Obs & gynae Flashcards

1
Q

What is pelvic organ prolapse?

A

Descent of pelvic organs into the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why does pelvic organ prolapse occur?

A

Weakness and lengthening of the ligaments and muscles surrounding the uterus, rectum, and bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a uterine prolapse?

A

When the uterus descends into the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a vault prolapse?

A

–> Occurs in women who have had a hysterectomy and no longer have a uterus, the top of the vagina (the vault) descends into the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a rectocele?

A

rectum prolapses forwards into the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are rectoceles caused by?

A

–> defects in the posterior vaginal wall
–> associated with constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a rectocele?

A

–> Can develop faecal loading in the part of the rectum that has prolapsed into the vagina
–> faecal loading leads to significant constipation, urinary retention ( due to compression on the urethra) and a palpable lump in the vagina
–> women may use their fingers to press the lump backwards correcting its anatomical position and aloowing them to open their bowels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the presentation of a rectocele?

A

–> Constipation (faecal loading)
–> urinary retention ( due to urethral compression
–> palpable lump in posterior wall of vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a cystocele?

A

–> bladder prolapses backwards into the anterior vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are cystoceles caused by?

A

–> defect in the anterior vaginal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is prolapse of the urethra into the vagina called?

A

urethrocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is prolapse of the bladder and the urethra into the vagina called?

A

–> cystourethrocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the risk factors for pelvic organ prolapse?

A

–> Pelvic organ prolapse is the result of weak and stretched muscles and ligaments. The factors that can contribute to this include:

–>Multiple vaginal deliveries
–> Instrumental, prolonged or traumatic delivery
–> Advanced age and postmenopause status
–> Obesity
–> Chronic respiratory disease causing coughing
–> Chronic constipation causing straining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the presentation of pelvic organ prolapse?

A

–> A feeling of “something coming down” in the vagina
A dragging or heavy sensation in the pelvis
–> Urinary symptoms, such as incontinence, urgency, frequency, weak stream and retention
–> Bowel symptoms, such as constipation, incontinence and urgency
–> Sexual dysfunction, such as pain, altered sensation and reduced enjoyment

–> Women may have identified a lump or mass in the vagina, and often will already be pushing it back up themselves. They may notice the prolapse will become worse on straining or bearing down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a Sim’s speculum and how can it be used to examine for pelvic organ prolapse?

A

–> u-shaped, single bladed speculum thats used to support either the anterior or the posterior wall of the vagina whilst the others are examined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which system is used to grade the severity of a pelvic organ prolapse?

A

Pelvic organ prolpase quantification system ( POP-Q)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How can a uterine prolaspe be graded?

A

POP-Q system

Grade 0 –> normal
Grade 1 –> lowest part is more than 1cm above the introitus
grade 2 –> lowest part within 1 cm of the introitus (above or below)
Grade 3 –> lowest part is more than 1cm below the introitus but not fully descended
Grade 4 –> full descent with eversion of the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is uterine procidentia

A

Pelvic organ prolapse extedning beyond the introitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the management of pelvic organ prolapse

A

–> Conservative management -
–> Vaginal pessary
–> Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the conservative management of pelvic organ prolapse?

A

–> mild symptoms/ do not tolerate surgery or pessary/
–> Physio (pelvic floor excercises)
–> weight loss
–> lifestyle changes (for asociated stress incontience such as redcued caffeine intake and pads)
–> treatment of related symptoms
–> vaginal oestrogen cream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How can vaginal pessaries be used to treat pelvic organ prolapse?

A

–> inserted into the vagina to provide extra support to the pelvic organs
–> Ring (sits below the uterus and holds it up)
–> shelf or Gellhorn - flat disk with a stem, sits below the uterus with the stem pointing downwards
–> Cube pessaries
–> Donut
–> hodge - rectangular - hook around the posterior aspect of the cervix and the other extends into the vagina
–> can be changed and cleaned
–> Oestrogen crema can help with irritation of the vaginal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the surgical treatment for pelvic organ prolapse?

A

–> definitive option - anterior/posterior colporrhaphy
–> hysterectomy option
–> NICE recommends that Mesh repairs should not be carried out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the complications of pelvic organ prolpase surgery?

A

–> Pain, bleeding, infection, DVT and risk of anaesthetic
–> Damage to the bladder or bowel
–> Recurrence of the prolapse
Altered experience of sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is urinary incontinence?

A

Loss of control of urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the two types or urinary incontinence?

A

–> urge incontinence
–> Stress incontinence
identifying which one determines the management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is urge incontinence caused by?

A

overactivtiy of the detrusor muscle of the bladder
–> also known as overactive bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the typical description of urge incontinence?

A

–> Suddenly feeling the urge to pass urine
–> rushing to the bathroom and not arriving before urination occurs
–> women always concious about going places with access to a toilet, impact on quality of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is stress incontinence due to?

A

–> Weakness of the pelvic floor muscles and the sphincter muscles ( the contents of the pelvis are held by a sling of muscles)
–> allows urine to leak at times of increased bladder pressure
–> such as laughing, coughing or when suprised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is overflow incontinence?

A

–> occurs when there is chronic urinary retention due to obstruction to the outflow of urine
–> leads to overflow of urine without the urge to pass urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the potential causes of overflow incontinence?

A

anticholinergic medication
–> fibroids
–> pelvic tumours
–> neurological conditions (MS, DN, spinal cord injuries)
–> more common in males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the risk factors for urinary incontinence?

A

–> Increased age
–> Postmenopausal status
–> Increase BMI
–> Previous pregnancies and —–> vaginal deliveries
–> Pelvic organ prolapse
–> Pelvic floor surgery
–> Neurological conditions, such as multiple sclerosis
–> Cognitive impairment and dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which modifiable risk factors can attribute to urinary incontinence?

A

–> Caffeine consumption
–> Alcohol consumption
–> medications
–> BMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How can the severity be assesed of urinary incontinence through the history

A

Frequency of urination
Frequency of incontinence
Nightime urination
Use of pads and change of clothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What should the examination for urinary incontinence include?

A

–> assess pelvic tone
–> examine for pelvic organ prolapse
–> atrophic vagintiis
–> urethral diverticulum
–> pelvic mass
–> strength of pelvic muscle contractions - bimanual examination - squeeze against fingers - modified oxford grading system
–> ask patient to cough and watch for leackage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the investigations for urinary incontinence?

A

–> bladder diary should be completed, tracking fluid intake and episodes of urination and incontinence over at least three days. There should be a mix of work and leisure days.

–> Urine dipstick testing should be performed to assess for infection, microscopic haematuria and other pathology.

–> Post-void residual bladder volume should be measured using a bladder scan to assess for incomplete emptying.

–> Urodynamic testing can be used to investigate patients with urge incontinence not responding to first-line medical treatments, difficulties urinating, urinary retention, previous surgery or an unclear diagnosis. It is not always required where the diagnosis is possible based on the history and examination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe how urodynamic tests take place and what are the different types?

