Obstetrics - 1P Flashcards

1
Q

A 26 year old woman complains of abdominal pain
and dizziness. On examination, she is found to be pale
and tachycardic. Her urine pregnancy test is positive and
her hemoglobin is 5. Bedside ultrasound reveals a left
adnexal mass and free fluid. She is taken to the
operating room for a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. While
in the operating room she arrests and unable to be
resuscitated. How would her death be classified?
a. nonmaternal death
b. direct maternal death
c. indirect maternal death
d. pregnancy-related death

A

d. pregnancy-related death

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2
Q

Which of the following is defined as the number of
maternal deaths that result from the reproductive
process per 100,00 live births?
a. maternal mortality ratio
b. direct maternal deathrate
c. maternal mortality rate
d. pregnancy related mortality rate

A

a. maternal mortality ratio

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3
Q

A patient present with severe preeclampsia at 37
weeks, labor was induced and she spontaneously
delivers at 3.2 kgs neonate. In the delivery room she
complains severe headache and suddenly collapses.
She is unable to be resuscitated. At autopsy it revealed
hemorrhage. Based on gestational age, how would her
neonate be classified?
a. early term
b. full term
c. post dates
d. post term

A

a. early term

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4
Q

Which of the following purposes would fetal
chromosomal microarray analysis be potentially
beneficial?
a. screening of a fetus with an advance age mother
b. evaluating a stillborn fetus
c. screening the fetus at 12 weeks’ gestation
whose mother personally carries a balanced
translocation
d. evaluating the fetus with trisomy 21 and a
double- outlet right ventricle

A

*answer in study guide is letter b (evaluating a stillborn fetus)

*ans in FB:
c. screening the fetus at 12 weeks’ gestation
whose mother personally carries a balanced
translocation

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5
Q

Which of the following best describe the primary role
of the ob-gyne hospitalist?
a. care for hospitalized patient who have no
primary doctor
b. care for hospitalized obstetrical patients and
help manage their emergencies
c. assists other obstetricians in procedures
d. be a back-up physicians taking calls from
home

A

b. care for hospitalized obstetrical patients and

help manage their emergencies

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6
Q

Which of the following is the single most way to
reduce maternal death according to joint WHO, UNFPA
and UNICEF?
a. skilled attendant
b. complete facility based
c. good referral system
d. transportation

A

a. skilled attendant

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7
Q

A 16-year old G1 delivers an infant with complex
congenital heart defect. The death of the newborn at 5
days of life due to the congenital heart defect. Regarding
this patient, the patient makes family planning decisions
in the post-partum period. Which of the following will
cause her to be most affected by government
interference with women’s reproductive rights?
a. ethnicity
b. pregnancy within the last year
c. age
d. prior child with congenital anomaly

A

c. age

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8
Q

G4P3 3003 at 25 weeks presents at the ER because
of severe abdominal pain, on examination the patient is
hypotensive and there were severe uterine contractions.
The patient has 3 previous caesarian section, she
underwent explore lap and upon opening up there was
complete rupture of the uterus. So fetus was delivered
with no heart beat weighing 692 grams, patient later on
develop DIC because of severe blood loss and
subsequently expired. How will you classify her death
now?
a. direct maternal death
b. perinatal death
c. indirect maternal death
d. nonmaternal death

A

a. direct maternal death

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9
Q

Which of the following cases is categorized as
nonmaternal death?
a. death from cardiac failure secondary to
thyroid storm in pregnancy
b. death due to congestive heart failure
secondary to rheumatic heart disease
c. death due to complications of breast cancer
associated with pregnancy
d. death from cerebrovascular accidents
secondary to preeclampsia severe

A

c. death due to complications of breast cancer

associated with pregnancy

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10
Q
Deficiency of which of the following nutrients will lead 
to miscarriage?
a. folate
b. iodine
c. iron
d. calcium
A

b. iodine

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11
Q

A primigravid who is 38 weeks was is in labor for 12
hours, on the 12th hour OB resident decided emergency
caesarian section for dysfunctional labor, during you IE
(internal examination) you noted the patient diagonal
conjugate is 11.5, the ischial spine was not palpable, the
bituberous diameter is 8 cm, the head is stationed 0, the
posterior fontanel is located posteriorly. What was the
most probable cause of dysfunctional labor?
a. inadequate inlet
b. inadequate midpelvis
c. inadequate pelvic outlet
d. posterior occiput posterior of the fetal head

A

d. posterior occiput posterior of the fetal head

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12
Q

Which pelvic type has a sacral angle of <90 degree?

