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Phase 3A > Obstetrics > Flashcards

Obstetrics Flashcards

1
Q

What is premature labour? (gestational age)

A

24 completed weeks - 36 weeks + 6 days

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2
Q

What are the risk factors for premature labour?

A 
Low socioeconomic status
Maternal age (<20 and >35)
Genital tract infections 
PPROM 
APH 
Cervical incompetence 
Congenital uterine abnormalities 
DM 
Antiphospholipid syndrome 
Smoking and substance abuse
Previous preterm delivery
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3
Q

How is premature labour diagnosed?

A

Pregnant women may present with a history of painful contraction and assume they’re in premature labour. Many of these women are experiencing Braxton Hicks contractions.

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4
Q

What are the important questions to ask when taking a history for premature labour?

A

Duration of contractions and interval bleeding or fluid loss
Full obstetric history

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5
Q

What may be seen on examination for premature labour?

A

Speculum examination may reveal a dilated cervix and/or amniotic fluid leak
Digital examination should NOT be performed if the membranes have been ruptured due to risk of infection.
If the membranes are intact, a digital examination is the best way of assessing premature labour.

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6
Q

What is the management for premature labour?

A

Transport pregnant mother to safest facility for delivery
Tocolytic drugs: nifedipine, atosiban (oxytocin receptor antagonist)
Corticosteroids: If mother is 24+0 - 35+6 weeks
Magnesium sulphate for neuroprotection: 24+0 - 29+6, consider for 30+0 - 33+6
Emergency cervical cerclage: 16+0 - 34+0 who have a dilated cervix and unruptured membranes

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7
Q

What is PPROM?

A

Premature prelabour rupture of membranes

It is the rupture of membranes prior to the onset of labour in a patient who is <37/40.

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8
Q

What is PROM?

A

It refers to the rupture of membranes occurring prior to the onset of labour and can occur from 37+0 weeks onwards

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9
Q

What are the risk factors for PPROM?

A

Smoking
Previous preterm delivery
Vaginal bleeding at any time in the pregnancy
Lower genital tract infection

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10
Q

What is the presentation of PPROM?

A

A history of a “popping sensation” or “gush” with continuous watery liquid draining thereafter. Underwear or pad may be damp.

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11
Q

What investigation would you perform for suspected PPROM?

A

DO NOT routinely perform a digital examination.
Seeing amniotic fluid draining from the cervix and pooling in the vagina after lying down for 30 minutes is the most accurate test.
USS to check gestation and liquor volume
Temperature monitoring
Foetal monitoring

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12
Q

What is the management for PPROM?

A

Refer urgently to hospital
Prophylactic antibiotics
Antenatal steroids if between 24+0 and 34+6
Delivery or expectant management

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13
Q

What is the aetiology of miscarriage?

A 
Genetic abnormalities
Endocrine factors 
Maternal illness and infection 
Abnormal foetal development 
Uterine abnormalities 
Incompetent cervix 
Placental failure 
Multiple pregnancy 
PCOS 
Antiphospholipid syndrome 
Inherited thrombophilias 
Poorly controlled DM 
Poorly controlled thyroid disease
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14
Q

What are the different types of miscarriage?

A 
Threatened miscarriage 
Inevitable miscarriage 
Incomplete miscarriage 
Complete miscarriage 
Missed miscarriage 
Recurrent miscarriage (>/= 3)
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15
Q

What are the risk factors for miscarriage?

A 
Maternal age (>30)
Smoking 
Excess alcohol 
Low pre-pregnancy BMI 
Paternal age 
Fertility problems 
Illicit drug use 
Uterine surgery/abnormalities 
Connective tissue disorders 
Uncontrolled DM 
Being stressed/anxious
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16
Q

What is the presentation of a miscarriage?

A

PV bleeding and pain worse than a period

+/- products of conception

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17
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of a miscarriage?