A

–> need to stop taking anticholinergic medication and bladder medication around five days before
–> thin catheter placed in the bladder and other in the rectum
–> measures the pressures and compares
–> cystometry - measures the detrusor muscle contraction and pressure
–> uroflowmetry - measures the flow rate
–> post-void residual volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the management of stress incontinence?

A

–> Avoiding caffeine, diuretics and overfilling of the bladder
–> Avoid excessive or restricted fluid intake
–> Weight loss (if appropriate)
–> Supervised pelvic floor exercises for at least three months before considering surgery
–> Surgery (Tension free vaginal tape and autologus sling procedures, last line - artifical urinary sphincter - pump in labia that inflates cuff around urethra
–> Duloxetine is an SNRI antidepressant used second line where surgery is less preferred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the management of urge incontinence?

A

–> Bladder retraining (gradually increasing the time between voiding) for at least six weeks is first-line
–> Anticholinergic medication, for example, oxybutynin, tolterodine and solifenacin ( have anticholinergic effects which include dry mouth, dry eyes, urinary retention, constipation and worsening of dementia)
–> Mirabegron is an alternative to anticholinergic medications - contraindicated in uncontrolled hypertension

Invasive procedures where medical treatment fails
–> Botulinum toxin type A injection into the bladder wall
–> Percutaneous sacral nerve stimulation involves implanting a device in the back that stimulates the sacral nerves
–> Augmentation cystoplasty involves using bowel tissue to enlarge the bladder
–> Urinary diversion involves redirecting urinary flow to a urostomy on the abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What structure in the fetus does the female reproductive system come form?

A

paramesonephric ducts (Mullerian ducts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why do males not develop a uterus?

A

produce anti-mullerian hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a bicornuate uterus?

A

Congenital malformation of the uterus where there is two horns in the uterus giving the uterus a heart shape

Can be picked up on pelvic ultrasound scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the typical complications of a bicornuate uterus?

A

–> miscarriage
–> premature birth
–> malpresentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is an imperforate hymen?

A

–> congenital abnormality where the hymen at the entrance of the vagina is fully formed without an opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the presentation of an imperforate hymen?

A

–> MAy be discovered when girls start to menstruate
–> menses is sealed in the vagina
–> cyclical pelvic pain and cramping
–> without vaginal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the management of an imperforate hymen?

A

Surgical excision to create an opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the complications if an imperforate hymen is not diagnosed?

A

–> retrograde menstruation (mesntrual blood backflowing into the fallopian tubes and the ovaries
–> endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is transverse vaginal septae?

A

–> error in development where a septum (wall) forms transversely across the vagina
–> can either be perforate or imperforate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the presentation of transverse vaginal septae

A

–> when perforate, girls can still menstruate, but can have difficult intercourse or tampon use
–> When imperforate presents as cyclical pelvic pain and cramps without menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the complications of transverse vaginal septae?

A

–> infertility
–> pregnancy-related complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the investigations and management of transverse vaginal septae?

A

–> diagnosis by examination, ultrasound or MRI
–> Surgical correction - complications - vaginal stenosis or recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is vaginal hypoplasia?

A

Abnormally small vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is vaginal agenesis?

A

–> absent vagina
–> these occur due to failure of the mullerian ducts to develop properly and may be associated with an absent uterus and cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the management of vaginal hypoplasia?

A

–> using a vaginal dilator over a prolonged period to create an adequate vaginal size, alternativley vaginal surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is androgen insenstivity syndrome?

A

Cells are unable to respond to androgen hormones, due to a lack of androgen receptors

X-linked recessive condition - caused by a mutation in the androgen receptor gene on the X chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the pathophysiology of androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

Lack of androgen receptors through mutations in the androgen receptor gene on the X chromosome

Leads to extra androgens converted into oestrogen, resulting in female secondary sexual characterisitics - previously known as testicular feminisation syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the presentation of complete androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

–> Patients are genetically male, with XY sex chromosomes
–> absent response to testosterone and the conversion of extra testosterone leads to the conversion of extra into oestrogen
–> results in femle phenotype externally
–> male sexual characteristics do not develop and patients have normal female external genitalia and breast tissue
–> tests in the abdomen or inguinal canal
–> absence of female reproductive system as the testes prodcue anti-mullerian hormone - only lower vagina
–> insensitivity to androgens leads to lack of pubic hari and, facial hari and male muscle development , slightly taller than average female and infertile with an increased risk of testicular cancer due to testes in abdo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What will be the presetation of partial androgen insentivity syndrome?

A

–> micropenis
–> clitomegaly
–> bifid scrotum
–> hypospadius
–> diminished male characterisitics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the presentation of androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

–> often presents in infanct with inguinal hernias containing testes
–> can present in puberty with primary amenorrhoea
–> Hormone tests - Raised LH/ normal or raised FSH/ normal or raised testosterone levels (for a male)/ raised oestrogen levels (for a male)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the management of androgen insensitivty syndrome?

A

–> MDT approach - paediatrics/ gynae/ urology/ endocrinolgist/ clinical psychologist
–> bilateral orchidectomy- to avoid testicular tumours
–> oestrogen therapy
–> vaginal dilators or vaginal surgery to create an adequate vaginal length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which hormones do girls have relativley little of before puberty?

A

GnRH, LH, FSH, oestrogen and progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What happens to the levels of GnRH, LH, FSH, oestrogen and progesterone in puberty?

A

they increase leading to female secondary sexual characteristics, the onset of the menstrual cycle and the ability to conceive children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When does puberty start in girls and boys?

A

–>8-14 in girls
–> 9-15 in boys
–> takes around 4 years from start to finish
–> girls have pubertal growth spurt earlier in puberty than boys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Why are overweight children more likley to enter puberty at an earlier age?

A

Aromatase is an enzyme found in adipose tissue, important in the creation of oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

In which girls may there be delayed puberty?

A

–> low birth weight
–> chronic disease
–> eating disorders
–> athletes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How does puberty start in girls?

A

–> development of breast buds
–> followed by pubic hair
–> onset of menstrual periods
–> first episode of menstruation is called menarche
–> menstrual cycles begin around two years from the start of puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which staging system can be used to determine the stage of pubertal development for girls?

A

Tanner staging uses - age, pubic hair and breast development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the hormonal changes during puberty for girls?

A

–> GH increases initially - causes a growth spurt during the initial phases of puberty
–> hypothalamus starts to secrete GnRH, first during sleep and then throughout the day in later stages
–> GnRH causes the releases of FSH and LH from the pituitary gland
–> FSH and LH cause the ovaries to make oestrogen and progesterone.
–> FSH levels plateau about a year before menarche
–> LH levels continue to rise and spike just before they induce menarche

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is menopause?

A

–> Retrospective diagnosis, made after a women has no periods for 12 months
–> defined as a permanent end to to mesntruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

On average when do women experience the menopause

A

51 years- can vary significantly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is postmenopause?

