hospital, active management of placenta delivery is common to reduce bleeding:

  • Use of uterotonic drugs e.g. syntometrine (combination of oxytocin and ergometrine)
  • Deferred clamping and cutting of the cord
  • Controlled cord traction – apply counter pressure just above pubic bone to guard the uterus and apply gentle downwards traction on the cord

passive is just letting woman do on their own - women may prefer as no hormones, but will take longer and may be more blood loss
- nb midwife doesn’t apply traction to cord in passive

nb don’t use syntometrine if raised BP as ergometrine will raise BP further

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is deferred clamping and cutting of the cord?

why is it done? when can it not be done?

A

technically when wait until cord stops pulsating before cutting it (norma takes a few mins)
- in reality just wait a couple of mins

reduces risk of anaemia in baby as cord blood is part of foetal blood supply

can’t be done if baby in severe distress and needs resus fast (then clamp as quick as poss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the definition of a post-partum haemorrhage (PPH)?

ie how many mls?

A

anything more than 500ml blood loss

don’t forget to weigh swabs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pain relief options during labour:

  • non-pharm? 5
  • pharmalogical? 4
A
  • massage
  • relaxation + breathing (eg hypnobreathing)
  • water
  • mobilisation
  • verbal support throughout (reduces the need for pharm)
  • nitrous oxide (gas + air)
  • epidural
  • paracetamol
  • opiates (diamorphine)

nb if give epidural or opiates, need to do CTG monitoring for at least 30 mins afterwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is the mother monitored during labour? 4

two ways baby is monitored during labour? (when use which)

A
  • contractions
  • vital signs
  • vaginal loss (when change pads)
  • vaginal examination (assessing dilitation and descent of baby)(norm every 4 hrs)
  • CTG (high risk)
  • intermittent auscultation with doppler (ie sonicaid) (low risk)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the normal progression (ie in cm dilated) expected in nulliparous women?

A

1/2cm an hour

so 2cm in 4hrs

nb often more in multiparous woman (ie labour happens faster)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Normal number of contractions in 10mins in active labour?

A

4-5 in 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Indications for CTG monitoring? 8

A
  • oxytocin infusion
  • had epidural or opioids in last 30 mins
  • multiple pregnancy
  • intra-uterine growth restriction (IUGR)
  • VBAC
  • any meconium-stained liquor
  • abnormality on intermittent auscultation
  • ANY pregnancy that is not ‘low risk’
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is another method of continuously monitoring the foetus? (ie aside from CTG)
- when is it used? 4

contraindications? 2

A

Foetal scalp electrode (FSE) - actually measures the foetal ECG
- describe to mothers as a ‘clip’ on baby’s head

indications:

  • twins
  • obese mother or abdominal scarring
  • repeated ‘loss of contact’ with CTG
  • if want active birth

contraindications

  • blood-born viruses
  • clotting disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Acronym for CTG interpretation? 10

briefly explain each section (eg normal values)

A

DR C BRAVADO

DR = Determine Risk (high or low risk preg)

C = Contractions (frequency + duration from tocograph on CTG, intensity from palpation)

BRA = Baseline RAte (100-160, say brady, tachy or normal)

V = Variability (5-25bpm)

A = Accelerations (rise of >15bpm for >15sec) (always encouraging, absence not necessarily bad))

D = Decelerations (drop of >15bpm for >15sec)

O = Overall impression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the three possible ‘overall impressions’ from a CTG?

A
  • reassuring
  • non-reassuring / suspicious
  • pathological
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the three types of decelerations? 3 (nb one of these has two sub-types)

what are most decels?

what is one other reassuring feature of decels? and one non-reassuring feature?

A

EARLY
= peak of decel CONSISTENTLY occurs before peak of contraction (non-concerning, shows vagal stimulation)

LATE
= peak of decel CONSISTENTLY occurs after peak of contraction (concerning - associated with ischaemia)

VARIABLE:
- differ in timing and morphology
= non-concerning (prev typical) is <60s AND <60bpm
= concerning (prev atypical) is >60s OR >60bpm

nb don’t say typical or atypical, describe it (eg decels lasting for more than 60s which is concerning)

ALMOST ALL DECELS (90%) ARE VARIABLE!
for decels to be early or late the must be with almost all contractions and must be almost identical in morphology (ie duration and depth)

shouldering of decels is reassuring

if takes a long time for baseline rate to return to normal or overshoot (looks like a tick) then is more concerning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If CTG is non-reassuring / pathological, what are the 4 things you can do (/consider doing) before considering delivery?

A

1) CHANGE POSITION (left lateral is best but best to move every 10mins)
2) GIVE FLUIDS through GREY cannula (increases placental blood flow)
3) FOETAL SCALP STIMULATION if rate increases from stimulating scalp then this is reassuring
4) FOETAL BLOOD SAMPLE - see other flashcard for interpretation
5) DELIVER!! (forceps vaginally if mother is fully dilated, c-section if not fully dilated)

also have CTG buddy every hour to get fresh eyes on it!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

FOETAL BLOOD SAMPLE (FBS)

  • when to do?
  • when can you do?
  • what does it measure?
  • cut off values? 3
A

DO if worried about CTG and delivery not imminent

Must be at least 3cm dilated

Measure of fetal pH (indicative of hypoxaemia)

normal values are 0.1 less than adults, so:

NORMAL = >7.25

BORDERLINE = 7.20-7.25 (repeat in 30mins)

PATHOLOGICAL
= <7.20 (deliver immediately, forceps if low, c-section if high)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the commonest cause of reduced variability on CTG? when should you be concerned?

A

commonest cause is baby sleep cycle

start to be concerned if lasts longer that 30-60mins (and especially if have other concerning features too)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Absolute contraindications to epidural in labour? 5

Relative contraindications? 2

A

ABSOLUTE

  • patient refusal
  • anti-coagulants
  • bleeding disorder
  • systemic infection
  • anaphylaxis to LA

RELATIVE

  • massive haemorrhage
  • spinal surgery

nb contractions in augmented labour (ie with oxytocin drip) tend to be more painful so these women more likely to need epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Potential complications of epidural:

  • immediate (ie during labour)? 5
  • delayed (ie after labour)? 4
A

IMMEDIATE

  • failure
  • slightly increases chance of instrumental delivery (though not section!)
  • hypotension
  • LA toxicity
  • total spinal

DELAYED

  • post-dural puncture headache
  • haematoma
  • epidural abscess
  • neurological damage (temp more common than permanent)

nb epidurals do not:

  • cause backache (pregnancy does!)
  • increase risk of c-section
  • prolong labour

nb if, following birth, woman’s legs get heavier (instead of effect gradually wearing off) then suspect epidural haematoma and DO MRI
(abscess takes a few days and norm have fever too)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Differential diagnosis for breathlessness during epidural:

  • epidural itself? 2
  • condition of pregnancy? 4
  • other medical conditions? 4
A

EPIDURAL

  • high block
  • LA toxicity

CONDITIONS OF PREGNANCY

  • aorto-cava compression
  • PE from amniotic fluid OR DVT
  • cardiomyopathy
  • anaemia (haemorrhage, iron-deficiency)

MEDICAL CONDITIONS

  • asthma attack
  • anaphylaxis
  • myocardial infarction
  • pneumonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Indications for induction of labour:

  • most common? 1
  • maternal reasons? 6
  • foetal reasons? 6
A

Basically induce when risk of carrying on with pregnancy is higher than risk of delivering AND vaginal birth is seen as best option

MOST COMMON
= post-maturity (41-42 wks)

MATERNAL REASONS

  • Diabetes (Gestational, type 1, type 2)
  • Obstetric Cholestasis
  • Maternal cardiac disease
  • Pregnancy Induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia
  • Poor obstetric history (ie previous stillbirth etc)
  • Maternal Choice (eg if parter is home from army etc)

FOETAL REASONS

  • Prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM)
  • Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
  • Reduced fetal movements (RFM)
  • Suspected fetal macrosomia, ie large baby (risk of shoulder dystocia, forceps delivery etc)
  • Small antepartum Haemorrage (APH) (if large or previa, section)
  • Intrauterine death (IUD)

NB HAVE TO BE ABLE TO EXPLAIN THESE TO A WOMAN!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Difference between induction and augmentation

A

augmentation is when labour has already started but is not progressing fast enough - so add oxytocin drip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Contraindications to induction of labour:

  • absolute? 4
  • relative? 4
A

ABSOLUTE

  • acute foetal compromise
  • unstable lie (must be cephalic)
  • placenta previa
  • pelvic obstruction (eg fibroids)

RELATIVE

  • previous LSCC (ie VBAC)
  • breech
  • prematurity
  • high parity (>4 parity)

NB HAVE TO BE ABLE TO EXPLAIN THESE TO A WOMAN!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What can be done pre-induction before offered formal induction of labour which might trigger spontaneous labour?

what does it involve?

when is it done?

theory behind mechanism?

A

Membrane sweep (‘stretch and sweep’)

May increase chances of spontaneous labour and avoid induction in some cases.

Offered before formal IOL

Nulliparous = 40-41 weeks antenatal visit
Multiparous = 41 weeks

Gloved finger passed between cervix and membranes on digital VE (separates chorionic membrane from decidua)

Releases prostaglandins which may trigger labour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the bishops score?

what is it used to determine?

what are the 5 things that are assessed in it?

what are the two interpretations?

A

Assesses cervix and descent of baby to determine likelihood of going into spontaneous labour

given points (0-3) for each parameter, eg dilatation of >5cm gives score of 3 for dilatation

1) DILITATION of cervix (in cm)
2) LENGTH of cervix (in cm, shorter is better)
3) STATION of baby head relative to pelvis (-3 to +2, more positive is better)
4) CONSISTENCY of cervix (firm nose, medium chin, soft cheek)
5) POSITION of cervix (posterior, central, anterior - anterior is best)

score each component 0-3 then add for total

higher number is better (ie more likely to progress spontaneously)

<5 is unlikely to progress spontaneously

> 9 will likely progress spontaneously

use it after sections of induction to ascertain need for more levels etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

induction process:

  • describe the three stages?
  • what does each stage do?
A

stage 1: CERVICAL RIPENING

  • Pessaries for nulliparous (Propess) for 24hrs
  • Gel for multiparous (Prostin) for 24hrs
  • then reassess with a VE and bishops score
  • Soften and shorten the cervix
  • Cause uterine tightening

Stage 2: AMNIOTOMY

  • aka artificial rupture of membranes (ARM)
  • possible once cervix is fully effaced (length = 0)
  • performed using ‘amniohook’ at time of vaginal examination

Stage 3: SYNTOCINON (cervical dilation)

  • IV synthetic oxytocin to stimulate contractions
  • dose is titrated up/down to produce 3-4 strong contractions every 10 mins
  • must have CTG monitoring

NB HAVE TO BE ABLE TO EXPLAIN THESE TO A WOMAN!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

risks / complications of induction:

  • main risk with cervical ripening and how mitigate?
  • main risk with amniotomy?
  • main risk with syntocinon? (how monitor? 1 and what do if get? 2)
  • other risks associated with induction more generally? 7
A

CERVICAL RIPENING

  • can cause hyperstimulation and foetal distress
  • monitor intermittently with CTG

AMNIOTOMY
- risk of cord prolapse if presenting part is high

CERVICAL DILITATION

  • risk of uterine hyper-stimulation
  • continuous CTG monitoring while on drip
  • titrate syntocinon up/down
  • give tocolytics (eg terbutaline) if hyperstimulation

OTHER GENERAL RISKS

  • increased pain (more likely to need epidural)
  • foetal distress
  • uterine hypertonia with possible rupture (hence use w caution in VBAC)
  • very rapid delivery
  • operative delivery
  • amniotic fluid embolus
  • systemic effects

NB HAVE TO BE ABLE TO EXPLAIN THESE TO A WOMAN!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what to do if woman who ‘should’ have induction refuses one? 3

A
  • explain benefits and risks and likely outcomes

if she still doesn’t want one then:

  • offer daily scans
  • offer c-section
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how do you explain induction to woman?

A

Discussion with mother:
Women should be informed about induction of labour and the process involved
Healthcare professionals should always explain:
- The reason the induction is being offered
- The risks and benefits of induction of labour in specific circumstances
- That induction may not be successful and what the women’s options would be

If a women chooses not to have an induction of labour, an alternative should be considered

eg if woman with diabetes or post-rem is not induced, higher risk of stillbirth (+ higher risk of shoulder dystocia in DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the difference between lie, presentation and position?

and what are the ideal and non-ideal (ie abnormal foetal lie, malpresentation, malposition) versions of each?