A 
Ectopic pregnancy 
Implantation bleed 
Cervical polyp 
Cervical ectropian 
Cervicitis/vaginitis 
Neoplasia 
Hydatid mole
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18
Q

What investigations would you perform for a suspected miscarriage?

A 
USS (usually transvaginal)
Serum hCG (progesterone)
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19
Q

What is the management for a miscarriage?

A

Access to support, follow up and counselling.
Conservative: urine pregnancy test at 7-14 days and watchful wait
Medical: vaginal misoprostol and a pregnancy test 3 weeks after receiving treatment
Surgical: Vacuum aspiration

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20
Q

What are the risk factors for gestational diabetes?

A 
>35 years old 
BMI >30 
Smoking 
Previous stillbirth 
Previous large baby (>4.5 kg)
Previous GDM
FHx of T2DM
More common in Asian, Middle Eastern and African women
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21
Q

What is the pathology of gestational diabetes?

A

Maternal insulin sensitivity decreases in pregnancy due to human placental lactogen to increase blood glucose to provide enough glucose to the foetus, especially in the 3rd trimester.

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22
Q

How is gestational diabetes usually diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis is not easy so screening is used for at risk patients as they’re often asymptomatic.

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23
Q

What are the risks of GDM?

A 
Macrosomia 
Shoulder dystocia 
Foetal jaundice 
Congenital defects 
Increased risk of T2DM late in life 
Increased risk of childhood obesity 
Increased risk of tears in the mother 
T2DM in mother - 50% at 15 years and 50% at 5 years if they required insulin. 
Increased risk of still birth
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24
Q

What investigation would you perform for GDM?

A

A 2 hour 75g OGTT

Screening takes place of all mothers with known risk factors at 24-28 weeks gestation

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25
Q

What is the classification of GDM?

A

A1 - abnormal OGTT but normal glucose levels fasting + at 2 hours
A2 - abnormal OGTT and high glucose levels during fasting and at 2 hours

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26
Q

What is the management for GDM?

A

Diet control and exercise (usually A1)
Metformin
Insulin

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27
Q

What are the risk factors for pre-eclampsia and eclampsia?

A 
Primigravida
FHx of pre-eclampsia 
Previous pre-eclampsia 
<155cm maternal height 
BMI >/= 35 at presentation 
Maternal age <20 or >35 
History of migraine, hypertension, renal disease 
Multiple pregnancy
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28
Q

What is the aetiology of pre-eclampsia and eclampsia?

A

Suboptimal uteroplacental perfusion associated with a maternal inflammatory response and maternal vascular endothelial dysfunction leading to vascular hyperpermeability, thrombophilia and hypertension. May compensate for decreased flow in uterine arteries.

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29
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of pre-eclampsia and eclampsia?

A 
Flu-like symptoms 
Vomiting 
Tachycardia 
Hyperreflexia and clonus 
Seizures (eclampsia)
Headache 
Visual disturbance 
Bruising (platelets <100)
Epigastric pain 
Increased urea and creatinine 
Abnormal LFTs
Papilloedema 
Foetal distress
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30
Q

How is pre-eclampsia or eclampsia diagnosed?

A

Systolic >140 mmHg or diastolic >90 mmHg in the second half of pregnancy AND >/= 1+ proteinuria on a dipstick

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31
Q

What investigations would you perform for pre-eclampsia or eclampsia?

A

Urinalysis
Frequent monitoring of FBC, LFTs, renal function, U&E
Foetal USS

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32
Q

What is the management of pre-eclampsia/eclampsia?

A

Patients can usually be managed conservatively until at least 34/40 as long as they’re haemodynamically stable and without coagulopathy or HELLP.
Delivery of the placenta is the only cure for pre-eclampsia but the risk of pre-eclampsia still exists for approx 1 week after delivery.
If <34/40 give corticosteroids

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33
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

The chorionic villi penetrate the decidua basalis to attach to the myometrium

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34
Q

What is placenta increta?