A

Describes the period of 12 months after the final menstrual period onwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is perimenopause?

A

refers to the time around menopause when the women is experiencing vasomotor symptoms and irregular periods.
–> includes the time leading up to the last menstrual period, and the 12 months afterwards, typically in women older than 45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is premature menopause?

A

menopause before the age of 40 years
–> Result of premature ovarian insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is menopause caused by?

A

lack of ovarian follicular function, resulting in changes in the sex hormones associated with the menstrual cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the sex hormone changes seen in menopause?

A

–> oestrogen and progesterone are low
–> LH and FSH are high, in response to an absence of negative feedback from the oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the physiology of menopause?

A

Usually:
–> In ovaries, primordial follicles mature into primary and secondary follicles
–> At the start of the menstrual cycle FSH stimulates the further development of the secondary follicles
–> As the follicles grow the granulosa cells that surround them secrete increasing amounts of oestrogen
In menopause:
–> menopause begins when there is a decline in the development of the ovarian follicles
–> without the growth of the follicles there is reduced production of oestrogen
–> As the levels of oestrogen fall in the perimenopausal period there is an absence of negative feedback on the pituitary gland and increasing levels of LH and FSH
–> failing follicular development means that ovulation dosent occur, leading to irregular periods
–> without oestrogen the endometrium dosent develop and this leads to amenorrhoea and low levels of oestrogen cause the perimenopausal symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are perimenopausal symptoms?

A

–> Hot flushes
–> Emotional lability or low mood
–> Premenstrual syndrome
–> Irregular periods
–> Joint pains
–> Heavier or lighter periods
–> Vaginal dryness and atrophy
–> Reduced libido

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the risks of a lack of oestrogen in menopause?

A

–> Cardiovascular disease and stroke
–> Osteoporosis
–> Pelvic organ prolapse
–> Urinary incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How is the diagnosis of menopause made?

A

A diagnosis of perimenopause and menopause can be made in women over 45 years with typical symptoms, without performing any investigations.

NICE guidelines (2015) recommend considering an FSH blood test to help with the diagnosis in:

Women under 40 years with suspected premature menopause
Women aged 40 – 45 years with menopausal symptoms or a change in the menstrual cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Pregnancy over 40 is often associated with….

A

increased risks and complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How long do women have to use effective contraception for after their last menstrual cycle?

A

Two years after the last menstrual period in women under 50
One year after the last menstrual period in women over 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are some good contraceptive options UKMEC 1 - no restrictions ) for women approaching menopause?

A

–> Barrier methods
–> Mirena or copper coil
–> Progesterone-only pill
–> Progesterone implant
–> Progesterone depot injection (under 45 years)
–> Sterilisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

In whom should the combined oral contraceptive pill be used in (UKMEC 2) ?

A

Aged over 40 and up to 50 years
–> as the benefits usually outweigh the risks
–> Consider combined oral contraceptive pill in women over 40 years containing norethisterone or levonorgestrel in women over 40 due to low risk of venous thromboembolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are two complications of the progesterone depot injection (Depo-provera)

A

–> Weight gain and osteoporosis
–> Reduced bone mineral density means it is unsuitable for women over 45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the management of perimenopausal symptoms?

A

–> Vasomotor symptoms are likely to resolve after 2-5 years without any treatment, management depends on the severity
–> HRT
–> Tibolone - a synthetic steroid hormone that acts as continuous combined HRT
–> clonidine - agonist of alpha-adrenergic and imidazoline receptors
–> CBT
–> SSRI - fluoxetine or citalopram
–> Testosterone - treats decreased libido
–> vaginal oestrogen - helps with vaginal dryness and atrophy
–> vaginal moisturisers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is adenomyosis?

A

Endometrial tissue inside the myometrium (muscle layer of the uterus)
–> condition is hormone dependent and usually gets better after menopause, similar to endometriosis and fibroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

In whom is adenomyosis more common?

A

Those who have had several pregnancies - 10% of women overall
- >40 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the presentation of adenomyosis?

A

–> Painful periods (dysmenorrhoea)
–> heavy periods
–> Pain during intercourse
–> may present with infertility or pregnancy-related complications
–> around a third of patients are asymptomatic
–> examination can reveal an enlarged and tender uterus, feels more soft than an uterus with fibroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How can the diagnosis of adenomyosis be made?

A

–> transvaginal US - first line
–> MRI and transabdominal ultrasound are second line
–> Gold standard - perform a histological examination of the uterus after a hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the management of adenomyosis?

A

–> same treatment as for heavy menstrual bleeding
–> if no contraception is wanted - Tranexamic acid when there is no associated pain ( antifibrinolytic - reduces bleeding) / mefenamic acid when there is associated pain (NSAID - reduced bleeding and pain)
–> If contraception wanted - mirena coil (first-line)/ COCP/ cyclic oral progestogens
–> Progesterone only meds such as the pill or depot may be useful
–> others - GnRH analogues to induce a menopause-like state/ endometrial ablation/ uterine artery embolisation/ hysterctomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Which pregnancy complications are associated with adenomyosis?

A

Infertility
Miscarriage
Preterm birth
Small for gestational age
Preterm premature rupture of membranes
Malpresentation
Need for caesarean section
Postpartum haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is Ashermans syndrome?

A

–> Adhesions form within the uterus following uterus damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

When does Ashermans syndrome normally occur?

A

–> after a pregnancy - related dilatation and curettage procedure ( scraping retained products of conception, can also happen after uterine surgery (myomectomy) or several pelvic infections (endometritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Asherman’s syndrome?

A

Endometrial curettage (scraping) can damage the basal layer of the endometrium. This damaged tissue may heal abnormally, creating scar tissue (adhesions) connecting areas of the uterus that are generally not connected. There may be adhesions binding the uterine walls together, or within the endocervix, sealing it shut. The scar tissue also does not respond to oestrogen stimulus.

These adhesions form physical obstructions and distort the pelvic organs, resulting in menstruation abnormalities, infertility and recurrent miscarriages.

Adhesions may be found incidentally during hysteroscopy. Asymptomatic adhesions are not classified as Asherman’s syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the presentation of Ashermans syndrome?

A

–> Secondary amenorrhoea (absent periods)
–> significantly lighter periods
–> dysmenorrhoea - painful periods
–> infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How is the diagnosis of Ashermans syndrome made?

A

Hysteroscopy is the gold standard investigation, and can involve dissection and treatment of the adhesions
Hysterosalpingography, where contrast is injected into the uterus and imaged with xrays
Sonohysterography, where the uterus is filled with fluid and a pelvic ultrasound is performed
MRI scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the management of Asherman syndrome?

A

–> Dissecting adhesions during the hysteroscopy
–> Reoccurence of the adhesions after treatment is common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is Lichen Scelorus?

