Obstetrics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the management for Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A
  • IV fluid replacement
  • Metclopromide or cyclizine
  • Thromboprophylaxis with enoxaparin + stocking
  • Avoid dextrose but correct electrolytes
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2
Q

What type of laxatives should you avoid in pregnancy?

A
  • Stimulant
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3
Q

How do you define small for gestational age?

A

< 10th centil for age

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4
Q

What is the commonest cause of stillbirth?

A

Brain sparing effect of placental insufficiency

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5
Q

If there is evident IUGR, when should you deliver?

A

After 34 weeks ideally after 37

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6
Q

If a baby is larger for dates, at what weights should you consider an elective C-section?

A
  • Diabetic - >4500g

- Non-Diabetic >5000g

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7
Q

What are the risks of Large for gestational age for baby?

A
  • Neonatal death
  • Birth trauma
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Jaundice
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8
Q

What are the ranges for normal amniotic fluid in utero?

A

2cm - 8cm (outside of these boundaries = poly/Oligohydramnios)

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9
Q

What is Foetal Hydrops?

A

Abnormal accumulation of fluid in two or more fetal compartments, including ascites, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, and skin oedema

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10
Q

When are the first foetal movements felt?

A

18-20weeks

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11
Q

If a woman cannot feel movements what advice do you give?

A
  • Lie of left side
  • Focus for 2 hours
  • If they do not feel 10 movements in 2 hours, contact midwife/MAU
  • If first time, reassure that 70% pregnancies with 1 episode are uncomplicated
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12
Q

At which point should escalation be considered if no foetal movements are felt by?

A

24 weeks

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13
Q

What is the difference between PROM and PPROM?

A
  • PROM = labour not started within 1hr of rupture, >37weeks

- PPROM = Membranes break before 37 weeks

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14
Q

Give 4 signs of Chorioamnionitis

A
  • Maternal pyrexia/tachycardia
  • Uterine tenderness
  • Foetal tachycardia
  • Offensive, yellow vaginal discharge
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15
Q

What is the management for PPROM <34 weeks?

A
  • Betamethasone IM BD for one day
  • Erythromycin for 10 days
  • Admit 24hrs for close monitoring
  • MAC twice a week with regular CTG and infection monitoring
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16
Q

What is the management for PROM (>37 weeks)

A
  • Go home and come back in 24hours for induction
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17
Q

What advice is important when sending a mother home for PROM?

A
  • Call MAC in infection risk/red flag
  • Change pad every 4 hours
  • No tampons, no sex, no soap
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18
Q

What risk to the foetus of CMV infection is there?

A
  • Deafness
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19
Q

What is offered to women who get Rubella infection <16 weeks

A
  • Termination
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20
Q

How do you define hypertension in pregnancy?

A

> 140/90 on more than one occasion

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21
Q

What is your target blood pressure treatment in pre-eclampsia/gestational hypertension?

A

<150/80-100 as over treatment can cause IUGR

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22
Q

What is the first and second line treatment for gestational hypertension if diagnosed before 20weeks

A

Labetolol
Nifedipine
Hydralazine

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23
Q

What is should be given if the woman has HTN from 12 weeks?

A

aspirin

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24
Q

What are red flag signs of Pre-eclampsia?