A

LIE
= the relationship between the long axis of the foetus and the mother
= longitudinal, transverse or oblique

PRESENTATION
= The foetal part that enters the mothers pelvis first
= cephalic or breech

POSITION
= the position of the foetal head as it exits the birth canal
= occipito-anterior (OA), occipito-posterior (OP) or occipito-transverse
- nb can only tell this by doing VE during labour

IDEAL = longitudinal, cephalic and OA

nb if lie is transverse then presentation is neither breech or cephalic

nb 90% of non-OA end up OA by the end of labour as they rotate through the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Risk factors for abnormal foetal lie, malpresentation and malposition? 6

A
  • Prematurity
  • Fetal abnormalities
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Primiparity
  • Uterine abnormalities (e.g fibroids, partial septate uterus)
  • Placenta praevia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

abnormal foetal lie and malpresentation

  • how discover?
  • investigation to confirm?
  • initial management? (at how many weeks gestation is this done?)
A

during abdominal palpation in obstetric examination

do abdo USS to confirm position and lie

offer external cephalic version (ECV) ideally at 36-38 weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

external cephalic rotation (ECV)

  • what is given before? 2
  • what does procedure consist of?
  • what monitoring is done before and after? 1
  • success rate of ECV?
A
  • Uterine relaxants given prior to/ during procedure e.g. Terbutaline or Salbutamol
  • Anti-D given if rhesus positive

Gentle pressure applied to maternal abdomen to turn the foetus

Foetal heart monitored with CTG before and after procedure

50% success rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the potential risks of a breech presentation? 4

A
  • Cord prolapse
  • Difficulty in delivering head
  • Foetal hypoxia
  • Increased foetal mortality and morbidity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

external cephalic rotation (ECV)

  • absolute contraindications? 6
  • relative contraindications? 7
A

ABSOLUTE CI

  • Placenta praevia
  • Uterine malformations
  • Ruptured membranes
  • Abnormal CTG
  • Multiple pregnancy

RELATIVE CI

  • Previous LSCS
  • Preeclampsia
  • Maternal cardiac disease
  • Active labour
  • Oligohydramnios
  • Foetal abnormality
  • Hyperextension of foetal head
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

external cephalic rotation (ECV)

  • what is it trying to prevent?
  • options if it doesn’t work? 2
  • risks of ECV? 3
A

Trying to prevent need for section (LSCS) or vaginal breech delivery (which have their own risks

if doesn’t work:

  • LSCS (almost always)
  • vaginal breech delivery (very rare)

RISKS

  • foetal distress
  • cord entanglement
  • transient bradycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the three different types of twins? what’s the difference?

what about identical and non-identical twins?

A
dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA) twins 
= each has their own separate placenta with its own separate inner membrane (amnion) and outer membrane (chorion) 
monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) twins 
= share a single placenta with a single outer membrane and 2 inner membranes
monochorionic monoamniotic (MCMA) twins 
= share both the inner and outer membranes

All non-identical twins are DCDA, and a third of identical twins are DCDA.

The other two-thirds of identical twins are MCDA, and just 1 in 100 identical twins are MCMA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the mode of delivery and gestation of delivery recommended for the three different types of twins?

A

Dichorionic Diamniotic:

  • –> Deliver at 37-38 weeks
  • If first twin cephalic, vaginal delivery recommended
  • If first twin breech = LSCS

Monochorionic Diamniotic: Delivery at 36 weeks via LSCS

Monochorionic Monoamniotic: Delivery at 34 weeks via LSCS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

If delivering twins vaginally:

  • what foetal monitoring required?
  • what required on mother?
  • what staff required?
A
  • Continuous CTG monitoring
  • Foetal scalp electrode (FSE) for twin 1 once cervix sufficiently dilated
  • IV access

Experienced staff and neonatologists on call.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What things are measured/recorded on a partogram? 8

A
  • cervical dilation
  • descent of the head
  • position of head
  • frequency of contractions
  • strength of contractions
  • foetal HR
  • liquor colour
  • maternal obs (HR, BP, temp etc)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the definition of ‘slow progress in labour’ in 1st stage of labour?

A

cervical dilatation of <2cm in 4 hrs (and/or slowing down in progress in multips)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the three Ps which have to be optimised to ensure labour progresses?

which is the only one which can be adjusted in labour itself?
- what are the two methods of doing this?

what is the only option in 1st stage of labour if these methods fail?

A

POWER:
- Strength of uterine contractions
= In 1st stage labour, this is the only factor that can be changed

PASSENGER:
- Foetal position and size

PASSAGE:
- Parity and maternal pelvis

TO INCREASE POWER:

  • Artificial rupture of membranes
  • Oxytocin – Syntocinon infusion

If failure to progress in 1st stage of labour (and synt etc doesn’t help) then LSCS is only option

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the three types of instrumental delivery?

A

1) Vacuum extraction aka. Ventouse ( nb cannot manually rotate baby into correct head position for birth)
2) Traction forceps
3) Rotational forceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the indications for instrumental delivery? 5

Which stages of labour can instrumental delivery be performed?

A
  • Slow progress in 2nd stage of labour
  • Maternal exhaustion
  • To avoid raising ICP
  • To avoid raising BP
  • Presumed foetal compromise

BASICALLY when need to deliver baby and mother is fully dilated!

instrumental delivery can ONLY be performed in 2nd stage of labour (ie when fully dilated) - if in first stage then need LSCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

INSTRUMENTAL DELIVERY:

  • How to explain to mother? what do you need from her?
  • what does mother need to do before procedure? 1
  • what do you (as clinician) need to know about the baby / labour? 3
  • what medication do you need to give before start?
A

Explain that the forceps ‘cradle’ the babies head to help guide it out and/or rotate it so it has more space to get out

  • explain why need to do it
  • explain maternal and foetal complications
  • explain that is preferable to LSCS as baby is already far descended and risks with LSCS

mother needs to EMPTY BLADDER before start

NEED TO KNOW:

  • adequate contractions (add synt if need to)
  • membranes are ruptured (ARM if needed)
  • accurate knowledge of foetal postion (palpate and USS if needed)

NEED adequate ANALGESIA before start
= epidural, spinal or pudendal nerve block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Potential complications of instrumental delivery:

  • maternal? 5
  • foetal (of ventouse)? 2
  • foetal (of forceps)? 2
A

MATERNAL

  • increased blood loss
  • post-partum pain
  • psychological distress
  • perineal trauma (3rd degree tears etc)
  • weakened pelvic floor

nb always need an episotomy if have forceps delivery (to make space for the forceps)
nb vontouse better for mother as don’t need as much pain relief and less perineal trauma, but can’t rotate baby so forceps used more commonly

FOETAL (VENTOUSE)

  • cephalohaematoma
  • retinal haemorrhage

FOETAL (FORCEPS)

  • facial bruising
  • facial nerve palsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Aside from instrumental delivery, what other (less invasive) things can speed labour up in 2nd stage? 4

A
  • change mother’s postion (can help turn baby)
  • good hydration of mother
  • good pain relief (helps relax muscles)
  • start or increase oxytocin drip
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

SHOULDER DYSTOCIA:

  • what is it?
  • how common is it?
  • risk factors? 6
  • Main risk to baby? (how common)
  • risks to mother? 2
A

Shoulder dystocia is when the baby’s head has been born but one of the shoulders becomes stuck behind
the mother’s pubic bone, delaying the birth of the baby’s body (ie when the anterior shoulder impacted behind the pubic bone)

occurs in 0.7% of births

RISK FACTORS

  • diabetes (gestational or otherwise - induce/delivery early to reduce risk)
  • BMI >30
  • previous shoulder dystocia before
  • long labour
  • induced labour
  • instrumental delivery

Main risk to baby is brachial plexus injury (erbs palsy) - occurs in 10% of babies who have shoulder dystocia

increased risks to mother

  • perineal tears
  • PPH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

SHOULDER DYSTOCIA:

  • what should do as soon as dystocia identified? 2
  • non-invasive manouveres which can help? 2
  • more invasive options? 4
  • final option if nothing else works?
A
  • discourage maternal pushing effort
  • call for help (is obstetric emergency)

1) MCROBERTS MANOUVERE
- flex + externally rotate maternal hips to stretch the symphisis + open pelvic outlet

2) SUPRAPUBIC PRESSURE

MORE INVASIVE OPTIONS:

  • episiotomy (won’t relieve bony obstruction but will allow for internal vaginal manoeuvres
  • internal rotational manoeuvres
  • delivering posterior arm reduces diameter of oetal shoulders (risk of humeral #)
  • break clavicle

Emergency LSCS if nothing else works

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When consenting for a section (LSCS), what things do you need to discuss with woman? 5

(eg think about what’s on the consent form)

A

1) DESCRIBE PROCEDURE – what will be done, AND WHY it is being done
2) Any OTHER anticipated PROCEDURES – e.g. spinal anaesthesia, hysterectomy, blood TRANSFUSION, repair of damage to bowel, bladder or vessels.

3) INTENDED BENEFITS – to secure the safest and quickest route of delivery in the circumstances at time of decision
- –> Because risks to mother and/or baby of an alternative mode of delivery outweigh those of a section

4) RISKS OF PROCEDURE (see other flashcard)

5) ANASTHETIC CONSENT:
- Form of anaesthesia planned (spinal, epidural, GA)
- Benefits
- Risks
- Discussion w anaesthetist before surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Risks of c-section (LSCS):

  • common maternal risks? 4
  • common risk to baby? 1
  • serious maternal risks? 6
  • serious risks to future pregnancies? 3
A

COMMON MATERNAL RISKS:

  • persistent wound + abdo discomfort
  • increased risk of section if VBAC attempted in future pregnancies
  • haemorrhage
  • infection

COMMON FOETAL RISK:
- scalp laceration (2-3%)

SERIOUS MATERNAL RISKS:

  • bladder, bowel or ureteric injury
  • emergency hysterectomy
  • need for further surgery
  • VTE
  • admission to ICU
  • death (very rare)

SERIOUS RISKS TO FUTURE PREGNANCIES, increased risk of:

  • uterine rupture
  • antepartum stillbirth
  • placenta previa and placenta accreta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What’s the difference between PPROM and PROM?

A

PROM = premature rupture of membranes
- waters break before labour starts but is AT TERM so just wait for labour or induce if not happened within 24hrs

PPROM = preterm premature rupture of membranes
- waters break BEFORE TERM, is trickier to manage - got to think about risks vs benefits of delivering

so basically PROM is at term and PPROM is before term

nb ‘premature’ can also be ‘prelabour’ in some definitions = same thing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Risk factors for preterm labour? 4

A
  • multiple pregnancy
  • prev history of preterm delivery
  • prev hx of late miscarriage (after 14 weeks)
  • previous cervical surgery (eg LLETZ for dysplasia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Two most common causes / mechanisms of preterm labour?

A

CERVICAL WEAKNESS / INSUFFICIENCY, shortening in T2
- True cervical insufficiency: painless dilatation and shortening of the cervix in T2, resulting in pregnancy loss or delivery. Caused by cervical anomaly, trauma, or unknown. Diagnosis made in retrospect – uterine activity ruled out. Most women with insufficiency have normal anatomy.

ASCENDING INFECTION
- any cause that triggers an inflammatory process i.e. prostaglandins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How do you screen for likelihood of preterm labour? 2

who is offered screening? 3

A

1) cervical length measurement (norm via TV USS?**)

2) foetal fibronectin test
- protein involved in connection between placenta and uterus. Positive finding indicates preparation for labour.

if evidence of cervical shortening or positive fibronectin then offer treatment

Offered if:

  • Hx of preterm delivery
  • Hx late miscarriage
  • Hx cervical treatment/ surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Treatment options for people at high risk / likelihood of preterm labour? 2

A

Cervical Stitch - Can be placed pre-conception in those with poor history.