A

–> Chronic inflammatory skin condition that presents with patches of white shiny porcelain-white skin
–> commonly affects the labia, perineum, and perianal skin in the skin
–> can also affect axilla and thighs
–> thought to be an autoimmune condition associated with type 1 diabetes, alopecia, hypothyroid and vitiligo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

how can lichen scelrosus be diagnosed?

A

–> Clinical diagnosis
–> when doubt - vulval biopsy can confirm the diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What does Lichen refer to?

A

flat eruption that spreads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is Lichen simplex?

A

chronic inflammation and irritation caused by repeated scratching and rubbing of an area of skin. This presents with excoriations, plaques, scaling and thickened skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is Lichen planus?

A

autoimmune condition that causes localised chronic inflammation with shiny, purplish, flat-topped raised areas with white lines across the surface called Wickham’s striae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the presentation of lichen sclerous?

A

The typical presentation in your exams is a woman aged 45 – 60 years complaining of vulval itching and skin changes in the vulva. The condition may be asymptomatic, or present with several symptoms:

–> Itching
–> Soreness and pain possibly worse at night
–> Skin tightness
–> Painful sex (superficial dyspareunia)
–> Erosions
–> Fissures

The Koebner phenomenon refers to when the signs and symptoms are made worse by friction to the skin. This occurs with lichen sclerosus. It can be made worse by tight underwear that rubs the skin, urinary incontinence and scratching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the appearance of Lichens Scelrosus?

A

Changes affect the labia, perianal and perineal skin. There can be associated fissures, cracks, erosions or haemorrhages under the skin. The affected skin appears:

“Porcelain-white” in colour
Shiny
Tight
Thin
Slightly raised
There may be papules or plaques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the management of Lichens sclerosis?

A

–> potent topical steroids - clobetasol propionate 0.05% (dermovate) - control symptoms and reduce risk of malignancy
–> regular emollient use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the complications of Lichens sclerosis?

A

The critical complication to remember is a 5% risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva.

Other complications include:

Pain and discomfort
Sexual dysfunction
Bleeding
Narrowing of the vaginal or urethral openings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is atrophic vaginitis?

A

–> dryness and atrophy of the vaginal mucosa related to a lack of oestrogen
–> genitourinary symptom of menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the pathophysiology of atrophic vaginitis?

A

–> Epithelial lining of the vagina and urinary tracct responds to oestrogen by becoming thicker, more elastic and producing more secretions
–> menopause, oestrogen levels fall and mucosa becomes thinner, less elastic and more dry, tissues prone to inflammation
–> changes the vaginal pH and microbial flora that can contribute to localised infections
–> oestrogen helps maitain healthy connective tissue around the pelvic organs and a lack of oestrogen can contribute to POP and stress incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the presentation of atrophic vaginitis?

A

–> presents in postmenopausal women with symptoms of
–> itching
–> dryness
–> dyspareunia - painful sex
–> bleeding due to localised inflammation
–> recurrent urinary tract infections, stress incontinece or POP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What would the examination reveal for atrophic vaginitis?

A

Pale mucosa
Thin skin
Reduced skin folds
Erythema and inflammation
Dryness
Sparse pubic hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what type of cancer can vulval cancer be?

A

–> 90% squamous cell carcinomas
–> less commonly they can be malignant melanomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are the risk factors for squamous cell carcinomas?

A

–> advanced age
–> immunosuppression
–> HPV - humanpapilloma virus infection
–> lichen sclerosus - 5% of women with lichen sclerosus get vulval cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is vulval intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

–> Premalignant condition affecting the squamous epithelium of the skin that can precede vulval cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion?

A

–> Type of vulval intraepithelial neoplasia
–> associated with HPV infections that typically occur in younger women aged 35-50 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is differentiated vulval intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

–> alternate type of VIN and associated with lichen sclerosis and typically occurs in older women 50-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

How do you diagnose vulval intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are the treatment options for vulval intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

–> Watch and wait with close followup
–> Wide local excision (surgery) to remove the lesion
–> Imiquimod cream
–> Laser ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the presentation of vulval cancer?

A

–> may be an incidental finding in older women, for example, during catheterisation in a patient with dementia.
–> Vulval lump
–> Ulceration
–> Bleeding
–> Pain
–> Itching
–> Lymphadenopathy in the groin

Vulval cancer most frequently affects the labia majora, giving an appearance of:
–> Irregular mass
–> Fungating lesion
–> Ulceration
–> Bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What are the investigations for vulval cancer?

A

–> 2ww referral
–> Biopsy of the lesion and sentinel node biopsy - lymph node spread
–> Further staging imaging such as CT of the abdomen and pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

which system is used to stage vulval cancer?

A

International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics - FIGO system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the management of vulval cancer?

A

–> wide local excision to remove the cancer
–> groin lymph node dissection
–> chemotherapy
–> radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

cervical cancer normally affects which type of women?

A

–> younger women
–> peaking in reproductive years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What type of cancer can cervical cancer be?

A

–> 80% are squamous cell carcinoma
–> Adenocarcinoma next most common
–> Small cell cancer rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Which virus is cervical cancer strongly associated with?

A

HPV - human papillomavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

what is HPV infection associated with?

A

anal, vulval, vaginal, penis, mouth and throat cancers
–> sexually transmitted infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

How does HPV infection increase the risk for cancer development?

A

HPV inhibits the tumour suppressor genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are the risk factors for cervical cancer?

A

Increased risk of catching HPV
–> early sexual activity
–> Increased number of sexual partners
–> Sexual partners who have had more partners
–> Not using condoms

Non-engagement with cervical screening
–> Most cases are preventable with early detection and treatment

Other risk factors
–> smoking
–> HIV
–> combined oral contraceptive
–> Increased number of full-term pregnancies
–> family history
–> Exposure to diethylstilbesterol during fetal development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is the presentation of cervical cancer?

A

–> may be detected during cervical smears in asymptomatic women
–> abnormal vaginal bleeding - intermenstrual/postcoital/post-menopausal bleeding
–> vaginal discharge
–> pelvic pain
–> dyspareunia - pain or discomfort with sex
–> ulceration/inflammation.bleeding or visible tumour in the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is cervical intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

grading system for the level if dysplasia (premalignant change) in the cells of the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

How is cervical intraepithelial neoplasia diagnosed?

A

through colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

How is cervical intraepithelial neoplasia staged?

A

–> CIN I: mild dysplasia, affecting 1/3 the thickness of the epithelial layer, likely to return to normal without treatment
–> CIN II: moderate dysplasia, affecting 2/3 the thickness of the epithelial layer, likely to progress to cancer if untreated
–> CIN III: severe dysplasia, very likely to progress to cancer if untreated

CIN III is sometimes called cervical carcinoma in situ.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

How is cervical cancer screened?

A

–> smear test
–> aims to pick up precancerous changes (dyskaryosis)
–> liquid-based cytology- brush into a preservation fluid
–> initially tested for high-risk HPV before the cells are examined, if the sameple is negative the cells arn’t examined and the women returned to the routine screening programme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

How often should smears be carried out?