A
  • Headache
  • Visual disturbance
  • Epigastric or RUQ pain
  • Breathlessness
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25
What are signs of Eclampsia (asides from fitting)
- Peri-orbital oedema - Hyper-reflexia - Clonus > 3 beats - Fits
26
What is HELLP Syndrome?
Haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets - Self-limiting but permanent liver damage can occur
27
What HbA1C level should indicate avoiding pregnancy?
>86
28
What is used for the diagnosis of diabetes in pregnancy?
OGTT
29
List 4 factors that makes a woman eligible for a OGTT
- BMI >30 - Previous DM in pregnancy - 1st degree relative with diabetes - Previous large baby >4.5kg - South Asian, Black Caribbean or Middle Eastern
30
What are the 4 steps of management for Gestational Diabetes?
1 - lifestyle 2 - Metformin with food and increase dose after 1 week 3 - Single injection of intermediate acting insulin - Isophane 4 - Add short acting insulin before meals - Novorapid
31
Give 3 comorbidities for VTE
- Parity >3 - Smoking - Gross varicose veins
32
Give 4 Medical comorbidities for VTE
- Cancer - Active SLE - IBD - Type I Diabetes
33
What Blood disorders can increase risk of VTE in pregnancy?
- Thrombophilia - Protein S deficiency - Protein C deficiency - Factor V Leiden - Antithrombin deficiency
34
Whats the treatment for VTE?
- LMWH - Enoxaparin or Dalteparin
35
How long should therapeutic anticoagulation be continued for after VTE in ooregnancy
6 months
36
How long should treatment continue for for VTE?
6 weeks
37
Is Warfarin safe for breast feeding?
Yes but additional growth scans required
38
Prevention - 4+ risk factors/previous VTE
Prophylactic LMWH throughout antenatal period
39
Prevention - 3 risk factors for VTE
LMWH for 28 weeks and 6 weeks post-partum
40
Prevention - 2 risk factors for VTE
LMWH 10 days post partum
41
Prevention - Heritable thrombophilia
High dose LMWH antenatally and 6 weeks post partum
42
When would a C-section be planned for Monochorionic Monoamniotic twins?
32-34 weeks
43
When would a delivery be planned for Monochorionic Diamniotic twins?
36-37weeks
44
How frequent do appointments need to be for expecting twins?
Every 2 weeks
45
What would you use to treat hyperthyroidism in pregnancy?
Propylthiouracil as Carbimazole is toxic
46
What blood test would indicate acute fatty liver disease?
Raised ALT
47
How would you treat Cholestasis in pregnancy?
Vit K + supportive and close monitoring
48
Which infections can increase the risk of miscarriage?
- Listeria - Toxoplasmosis - Varicella zoster - Malaria
49
What is the risk of expectant management of miscarriage?
- Haemorrhage particularly if late 1st trimester | - Higher risk of emergency intervention and blood transfusion
50
What is used for the medical management of miscarriage?
- Vaginal Misoprostol
51
What is Antiphospholipid syndrome?
- Autoimmune, hypercoagulable state caused by antiphospholipid antibodies - Provokes thrombosis in arteries and veins
52
How do you diagnose Antiphospholipid syndrome?
- One clinical event - thrombosis or pregnancy complications - 2 antibody blood tests spaced at least 3 months apart confirming lupus anticoagulant or anti Beta-2 glycoprotein I
53
What is the management of stillbirth?
- Mother is induced from prostaglandins administered vaginally
54
What is a complete hyatidiform mole?
- Empty egg fertilised by single sperm | - 46XX
55
What is a partial hyatidiform?
- Normal haploid egg fertilised by 2 sperm or by one sperm with duplication of paternal chromosomes - 69 XXX - 69 XXY
56
What advice is given following a hyatidiform mole?
- Urgent referral for evacuation - Avoid pregnancy until hCG reaches 0/next 6-12 months - tested every 2 weeks - Future pregnancies need serial hCG monitoring
57
What level of hCG might indicate conservative management of an ectopic pregnancy?
< 1000IU
58
What effects can a Rhesus negative mother have on a foetus?
- Hydrops foetalis - Jaundice - Anaemia - Hepatosplenomegaly - Heart failure
59
To encourage the 3rd stage of labour, after deliver of the anterior shoulder, what drug can be given?
IM Syntometrine
60
If no signs of placental separation during the 3rd stage of labour, what drug should be given?
Syntocinon
61
What is the causative agent of Group B strep?
Streptococcus agalactiae
62
Why can't you use NSAIDs during labour?
Causes premature closure of the ductus arteriosus
63
Which opioids can be used during labour?
Pethidine / Meptid
64
Give 4 advantages of an epidural
- Lowers BP in HTN - Abolish premature urge to push - Analgesia in place for emergency CS - Pain free
65
Give 4 disadvantages of an epidural
- Hypotension - IV fluids - Increased instrumental delivery rate - Urinary retention - Local anaesthetic toxicity
66
Where is an epidural inserted?
Between L3 and L4
67
What is an absolute contraindication of epidural/spinal anaesthetic during labour?
Anticoagulant bleeding disorders
68
Give 4 absolute contraindications of induction
- Abnormal lie - Placenta praevia - Pelvic obstruction - mass/deformity - Acute foetal compromise
69
What factors may make you consider not allowing induction?
- Previous LSCS - Prematurity - High parity
70
What Bishops score would indicates ripening?
< 5
71
What is involved in cervical ripening?
Prostaglandins Membrane sweep Oxytocin
72
What is the management if labour does not start after ARM?
- 2 hours for primip - 4hours for multip - Oxytocin/syntocinon infusions started
73
What are potential complications of induction?
- Instrumental delivery - Hyperstimulation of uterus causing rupture/foetal distress - PPH - PGE2 side effects - N+V, diarrhoea, bronchoconstriction
74
After how many hours following prostaglandin must oxytocin not be given?
6hrs
75
What position must the baby be in to indicate operational delivery?
Occipito-anterior
76
What is the main contra-indication of using tocolytics?
Ruptured membranes
77
What does FFN indicate?
Positive means that likely to go into labour
78
How many days does it take for the Os to close after birth?
3 days
79
How is lactation achieved?
Oxytocin + prolactin
80
What is colostrum?
Thick yellow fatty fluid passed for 1st 3 days before milk comes in
81
What differential diagnoses are there for an amniotic fluid embolus?
- MI - PE - Anaphylaxis - Sepsis - Eclampsia
82
What are 4 causes of abdominal pain during pregnancy?
- HELLP - Placental abruption - Pre-eclampsia - Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
83
How would you manage an atonic uterus causing PPH?
Oxytocin +/- ergometrine IV | PEG2a infected into myometrium
84
When does puerperal psychosis commonly start?
3-5days post partum
85
Which methods of contraception are recommended post-partum?
Condom, IUD, POP, NOT COC
86
When is lactational amenorrhoea effective as a method of contraception?
- Complete amenorrhoea - Woman is fully breast feeding - 4hrly feeds a day, 6hrly at night - Baby no more than 6months old
87
When is it safe to insert a IUD after pregnancy?
- Either 48hrs after or | - wait 4 weeks