a. android
b. gynecoid
c. anthropoid
d. platepelloid

A

a. android

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13
Q

A 33-year old nulligravid undergoing labor witout
anesthesia arrest at station +2, you decided to perform
outlet forcep delivery with the pudendal nerve block.
What is the landmark you use to perform the nerve
block?
a. sacrospinous ligament
b. sacrotuberous ligament
c. ischial spine
d. all of the above

A

c. ischial spine

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14
Q

Which of the following statement regarding borders
of ischiorectal fossae is incorrect:
a. posterior border: maximus gluteus muscle
and tuberous ligament
b. anterior border: inferior border of the posterior
triangle
c. lateral border: obturator internus muscle
fascia and ischial tuberosity
d. medial border: anal sphincter complex

A

b. anterior border: inferior border of the posterior

triangle

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15
Q

Which of the following does not characterize the
obstetric conjugate?
a. cannot be measured directly
b. normally measures 11 cm or more
c. shortest distance from the sacral promontory
and the symphysis pubis
d. less clinical importance of the pelvic inle

A

b. normally measures 11 cm or more

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16
Q

A 22-year old primigravid presents in active labor at
5 cm and station -2, 2 hours later she is 8 cm dilated and
the fetal head is noted at station 0, which of the following
is true?
a. fetus is too big
b. the top of the fetal head is noted at the level
of the midpelvic interspinous diameter
c. internal rotation of the fetal head to traverse
should be occurring
d. the biparietal has reached the level of the
pelvic inlet

A

b. the top of the fetal head is noted at the level

of the midpelvic interspinous diameter

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17
Q

The ability of which joint aids in the delivery of
obstructed shoulder in the case of shoulder dystocia?
a. pubic symphysis
b. sacroiliac joint
c. sacrococcygeal joint
d. all of the above

A

b. sacroiliac joint

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18
Q

The fetal head presents at station +5 in a transverse

diameter. What is the most likely pelvic shape?

A

d. Gynecoid (adequate pelvis)

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19
Q

Which of the ffg planes is bounded by the 2nd to the
3rd verterbra posteriorly, ischial bones laterally, and the
middle surface of the symphysis pubis anteriorly?

A

c. the plane of the greatest pelvic diameter

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20
Q

Which of the ffg types of pelvis has a none prominent
ischial spine, but with short and curved pubic arch, very
wide subpubic angle, and a wide bituberous diameter

A

c. Platypelloid pelvis

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21
Q
Oogonia found in the female fetuses found before 
birth
a. they degenerate
b. they become primary follicles
c. they become Graafian follicles
d. they multiply
A

a. they degenerate

*At 6 to 8 wks of intrauterine life, the ovary starts to
develop and at 20 wks, about 6 to 7 million germ cells
can be found. But from this time on, there will only be
continuous atresia until some time later, when the store
of germ cells becomes fully exhausted. The egg
depletion process of atresia starts at 15 wks so that at
birth, what remains is only 80% of that number and at
puberty the germ cell mass is only 300,000

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22
Q

An 18 yr-old female was diagnosed to have brain
tumor located at the neural stalk interrupting the vessels.
Which of the following will most likely result?
a. Inactivity and atrophy of the gonads
b. Hyperadrenalism
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Decreased oxytocin production

A

a. Inactivity and atrophy of the gonads

*The control of the pituitary with the hypothalamus is
achieved by materials secreted in the cells of
hypothalamus and transported to the pituitary via the
portal vessel system. Experiments have been done
transplanting the pituitary to ectopic sites like under the
kidneys and it resulted to the failure of gonadal function.

On the other hand, returning the transplanted tissue to
an anatomic site under the median eminence is followed
by the generation of the portal system and normal
gonadal function is regained.

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23
Q

Assume that a woman could be an on-demand
ovulator like the rabbit in which copulation stimulates the
hypothalamic anterior pituitary axis and causes LH
release. An oocyte is ovulated and fertilized on day 26 of
her 28-day cycle. Which of the following is most likely to
happen?
a. Cell division of the fertilized ovum will be
delayed
b. Transit time of the fallopian tube to the ovum will
be longer
c. No implantation will occur
d. Implantation will be delayed

A

c. No implantation will occur

*On the 26th day of a 28-day cycle, the endometrium will
already be starting to respond with the diminishing
progesterone levels with a modest shrinking of the tissue
heights and the spiral arteriole vasomotor responses.
With shrinkage of the height and decrease in the blood
flow, venous dilatation occurs. Therefore the spiral
arterioles undergo arrhythmic vasoconstriction leading to
endometrial blanching. So even if it is not yet sloughed
off, the endometrium is not receptive anymore to a
fertilized ovum, so no implantation will occur.