A

Every three years aged 25 – 49
Every five years aged 50 – 64

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are the exceptions in the smear programme?

A

Women with HIV are screened annually
Women over 65 may request a smear if they have not had one since aged 50
Women with previous CIN may require additional tests (e.g. test of cure after treatment)
Certain groups of immunocompromised women may have additional screening (e.g. women on dialysis, cytotoxic drugs or undergoing an organ transplant)
Pregnant women due a routine smear should wait until 12 weeks post-partum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What cytology results could you get from a smear test?

A

Inadequate
Normal
Borderline changes
Low-grade dyskaryosis
High-grade dyskaryosis (moderate)
High-grade dyskaryosis (severe)
Possible invasive squamous cell carcinoma
Possible glandular neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

How should smear results be managed?

A

–> Inadequate sample – repeat the smear after at least three months
–> HPV negative – continue routine screening
–> HPV positive with normal cytology – repeat the HPV test after 12 months
–> HPV positive with abnormal cytology – refer for colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is a colposcopy?

A

Involves inserting a speculum and a colposcope to magnify the cervix. This allows the epithelial lining of the cervix to be examined in detail.

During colposcopy, stains such as acetic acid and iodine solution can be used to differentiate abnormal areas.

A punch biopsy or large loop excision of the transformational zone can be performed during the colposcopy procedure to get a tissue sample.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is a large loop excision of the transition zone?

A

also known as loop biopsy
–> loop of wire with diathermy to removal abnormal tissue of the cervix
–> may result in pre-term labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is a cone biopsy of the cervix and what is it used for?

A

–> Treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and very early-stage cervical cancer
–> General anesthetic - surgeon removes a cone-shaped piece of the uterus - sent to histology
–> increased risk of misscarriage, premature labour, pain, bleeding, infection, and scar formation with stenosis of the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Which staging system is used to stage cervical cancer?

A

The International Federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging system is used to stage cervical cancer:

Stage 1: Confined to the cervix
Stage 2: Invades the uterus or upper 2/3 of the vagina
Stage 3: Invades the pelvic wall or lower 1/3 of the vagina
Stage 4: Invades the bladder, rectum or beyond the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is the management of cervical cancer?

A

–> Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and early-stage 1A: LLETZ or cone biopsy
–> Stage 1B – 2A: Radical hysterectomy and removal of local lymph nodes with chemotherapy and radiotherapy
–> Stage 2B – 4A: Chemotherapy and radiotherapy
–> Stage 4B: Management may involve a combination of surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and palliative care

–> Pelvic exenteration - may be used in advanced cervical cancer - removal of most or all of the pelvic organs including the vagina, cervix, uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, bladder, and rectum

Bevacizumab - is a monoclonal antibody that may be used in combination with other chemotherapies in the treatment of metastatic or recurrent cervical cancer
targets vascular endothelial growth factor a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

When does the HPV vaccine need to be given to girls?

A

–> before they become sexually active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Which strains of HPV does the HPV vaccine protect against?

A

Strains 6 and 11 cause genital warts
Strains 16 and 18 cause cervical cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

A woman presenting with postmenopausal bleeding has what until proven?

A

–> endometerial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is the pathophysiology of endometrial cancer?

A

Endometrial cancer is cancer of the endometrium, the lining of the uterus. Around 80% of cases are adenocarcinoma. It is an oestrogen-dependent cancer, meaning that oestrogen stimulates the growth of endometrial cancer cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is endometrial hyperplasia?

A

–> precancerous condition involving the thickening of the endometrium
–> most cases of endometrial hyperplasia will return to normal overtime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What are the two types of endometrial hyperplasia?

A

–> hyperplasia without atypia
–> atypical hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

How can endometrial hyperplasia be treated?

A

progestogens
–> intrauterine system - mirena coil
–> continued oral progestogens - levonorgestrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What are the risk factors for endometrial cancer?

A

–> Patient’s exposure to unopposed oestrogen, refers to oestrogen without progesterone

Situations where there is an increased unopposed oestrogen
–> increased age
–> earlier onset of menstruation
–> late menopause
–> oestrogen-only HRT
–> no or fewer pregnancies
–> obesity
–> polycystic ovarian syndrome
–> tamoxifen
–> diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Why might polycystic ovarian syndrome lead to increased exposure to unopposed oestrogen - endometrial cancer?

A

–> After ovulation, corpus luteum forms in the ovaries from the ruptured follicle that released the egg
–> Corpus luteum produced progesterone, providing endometrial protection during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (second half)
–> PCOS - less likely to ovulate and form a corpus luteum, progesterone not produced
–> endometrial lining has more exsposure to unopposed oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

For endometrial protection what should women take that have PCOS?

A

–> combined oral contraceptive pill
–> an intrauterine system (mirena coil)
–> cyclical progestogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Why is obesity a risk factor for endometrial cancer?

A

–> adipose tissue (fat) is a source of oestrogen.
–> Adipose tissue is the primary source of oestrogen in postmenopausal women.
–> Adipose tissue contains aromatase, which is an enzyme that converts androgens such as testosterone into oestrogen.
–> Androgens are produced mainly by the adrenal glands. In women with more adipose tissue, and therefore more aromatase enzyme, more of these androgens are converted to oestrogen.
–> This extra oestrogen is unopposed in women that are not ovulating (e.g. PCOS or postmenopause), because there is no corpus luteum to produce progesterone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What are the protective factors in endometrial cancer?

A

–> Combined contraceptive pill
–> Mirena coil
–> Increased pregnancies
–> Cigarette smoking

Smoking appears to be protective against endometrial cancer in postmenopausal women by being anti-oestrogenic. Interestingly, it is not protective against other oestrogen dependent cancers, such as breast cancer (where it increases the risk).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

what is the presentation of endometrial cancer?

A

The number one presenting symptom of endometrial cancer to remember for your exams is postmenopausal bleeding.

Endometrial cancer may also present with:

Postcoital bleeding
Intermenstrual bleeding
Unusually heavy menstrual bleeding
Abnormal vaginal discharge
Haematuria
Anaemia
Raised platelet count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

what are the referral criteria for endometrial cancer?

A

The referral criteria for a 2-week-wait urgent cancer referral for endometrial cancer is:

Postmenopausal bleeding (more than 12 months after the last menstrual period)

NICE also recommends referral for a transvaginal ultrasound in women over 55 years with:

Unexplained vaginal discharge
Visible haematuria plus raised platelets, anaemia or elevated glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What are the investigations for endometrial cancer?

A

Transvaginal ultrasound for endometrial thickness (normal is less than 4mm post-menopause)
Pipelle biopsy, which is highly sensitive for endometrial cancer making it useful for excluding cancer
Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

How is endometrial cancer staged?

A

The International Federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging system is used to stage endometrial cancer:

Stage 1: Confined to the uterus
Stage 2: Invades the cervix
Stage 3: Invades the ovaries, fallopian tubes, vagina or lymph nodes
Stage 4: Invades bladder, rectum or beyond the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is the management of endometrial cancer?