A

The chorionic villi penetrate deeply into the myometrium

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35
Q

What is placenta percreta?

A

The chorionic villi breach the myometrium into the peritoneum

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36
Q

What are the risk factors for placenta accreta/increta/percreta?

A

Previous C section
Placenta praevia
Advanced maternal age

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37
Q

What investigations would you perform for placenta accreta/increta/percreta?

A

It is usually diagnosed through foetal USS at 20 weeks

MRI

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38
Q

What is the management for placenta accreta/increta/percreta?

A

Consultant obstetrician and anaesthetist at delivery
Elective C-section at 36-37 weeks
Blood and blood products available
MDT involvement in pre-op planning
Discussion and consent including hysterectomy
Leaving the placenta in place
Cell salvage
Interventional radiology
Local availability of level 2 critical care bed

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39
Q

What is the classification for placenta praevia?

A

Major: the placenta covers the internal os of the cervix
Minor: if the leading edge of the placenta is in the lower segment of the uterus not does not cover the os

40
Q

What are the risk factors for placenta praevia?

A 
Previous placenta praevia 
Previous C-section 
Advancing maternal age 
Increasing parity 
Smoking 
Cocaine use during pregnancy 
Previous spontaneous or induced abortion 
Deficient endometrium due to endometritis 
Manual removal of placenta 
Curretage 
Assisted conception
41
Q

What is the presentation for placenta praevia?

A

It is often an incidental finding on routine USS

Painless bleeding after 28/40

42
Q

How is placenta praevia diagnosed?

A

Clinical suspicion should be high in any woman with PV bleeding after 20/40
Transvaginal USS - USS can’t exclude placental abruption as it’s a clinical diagnosis
Placenta may be low at 20/40 USS but appear to “migrate” due to development of the lower uterine segment so monitor these women

43
Q

What is the management for placenta praevia?

A

A woman with minor placenta praevia may be able to deliver vaginally, if <2cm away from the os then requires a c-section
Major: delivery by C-section and avoid penetrative intercourse

44
Q

What are the different types of placental abruptions?

A

Concealed (20%) - more severe, blood loss is easily underestimated
Revealed (80%) - blood drains through the cervix

45
Q

What are the risk factors for placental abruption?

A 
Previous abruption 
Multiple pregnancy 
Trauma e.g. RTC 
Domestic violence 
ECV 
Threatened miscarriage earlier in the pregnancy 
Pre-eclampsia 
HTN 
Multiparity 
Previous C-section 
Non-vertex presentation 
Smoking 
Cocaine/amphetamine use 
Thrombophilia 
Intra-uterine infectons 
Polyhydramnios
46
Q

What are the symptoms of placental abruption?

A

PV bleeding
Abdominal pain - usually continuous
Uterine contractions

47
Q

What are the signs of placental abruption?

A

“Woody hard” abdomen
Shock
Foetal distress
Abnormal CTG

48
Q

What investigations would you perform for placental abruption?

A

None, it is a clinical diagnosis.

49
Q

What is the management for placental abruption?

A

ABCDE
Delivery: if foetus is alive then can ARM or perform a C-section. If the foetus becomes distressed then C-section
If the foetus has died then a vaginal delivery unless haemorrhage is massive then a C-section may be indicated to control bleeding.

50
Q

What are the risk factors for vasa praevia?

A

IVF pregnancy
Multiple pregnancy
Bilobate or succenturiate placenta
Second-trimester placenta praevia

51
Q

What is vasa praevia?

A

It is where one of the branches of the foetal umbilical vessels lies in the membranes and across the cervical os

52
Q

What is the presentation of vasa praevia?

A

Painless vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes and foetal bradycardia

53
Q

What investigations would you perform for vasa praevia?

A

It is usually found at the 20-week anomaly scan

Transvaginal USS and colour doppler can also show it

54
Q

What is the management for vasa praevia?