Progesterone treatment (pessaries from wk16-24 to wk 34)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What medication should be offered if:

  • 24-29wks in preterm labour? 1
  • 35wks or less in preterm labour? 1
  • if membranes ruptured prelabour? (regardless of gestation)? 1
  • you want to delay the onset of labour? 1 (2 instances you would use)
A

24-29wks preterm labour
= magnesium sulphate (prevent cerebral palsy)
- may also give at later gestations

34wks or less in preterm labour
= IM steroids (betamethasone) 12 hours apart (use tocolytics until 24hrs after last dose)

if membranes ruptured
= prophylactic erythromycin for up to 10 days or until labour starts (whichever is sooner)
- if at term (over 37wks) then induce 24hrs after waters break if still no labour

if want to delay labour
= tocolytics
only use:
1) to allow steroids to work (take until 24hrs after 2nd steroid dose)
2) to allow transfer to unit with a neonatal cot

nb tocolytics are useless if membranes have broken or any bleeding or signs of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

PPROM (preterm prelabour rupture of membranes)

- complications? 3

A
  • pre-term delivery: follows within 48hrs in >50% of cases
  • infection (chorioamnionitis, also can have of foetus, placenta or cord)
  • prolapse of umbilical cord

nb infection is sometimes the cause of PPROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

PPROM (preterm prelabour rupture of membranes):

  • classic history?
  • two examinations to do? (incl findings)
A

vaginal loss - gush of clear fluid, followed by trickle or dampness

STERILE speculum
- pool of fluid visible in posterior fornix

Abdo exam
- check lie and presentation

(can do digital exam to check for cord prolapse if presentation not cephalic - but do with caution as high risk of introducing infection)

ALSO DO MATERNAL OBS AND CTG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

PPROM (preterm prelabour rupture of membranes):

- clinical features of chorioamnionitis to check for? 5

A
  • Fever/ malaise
  • Tachycardia (foetal and maternal)
  • Abdominal pain +/- contractions
  • Uterine tenderness
  • Purulent/ offensive vaginal discharge/ liquor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

PPROM (preterm prelabour rupture of membranes):

  • bedside investigations? 4
  • bloods? 3
  • imaging? 1
A

Swabs (do during sterile speculum)

  • HVS
  • VVS
  • MSU
  • CTG

(plus obvs maternal obs)

bloods:

  • FBC
  • CRP
  • Group + save (only last 72hrs in obstetrics)

USS
- for foetal presentation, weight and liquor volume (will go down once waters broken)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

management of PPROM (preterm prelabour rupture of membranes):

  • if chorioamnionitis? 3
  • if no evidence of chorioamnionitis? 4
A

CHORIOAMNIONITIS

  • Steroids (betamethasone 12mg IM)
  • broad spectrum abx (benpen)
  • deliver baby

NO CHORIOAMNIONITIS

  • Steroids = betamethasone 12mg IM, 2x 12 hrs apart
  • Prophylactic Antibiotics = erythromycin QDS for 10 days
  • liaise with neonatal team
  • Outpatient monitoring until 34 weeks delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Antepartum haemorrhage:

  • definition?
  • difference between a major and minor bleed?
  • uterine causes? 4
  • cervical causes? 4
  • vaginal causes? 2
  • what should NOT be done if have APH?
A

PV bleeding after 24wks gestation (before 24wks = threatened miscarriage)

minor bleed = <50mls
major bleeds = >50mls

UTERINE CAUSES

  • placental abruption
  • placental previa
  • vasa previa
  • marginal bleed

CERVICAL CAUSES

  • “show” = loss of mucus plug from cervix
  • cervical cancer
  • cervical polyp
  • ectropian

VAGINAL CAUSES

  • trauma
  • infection

DON’T DO VAGINAL EXAMINATION (until after a scan) - AS MAY BE PREVIA!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

placental abruption:

  • what is it?
  • risk factors? 6
A

Premature separation of a normally situated placenta from the uterine wall – resulting in maternal haemorrhage into the intervening space

RISK FACTORS

  • Previous abruption
  • Hypertensive disorders
  • Thrombophilias
  • Smoking
  • Cocaine
  • Abdo trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Placental abruption:

  • symptoms? 3
  • signs? 5
A

SYMPTOMS

  • Vaginal bleeding (not always present! - blood usually dark red)
  • Abdominal pain
  • Uterine contractions

SIGNS

  • uterine tenderness +++
  • Tense, ‘woody’ abdomen
  • Shock (disproportionate to visible blood loss)
  • Normal lie and presentation
  • Foetal heart absent or distressed on CTG

BEWARE of pre-eclampsia, DIC, anuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Placenta previa

  • What is it?
  • grades of previa?
  • risk factors? 3
A

Placenta is wholly or partially implanted in the lower segment of the uterus (nb doesn’t necessarily have to be covering os to be called previa)

GRADING

I = placenta reaches lower segment but not internal os
II = placenta reaches internal os but doesn't cover it
III = placenta covers internal os before dilation, but not when dilated
IV = placenta completely covers the internal os

RISK FACTORS

  • multiparity
  • previous LSCS
  • multiple pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Placental previa

  • symptoms? 1
  • signs? 5
A

SYMPTOMS

painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
- small bleeds before large

SIGNS

  • shock (proportionate to visible blood loss)
  • non-tender uterus
  • lie and presentation may be abnormal
  • foetal heart normally normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Placenta previa:

  • prevalence at 20wk scan?
  • prevalence at delivery?
  • management if find low-lying placenta at 20wk scan?
  • delivery options?
A
  • 5% at 20wk scan
  • 0.5% at delivery

If see at 20wks, rescan at 34wks

no need to limit activity or intercourse, unless bleeding

If still present at 34 wks and grade I or II, scan every 2wks

If abnormal lie (or grade III or IV) at 37 wks then LSCS

vaginal delivery for grade I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

bleeding placenta previa:

  • bloods to get? 4
  • management? 3
A
  • CROSS MATCH
  • FBC
  • U+E
  • clotting
  • admit to hospital
  • treat shock
  • deliver by LSCS betwen 37-38wks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Differences between placental abruption and placenta previa:

  • characteristics of blood loss?
  • severity of shock?
  • tender uterus?
  • presentation + lie?
  • CTG findings?
A

BLOOD LOSS

  • previa = bright red, small then large
  • abruption = may be absent, dark red if present

SHOCK

  • previa = proportionate to visible blood loss
  • abruption = more severe in proportion to visible blood loss

UTERUS

  • previa = non-tender
  • abruption = tender,. hard, woody

PRESENTATION / LIE

  • previa = may be abnormal
  • abruption = normal

CTG FINDINGS

  • previa = normally normal
  • abruption = absent or distressed FHR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Management of antepartum haemorrhage:

  • approach?
  • first 2 things to do?
  • position?
  • bloods? 3
  • what to give? 2
  • bedside procedure to do? 1
  • medication to consider? 1
  • imaging to consider? 1
  • if stable? 2
  • if unstable? 1
A

A-E approach

  • get IV access (grey in both)
  • call for help
  • left lateral position

bloods

  • crossmatch 4 units
  • FBC
  • clotting

replace fluid / clotting factors (also blood if need)

put catheter in (and monitor fluid balance)

anti-D to all rh neg women

do USS to assess position of placenta

if stable:

  • monitor baby with CTG
  • consider elective LSCS at 37wks

if unstable:
- emergency section immediately (mother’s life takes priority)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

DVT / PE in pregnancy

  • possible changes in maternal obs if PE? 3
  • other clinical signs? 4
A

sometimes no signs!

  • tachycardia
  • hypotension
  • reduced O2 sats
  • pleuritic chest pain
  • SOB
  • collapse
  • reduced air entry

nb women of all gestation and post-partum are at higher risk! - though most common in 3rd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

immediate management of PE in pregnancy:

  • approach? 1
  • important bedside intervention? 1
  • important blood?
  • bedside investigation?
  • imaging? 2
  • what to do while awaiting results?
A

A-E approach

facial oxygen - 15L nrbm

  • get ABG
  • ECG
  • CXR (exclude other causes)
  • V/Q scan (spiral CT if can’t)

if clinically suspicious anti-coagulate while awaiting results

nb don’t do d-dimer in pregnancy (as always raised)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Definitive management of DVT/PE in pregnancy:

  • which medication to use?
  • how long to use it for?
  • risk in future pregnancies?
A

LMWH (warfarin CI in pregnancy)

use for remainder of pregnancy and till at-least 6wks post-partum

high-risk in future pregnancies - consider prophylactic dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which x-rays and CT scans can you use during pregnancy?

A

X-RAYS

  • CXR is fine in all trimesters (protect abdo with shield)
  • Abdo / pelvic xray is fine in 2nd and 3rd trimester

CT scans much higher risk (but still do if benefit outweighs risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Perineal tears:

  • 4 types? (incl 3 subtypes of 3rd degree)
  • % of vaginal deliveries that will result in 3rd degree or higher tear?
A

1st DEGREE
- injury to skin only

2nd DEGREE

  • injury to perineum, involving perineal muscle
  • includes episiotomy

3rd DEGREE

  • injury to perineum involving external anal sphincter (EAS)
  • 3a = <50% of EAS torn
  • 3b = >50% of EAS torn
  • 3c = internal anal sphincter torn

4th DEGREE
- tear through anal mucosa (ie through perineum, EAS, IAS and rectal mucosa)

1% of vaginal deliveries result in 3rd or 4th degree tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

risk factors for perineal tears:

  • pregnancy factors? 2
  • labour factors? 7
A
  • nulliparity
  • birthweight >4kg
  • shoulder dystocia
  • persistent occiput-posterior position
  • 2nd stage > 1 hour
  • induction of labour
  • epidural
  • forceps delivery
  • midline episiotomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Management of perineal tears:

  • immediate?
  • medication to give? 2
  • follow up?
  • prognosis?
  • future pregnancies?
A
  • suture asap (difficult ones repair in theatre)
  • rectal exam before and after (to ensure no injury to anal sphincter)
  • adequate analgesia (spinal, epidural, caudal block)
  • broad spectrum abx
  • stool softener
  • review 6wks afterwards
  • physio input

warn risk of faecal, fluid and flatal incontinence (also dyspareunia)
- 60-80% will have good result and be symptom-free at 12 months

If symptom-free by next pregnancy, risk of recurrence is 10%

if symptomatic at time of next pregnancy, risk is higher, offer elective LSCS

nb suturing is done in lithotomy position (ie legs in stirrups)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How can prevent perineal tears:

  • antenatally?
  • during labour? 2
A

woman can do perineal massage antenatally

  • warm compress on perineum as head is crowning
  • episiotomy if looks like tear may occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

post-partum haemorrhage (PPH)

  • definition?
  • difference between primary and secondary?
A

blood loss of 500ml or more from genital tract

primary = within 24hrs of delivery

secondary = 24hrs of delivery to 6wks post-partum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the four groups of causes of PPH? (acronym to remember)

  • what are the main causes within each of these groups?
  • what is the commonest cause of PPH?
A

The 4 T’s

TONE (most common)
= uterine atony = failure to contract fully after delivery

TISSUE

  • large placenta
  • abnormal placental site (eg pervia or accretia)
  • retained placenta

TRAUMA

  • genital tract trauma (pernieal tears, episiotomy, lacerations to cervix)
  • uterine rupture or inversion

THROMBIN
- coagulation disorders (see other flashcard)

89
Q

Risk factors for uterine atony? 9

A
  • over distended uterus (eg multiparity)
  • foetal macrosomia
  • placental abruption
  • prolonged labour (2nd stage failure)
  • failure to actively manage 3rd stage
  • general anaesthetic
  • retained tissue
  • infection
  • previous PPH
90
Q

What coagulation problems can lead to PPH? 6

ie ‘thrombin’ in 4T’s

A
  • severe pre-eclampsia (PET)
  • placental abruption
  • sepsis
  • autoimmune disease
  • liver disease
  • inherited/acquired coagulation disorders
91
Q

RISK FACTORS FOR PPH:

  • antenatal? 10
  • intrapartum? 6
A

ANTENATAL

  • Previous PPH
  • Previous retained placenta
  • Maternal Hb <8.5 at onset of labour
  • High BMI
  • Para 4+
  • Maternal age >35
  • Antepartum haemorrhage
  • Placenta praevia
  • Over-distension of the uterus
  • Uterine abnormalities

INTRAPARTUM

  • Induction of labour
  • Use of oxytocin
  • Prolonged labour
  • Precipitate labour (ie unusually rapid)
  • Vaginal operative delivery
  • LSCS
92
Q

How to prevent post-partum haemorrhage / reduce risk antenatally?

A

investigate and treat any maternal anaemia

also look for position of placenta

93
Q

Management of primary PPH:

  • for all causes? 6
  • bloods to get? 3
  • for uterine atony? 4
  • for retained placenta? 1
  • for genital tract trauma? 1
  • what are they also at risk of? (and so should be given prophylaxis for)
A

A-E approach

  • IV access (grey)
  • bimanual compression to stop bleeding
  • position patient flat
  • warmed crystalloid infusion
  • warm patient
  • blood transfusion (if required)
  • urgent group + save OR crossmatch
  • FBC
  • coagulation

also do repeat maternal obs every 15 mins

UTERINE ATONY

  • ergometrine IV bolus
  • syntocinon infusion
  • consider prostaglandins (misoprostol PR) if no response
  • may need examination under anaesthesia +/- laparotomy

nb ergometrine often causes N+V and is contraindicated in HTN

RETAINED PLACENTA

  • manual removal under GA or spinal (depending on condition)

GENITAL TRACT TRAUMA

  • repair surgically

ALL PPH are at increased risk of VTE
- so should be given prophylactic LMWH

94
Q

What is uterine inversion?

how does it present?

management?

who most at risk?

A

when uterus literally inverts on itself

  • presents as vaso-vagal shock (pale, clammy, hypotensive & bradycardic) and a mass at the introitus
  • significant haemorrhage, clotting abnormalities and renal dysfunction can occur if not corrected promptly
  • shock corrects itself when uterus is replaced
  • O’Sullivan’s method - reduce inversion by hydrostatic technique

associated with grand multips and incorrect management of the third stage

nb this is RARE - just be aware it exists!