A

The usual treatment for stage 1 and 2 endometrial cancer is a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, also known as a TAH and BSO (removal of uterus, cervix and adnexa).

Other treatment options depending on the individual presentation include:

A radical hysterectomy involves also removing the pelvic lymph nodes, surrounding tissues and top of the vagina
Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Progesterone may be used as a hormonal treatment to slow the progression of the cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Why does ovarian cancer normally present later?

A

–> non- specific symptoms resulting in a worse prognosis
–> more than 70% of women present with ovarian cancer once it has spread beyond the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What are the different types of ovarian cancer?

A

Epithelial cell tumours (carcinoma)
Dermoid cysts/ germ cell tumours
Sex cord-stromal tumours
metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What are epithelial cell tumours (ovarian cancer)

A

–> tumours arising from the epithelial cells of the ovary
–> most common type
–> subtypes include - serous tumours (most common)/ endometrioid carcinomas/ clear cell tumours/ mucinous tumours/ undifferentiated tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What are dermoid cysts/germ cell tumours (ovarian cancer)

A

–> benign ovarian tumours - teratomas, they come from germ cells
–> may contain various tissue types such as skin, hair, teetch, bone
–> associated with ovarian torsion.
–> germ cell tumours may cause a raised alpha-fetoprotein and hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What are sex cord-stromal tumours?

A

–> rare tumours that can be benign or malignant - arise from stroma (connective tissue) or sex cords (embryonic structure associated with follicles)
–> several types such as sertoli-leydig tumours and granulosa cell tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What are Krukenburg tumours?

A

–> metastasis in the ovary usually from gastrointestinal tract cancer paritcularly the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What are the risk factors for ovarian cancer?

A

–> Age (peaks age 60)
–> BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes (consider the family history)
–> Increased number of ovulations
–> Obesity
–> Smoking
–> Recurrent use of clomifene (infertility treatment which causes ovulation)

Factors that increase the number of ovulations, increase the risk of ovarian cancer. These include:

–>Early-onset of periods
–> Late menopause
–> No pregnancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What are the protective factors for ovarian cancer?

A

Having a higher number of lifetime ovulations increases the risk of ovarian cancer. Factors that stop ovulation or reduce the number of lifetime ovulations, reduce the risk:

Combined contraceptive pill
Breastfeeding
Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What is the presentation of ovarian cancer?

A

Ovarian cancer can present with non-specific symptoms. In older women, keep the possibility of ovarian cancer in mind and have a low threshold for considering further investigations. Symptoms that may indicate ovarian cancer include:

–> Abdominal bloating
–> Early satiety (feeling full after eating)
–> Loss of appetite
–> Pelvic pain
–> Urinary symptoms (frequency / urgency)
–> Weight loss
–> Abdominal or pelvic mass
–> Ascites

An ovarian mass may press on the obturator nerve and cause referred hip or groin pain. The obturator nerve passes along the inside of the pelvic, lateral to the ovaries, where an ovarian mass can compress it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Which 3 physical examination signs should prompt a 2ww referral for ovarian cancer?

A

Ascites
Pelvic mass (unless clearly due to fibroids)
Abdominal mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

which blood test can be done in women presenting with signs of ovarian cancer?

A

CA-125 - cancer antigen 125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What investigations should be carried out for ovarian cancer?

A

initial investigations in primary or secondary care are:
–> CA125 blood test (>35 IU/mL is significant)
–> Pelvic ultrasound

The risk of malignancy index (RMI) estimates the risk of an ovarian mass being malignant, taking account of three things:
–> Menopausal status
–> Ultrasound findings
–> CA125 level

Further investigations in secondary care include:
–> CT scan to establish the diagnosis and stage the cancer
–> Histology (tissue sample) using a CT guided biopsy, laparoscopy or laparotomy
–> Paracentesis (ascitic tap) can be used to test the ascitic fluid for cancer cells

Women under 40 years with a complex ovarian mass require tumour markers for a possible germ cell tumour:
–> Alpha-fetoprotein (α-FP)
–> Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What are the other causes of a raised CA-125?

A

–> Endometriosis
–> Fibroids
–> Adenomyosis
–> Pelvic infection
–> Liver disease
–> Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

How is ovarian cancer staged?

A

The International Federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging system is used to stage ovarian cancer. A very simplified version of this staging system is:

Stage 1: Confined to the ovary
Stage 2: Spread past the ovary but inside the pelvis
Stage 3: Spread past the pelvis but inside the abdomen
Stage 4: Spread outside the abdomen (distant metastasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

How is ovarian cancer managed?

A

Ovarian cancer will be managed by a specialist gynaecology oncology MDT. It usually involves a combination of surgery and chemotherapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

–> where there is ectopic endometrial tissue outside the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What is the term given to a lump of endometrial tissue outisde the utreus?

A

endometrioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is the term given to endometriomas in the ovaries?

A

Chocolate cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What are the aetiology theroies for endomatriosis?

A

–> genetic component
–> retrograde menstruation - where ther endometrial lining flows back out into the pelvis and peritoneum
–> embryonic cells destined to become endometrial tissue may remian outside the uterus
–> may be spread of endometrial cells through the lympahtic system similar to cancer
–> Cells outside the uterus someohow change - metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is the pathophysiology of endometriosis?

A

–> endometrial tissue respond to hormones same as in uterus
–> during menstruation the endometrial tissue sheds and bleeds
–> with endometriosis this bleeding causes irritation and inflammation of the tissues around the site of endometriosis
–> results in cyclical, dull, heavy or burning pain during menstruation
–> deposits of endometriosis in the bladder or the bowel can lead to blood in the urine or stool
–> localised inflammation and bleeding can lead to adhesions, causes scar tissue - adhesions and binds the organs together
–> adhesions lead to chronic - non-cyclical pain that can be sharp, stabbing or pulling and associted with nausea
–> inferitlity due to adhesions blocking egg release and chcoloate cysts damaging eggs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What is the presentation of endometriosis?

A

–> Cyclical abdominal or pelvic pain
–> Deep dyspareunia (pain on deep sexual intercourse)
–> Dysmenorrhoea (painful periods)
–> Infertility
–> Cyclical bleeding from other sites, such as haematuria
–> There can also be cyclical symptoms relating to other areas affected by the endometriosis:

–> Urinary symptoms
–> Bowel symptoms

Examination may reveal:
–> Endometrial tissue visible in the vagina on speculum examination, –> particularly in the posterior fornix
–> A fixed cervix on bimanual examination
–> Tenderness in the vagina, cervix and adnexa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

How is the diangosis of endometriosis made?

A

Pelvic ultrasound may reveal large endometriomas and chocolate cysts. Ultrasound scans are often unremarkable in patients with endometriosis. Patients with suspected endometriosis need referral to a gynaecologist for laparoscopy.