A

Antenatal monitoring to detect compression and an elective C-section delivery.
Emergency C-section if there is PROM, vaginal bleeding continues or foetal status is non-reassuring

55
Q

What are the complications of vasa praevia?

A

It may be accompanied by other placental abnormalities e.g. velamentous insertion which increases the risk of foetal haemorrhage when foetal membranes rupture

56
Q

What is the definition of primary PPH?

A

EBL >500ml from the genital tract within 24 hours of delivery
Minor is =/< 1000mls, major is >1000mls

57
Q

What is the aetiology of primary PPH?

A 
4 T's 
Tone 
Tissue 
Trauma 
Thrombin 
Uterine atony most common
58
Q

What are the risk factors for primary PPH?

A 
APH
Placenta praevia 
Placental abruption 
Multiple pregnancy 
Polyhydramnios 
Macrosomia 
Pre-eclampsia/pregnancy induced hypertension 
Grand multiparity 
Previous PPH
BMI >35
Asthia ethnic origin 
Age >40 
Uterine abnormalities 
Maternal anaemia 
LSCS
Retained placental 
Mediolateral episiotomy 
IOL 
Labour >12 hours 
Maternal pyrexia in labour
59
Q

What are the symptoms for primary PPH?

A

Continuous bleeding which fails to stop after the delivery of the placenta

60
Q

What are the signs of primary PPH?

A

Loss of >1000mls may be accompanied by clinically apparent shock (increased HR, low BP)

61
Q

What is the management of primary PPH?

A

ABCDE
Monitoring of FBC, crossmatch and coagulation studies
Establish cause
Tone: bimanual uterine compression, ensure bladder is empty, oxytocin 5 units by IVI, ergometrine 0.5mg slow IVI/IM (unless HTN), carboprost 0.25mg IM (can have up to 8 times), misoprostol 1000mg PR, balloon tamponade, B-lynch suture, bilateral ligation of uterine arteries, bilateral ligation of internal iliac arteries, selective arterial embolisation, TAH

62
Q

What are the complications of primary PPH?

A 
Hypovolaemic shock
DIC
AKI 
Liver failure 
Acute ARDS 
Death
63
Q

How can primary PPH be prevented?

A

Active management of the third stage of labour with prophylactic oxytocics.

64
Q

What is the definition of secondary PPH?

A

Abnormal bleeding from the genital tract, from 24 hours after delivery to 6 weeks postpartum

65
Q

What is the aetiology of secondary PPH?

A

Infection - endometritis

Retained products of conception

66
Q

What are the risk factors for infection (and therefore secondary PPH)?

A 
LSCS
Prolonged rupture of membranes 
Severe meconium staining in liquor 
Long labour with multiple examinations 
Manual removal of the placenta 
Very low or high maternal age 
Low socioeconomic status
Maternal anaemia 
Prolonged surgery 
GA 
Internal foetal monitoring
67
Q

What are the symptoms of secondary PPH?

A 
Fever 
Abdominal pain
Offensive smelling lochia
Abnormal PV bleeding 
Abnormal vaginal discharge 
Dyspareunia 
Dysuria 
General malaise
68
Q

What are the signs of secondary PPH?

A

Fever
Rigors
Tachycardia
Tenderness of the suprapubic area and adnexae
Elevated fundus which feels boggy in RPOC

69
Q

What investigations would you perform for secondary PPH?

A 
FBC
Blood cultures 
MSU
High vaginal swab - check for gonorrhoea and chlamydia 
USS
Speculum examination
70
Q

What is the management for secondary PPH?

A

SEPSIS pathway if suspected
For endometritis: Abx, RCOG guideline for sepsis after pregnancy recommends tazocin
For RPOC: D&C with antibiotic cover

71
Q

What are the risk factors for postnatal depression?