95
Q

SECONDARY PPH

  • commonest cause?
  • investigations?
  • imaging? 1
  • management? 2
A

commonest cause = retained products +/- endometritis

check for evidence of infection
- ie bloods, swabs, purulent discharge, other sites of infection, maternal obs

TV USS to look for retained products

management

  • at least 24hr antibiotics
  • evacuation of retained products
96
Q

Eclampsia:

  • definition?
  • associated symptom? (ie as well as seizure)
  • what % occur after delivery?
A

Eclampsia: one or more generalised convulsions or coma in the setting of pre-eclampsia and absence of other neurologic conditions

often get epigastric pain alongside the seizures

40% of seizures occur post-partum

97
Q

ECLAMPSIA

  • management approach? 1
  • medications to give to control seizures? 2 (how long to give for)
  • other medication to give? 1
  • definitive management?
  • what to monitor? 1
A

A-E approach

  • IV magnesium suplhate or diazepam to stop fits
  • prevent further fits with IV magnesium sulphate infusion (continue until 24hrs after last seizure)

antihypertensives (labetalol 1st line)

deliver baby (regardless of gestation)

MONITOR fluid balance (at risk of fluid overload - don’t give fluid if hypertensive)

nb magnesium sulphate can cause resp depression (reverse with calcium gluconate)
- can also affect reflexes, urine output and o2 sats

98
Q

What antihypertensives are 1st, 2nd and 3rd line in pregnancy?

A

1st line: labetalol

2nd line: nifedipine

3rd line: hydralazine (rarely used)

99
Q

commonest causative organisms in:

  • puerperal sepsis?
  • neonatal sepsis?

way to remember?

A

Maternal = strep A

Neonatal = strep B

“A comes before B, the mother cam before the child”

100
Q

Amniotic fluid embolus:

  • maternal mortality?
  • signs/symptoms? 3
  • how normally diagnosed?
  • management? 3
A

aetiology obscure but 70% maternal mortality

signs + symptoms include:

  • collapse
  • DIC
  • unaccountable bleeding

diagnosis of exclusion or at post-mortem

MANAGEMENT

  • conservative
  • early transfer to ITU (as likely to need renal + inotrope support)
  • correct clotting
101
Q

Uterine rupture:

  • risk following ONE previous c-section?
  • who else risk high in?
  • who risk lowest in?
A

1 in 200 women in labour after one previous c-section (risk goes up if multiple sections)

risk in multiparous women on oxytocin infusion

risk very low in primigravid

102
Q

Uterine rupture:

  • initial symptoms/signs? 3
  • later symptoms/signs? 4
A

EARLY SIGNS

  • raised maternal HR
  • localised scar pain (breaks through epidural)
  • abnormal CTG / foetal distress

LATER SIGNS

  • fresh vaginal bleeding
  • haematuria
  • constant severe abdo pain (breaks through epidural)
  • shock
103
Q

Uterine rupture:

  • management approach?
  • definitive management?
A

A-E approach
- IV access and basic resus (incl oxygen)

Immediate laparotomy to salvage baby - repair damage or hysterectomy

104
Q

HELLP syndrome:

  • what does it stand for?
  • what is it preceded by?
  • symptoms? 3
  • bloods? 4 (and what find on each)
  • treatment?
A
  • Haemolysis
  • Elevated Liver enzymes
  • Low Platelet

it is a complication of severe pre-eclampsia (though can rarely occur with no prior history of PET)

  • nausea + vomiting
  • RUQ pain
  • lethargy

(nb also symptoms of pre-eclampsia)

  • FBC (haemolysis + low platelets)
  • LFT (elevated liver enzymes - esp ALT + GGT - ALP less useful)
  • clotting
  • group + save OR crossmatch

deliver the baby!!!

105
Q

The puerperium:

  • length of time?
  • size of uterus over this time?
  • vaginal discharge?
  • when safe to have sex?
  • when next period is expected?
A

6 weeks post-delivery

UTERUS SIZE

  • Immediately: uterus shrinks down to level of umbilicus
  • 2 weeks postpartum: no longer palpable above symphysis
  • 6 weeks: uterus returned to non-pregnant size

Lochia: decidual sloughing after delivery, should gradually get less (if increases or more purulent/blood then likely infection)

sex safe as soon as ready, norm after 2-3 weeks

return of menstruation within 6-8wks

106
Q

What is produced by the breast from 20 wks? what’s it called? what is in it?

A

Colostrum = thick yellow fluid produced from ~20weeks gestation

  • High level of secretory IgA + rich in protein
  • Important part in gut maturation and immunity in infant
  • Produced in small quantities following birth of baby
107
Q

Human breast milk:

  • when does it start being produced?
  • what increases its volume?
  • what can be given to suppress lactation?
A

Produced rapidly post-delivery – feed within first 2 hrs increases volume
- Increasing to around 500ml for 5 days postpartum

More energy efficient than formula milk

Cabergoline is given to supress lactation (dopamine receptor agonist)

108
Q

Advantages of breastfeeding:

  • to baby? 4
  • to mother? 4
A
ADVANTAGES FOR BABY:
lower incidence of:
- allergies
- GI infections
- otitis media
- resp infections

ADVANTAGES FOR MOTHER:

  • reduce risk of breast ca, ovarian ca + osteoporosis
  • bonding experience
  • lactational amenorrhoea
  • helps uterine involution
109
Q

Recommendations for breast-feeding:

  • how often a day?
  • for how long?
  • what decreases milk production? 2
  • which women do not lactate? 1
A

approx 8 times a day
- ‘Demand’ feeding encouraged: results in less weight loss in immediate postpartum period and increased duration of feeding. Reduced risk of hyperbilirubinemia and prevents breast engorgement

Recommend exclusive breast feeding for 4-6 months

decreases milk production:

  • COCP
  • smoking

women with Sheehan syndrome (pituitary gland damaged during childbirth) do not lactate

110
Q

Two main contraindications for breastfeeding?

A
  • HIV (possible if undetectable viral load but still discouraged!)
  • varicella

(also some meds - see other flashcards)

111
Q

Which of these antibiotics should you avoid during breastfeeding and which are safe?

  • cephalosporins
  • chloramphenicol
  • clarithromycin
  • ciprofloxacin
  • erythromycin
  • penicillin
  • sulphonamides
  • tetracycline
  • trimethoprim
A

AVOID

  • chloramphenicol
  • ciprofloxacin
  • erythromycin
  • tetracyclines
  • sulphonamides

PERMITTED

  • cephalosporins
  • penicillin
  • clarithromycin
  • trimethoprim
112
Q

Which of these cardio/vascular medications should you avoid during breastfeeding and which are safe?

  • ACEi
  • amiodarone
  • aspirin
  • beta-blockers
  • digoxin
  • heparin
  • hydralazine
  • warfarin
A

AVOID

  • amiodarone
  • ACE inhibitors
  • aspirin

PERMITTED

  • beta-blockers (labetalol)
  • digoxin
  • hydralazine
  • warfarin
  • heparin
113
Q

Which of these neuro medications should you avoid during breastfeeding and which are safe?

  • benzos
  • carbamazepine
  • fluoxetine
  • lithium
  • sodium valproate
  • SSRIs
  • Tricylics
A

AVOID

  • lithium
  • benzodiazepines
  • ??? fluoxetine (*check)

PERMITTED

  • carbamazepine
  • sodium valproate
  • SSRIs
  • tricyclic antidepressants
114
Q

Which of these medications should you avoid during breastfeeding and which are safe?

  • Carbimazole
  • Cytotoxic drugs
  • glucocorticoids
  • Iodines
  • Levothyroxine
  • Methotrexate
  • NSAIDs
  • Paracetamol
  • Salbutamol
  • Sulphonylureas
  • Theophyllines
A
  • Carbimazole = unsafe
  • Cytotoxic drugs = unsafe
  • glucocorticoids = safe
  • Iodines = unsafe
  • Levothyroxine = safe
  • Methotrexate = unsafe
  • NSAIDs = safe
  • Paracetamol = safe
  • Salbutamol = safe
  • Sulphonylureas = unsafe
  • Theophyllines = safe
115
Q

Breast engorgement:

  • who does it happen to?
  • management? 3
A

May occur 2-4 days postpartum in women who are not breast-feeding, or at any time if breast-feeding is interrupted

MANAGEMENT

  • tight bra
  • ice packs
  • analgesia
116
Q

Mastitis:

  • what is it?
  • normal causative organism?
  • how does it present?
  • management for all? 2
  • indications for abx? 4
  • which abx given?
  • complication? (sign of + management)
A

regional infection of breast parenchyma
- norm staph aureus

nb more common in primips

focal unilateral breast erythema, oedema, tenderness

overcome ductal obstruction by continuing to breastfeed or pump
- analgesia also

Abx indications:

  • systemically unwell (fever, chills)
  • nipple fissure present
  • symptoms don’t improve after 12-24hrs of effective milk removal
  • culture indicates infection

fluoxetine (10-14 days)

breast abscess

  • palpable lump
  • needs incision + drainage (and abx)

nb mastitis occurs in 10% of breastfeeding women

117
Q

What checks are done on mother and baby postpartum:

  • immediately on mother? (3 checks)
  • immediately on baby? (one check, one thing given)
  • hours and days for mother? 2
  • at how many weeks should see dr?
A

immediate mother

  • maternal obs
  • uterine fundus palpated
  • vaginal bleeding recorded

immediate baby

  • apgar score
  • given vit K injection

hours and days for mother

  • early ambulation (+ hydration)
  • adequate pain management

6 week check for both

do babies get a TORCH screen too?? ***

118
Q

Postpartum contraception:

  • how long after giving birth do you need contraception again?
  • how effective is lactational amenorrhoea?
  • when should contraception be discussed?
A

need contraception from 21 days (ie 3wks) after delivery

2 in 100 will get pregnant in a year using lactational amenorrhoea
- ONLY effective if exclusively breastfeeding (ie not mixed)

discussed at 6 week check (if not before as well)

119
Q

Postpartum contraception, how long after giving birth can these be used:

  • Combined (pill, patch, ring)
  • condoms
  • diaphragm
  • emergency contraceptive pill
  • implant
  • injection
  • IUD/IUS
  • POP
A

IMMEDIATELY

  • condoms
  • any progesterone only (POP, implant, injection)

FROM 21 DAYS
- emergency contraceptive pill (don’t need before this!)

3-6 WEEKS (depending on breastfeeding + VTE risk factors)
- combined (pill, patch, ring)

4 WEEKS (or within 48hrs)
- IUD/IUS

6 WEEKS
- Diaphragm (check it fits first!)

120
Q

‘baby blues’

  • what proportion of mothers affected?
  • when does it come on?
  • symptoms? 4
  • management?
A

mild transient depression, occurs in >50% of women

begins around day 3 post-birth, resolves within 10 days (so by 2 weeks in total from birth)

  • tearfullness
  • irritability
  • anxiety
  • poor sleep

provide support and reassurance

121
Q

Postnatal depression:

  • what proportion of mothers affected?
  • when does it come on?
  • when is it screened for? 3
  • risk factors? 2
A

10-15% get postnatal depression

symptoms from 2 months, resolve slowly over 6-12 months

screened at:

  • antenatal appointments
  • 4-6wks check
  • 3-4 months post-birth

risk factors

  • previous postpartum depression (70%)
  • history of depression (30%)
122
Q

postnatal depression:

  • what other possible features (in additional to ‘normal’ depression)? 3
  • what scale used to diagnoses?
A
general symptoms of depression
PLUS:
- fears about baby's health
- feelings of maternal deficiencies
- marital tensions (incl loss of libido)

Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale

123
Q

postnatal depression:

  • 1st line management?
  • medical management? (incl what to avoid if breastfeeding)
A

CBT (and self help)

SSRIs
- fluoxetine should be avoided if breastfeeding as long half life (others are safe)

124
Q

PUERPERAL PSYCHOSIS:

  • What is it?
  • when does it present?
  • how common?
  • suicide risk?
  • infanticide risk?
A

a range of psychotic conditions presenting in immediate postnatal period

presents within 2-3 weeks of birth

1 in 500 deliveries

suicide risk = 5%
infanticide risk = 4%

125
Q

PUERPERAL PSYCHOSIS:

  • PMHx risk factors? 2
  • FHx risk factors? 2
  • other risk factors? 2
A

Personal hx of mental illness

  • Bipolar Affective Disorder
  • Previous puerperal psychosis

Family Hx of mental illness

  • 1st degree relative with hx of BAD
  • 1st degree relative with hx puerperal psychosis
  • young age
  • primiparity
  • traumatic birth or pregnancy
126
Q

PUERPRAL PSYCHOSIS:

- possible symptoms? 9

A
  • hallucinations
  • delusions
  • mania
  • low mood
  • loss of inhibitions
  • feeling suspicious or fearful
  • restlessness
  • feeling very confused
  • behaving in a way that’s out of character
127
Q

PUERPRAL PSYCHOSIS:

  • preventative management in high-risk pregnancies? 2
  • immediate management if suspect post-natally? 3
  • treatment options? 3
  • prognosis?
A

IF HIGH RISK

  • refer to specialist perinatal mental health service in antenatal period
  • can use prophylactic medication

IMMEDIATE

  • risk assessment (harm to self + others, incl baby)
  • urgent psychiatric assessment + treatment
  • admit to hospital (ideally specialist mother + baby unit - MBU)

TREATMENT OPTIONS

  • antidepressant or antipsychotic medication
  • mood stabilisers
  • ECT (rare)

most patient make a full recovery
- although high rate of recurrence in future pregnancies

128
Q

Post natal visit (ie one day post-birth)

  • to ask about? 5
  • to directly observe/examine? 5
  • to formally assess? 3
  • to give to some women? 1
A

ASK ABOUT

  • urine normal
  • bowels normal
  • eating and drinking?
  • mobilising well?
  • enough analgesia?