Laparoscopic surgery is the gold standard way to diagnose abdominal and pelvic endometriosis. A definitive diagnosis can be established with a biopsy of the lesions during laparoscopy. Laparoscopy has the added benefit of allowing the surgeon to remove deposits of endometriosis and potentially improve symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

what is the management of endometriosis?

A

Initial management involves:

–>Establishing a diagnosis
–> Providing a clear explanation
–> Listening to the patient, establishing their ideas, concerns and expectations and building a partnership
–> Analgesia as required for pain (NSAIDs and paracetamol first line)

Hormonal management options can be tried before establishing a definitive diagnosis with laparoscopy - Cyclical pain can be treated with hormonal medications that stop ovulation and reduce endometrial thickening. This can be achieved using the combined oral contraceptive pill, oral progesterone-only pill, the progestin depot injection, the progestin implant (Nexplanon) and the Mirena coil.
The cyclical pain tends to improve after the menopause when the female sex hormones are reduced. Therefore, another treatment option for endometriosis is to induce a menopause-like state using GnRH agonists. Examples of GnRH agonists are goserelin (Zoladex) or leuprorelin (Prostap). They shut down the ovaries temporarily and can be useful in treating pain in many women. However, inducing the menopause has several side effects, such as hot flushes, night sweats and a risk of osteoporosis.

Combined oral contractive pill, which can be used back to back without a pill-free period if helpful
Progesterone only pill
Medroxyprogesterone acetate injection (e.g. Depo-Provera)
Nexplanon implant
Mirena coil
GnRH agonists

Surgical management options:

Laparoscopic surgery to excise or ablate the endometrial tissue and remove adhesions (adhesiolysis)
Hysterectomy
Laparoscopic treatment may improve fertility. Hormonal therapies may improve symptoms but not fertility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What are prolactinomas?

A

type of pituitary adenoma, a benign tumor of the pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

How can pituitary adenomas be classified?

A

–> Size - microadenoma < 1cm and macroadenoma is > 1cm
–> Hormonal status - secretory/ functioning adenoma produces an excess of a particular hormone and non-secretory adenoma does not produce a hormone to excess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What is the most common type of pituitary adenoma and what does it produce?

A

–> prolactinomas are the most common
–> produce prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What is the presentation of prolactinomas?

A

excess prolactin in women
–> amenorrhoea
–> infertility
–> galactorrhoea
–> osteoporosis

excess prolactin in men
–> impotence
–> loss of libido
–> galactorrhoea

other symptoms may be seen with macroadenomas
–> headache.
–> visual disturbances (classically, a bitemporal hemianopia (lateral visual fields) or upper temporal quadrantanopia)
symptoms and signs of hypopituitarism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What are the investigations for prolactinomas?

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What is the management of prolactinomas?

A

–> symptomatic - dopamine agonists e.g cabergoline or bromocriptine which inhibits the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland
–> surgery is performed for patients who cant tolerate or fail to respond to the medical therapy - trans-sphenoidal approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What are fibroids?

A

benign tumors of the smooth muscle of the uterus - also called uterine leiomyomas
–> very common
–> more common in black women
–> oestrogen sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What are the different types of fibroids?

A

–> Intramural means within the myometrium (the muscle of the uterus). As they grow, they change the shape and distort the uterus.
–> Subserosal means just below the outer layer of the uterus. These fibroids grow outwards and can become very large, filling the abdominal cavity.
–> Submucosal means just below the lining of the uterus (the endometrium).
–> Pedunculated means on a stalk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What is the presentation of fibroids?

A

Fibroids are often asymptomatic. They can present in several ways:

–> Heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia) is the most frequent presenting symptom
–> Prolonged menstruation, lasting more than 7 days
–> Abdominal pain, worse during menstruation
–> Bloating or feeling full in the abdomen
–> Urinary or bowel symptoms due to pelvic pressure or fullness
–> Deep dyspareunia (pain during intercourse)
–> Reduced fertility
–> Abdominal and bimanual examination may reveal a palpable pelvic mass or an enlarged firm non-tender uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Which investigations should be done for fibroids?

A

Hysteroscopy is the initial investigation for submucosal fibroids presenting with heavy menstrual bleeding.

Pelvic ultrasound is the investigation of choice for larger fibroids.

MRI scanning may be considered before surgical options, where more information is needed about the size, shape and blood supply of the fibroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What is the management for fibroids?

A

For fibroids less than 3 cm, the medical management is the same as with heavy menstrual bleeding:

–> Mirena coil (1st line) – fibroids must be less than 3cm with no distortion of the uterus
–> Symptomatic management with NSAIDs and tranexamic acid
–> Combined oral contraceptive
–> Cyclical oral progestogens

Surgical options for managing smaller fibroids with heavy menstrual bleeding are:

–> Endometrial ablation
–> Resection of submucosal fibroids during hysteroscopy
–> Hysterectomy

For fibroids more than 3 cm, women need referral to gynaecology for investigation and management. Medical management options are:

–> Symptomatic management with NSAIDs and tranexamic acid
–> Mirena coil – depending on the size and shape of the fibroids and uterus
–> Combined oral contraceptive
–> Cyclical oral progestogens

Surgical options for larger fibroids are:

–> Uterine artery embolisation - causes fibroid shrinkage
–> Myomectomy - can improve fertility
–> Hysterectomy

–> GnRH agonists, such as goserelin (Zoladex) or leuprorelin (Prostap), may be used to reduce the size of fibroids before surgery. They work by inducing a menopause-like state and reducing the amount of oestrogen maintaining the fibroid. Usually, GnRH agonists are only used short term, for example, to shrink a fibroid before myomectomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What are the complications of fibroids?

A

–> Heavy menstrual bleeding, often with iron deficiency anaemia
–> Reduced fertility
–> Pregnancy complications, such as miscarriages, premature labour and obstructive delivery
–> Constipation
–> Urinary outflow obstruction and urinary tract infections
–> Red degeneration of the fibroid
–> Torsion of the fibroid, usually affecting pedunculated fibroids
–> Malignant change to a leiomyosarcoma is very rare (<1%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What is red degeneration+ of fibroids?

A

–> ischemia, infarction and necrosis of the fibroid due to disrupted blood supply.
–> more likely to occur in larger fibroids (above 5 cm) during the second and third trimester of pregnancy.
–> Red degeneration may occur as the fibroid rapidly enlarges during pregnancy, outgrowing its blood supply and becoming ischaemic. It may also occur due to kinking in the blood vessels as the uterus changes shape and expands during pregnancy.