A 
History of mental health problems 
Psychological disturbance during pregnancy 
Poor social support 
Poor relationship with partner
Baby blues 
Recent major life event 
Unplanned pregnancy 
Unemployment
Not breastfeeding 
Antenatal parental stress
Antenatal thyroid dysfunction 
Longer time to conception 
>/= 2 children 
Substance misuse
72
Q

What is the presentation of postnatal depression?

A 
Low mood
Loss of enjoyment and pleasure 
Anxiety 
Disturbed sleep 
Loss of appetite
Poor concentration 
Low self-esteem 
Worthlessness and feelings of guilt
Low energy levels 
Loss of libido 
Thoughts of death/suicidal thoughts
73
Q

What is the management of postnatal depression?

A

General principles: empowerment, communication, the wider family environment, adolescents (keep in mind the issues surrounding adolescent mothers)
Mild-moderate: consider facilitated self-help strategies
Mild depression with a history of severe depression: consider an antidepressant
Moderate or severe depression: high-intensity psychological intervention e.g. CBT, antidepressant treatment or both

74
Q

What are the risk factors for shoulder dystocia?

A 
DM
Foetal macrosomia 
Maternal obesity 
IOL 
Prolonged labour 
Too much oxytocin 
Previous shoulder dystocia
Instrumental delivery
75
Q

What are the anatomical causes of shoulder dystocia?

A

Uterine problems with contraction
Foetal lie
Shape of the maternal pelvis

76
Q

How is shoulder dystocia identified?

A

The head has delivered but the shoulders will not, the head is pulled back tightly against the vulva (turtle sign). The mothers pelvis constricts the baby’s chest and there is often cord compression leading to asphyxiation and acidosis

77
Q

What is the treatment for shoulder dystocia?

A 
McRoberts position 
McRoberts manoeuvre
Rubin manoeuvre
Woodscrew manoeuvre
Mother on all fours +/- woodscrew again 
Maternal syphsiotomy 
Push head back in and LSCS
Break clavicle
78
Q

What is it important to do after a shoulder dystocia delivery?

A

DOCUMENT
Check for Erb’s palsy
Umbilical gases for acid-base balance

79
Q

What is the classification for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Tubal 95% - ampullary, isthmic, fimbrial, interstitial
Others <5% - cervical ovarian scar
Heterotopic - ectopic and intrauterine pregnancies

80
Q

What are the risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy?

A 
History of infertility 
Assisted conception 
History of PID
Endometriosis
Previous pelvic/tubal surgery 
Previous ectopic pregnancy
IUCD in situ
Smoking 
Prior induced abortion
81
Q

What are the symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy?

A 
Pain 
Amenorrhoea 
PV bleed
Could be asymptomatic 
Shoulder tip pain 
Collapse
82
Q

What are the signs of an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Acute abdomen - peritonism, guarding, tenderness at adnexae, distension
Cervical excitation
Shock

83
Q

What investigations would you perform for an ectopic pregnancy?

A 
Pregnancy test 
Transvaginal USS
Serum progesterone and serum bhCG
Laparoscopy 
FBC, group &amp; save/crossmatch
84
Q

What is the management for an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Expectant - need strict selection criteria and to monitor closely
Medical - methotrexate 50mg/m2 (75-90mg usually) if the patient is clinically stable, has minimal symptoms, the ectopic is <3cm, no foetal cardiac activity, no haemoperitoneum and hCG <3000IU
Surgical - laparoscopy/laparotomy to perform a salpingectomy or salpingotomy
Anti-D immunoglobulin for rhesus negative mothers with a confirmed or suspected ectopic pregnancy

85
Q

What are the female causes of subfertility?

A 
30% anovulation 
25% tubal blockage
5% cervical problem 
5% sexual problem
30% defective implantation due to an endometrial problem e.g. polyps
PCOS is the commonest cause
86
Q

What investigations would you perform for subfertility?