DIRECTLY OBSERVE

  • lochia
  • involution (uterus shrinking)
  • wounds (section scars or perineum)
  • signs of VTE
  • neonatal feeding + care

FORMALLY ASSESS

  • VTE risk
  • mental health risk assessment
  • signs of anaemia - check Hb

give anti-D to women (if they’re negative and baby positive)

129
Q

What risks make a pregnancy ‘high risk’ at time of booking:

  • maternal factors? 7
  • previous obstetric hx? 18

(nb see other flash card for PMHx, FHx + SHx)

A

MATERNAL FACTORS

  • Age >40 (at EDD)
  • Age <16 (at booking)
  • BMI >30 at booking
  • grand multiparity (G6)
  • IVF pregnancy
  • Tocophobia (pathological fear of childbirth
  • late booking

PREV OBS Hx

  • recurrent miscarriage
  • molar pregnancy
  • stillbirth / neonatal death / T2 loss
  • preterm delivery (<37wks)
  • large for gestational age (LGA >90th centile)
  • small for gestational age (SGA <10th centile)
  • congenital abnormality
  • pre-eclampsia
  • gestational diabetes
  • puerperal psychosis
  • red cell antibodies (ie rh -ve)
  • prev traumatic delivery
  • shoulder dystocia
  • 3rd/4th degree tear
  • LSCS (or other uterine scarring)
  • significant antepartum or post-partum haemorrhage
  • retained placenta with PPH
  • prev placenta accretia
130
Q

What risks make a pregnancy ‘high risk’ at time of booking:

  • past gynae hx? 7
  • past medical hx (non-gynae - go top to toe)? 10

(nb see other flashcard for maternal factors and past obs hx, FHx + SHx)

A

PAST GYNAE Hx

  • pelvic fracture
  • pelvic mass
  • uterine abnormalities
  • endometrial resection
  • hx of subfertility
  • cone biopsy or >1 LLETZ
  • Female genital mutilation

PAST MED HX

  • Psychiatric disorder (prev admission, suicide attempt or meds)
  • neurological disorder (incl epilepsy)
  • Cardiac disease / murmur
  • hypertension
  • haematological disorder (incl prev VTE)
  • cystic fibrosis
  • severe asthma (or other resp prob)
  • GI disease
  • endocrine disease (incl DM)
  • renal disease
131
Q

What risks make a pregnancy ‘high risk’ at time of booking:

  • family hx? 4
  • Social hx? 3

(see other flashcards for maternal factors, prev obs hx, PMHx)

A

FHx

  • 1st deg relative pre-eclampsia
  • 1st deg relative gestational DM
  • 1st degree relative VTE <50yo
  • foetus at risk of inherited disease / abnormality

SHx

  • mother smoking during pregnancy
  • mother taking recreational drugs during preg
  • mother drinking excessive alcohol during pregnancy
132
Q

Risks of current pregnancy (ie what makes a woman high risk after booking):

  • Maternal conditions? 2
  • Maternal infections? 2
  • Maternal symptoms? 2
  • blood results? 2
  • placenta? 2
  • foetus? 6
A

MATERNAL CONDITIONS

  • hypertension / proteinuria / pre-eclampsia
  • gestational DM

MATERNAL INFECTIONS

  • newly diagnosed STI
  • 2 or more UTIs
  • confirmed exposure to Zika virus

MATERNAL SYMPTOMS

  • PV bleeding after 1st trimester
  • persistent haematuria

BLOOD RESULTS

  • low Hb not responding to treatment
  • deranged LFTs (HELLP or obs chole)

PLACENTA

  • abnormal umbilical artery doppler
  • placenta previa

FOETUS

  • multiple pregnancy
  • RFM (>1 episode)
  • abnormal foetal growth / SGA
  • abnormal amniotic fluid volume (high or low)
  • foetal abnormality
  • incorrect presentation / orientation at 36 wks
133
Q

Who has midwife-lead care and who has consultant-led care?

A

basically if have any risk factor - either at booking or discovered later in pregnancy then see consultant!

(nb if consultant-led care, still see community midwifes, just have ANC appts as well)

134
Q

Biggest cause of maternal death in the UK:

  • direct?
  • indirect?
A

direct = VTE

Indirect = cardiac

135
Q

Booking appointment:

  • when does it occur?
  • who with?
  • What histories taken? 2
  • what bedside investigations done? 3
  • what bloods done? 4
  • what other screening offered? 2
  • what medication advised to take? 3
  • what foods to avoid? 4
  • what other education given? 3
A

8-10 weeks with midwife (takes about an hour)

  • obstetric hx
  • medical hx (incl LMP)

(basically fill in a massive form covering all potential risks to see if woman high or low risk)

  • BP (baseline for comparison)
  • urineanalysis (protein, blood, infection)
  • BMI

bloods

  • FBC
  • Group + save (rh status)
  • blood infection screen (can opt out)
  • haemoglobinopathies (SSA, thalassaemia)

offer / discuss antenatal screening:

  • combined screening
  • chlamydia test (if <25)

meds to take

  • flu vaccine
  • folic acid (400mg for first 3 months, 5g if risk factors like obesity, DM, epilepsy)
  • vit D

FOODS TO AVOID

  • soft cheese (camembert, brie, stilton) AND pate + contact w live lambs (listeria)
  • cat faeces, gardening (toxoplasmosis)
  • raw or partially cooked eggs and meat, esp poultry (salmonella)
  • liver (vit A)

nb nuts, eggs, salad + honey are fine

OTHER LIFESTYLE

  • stop smoking (incl education re stillbirths)
  • stop alcohol
  • be aware of carbon monoxide risk (test CO levels!)
136
Q

What additional scans and blood tests needed if:

  • BMI > 30
  • BMI > 40
A

BMI >30

  • OGTT at 26 wks
  • growth scans at 30 + 36 wks

BMI > 40
- same as above PLUS an OGTT at 16wks

137
Q

COMBINED SCREENING:

  • what conditions testing for? 3
  • When is test performed?
  • what 3 things are measured? (is high or low bad in each)
  • what is the cut-off for low vs high risk result?
  • what is offered if high risk result? (risk with this test?)
  • what is offered if too late for combined screening?
A

screens for:

  • downs
  • edwards
  • patau

between 10-14 wks

  • at same time as dating scan
  • blood test in addition to scan
  • nuchal translucency (high is bad, want <3.5mm)
  • PAPP-A (low is bad)
  • HCG (High is bad)

^ these are taken together with maternal age!

If risk is >1 in 150 then result is ‘high risk’

if high risk, woman offered chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis (1 in 100 risk of miscarriage)

  • CVS 11-14wks
  • amniocentesis wk 15

^these tests will be able to say if have or not but not to what severity

If too late (or can’t obtain nuchal translucency) then can have quadruple blood testing between 14-20 wks

  • only screens for downs
  • not as accurate as combined
  • measures bHCG, inhibin-A, AFP, estriol

nb can have NIPT (non-invasive prenatal testing) IONA tests in private sector - get foetal DNA from mothers blood

138
Q

What infections are routinely screened for in booking bloods? 3

A
  • HIV
  • Hep B
  • syphilis

nb these are all opt-out

139
Q

Combined screening communication, how to approach conversation with mother?

A

1) what do they know about test already?
2) what conditions is it screening for?
3) can’t tell you whether they do or don’t have conditions, just gives a chance as a number, if high risk, can do other test to confirm
4) think about what you are going to do with the results? would you get further tests? would you terminate?

whenever discussing downs etc - always talk about the ‘chance’ or ‘likelihood’ of foetus having it, not ‘risk’

140
Q

DATING SCAN

  • when is it done?
  • what is measured? 1
  • what other things are looked for presence / absence of? 5
  • what can be screened for? 1
A

11+2-14+1 weeks

crown rump length (CRL)
- approximate gestational age in weeks (get EDD from this)

  • presence of gestational sac
  • yolk sac and embryo
  • foetal cardiac activity
  • single or multiple foetus?
  • evaluate uterus + adnexal structures

part of combined screening
- measure nuchal translucency (want <3.5mm)

141
Q

ANOMALY / ANATOMY SCAN

  • what gestation done at?
  • what foetal anatomical features are assessed? 10
  • what else is assessed / commented on? 6
A

18 - 20+6 weeks

ANATOMY SURVEY

  • face (excl cleft palate)
  • brain
  • spine
  • limbs
  • heart (incl activity)
  • stomach bubble
  • umbilical cord insertion
  • kidneys
  • bladder
  • gentalia

OTHER

  • assess growth / age
  • amniotic fluid volume
  • umbilical cord + number of vessels
  • placental location
  • cervical length
  • evaluate uterus + adnexa

also exclude multiple pregnancies again

142
Q

GROWTH SCANS

  • Who needs these? (2 main groups)
  • what five main things assessed / measured? (how each measured?)
A

WHO NEEDS

  • any risk / concerns around foetal growth (eg DM, small/large on SFH measurements, prev small/large baby, smoker etc)
  • > 1 episode of RFM (1st episode do CTG)

1) ESTIMATED FOETAL WEIGHT (EFW)
- combination of:
= head circum (HC)
= abdo circum (AC)
= femur length (FL)

2) LIQUOR VOLUME
- measure deepest pool, if this is high or low then measure all

3) DOPPLER STUDIES
- foetal heart beat
- uterine artery pulsitility index, indicator of resistance (PI or UAPI - want low)
- umbilical artery end-diastolic flow (EDF - want positive)
- middle cerebral artery (MCA - may be proportionally higher if foetus compensating)

4) FOETAL MOVEMENTS
- see if move, turn mum on side and back to try and stimulate

5) PRESENTATION AND LIE
- also placental position if low-lying at 20wks

143
Q

When to give Anti-D in pregnancy:

  • for all rh negative mothers? 2
  • other instances when rh negative mothers need extra dose of anti-D? 9
A

FOR ALL

  • 28wks gestation (?at 34wks aswell)
  • following birth (but only if baby is rh positive)

ALSO GIVE IF:

  • any TOP (medical or surgical)
  • any miscarriage over 12wks
  • any surgical management of miscarriage
  • any surgical management of ectopic
  • antepartum haemorrhage (bleeding >24wks)
  • external cephalic version (ECV)
  • amniocentesis / chorionic villus sampling
  • foetal blood sampling (FBS)
  • abdominal trauma (during preg)

nb these are all for rh negative women only (never need to give anti-D if mother rh positive)

144
Q

What tests need to be done at birth if mother rhesus negative?

A

take cord blood for:

  • FBC
  • blood group
  • coombs test

if baby is rh positive, give mother another dose of anti-D

145
Q

DOMESTIC VIOLENCE:

  • percentage of women who will experience at some point in their lives?
  • percentage of which begins during pregnancy?
  • what does it increase risk of during pregnancy? 4
A

1 in 4 women experience domestic abuse / violence in lifetime
- 30% of this begins in pregnancy

existing abuse may also get worse during pregnancy or after birth

increases risk of:

  • miscarriage
  • infection
  • premature birth
  • injury or IUD
146
Q

SMOKING DURING PREGNANCY:

  • what % of smokers will continue to smoke during pregnancy?
  • what does smoking increase the risk of during pregnancy? 5
  • other gynae affects? 2
A

20-30% of smokers continue to smoke during pregnancy
- very difficult group to teach, cultural beliefs that labour will be easier if it’s a smaller baby etc

increases risk of:

  • miscarriage
  • stillbirth / IUD
  • premature birth
  • low birth weight
  • perinatal mortality

also:

  • sub-fertility
  • menopause 3-5 years earlier than otherwise
147
Q

What are the features of foetal alcohol syndrome? 5

What other symptoms might be apparent at birth? 3

A

FOETAL ALCOHOL SYNDROME

  • facial abnormalities (short palpebral fissure, hypoplastic upper lip, smooth/absent filtrum)
  • microcephaly
  • learning difficulties
  • growth retardation
  • cardiac malformations

May show signs of withdrawal at birth:

  • irritable
  • hypotonic
  • tremors
148
Q

Cocaine:

  • possible affects on foetus? 4
  • possible affects on mother? 4
A

FOETUS

  • IUGR
  • cerebral infarction
  • placental abruption
  • congenital abnormalities (dt cocaine-induced vasospasm during preg)

MOTHER

  • Uterine rupture
  • HTN
  • seizures
  • death
149
Q

What are four common, yet often minor, GI issues which can present or worsen during pregnancy?

what causes each? which trimester each most likely to occur in? management for each?