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24
Q

If making available an ovum during ovulation is the
primary task of the ovarian cycle, what is the primary
task of the endometrial cycle?
a. Periodic sloughing of the stratum functionalis
b. Prompt individual recovery after the slough
c. Maximal secretory changes in preparation for
the (inaudible)
d. Vasoconstriction of the end arterioles

A

(not answered)

*c. Maximal secretory changes in preparation for
the (inaudible)?

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25
Q

After ovulation, a new ovarian structure emerges –
the corpus luteum. Which of the following is true?
a. Continuous administration of small amounts of
FSH is essential to maintain the viability of the
corpus luteum
b. The hallmark of the corpus luteum is its
secretion of progesterone and estradiol
c. The secretory capability of the corpus luteum
wanes during menstruation
d. Rapidly rising concentrations of the placental
lactogen rescues the corpus luteum from
degeneration (what will rescue the corpus
luteum is the early trophoblast secretion of hCG)

A

The hallmark of the corpus luteum is its

secretion of progesterone and estradiol

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26
Q

Endometrial biopsy was done on a woman on day 13
on her regular 28-day cycle. Which of the ffg will most
likely be found?

A

a. Presence of subnuclear vacuoles (first sign of

secretory changes)

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27
Q

Which of the ffg conditions will be common to
intrauterine pregnancy, viable ectopic pregnancy and
persistent corpus luteum cyst
a. Continuous increase progesterone levels
b. Continuous increase levels of estrogen
c. Apoptosis of functional layer of the endometrium
d. Decidua formation (common in intrauterine
pregnancy and viable ectopic pregnancy)

A

a. Continuous increase progesterone levels

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28
Q

The intracellular morula would now have developed
a blastocyst. Which of the ffg structure of the blastocyst
will ultimately form the physical connection b/n the
embryo and the uterus?
a. Inner cell mass (forerunner of the embryo)
b. Blastocyst cavity
c. Trophoblast (gives rise to the placenta)
d. Stromal cells of the deciduas

A

c. Trophoblast (gives rise to the placenta)

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29
Q

Which of the ffg is true regarding implantation?
a. Starts right away once a developing morula
reaches the uterine cavity
b. Precipitated by the degradation of the
extracellular matrix of the endometrium
c. Supported by the estrogen secretion of the
endometrium
d. Heralded by the intrusion of the cytotrophoblast
b/n endometrial cell layers

A

b. Precipitated by the degradation of the

extracellular matrix of the endometrium

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30
Q

Excessive invasion of the cytotrophoblast can cause
which of the ffg complications of pregnancy?
a. Preeclampsia (defective invasion of the
spiral arteries by the cytotrophoblast)
b. Preterm labor
c. IUGR
d. Placenta accreta

A

d. Placenta accreta

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31
Q
The primitive uteroplacenta circulation is formed by 
sipping into the?
a. Chorionic plate
b. Lacunar system
c. Embryonic hypoblast
A

b. Lacunar system

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32
Q

With the establishment of the inter/intravillous
circulation, fetal and maternal blood come in close
contact but are always separated by which of the ffg:
a. Amniotic cavity
b. Maternal endothelial cells
c. Syncytiotrophoblast covering the villi
d. Decidua

A

c. Syncytiotrophoblast covering the villi

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33
Q

At the 3rd week of development, embryonic vessels
will start to develop at the chorionic villi which will later
connect with the forerunner of the
a. Umbilicus
b. Maternal sinusoids
c. Amniotic cavity
d. Tertiary villi

A

a. Umbilicus

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34
Q

What happens with the uteroplacental circulation
during uterine contractions
a. Diastolic blood flow velocity in the spiral arteries
are increased (must be decreased)
b. Inflow but not outflow are curtailed (both are
curtailed)
c. A somewhat larger volume of blood are
available for exchange

A

c. A somewhat larger volume of blood are

available for exchange

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35
Q

Since the BP in normal pregnancy is unchanged or
decreases slightly, which of the following mechanisms
will ensure adequate blood supply of the fetus?

A

Circumferential structural enlargement of the

entire uterine vasculature

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36
Q

Is it important that mechanisms of trophoblastic
invasion, important in which steps for normal
implantation?

A

Uterine artery remodeling

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37
Q

It is also important that the trophoblastic invasion is
controlled because unchecked invasion of the
trophoblast can result in which of the following disease
conditions?