A

Female:
Day 2-5 profile of FSH, LH, TSH, prolactin, testosterone, mid-luteal progesterone, rubella and chlamydia screening, anti-mullerian hormone (ovarian reserve) and HSG

Male: 
Semen analysis (after patient has abstained from sexual intercourse for 3-4 days), karyotyping if suspect a genetic cause
87
Q

What is the management for subfertility?

A

Medical: clomifene and hCG injection, metformin may be added in women with PCOS and BMI >25 who are unresponsive to clomifene. Gonadotrophins, dopamine agonists (ovulatory disorders secondary to hyperprolactinaemia)
Surgical: tubal surgery, laparoscopic surgery for endometriosis or surgical correction of epididymal blockage
Assisted conception: intrauterine insemination (women must have patent fallopian tubes), IVF (women must have functional ovaries), ICSI

88
Q

What is the pathogenesis for Rhesus Disease of the Newborn?

A

There are rarely any problems during primary exposure but subsequent pregnancies result in large amounts of anti-D maternal antibodies being produced. They can cross the placenta and fix onto foetal RBCs which then become recognised as “foreign” by the foetal immune system and haemolysed

89
Q

What is the presentation of Rhesus Disease of the Newborn?

A

Antenatally, the first indication of the condition is the presence of anti-D antibodies in the mother as detected by the indirect Coombs test. All Rhesus negative women have this test.
Antenatal: foetal anaemia, hydrops foetalis
Postnatal: hydrops foetalis, early jaundice, kernictus, cutaneous haemopoietic lesions, hepatosplenomegaly, coagulopathy, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia

90
Q

What investigations would you perform for Rhesus Disease of the Newborn?

A

Indirect Coombs test
Antenatal USS
Foetal blood sampling
Postnatally: cord or neonatal blood for low Hb, raised reticulocytes, low platelets, direct coombs test +ve group, high serum bilirubin. Monitor SBR 4 hourly until the rate of rise is known.

91
Q

What is the management for Rhesus Disease of the Newborn?

A

In utero: if blood sample confirms anaemia, intrauterine blood transfusion with O-neg packed red cells. Best done at 18/40
Postnatally: Start high risk infants on intensive phototherapy whilst awaiting SBR Hb result. If SBR >100micromol/L then prepare for exchange transfusion
Supportive treatment

92
Q

What is the prophylaxis for Rhesus Disease of the Newborn?

A

Rh anti-D IgG given to RhD-ve mothers after the birth of a Rh+ve foetus

93
Q

What are the different types of cord prolapse?

A

Overt - umbilical cord can slip past the presenting part and present into the cervix or descend into the vagina
Occult - where the umbilical cord lies along the presenting part
Cord presentation - where the cord can be felt to prolapse between the presenting part +/- membrane rupture

94
Q

What are the risk factors for cord prolapse?

A 
Prematurity 
Foetal congenital abnormality
Second twin 
Multiparity 
Low birth weight 
Breech
Oblique, transverse and unstable lie
Cephalopalvic disproportion 
Pelvic tumours 
Low lying placenta
Polyhydramnios
Macrosomia 
High foetal station 
Long umbilical cord
95
Q

What are the signs of a cord prolapse?

A

A cord prolapse may occur with no outward physical signs and a normal foetal heart trace.
Abdo examination - an ill-fitting or non-engaged presenting part should alert one to the possibility of a cord prolapse.
Overt - cord can be seen protruding
Occult - cord is rarely felt on VE

96
Q

What is the management for cord prolapse?

A

Treat as an acute obstetric emergency
Overt: O2 4-6L/min, place mother in knee-chest position or head down left-lateral position and apply upwards pressure against the presenting part. Emergency LSCS ASAP! Only proceed with NVD if it’s imminent. Resuscitation available for the foetus.
Occult: Put mother in left-lateral position, if the foetal heart rate returns to normal then allow labour to continue with mother receiving O2 and continuous foetal monitoring. If FHR is abnormal then proceed to emergency LSCS

Phase 3A (9 decks)

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