A

1) NAUSEA + VOMITING
- ‘morning sickness’
- mainly in 1st trimester, norm resolves by 16-20wks
- caused by bHCG levels
MANAGEMENT
= increase fluids
= smaller meals
= antiemetics (metoclopramide)

REFLUX
- throughout pregnancy (esp T3)
- affects 70%
- caused by progesterone -> relaxation of oesophageal sphincter (plus incressed abdo pressure)
MANAGEMENT
= use extra pillows (worse if supine)
= avoid spicy foods
= antacids
= ranitidine (if bad)
CONSTIPATION
- caused by progesterone -> reduces smooth muscle tone
- often made worse by iron supplements
- very common, can improve with gestation
MANAGEMENT
= increase fibre
= drink more water
= fibre supplements
= stool softeners (ispaghula husk)
= osmotic laxatives (lactulose)
HAEMORRHOIDS
- mainly in T3
- dt constipation + increased abdo pressure
MANAGEMENT
= avoid constipation
= ice packs
= digital reduction
= suppositries
= topical haemorrhoid preparations licensed in pregnancy (eg corticosteroids, local anaesthetic etc)
= surgical removal if thrombosed
150
Q

Three common urinary problems during pregnancy?

lifestyle advice on how to manage?

A

1) Increased urgency (throughout)
- avoid caffeine + late-night fluids

2) stress incontinence (esp in T3)
- may need pads

3) UTIs

nb creatinine and urea are low in pregnancy due to increased glomerular filtration rate

151
Q

Management of UTIs in pregnancy:

  • When are all women tested?
  • what should be tested if woman symptomatic?
  • first line medications? (two, which in which trimesters)
  • 2nd live abx?
A

all women get dipstick at booking

TREAT ASYMPTOMATIC BACTERURIA!

If symptomatic, ALWAYS take cultures (ie MSU)

Nitrofurantoin
= 1st + 2nd trimester only
- neonatal haemolysis if in T3

Trimethoprim
= 3rd trimester only
- teratogenic in T1 + 2

2ND LINE
- cephalosporins and penicillins are safe (but avoid co-amoxiclav!!)

152
Q

What should always be differential if get new-onset reflux during pregnancy?

how to exclude?

A

pre-eclampsia - can present with epigastric pain

though MUCH more likely to just be reflux

do BP and dip urine for protein

153
Q

Change in vaginal discharge during pregnancy:

  • what always needs to be excluded?
  • common infection? (+ treatment for this)
  • other cause to consider?
A

need to exclude ruptured membranes!!
- watery, profuse discharge

candida is very common
- treat with clotrimazole pessary (NOT oral anti-fungals!)

Exclude STIs too!!

basically if woman presents with change in discharge in pregnancy, do a speculum to look for ROM and swab for candida and other infections, incl STIs

154
Q

Three common MSK problems during pregnancy?

how does each present?

how is each managed?

A
SYMPHISIS PUBIS DYSFUNCTION (SPD)
- pelvic pain in pubic + sacroilliac joints
MANAGEMENT
- physio
- care with leg abduction
- corsets
- analgesia
BACKACHE +/- SCIATICA
- almost universal
- caused by altered posture, pressure on sciatic nerves
MANAGEMENT
- physio
- massage
- postural advice
- corset
CARPAL TUNNEL SYNDROME
- caused by oedema compressing median nerve
- usually resolves after pregnancy
MANAGEMENT
- splints
- positional advice while sleeping
155
Q

Itching/rashes during pregnancy:

  • what are most? management?
  • what two things to exclude? how exclude?
A

common, normally self limiting
- can use emollients and refer to derm if bad

Exclude:

  • obstetric cholestasis
  • infectious causes (eg varicella)

OBS CHOLE
- check sclera for jaundice
- do LFTs
(this is 1% of pregnancies!!)

INFECTIOUS CAUSES

  • inspect rash
  • ask about any contact with other people with rashes
156
Q

HYPEREMESIS GRAVIDARUM

  • what is it?
  • how common?
  • what gestation normally occurs?
  • what increases risk / is associated with? 6
A

Where excessive nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy (NVP) is so severe as to cause severe dehydration, weight loss, or electrolyte disturbance

About 1 in 100 - 1 in 700 pregnancies

most common 8-12wks (though can go up to 20wks)

RISK FACTORS / ASSOCIATIONS:

  • nulliparity
  • IVF or assisted reproduction
  • Trophoblastic disease (eg molar)
  • multpile pregnancies
  • obesity
  • hyperthyroidism
157
Q

HYPEREMESIS GRAVIDARUM

  • symptoms?
  • signs?
A

SYMPTOMS

  • nausea + vomiting
  • epigastric pain
  • excessive salivation
  • reduced urine output

SIGNS

  • dehydration
  • epigastric tenderness
  • ketonuria
158
Q

HYPEREMESIS GRAVIDARUM:

  • bedside test to do? 1
  • bloods to do? 4
  • imaging to do? 1
A

urine dipstick
- to look for ketones (also exclude infection)

  • FBC
  • U+E
  • LFT
  • TFT (rule out thyroid probs)

TV USS
- to exclude molar pregnancy

159
Q

HYPEREMESIS GRAVIDARUM:

  • 1st line management? 2
  • When to admit to hospital? 4
  • management for all when in hospital? 2
  • additional management options if struggling? 3
A
  • encourage oral fluid intake
  • antiemetics (eg cyclizine, metoclopramide)

WHEN TO ADMIT

1) Continued N+V, unable to keep down oral fluids + oral antiemetics
2) ketonuria despite oral antiemetics
3) weight loss >5% body mass
4) co-existing condition (eg DM) which may be affected by continued N+V

MANAGEMENT IN HOSP

  • IV fluids
  • IV antiemetics

= NG feeding
= thiamine to prevent deficiencies (also correct other electrolytes)
= corticosteroids if really severe

160
Q

HYPEREMESIS GRAVIDARUM

  • potential complications to mother?
  • potential complications to foetus?
A

MOTHER

  • Wernicke’s encephalopathy (prevent with thiamine)
  • mallory-weiss tear
  • acute tubular necrosis

FOETUS

  • growth restriction
  • pre-term birth
161
Q

DEFINITIONS:

  • low birth weight?
  • small for gestational age?
  • Intra-uterine growth restriction?
  • appropriate for gestational age (AGA)?
  • foetal macrosomia?
  • large for gestational age?
A

LOW BIRTH WEIGHT
= < 2.5kg, regardless of gestational age

SMALL FOR GESTATIONAL AGE (SGA)
= weight of foetus or newborn is <10th centile for gestational age

INTRA-UTERINE GROWTH RESTRICTION (IUGR)
= foetus that has failed to achieve its growth potential due to genetic or environmental factors

AGA
= 10th to 90th centile for gestational age (ie normal

FOETAL MACROSOMIA
= estimated weight (not birth weight) >4.5kg

LARGE FOR GESTATIONAL AGE
= > 90th centile (incidence is 5%)

162
Q

Two types of IUGR?

what’s the difference in aetiology?

A

Symmetric: foetus is proportionally small, suggesting long term compromise

Asymmetric: foetal head is proportionally larger than body – short term compromise with sparing of the brain.

163
Q

Causes of IUGR:

  • foetal genetic factors? 2
  • foetal structural anomalies? 2
  • multiple pregnancies (what 2 things increase risk)
  • uteroplacental insufficiency? 4
  • drug / toxin exposure? 2
  • maternal malnutrition
  • maternal medical conditions? 6
  • maternal infection? 4
A

FOETAL GENETIUC FACTORS (5-15%)

  • Chromosomal anomalies e.g. trisomy’s and sex chromosome abnormalities
  • Single gene defects e.g. dwarfism, phenylketonuria

FOETAL STRUCTURAL ABNORMALITIES

  • Cardiovascular anomalies
  • Bilateral renal agenesis

MULTIPLE PREGNANCY

  • Risk of IUGR increases with foetal number
  • Worse in MCDA + MCMA (twin-twin transfusion syndrome)

UTEROPLACENTAL INSUFFICIENCY (25-30%)

  • Chronic hypertension, pre-eclampsia
  • Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
  • Chronic placental abruption
  • Velamentous (ie abnormal) insertion of umbilical cord.

DRUG / TOXIIN EXPOSURE

  • Illicit drugs e.g. cocaine
  • Heavy cigarette smoking, esp. in older mothers

MATERNAL MALNUTRITION
gestational malnutrition superimposed on poor pregnancy nutritional status

MATERNAL MEDICAL CONDITIONS

  • Poorly controlled hyperthyroidism
  • Haemoglobinopathies
  • Chronic pulmonary disease
  • Cyanotic heart disease
  • Anaemia
  • Diabetes (though more commonly causes big baby)
MATERNAL INFECTION 
 (5-10%)
- Malaria (single biggest cause of IUGR worldwide)
- Rubella
- Cytomegalovirus 
- Varicella
164
Q

Risk factors for IUGR? 5

A
  • multiple pregnancy
  • previous IUGR (recurrence 20%)
  • pre-eclampsia (40% have IUGR)
  • maternal smoking
  • other maternal medical conditions (ie high risk pregnancies)
165
Q

How is IUGR diagnosed? 3

A

based on estimates foetal weight for gestation

other evidence of foetal compromise

  • oligohydramnious
  • abnormal dopplers

(ie diagnose on scan,. but can also get scan if SFH are not increasing like they should)

166
Q

Complications of IUGR? 5

A
  • Perinatal mortality: commonest cause of stillbirth (50%)
  • Preterm birth
  • Birth asphyxia
  • Neonatal hypoglycaemia
  • Neonatal polycythaemia due to chronic hypoxia
167
Q

Methods to determine aetiology of IUGR? 3

How monitor IUGR? 2

When to consider delivery?

how to deliver?

what to do after delivery?

A

determine aetiology

  • USS for anomalies
  • check karyotype
  • exclude infection
  • regular foetal scans (twice weekly if need)
  • repeat CTG

consider delivery after 34wks if deterioration or once foetal lung maturation is documented (ie 24hrs after 2nd steroid dose)

50-80% IUGR babies will develop foetal distress in labour so may try for vaginal but many end up having LSCS

Send placenta for pathology to look for evidence of vasculopathy

168
Q

Risk factors for foetal macrosomia / large for gestational age:

  • three most common?
  • other ones? 6
A

MOST COMMON:

1) Maternal diabetes (35-40%)
2) Post-term pregnancy, ie after 42wks (10-20%)
3) Maternal obesity (10-20%)

OTHER RISK FACTORS

  • multiparity
  • prev macrosomic infant
  • male infant
  • increased maternal height
  • advanced maternal age
  • beckwith-wiederman syndrome (chromosomal abnormality)
169
Q

Complications of foetal macrosomia:

  • risks to foetus? 5
  • risks to mother? 4
A

FOETUS:

  • increased incidence of IUD + neonatal death
  • shoulder dystocia + brachial plexus palsy
  • hypoglycaemia
  • polycythaemia
  • jaundice

MOTHER

  • Increased maternal morbidity (increased incidence of LSCS)
  • PPH
  • perineal trauma / forceps
  • puerpral infection
170
Q

MANAGEMENT OF FOETAL MACROSOMIA

  • monitoring?
  • delivery options?
A

antenatal growth scans

induce or elective section before 40wks (exactly when depends on cause)
- vaginal delivery under high risk supervision

171
Q

Main contraindication for labetalol during pregnancy?

what to use instead?

A

ASTHMA!!! It’s a beta blocker!

use nifedipine instead!

172
Q

REDUCED FOETAL MOVEMENTS:

  • What should be asked about the RFM? 4
  • associated symptoms to ask about? 3
  • other important questions to ask? 2
A
  • duration?
  • how active were they before?
  • have movements come back now?
  • ever had this before
  • vaginal loss (incl waters) / PV bleeding?
  • abdo pain?
  • well in yourself? any fever?
  • any problems in this pregnancy so far?
  • any problems ion prev pregnancies? (incl SGA)
173
Q

REDUCED FOETAL MOVEMENTS:

  • What specifically looking for in obstetric exam? 2
  • bedside tests to do? 2
  • when to do bloods? 1
  • when to do USS? 2
  • when to consider early delivery? 2
A
  • SFH
  • uterine tenderness
  • maternal obs (incl temp)
  • CTG

do bloods if suspect infection

do USS if:

  • abnormal CTG
  • more than one episode of RFM

consider early delivery (+/- steroids) if:

  • evidence of IUGR / foetal distress
  • recurrent RFM

can always do repeat dopplers

174
Q

PROLONGED PREGNANCY:

  • definition?
  • incidence?
  • who common in?
  • recurrence rate?
A

any pregnancy exceeding 42wks from first day of LMP

3-10% incidence (depending on whether EDD or LMP used)

common in primips

if prev prolonged pregnancy , recurrence = 30%

175
Q

Multiple pregnancy:

  • two types?
  • the three subtypes of one of these types? (when does split?)
  • what signs seen on USS with each?
  • what does chorionicity mean?
A

DIZYGOTIC

  • ie non-identical twins
  • 2 eggs, 2 sperms

MONOZYGOTIC (identical)

= dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA)

  • split day 0-4
  • lamda sign

= monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA)

  • split day 4-8
  • T sign

= monochorionic monoamniotic (MCMA)

  • split day 8-12
  • risk of cords tangling around each other

nb all dizygotic twins are DCDA, as well as a 1/3rd of monozygotic twins)

CHORIONCITY = the number of placentas

176
Q

Risk factors for multiple pregnancies? 3

incidence?