A

Choriocarcinoma

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38
Q

Which of the following is the feature of term

placenta?

A

The term placenta contains villi mainly

consisting of fetal capillaries

39
Q

Acceptance and the survival of the conceptus in the

uterus is attributable to which of the following?

A

Immunologic preclarity of trophoblast and later

the embryo

40
Q

Prevention of smooth muscle contraction and
maintenance of uterine …so that premature labor doesn’t
occur is the function of which hormone

A

Progesterone

41
Q

Which of the following statement regarding hcg is

true ?

A

hCG stimulates the production of progesterone

by the corpus luteum in early pregnancy

42
Q

Which of the following hormones is most responsible
for the provision for the enough nutrition for the
developing fetus and which is the highest level of term
amongst placental hormones

A

Human placental lactogen

43
Q

Which of the following substances is transported of

placenta mainly by active transport?

A

Free fatty acids

Glucose, amino acids are transported are transported
via facilitated diffusion

44
Q

Placental estrogen synthesis is markedly decreased

in which of the following conditions?

A

Placenta Previa

45
Q

What is the source of precursor of progesterone

A

Synctiotrophoblast

46
Q

Umbilical artery becomes which of the following?

A

Medial umbilical ligament

47
Q

Which of the statements describes the determination

of gestational age?

A

Average menstrual age is 280 days

48
Q
The outer layer of blastocyst gives rise to what 
structure?
a. Placenta
b. Embryo
c. Extraembryonic tissues
d. Neural tube
A

a. Placenta

49
Q

Which statement is not part of embryonic period?

a. Start at the third week after fertilization
b. Lasts for 12 weeks
c. Organogenesis takes place
d. Start at the 3rd week after ovulation

A

b. Lasts for 12 weeks

50
Q

In early human embryogenesis, neurolation starts at

what stage of gestation?

A

c. Stage 6-7

51
Q
At what age of gestation when the uterus can be 
palpated just above the symphisis pubis?
a. 12 week
b. 14 weeks
c. 16 weeks
d. 18 weeks
A

a. 12 week

52
Q
At what age of gestation is the gender can be 
identified by an experienced sonologist?
a. 12 weeks
b. 14 weeks
c. 16 weeks
d. 18 weeks
A

b. 14 weeks

53
Q

It is during this stage of gestation when the fetal lung

development is almost complete?

A

d. 24 weeks

54
Q

This description is not part of a 36 weeks fetus?

a. Average CRL is 28 weeks
b. Weight approximately 2,500 grams
c. Deposition of subcutaneous fats
d. Loss of facial wrinkling

A

d. Loss of facial wrinkling

55
Q

20-year old consulted due to amenorrhea, she
claims to have last menstrual cycle on June 4 to 8, 2020.
What is the approximate EDC of this patient?

A

a. March 11, 2021

56
Q

20-year old consulted due to amenorrhea, she
claims to have last menstrual cycle on June 4 to 8, 2020.

Same patient as above, what is the approximate
menstrual age?

A

b. 16-17 weeks

57
Q

20-year old consulted due to amenorrhea, she
claims to have last menstrual cycle on June 4 to 8, 2020.

Same patient as above, she is on what trimester of
pregnancy?

A

b. Second trimester

58
Q

20-year old consulted due to amenorrhea, she
claims to have last menstrual cycle on June 4 to 8, 2020.

Same patient as above, if she delivers at term, which
of the shunts functionally close within minutes after
delivery?
a. Ductus arteriosus
b. Foramen ovale
c. Ductus venosus
d. NOTA

A

b. Foramen ovale

59
Q
What is the average fetal blood volume if she 
delivers at term? (ml/kg)
a. 70 ml
b. 80 ml
c. 90 ml
d. 100 ml
A

b. 80 ml

60
Q
From birth to ovulation, oocytes are suspended from 
which phase of meiosis I?
a. Early prophase
b. Mid-prophase
c. Late prophase
d. Mid-metaphase
A

b. Mid-prophase

61
Q

Which event does not occur in autosomal trisomy?
a. Non-disjunction
b. One gamete receives two copies of the affected
chromosomes causing trisomy
c. Aneuploidy is higher in sperm cells
d. One gamete does not receive the affected
chromosome and may produce monosomy

A

c. Aneuploidy is higher in sperm cells

62
Q

This factor is not seen in down syndrome?

a. Females are fertile
b. Males are sterile
c. Clenched fist and overlapping digits
d. Endocardial cushion defect

A

c. Clenched fist and overlapping digits

63
Q

Which of the following describes trisomy 18?