A
  • FHx of twins / multiple pregnancy
  • IVF
  • older maternal age

incidence = 1 in 80

177
Q

Potential complications of all multiple pregnancies:

  • foetal? 8
  • maternal? 10
A

FOETAL

  • miscarriage
  • IUD / vanishing twin
  • perinatal mortality
  • IUGR
  • pre-term delivery
  • polyhydramnios
  • malpresentation
  • cord prolapse

MATERNAL

  • hyperemesis
  • anaemia
  • pre-eclampsia
  • gestational DM
  • acute fatty liver
  • placenta previa
  • placental abruption
  • PPROM (10-20%)
  • high chance of operative delivery
  • PPH
178
Q

Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)

  • which types of twins at risk? 2
  • prevalence?
  • perinatal mortality?
  • affects on recipient twin? 5
  • affects on donor twin? 4
  • management? 3
A

MCDA and MCMA at risk

  • as share placenta
  • risk is 20%

nb DCDA don’t get TTT as don’t share same placenta

vary severity, perinatal mortality is 40-80%

RECIPIENT TWIN

  • polycythaemia
  • HTN
  • cardiac hypertrophy
  • oedema (hydrops)
  • polyhydramnios

DONOR TWIN

  • anaemia
  • IUGR
  • hypotension
  • oligohydramnios
  • TEND TO FAIR WORSE!

MANAGEMENT

  • expectant management
  • serial amniocentesis
  • laser obliteration of placental vascular communications
179
Q

ANTENATAL CARE FOR MULTIPLE PREGNANCIES:

  • extra medications? 2
  • extra scans for DCDA?
  • extra scans for MCDA + MCMA?
  • delivery method and gestation for each type?
A
  • high dose folic acid (5mg)
  • iron
  • also aspirin (if indicated for another reason)

DCDA

  • growth scans = 28, 32, 36wks
  • delivery at 38wks (induction if baby 1 is cephalic, or LSCS if breech or transverse)

MCDA + MCMA

  • USS every 2 wks from 16-24 wks (to look for TTTS)
  • growth scans same as DCDA

MCDA
= deliver 36-37wks
- induce if twin 1 is cephalic, LSCSC if not or TTTS

MCMA
= deliver at 32wks by LSCS (high risk of cord entanglement after this)

180
Q
HYPERTENSION IN PREGNANCY:
difference between:
- pre-existing HTN
- gestational HTN
- pre-eclampsia
- eclampsia
- HELLP syndrome
(incl gestation can be diagnosed at and diagnostic criteria)

nb don’t list symptoms of PET here

A

PRE-EXISTING HTN

  • HTN (>140/90 prior to 20wks)
  • different mechanism, though is a risk factor for gestational HTN / pre-eclampsia

GESTATIONAL HTN

  • new-onset, persistent BP >140/90 after 20wks WITHOUT proteinuria OR symptoms of PET
  • or an increase above booking readings of >30 systolic or >15 diastolic

PRE-ECLAMPSIA (PET)
- new-onset, persistent BP >140/90 after 20wks PLUS significant proteinuria (>300mg/24hrs or >1+ on urine dip) OR symptoms of PET

(nb exclude UTI before diagnosing PET)

ECLAMPSIA
= one or more generalised convulsions or coma in the setting of pre-eclampsia and absence of other neurologic conditions

HELLP syndrome
- a complication of severe pre-eclampsia
= Haemolysis
= Elevated Liver enzymes
= Low Platelets
181
Q

Gestational HTN / PET:

  • high risk factors? 5
  • moderate risk factors? 5
  • prophylactic treatment given to those at risk? when taken?
A

= prev Hx of pre-eclampsia

= chronic HTN
= pre-existing diabetes

= chronic renal disease
= anti-phospholipid syndrome (or lupus)

  • FHx of pre-eclampsia
  • BMI >35
  • black ethnicity
  • extremes of maternal age (high + low)
  • multiple pregnancy

nb nulliparity may also slightly increase risk, risk resets if new partner

ASPIRIN 150mg
- taken from 12th wk (ideally, useless if started after 20wks) until delivery

182
Q

Management of:

  • pre-existing HTN in pregnancy? 3
  • gestational HTN? 2
A

PRE-EXISTING HTN

  • continue antihypertensives (stop any ACEi or diuretics and switch to labetalol, nifedipine)
  • give aspirin from 12wks
  • foetal growth scans

GESTATIONAL HTN

  • Give labetalol (nifedipine 2nd line, hydralazine 3rd line)
  • continue to monitor for PET and make mother aware of symptoms to look out for
183
Q

PRE-ECLAMPSIA

  • incidence in all pregnancies?
  • symptoms? 4
  • signs? 3
A

6-8% of pregnancies in UK

can only make diagnosis after 20wks!!!

SYMPTOMS

  • persistent severe headache
  • visual disturbances
  • facial swelling
  • epigastric / RUQ pain (liver capsule stretch)

can also get SOB if got ARDS as a complication

SIGNS

  • peri-orbital oedema
  • hyper-reflexia
  • clonus
184
Q

PRE-ECLAMPSIA

  • screening bedside tests? 2
  • bedside test for diagnosis? 1
  • bloods to do? 4
A
  • BP
  • protein dipstick (always exclude UTI if protein)

24hr urine collection (looking for >300mg in 24hrs)
^ now mainly do PCR?? **

  • FBC
  • LFTs
  • U+Es
  • Group + save
185
Q

PRE-ECLAMPSIA

  • symptoms / features of severe PET? 8
  • Possible complications / sequelae of severe PET? 5
A

Features of severe pre-eclampsia
hypertension:

  • typically > 170/110 mmHg and proteinuria as above
  • proteinuria: dipstick ++/+++
  • headache
  • visual disturbance
  • papilloedema
  • RUQ/epigastric pain
  • hyperreflexia
  • platelet count < 100 * 106/l, abnormal liver enzymes or HELLP syndrome

PRE-ECLAMPSIA COMPLICATIONS:

  • Eclampsia
  • Stroke
  • HELLP Syndrome
  • DIC
  • Multi system organ failure: Renal, Hepatic, Pulmonary oedema, ARDS
186
Q

PRE-ECLAMPSIA

  • 1st line management?
  • medication to consider to improve foetal morbidity? 2 (when each given)
  • when to deliver baby if mild PET?
  • when to deliver baby if severe PET?
  • things to observe while waiting for delivery? 4
A

antihypertensives to reduce stroke risk
- labetalol 1st line (then nifedipine and hydralazine)

STEROIDS
= 24-34 weeks, IM betamethasone 24hrs apart
= 34-36 wks, CONSIDER giving the above

MAGNESIUM SULPHATE
= if severe pre-eclampsia or foetus before ?*28wks??
= if severe pre-eclampsia, give during labour and 24hrs postpartum to prevent eclampsia

MILD PET
= deliver once >36wks
- also repeat USS to look for IUGR

SEVERE PET
= weigh up risk, close monitoring, norm deliver by 32wks

OBSERVE

  • blood pressure
  • renal function
  • hepatic function
  • foetal distress (repeat CTGs)
187
Q

GESTATIONAL DIABETES:

  • Risk factors? 5
  • What test is offered to those with risk factors? when? 1
  • cut off values for this test? (incl way to remember)
A
  • previous gestational DM
  • previous macrosomic baby (>4.5kg)
  • BMI >30
  • 1st degree relative with DM (of any kind)
  • Black, south asian or middle eastern ethnicity

IF RISK FACTORS:
- OGTT at 26wks

nb if previous gestational DM then do OGTT at 16wks and then again at 26 wks (if first is normal)

GESTATIONAL DIABETES if, either
- fasting glucose >= 5.6mmol
OR
- 2-hour glucose >= 7.8

“remember 5 6 7 8”

188
Q

Potential complications from pre-existing or gestational diabetes:

  • to the mother? 5
  • to the foetus? 7
A

MOTHER

  • DKA
  • pre-eclampsia / PIH
  • Obstetric cholestasis
  • instrumental delivery
  • higher risk of needing a LSCS

nb women with gestational DM are more likely to get type 2 DM later in life

FOETUS

  • miscarriage / still birth
  • birth defects (incl spinal bifida, renal, cardiac, GI probs)
  • macrosomia +/- shoulder dystocia (nb can also get IUGR though)
  • preterm birth
  • respiratory distress syndrome
  • neonatal hypoglycaemia
  • neonatal jaundice
  • increased risk of diabetes later in life
189
Q

Management of pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy:

  • who under the care of?
  • which diabetes/cardiac drugs to stop? 3
  • which diabetic medications safe to use during pregnancy? 2
  • what extra supplements to take in early pregnancy? 2
  • lifestyle advice to emphasise to mother? 2
  • Additional scans offered? 2
A

nb give pre-conceptual advice to improve control and reduce weight if possible!

under care of joint diabetic and obstetric team: consultant-led care

STOP

  • oral hypoglycaemics (except metformin)
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Statins

switch oral meds to insulin

SAFE TO USE:

  • metformin
  • insulin

EXTRA TO TAKE

  • 5mg (ie high dose) folic acid
  • 150mg aspirin (from 12wks)

LIFESTYLE

  • loose weight if BMI >27
  • tight glycaemic control will drastically reduce complication risk (though beware of DKA + hypos)

also monitor eyes as retinopathy can worsen during pregnancy

detailed anatomy scan at 20wks (incl 4 chamber view of heart)
- also additional growth scans in 3rd trimester

190
Q

When to deliver foetus to women with diabetes:

  • pre-existing?
  • gestational?
A

pre-existing (ie type 1 or 2)
= deliver at 37-39weeks

gestational
= deliver 39-40weeks

nb these both assume no maternal or foetal complications secondary to the diabetes - if these are present, cionsider earlier delivery

planned delivery can be done by induction or LSCS - depending on other comorbidities etc

191
Q

GESTATIONAL DIABETES:

  • incidence?
  • 1st line management?
  • 2nd line management?
  • 3rd line management?
  • management post-birth? 2
A

5% of pregnancies

1st line:
- diet

2nd line:
- metformin

3rd line:
- insulin

POST-BIRTH

  • warn mother of risk of type 2 DM later in life (give dietary/exercise advice)
  • do fasting glucose test at 6 week check
192
Q

Management of diabetes during labour:

  • how often should blood glucose be monitored during labour?
  • who should be offered sliding scale infusion during labour? 2
A

monitopr blood glucose every HOUR during labour
- should be between 4 and 7

SLIDING SCALE FOR:

  • all type 1 DM
  • anyone who’s BMs are not between 4 and 7
193
Q

VTE DURING PREGNANCY:

  • risk factors specific to pregnancy? 8
  • other risk factors? 12
  • who gets prophylactic LMWH throughout pregnancy?
  • who gets prophylactic LMWH postpartum?
A

nb pregnancy in itself is a risk factor

PREGNANCY-RELATED RISKS

  • hyperemesis / dehydration
  • pre-eclampsia
  • excessive blood loss
  • prolonged labour
  • trauma to pelvic veins during delivery
  • parity >4
  • multiple pregnancy
  • IVF / ART

OTHER RISKS

  • Previous VTE
  • FHx of VTE in 1st degree relative <50
  • BMI >30
  • > 35 years
  • immobility
  • travel
  • surgery
  • gross varicose vein
  • severe infection
  • sickle cell anaemia (SCA)
  • inflammatory disorders
  • thrombophilia (eg anti-phospholipid)

PROPHYLACTIC LMWH

  • prev VTE of FH, give LMWH antenatally + 6wks post-partum
  • 3+ risk factors = LMWH from 28wks - 6wks postpartum
  • 4+ risk factors = LMWH immediately - 6wks post-partum

nb in women at extremes of body weight or other high-risk factors, routine measurement of peak anti-Xa activity for patients on LMWH for treatment of acute VTE in pregnancy recommended

194
Q

VTE DURING PREGNANCY

  • location of majority of DVTs?
  • investigation for DVT? 1
  • imaging options for PE? 2
  • other investigations to do if suspect PE?
  • when to give treatment-dose LMWH?
  • other option if life-threatening?
A

DVTs

  • 90% left leg
  • 70% above the knee (above knee = increased embolic risk)
  • nb Mostly occur below the knee in non-pregnancy state

DVT - leg USS / doppler

PE

  • VQ scan (increases risk of leukaemia for baby)
  • CTPA (if essential)

also do:

  • ABG
  • ECG

D-DIMER IS USELESS during pregnancy (as pregnancy raises it)

Give treatment-dose LMWH if high clinical suspision of VTE in pregnancy (even if can’t do imaging)

  • ie have a low index of suspision
  • give for 3 months

can giv ethrombolysis (alteplase etc) only if life-threatening

DON’T USE WARFARIN OR DOACS DURING PREGNANCY!