A

3-4 folds more common in females

64
Q

Which of the following genetic disorder needs growth

hormone therapy

A

Turner syndrome

65
Q

In Klinefelter’s syndrome,the karyotype is

A

47, XXY

66
Q

Which is not a characteristic of Klinefelter syndrome?

A

There is normal virilization

67
Q

Which of the following is the common micro deletion

syndrome

A

Di George syndrome

68
Q

This type of heterogeneity describes disease states

can arise from different mutation in same gene

A

Phenotypic heterogeneity

69
Q

Which of the following is autosomal recessive

inheritance

A

Sickle cell anemia

70
Q

Pregnant patients that are followed up for possible
birth defects is an example of which of the following
clinical questions?

A

Prognosis

71
Q

Detemining the outcome of patient exposed to

ionizing radiation is an example of

A

Harm

72
Q

Research about harm can be studied by

A

Observational studies

73
Q

29 year old primigravid who regularly goes to clinic
for prenatal check up .She was diagnosed with GDM diet
controlled at 24 weeks age of gestation. She is now 37
weeks. The clinical estimated fatal weight is
3200gram.She complains of irregular contractions.
Cervix is closed at unaffected with soft consistency. At
an age of gestation 37 weeks, GDM diet controlled and
with irregular contractions, the obstetrician would have to
make a decision as when to deliver the baby in the
safest possible manner. This is a question on which of
the following

A

Therapy

74
Q

In which of the study all other factor that might
influence the study outcome equalizes by the nature of
study design.

A

Randomized control trial

75
Q

A change in the course of an existing disease would

babe classified as a

A

Outcome

76
Q

Which term used in epidemiology refers to the
probability of correctly identifying a non diseased person
with a screening test?

A

Specificity

77
Q

What is the primary purpose of meta-analysis

A

Improve precision

78
Q

Which of the following question appraises validity

A

Were allocations concealed?

79
Q

Clinical practice guidelines are made from

A

Systematic review

80
Q

Diseases present, Test positive: 11 (a)
Diseases absent, Test positive: 5 (b)
Diseases present, Test negative: 21 (c)
Diseases absent, Test negative: 124 (d)

Compute the sensitivity rate

A

11/(11+21) =11/32 = 34% (a/a+c)

81
Q

Diseases present, Test positive: 11 (a)
Diseases absent, Test positive: 5 (b)
Diseases present, Test negative: 21 (c)
Diseases absent, Test negative: 124 (d)

Specificity?

A

124/ 124+5 = 96% (d/b+d)

82
Q

Diseases present, Test positive: 11 (a)
Diseases absent, Test positive: 5 (b)
Diseases present, Test negative: 21 (c)
Diseases absent, Test negative: 124 (d)

Positive predictive value?

A

68.7% (a /a+b)

83
Q

In categorising level of evidence what is a Controlled

trial without randomisation

A

Level 2A

84
Q

Which of the following provides a convenient method

for estimating disease probability?

A

Likelihood ratio

85
Q

True about the uterus during pregnancy

A

Uterine enlargement causes stretching and

marked hypertrophy of muscle cells

86
Q

Cervix during pregnancy softens and gain blush tone

which results from

A

Increase vascularity and edema

87
Q

During pregnancy the vaginal ph varies from 3.5 to
6from increase production of lactic acid by lactobacilli
during metabolism of glycogen in the vagina increase
risk for

A

Vulvo vaginal candidiasis

88
Q

Average weight during pregnancy is approximately

12.5kgs attributed mostly to

A

Uterus and its contents

89
Q

True about hypervolemia during pregnancy

A

Safeguards mother from parturition related blood

loss

90
Q

Normal pregnancy induces characteristic changes in

ECG

A

Slight left axis deviation

91
Q

True about cardiac output during pregnancy

A

When measured in lateral recumbent position at
rest it increases significantly starting early
pregnancy peak until 24 week AOG

92
Q

True about pulmonary volume in pregnancy

A

Tidal volume increases

93
Q

During pregnancy ureteral dilatation as result of
uterus completely out of pelvis, which of the following
describes it properly?

A

Unequal dilation is due to cushioning of sigmoid

colon

94
Q

28 year old G1P0 pregnant for 30 weeks came to
ER due to abdominal pain fever and vomiting.
Abdominal exam the abdomen is globularly enlarged…
pain at right upper quadrant. What is the possibility of
appendicitis?

A

The appendicitis is possibility since the appendix

is usually displaced upwards