195
Q

Birth after previous c-section:

  • who’s decision is it whether woman has a repeat section or VBAC?
  • how should this decision be made?
  • when are elective sections normally booked?
  • what gestation do elective sections take place at?
A

The woman’s!!

She should be given written information about repeated section vs VBAC and also have a chance to discuss both options with a dr in antenatal clinic

elective sections norm booked around 36wks
- take place at 39wks

196
Q

VBAC:

  • advantages of VBAC? 5
  • % success rate?
  • monitoring required in labour?
  • % risk of scar rupture? (if natural labour AND if induced)
  • absolute contraindications to VBAC? 4
A

ADVANTAGES:

  • A vaginal birth (better for mother + baby - less likely to have resp problems)
  • greater chance of an uncomplicated normal birth in future pregnancies
  • shorter recovery (can drive/lift asap) and shorter stay in hospital
  • less abdo pain after birth
  • not having surgery

75% who have VBAC will be successful (ie won’t need an emergency section)

Will need CTG monitoring during labour

risk of scar rupture:

  • 0.5% if natural
  • 3% if induced/augmented (ie if have oxytocin)

ABSOLUTE CI

  • 3 or more previous sections
  • prev uterine rupture
  • high uterine incision (classical c-section scar)
  • other pregnancy complications that require a section (eg previa)
197
Q

ELECTIVE SECTION (following prev section)

  • advantages? 2
  • what percentage of women go into spontaneous labour before their elective section?
  • disadvantages of repeat section specific to it being 2nd time around? 3
  • disadvantages of c-sections generally (regardless of which number)? (6 to mother, 2 to baby)
  • risks in future pregnancies? 3
A

ADVANTAGES

  • virtually no risk of scar rupture
  • knowledge of date of delivery (though 10% of women will go into labour before this)

nb discuss with women what their wishes would be if they went into spontaneous labour before elective - want emergency section or try VBAC

DISADVANTAGES OF REPEAT SECTIONS

  • longer (+ potentially more difficult) operation
  • need for elective section in future pregnancies
  • all major risks (placenta accretia, large PPH etc) increase with number of sections performed

DISADVANTAGES OF SECTIONS GENERALLY

  • damage to other organs (bladder, bowel, ureter)
  • VTE risk (5x increased risk)
  • increased risk of bleeding
  • increased risk of infection
  • anaesthetic risks (say anaesthetist will discuss)
  • longer recovery (can’t drive or lift for 6 weeks)
  • transient neonatal respiratory problems more common than if vaginal birth
  • 2% risk of scalp laceration to baby

FUTURE PREGNANCY RISKS

  • higher risk of rupture
  • placenta accretia
  • still birth
198
Q

EPILEPSY IN PREGNANCY:

  • what should all epileptic mothers be advised to take prior to conception?
  • ideally how many / what medications should be on while conceiving/pregnant?
A

5mg folic acid
- take as long before conception as possible

aim for monotherapy

Although most anti-epileptic medications are teratogenic to greater or lesser degrees, the risks of uncontrolled epilepsy during pregnancy generally outweigh the risks of medication to the foetus

risk reduction through

  • 5mg folic acid
  • aiming for monotherapy with least teratogenic medication which is still effective in keeping woman seizure-free
199
Q
EPILEPSY IN PREGNANCY:
What are the potential effects on the foetus with these medications:
- sodium valproate?
- carbamazepine?
- phenytoin? (what additional med recommended if on phenytoin?)
- lamotrigine?
- leviteracetam?
- which are the three safest?
A

nb all anti-epileptics are considered teratogenic to some level but the risks of uncontrolled epilepsy during pregnancy generally outweigh the risks of medication to the foetus

SODIUM VALPROATE

  • very teratogenic - only use if it’s definitely the only thing which maintains seizure-free
  • neural tube defects
  • neurodevelopmental delay in children

CARBAMAZEPINE
- often considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics

PHENYTOIN

  • associated with cleft palate
  • give oral vit K in last month of pregnancy to reduce clotting disorders in newborn

LAMOTRIGINE
- studies to date suggest the rate of congenital malformations may be low. The dose of lamotrigine may need to be increased in pregnancy

LAMOTRIGINE + CARBAMAZEPINE + LEVITERACETAM are the safest!!

nb breast feeding is generally considered safe for mothers taking antiepileptics with the possible exception of the barbiturates

200
Q

Symptoms that could indicate congenital or acquired heart disease in pregnant and post-partum women? 6

A
  • fatigue
  • fainting
  • chest pain
  • palpitations
  • SOB
  • orthopnoea

may also pick up a murmur on auscultation (nb some are normal in pregnancy - check which one**)

201
Q

Management of cardiac disease during pregnancy:

  • commonest cardiac condition in pregnancy?
  • 1st line investigation?
  • who to involve?
  • management of delivery?
A

mitral stenosis

  • less common in british women, consider in immigrant women
  • norm associated with rheumatic heart disease

do 12-lead ECG (24hr if nothing found) if any symptoms

involve cardiology and MDT team early if congenital or acquired

consider early delivery if mother has cardiac problems
- monitor mother closely during labour/section

202
Q

pre-existing hypertension:

  • increases risk of what during pregnancy?
  • which non-teratogenic antihypertensives can pts be switched to? 3
  • what prophylactic medication should be given?
A

HTN increases risk of:

  • pre-eclampsia
  • placental abruption
  • IUGR
  • preterm delivery
  • maternal morbidity + mortality (eg stroke, retinopathy)
  • neonatal morbidity/mortality

SWITCH TO:

  • labetalol
  • nifedipine
  • methyldopa

give aspirin from 12wks

203
Q

What is a ‘late’ maternal death?

biggest cause in the UK?

Is this a direct or indirect maternal cause of death?

A

death from 6wks to a year post-natally from a cause related to pregnancy or birth

biggest cause = suicide

suicide within a year of birth is classed as a DIRECT maternal cause of death

nb overall 1 in 7 maternal deaths is from suicide

204
Q

DRUG ABUSE DURING PREGNANCY:

- increases risk of? 6

A
  • maternal death from overdose
  • IUGR
  • preterm delivery
  • stillbirth
  • placental abruption (esp w cocaine)
  • neonatal withdrawal syndrome
205
Q

Are SSRIs safe during pregnancy?

A

yes

206
Q

Chicken pox during pregnancy:

  • if mother has exposure during pregnancy and not sure if had before, what test should you do?
  • how should you manage each outcome of this test?
  • what to do if mother presents with rash?
A

check antibodies

  • if immune, no action needed
  • if not immune, give IV Ig immediately

if patient presents within 24hrs of rash onset, give oral acyclovir

207
Q

What are the normal ranges for haemoglobin during pregnancy:

  • T1?
  • T2/T3?
  • Post-partum?

first line management if anaemic during pregnancy?

A

T1 = Hb >110

T2/3 = Hb >105

post-partum = HB >100

Give oral iron 1st line if anaemic during pregnancy

  • advise re constipation and co-prescribe laxatives if need
  • also recommend have on empty stomach with orange juice to increase absorption
208
Q

FGM:

  • what is it?
  • four types?
  • what age is it normally done?
A

FGM = “All procedures that involve partial or total removal of the external female genitalia or other injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons”

REMOVAL of ALL or PART of:

  • type 1 = clitoris + clitoral hood (clitoridectomy)
  • type 2 = clitoris + labia minora +/- excision of labia majora (excision)
  • type 3 = closure of the vagina, narrowing of the vaginal opening (infibulation)
  • type 4 = other harmful procedures to genetalia (eg burning clitoris, piercing, cutting or scarring vaginal opening, stretching labia

In Africa, around 50% girls undergo FGM between birth and 5 years. Remainder at risk between 5 and 15 years.

209
Q

Possible complications of FGM:

  • immediate / short term? 9
  • long-term? 7
  • problems in pregnancy + delivery for mother and baby?
A

IMMEDIATE

  • Severe pain
  • urinary retention
  • haemorrhage
  • damage to adjacent organs
  • fractures from forcible restraint
  • wound infection (-> sepsis)
  • tetanus + gangrene
  • BBV infection (HIV, hep B)
  • death

LONG-TERM

  • recurrent UTI
  • difficulty voiding urine + faeces
  • painful menstruation
  • keloid scarring + cysts, infibulation cysts
  • sexual difficulties
  • psychological problems
  • infertility

PREGNANCY

  • delay in final stage of childbirth = high rates of LSCS, instrumental delivery, PPH + death
  • high rates of foetal asphyxia + perinatal death
210
Q

UK law and FGM:

  • What will woman have during vaginal delivery with type 3 FGM?
  • What should you do if you suspect a child under 18 is at risk of FGM?
A

FGM or arranging FGM overseas for a UK resident is illegal (can go to prison for 14 years for organising the trip)

if woman has a vaginal birth then will perform a vertical episiotomy (ie cut through what’s been sewn up) and won’t stitch it back up again

must document in notes if someone has had FGM

If a child has had FGM, call the polic (and notify safeguarding lead)

If child is at risk of having it, contact safeguarding lead + refer to social services

211
Q

What may raise suspicion that a girl may be at risk of FGM (or have already had it)? 5

A
  • A family which belongs to a community in which FGM is practised
  • A family making preparations to take a child on holiday to an area where FGM is practised, for example arranging vaccinations. If the family is from a community known to practise FGM, travel to any country (not just their country or origin) should raise suspicions
  • A child from an FGM-practising community that is talking about a ‘special procedure or ceremony’ that is going to take place
  • You become aware of a mother who has already undergone FGM. This might prompt concern for any daughters, girls or young women in the family
  • A school nurse may notice a girl from an FGM-practising community avoiding specific classes or activities such as PE or sports, perhaps giving reasons of bladder, menstrual or abdominal problems
212
Q
ANALGESIA IN PREGNANCY:
Which are safe to give:
- paracetamol?
- NSAIDs?
- entonox?
- opiates?

(if unsafe, say why)

A

paracetamol = safe

NSAIDs = AVOID

  • causes miscarriage + malformation in T1, premature closure of ductus arteriosus in T3
  • are safe in breastfeeding though
  • aspirin is okay (but lower doses)
213
Q

ANTIBIOTICS IN PREGNANCY, which are absolute CI, relative CI, safe:

  • trimethoprim?
  • nitrofurantoin?
  • cephalosporins + penicillins?
  • co-amoxiclav?
  • tetracyclines?
  • macrolides (erythromycin etc)?
  • clindamycin?
  • metronidazole?
A

nitrofurantoin
= yes in T1 +T2, no in T3 (neonatal haemolysis)

trimethoprim
= no in T1 + T2, yes in T3
(anti-folate, teratogenic)

cephalosporins + penicillins
= safe
except co-amoxiclav!! (relative CI - risk of necrotising enterocolitis in baby)

Tetracyclines = absolute CI (neonatal tooth discolouration)

Macrolides (erythromycin etc) = safe!

clindamycin = safe

metronidazole = safe

214
Q

1st and 2nd line management of UTI in pregnancy?

A

FIRST LINE

T1 + T2
= Nitrofurantoin (DO NOT USE in 3rd trimester (neonatal haemolysis))

T3
= Trimethoprim ((anti folate drug) DO NOT use in 1st trimester (teratogenic))

SECOND LINE
= Cephalosporins and penicillins safe (but avoid co-amoxiclav in pregnancy due to risk of necrotising enterocolitis (NEC) in baby)

nb DO NOT USE Tetracyclines – neonatal tooth discolouration

215
Q

Which two antibiotic classes to use to manage respiratory infection during pregnancy?

A

use penicillins and macrolides (eg erythromycin)

co-amoxiclav is NOT safe!

216
Q

abx for prophylaxis if PPROM? 1

abx for chorioamnionitis? 2

A

Erythromycin for 7 days to prevent chorioamnionitis

Chorioamnionitis 
 treatment
= IV Cefuroxime 
AND
= IV Metronidazole
217
Q

ENDOMETRITIS:

  • 1st line abx? 1
  • abx if penicillin allergic? 2
A

co-amoxiclav = 1st line

if pen allergic
= clindamycin AND metronidazole

nb can give co-amoxiclav for endometritis as baby is no longer in uterus!

218
Q

Which antihypertensives should NOT be used in pregnancy? 2

why?

A

Do not use ACE inhibitors ARBs in pregnancy - fetal renal damage in 2nd and 3rd trimester and possibly malformation in 1st trimester