–> Red degeneration presents with severe abdominal pain, low-grade fever, tachycardia and often vomiting. Management is supportive, with rest, fluids and analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What is pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

–> infection and inflammation of the female pelvic organs including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries and the surrounding peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What are the causes of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

–> ascending infection from the endocervix
–> chlamydia trachomatis
–> Neisseria gonorrhoea
–> mycoplasma genitalium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What are the features of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

–> lower abdominal pain
–> fever
–> deep dyspareunia
–> Dysuria and menstrual irregularities may occur
–> vaginal or cervical discharge
–> cervical excitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

What are the investigations for pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

–> a pregnancy test should be done to exclude an ectopic pregnancy
–> high vaginal swab -these are often negative
–> screen for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What is the management of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

–> Have a low threshold for treatment due to the difficulty in an accurate diagnosis and the complications of untreated PID
–> 1st line: Intramuscular ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole
2nd line: oral ofloxacin + oral metronidazole
–> In mild cases of PID IUDs may be left in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What are the complications for pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

–> Perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome) - occurs in around 10% of cases/ it is characterised by right upper quadrant pain and may be confused with cholecystitis
–> Infertility - the risk may be as high as 10-20% after a single episode
–> Chronic pelvic pain
–> ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

What are functional ovarian cysts?

A

–> cysts related to fluctuating hormones of the menstrual cycle
–> very common in premenopausal women (benign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Ovarian cysts in postmenopausal women suggest…

A

Malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What can the appearance of multiple ovarian cysts be described as?

A

String of pearls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What is the presentation of ovarian cysts?

A

–> Most are asymptomatic
–> vague pelvic pain
–> vague bloating
–> vague fullness in the abdomen
–> a palpable pelvic mass (large cysts - mucinous cystadenomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

When might ovarian cysts present with acute pelvic pain?

A

–> ovarian torsion
–> haemorrhage
–> rupture of the cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What are the two types of functional ovarian cysts?

A

–> follicular cysts - when the developing follicle fails to rupture and release the egg/ most common/ harmless and disappear after a few menstrual cycles/thin-walled and no internal structures.
–> corpus luteum cysts - corpus luteum fails to break down and instead fills with fluid/ causes pelvic pain or delayed menstruation/ often in early pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What are the other 5 types of ovarian cysts?

A

–> Serous cystadenoma - benign tumour from epithelial cells
–> Mucinous cystadenoma - benign tumour from epithelial - can be huge
–> Endometrioma - lumps of endometrial tissue in the ovary - only in endometriosis - causes pain and disrupts ovulation
–> Dermoid/germ cell tumours - benign tumours - teratomas (come from germ cells) can contain various tissues (hair, skin, teeth and bone) associated with ovarian torsion
–> Sex cord-stromal tumours - rare - benign or malignant - from stroma (connective tissue) or sex cords (embryonic structures associated with follicles. - includes Sertoli-Leydig cell tumours and granulosa cell tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What are the risk factors for ovarian malignancy?

A

–> Age
–> Postmenopause
–> Increased number of ovulations
–> Obesity
–> Hormone replacement therapy
–> Smoking
–> Breastfeeding (protective)
–> Family history and BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Which factors can reduce the number of ovulations that occur?

A

Later onset of periods (menarche)
Early menopause
Any pregnancies
Use of the combined contraceptive pill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

What are the investigations for ovarian cysts?

A

–> Premenopausal women with a simple ovarian cyst less than 5cm on ultrasound do not need further investigations.
–> blood test - CA125
–> women under 40 with complex ovarian mass require tumour markers for possible germ cell tumour: Lactate dehydrogenase/ alpha-fetoprotein/ HCG
–> Risk of malignancy index: menopausal status/ USS findings/ CA125 level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

What can be the causes of a raised CA125?

A

Endometriosis
Fibroids
Adenomyosis
Pelvic infection
Liver disease
Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

What is the management of ovarian cysts?

A

–> Possible ovarian cancer (complex cysts or raised CA125) requires a two-week wait referral to a gynaecological oncology specialist.

–> Possible dermoid cysts require referral to a gynaecologist for further investigation and consideration of surgery.

–> Simple ovarian cysts in premenopausal women can be managed based on their size: < 5cm cysts will almost always resolve within three cycles. They do not require a follow-up scan. / 5cm to 7cm: Require routine referral to gynaecology and yearly ultrasound monitoring/ More than 7cm: Consider an MRI scan or surgical evaluation as they can be difficult to characterise with ultrasound.

Cysts in postmenopausal women generally require correlation with the CA125 result and referral to a gynaecologist. When there is a raised CA125, this should be a two-week wait suspected cancer referral. Simple cysts under 5cm with a normal CA125 may be monitored with an ultrasound every 4 – 6 months.

Persistent or enlarging cysts may require surgical intervention (usually with laparoscopy). Surgery may involve removing the cyst (ovarian cystectomy), possibly along with the affected ovary (oophorectomy).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

What are the potential complications of ovarian cysts?

A

Torsion
Hemorrhage into the cyst
Rupture, with bleeding into the peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

What is Meigs syndrome?

A

Meig’s syndrome involves a triad of:

–> Ovarian fibroma (a type of benign ovarian tumor)
–> Pleural effusion
–> Ascites

Meig’s syndrome typically occurs in older women. Removal of the tumour results in complete resolution of the effusion and ascites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

What is ovarian torsion?

A

Ovarian torsion is a condition where the ovary twists in relation to the surrounding connective tissue, fallopian tube and blood supply (the adnexa).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Why does ovarian torsion normally happen?

A

–> Usually due to an ovarian mass larger than 5cm such as cyst or tumour
—> more likely with benign tumours and more likely to occur during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

What is ovarian torsion a medical emergency?

A

Twisting of the adnexa and blood supply to the ovary leads to ischemia. If the torsion persists, necrosis will occur, and the function of that ovary will be lost. Therefore, ovarian torsion is an emergency, where a delay in treatment can have significant consequences. Prompt diagnosis and management is essential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

What is the presentation of ovarian torsion?

A

–> Sudden onset severe unilateral pelvic pain
–> Nausea and vomiting
–> localised tenderness
–> palpable mass in the pelvis
–> can be intermittent pain if the ovary and untwist spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

How is the diagnosis of ovarian torsion made?

A

Pelvic ultrasound is the initial investigation of choice. Transvaginal is ideal, but transabdominal can be used where transvaginal is not possible. It may show a “whirlpool sign”, free fluid in pelvis and oedema of the ovary. Doppler studies may show a lack of blood flow.

The definitive diagnosis is made with laparoscopic surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What is the management of ovarian torsion?

A

–> may require laparoscopic surgery
–> Untwist the ovary and fix in it place (detorsion)
–> Remove the affected ovary (oophorectomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

What are the complications of ovarian torsion?

A

–> A delay in treating ovarian torsion can lead to loss of function.
Other ovaries can compensate so fertility is not affected
–> When necrotic ovary is removed it can become affected developing an abscess and this can lead to sepsis, it can also rupture resulting in peritonitis and adhesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

What is PCOS?

A

–> Common condition causing metabolic and reproductive problems in women
–> Characteristic features of multiple ovarian cysts/ oligomenorrhoea/ hyperandrogenism and insulin resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Which criteria can be used to diagnose PCOS?

A

Rotterdam criteria
–> at least 2 out of 3 features
–> Oligoovulation or anovulation - presenting with irregular or absent menstrual periods
–> hyperandrogenism - hirsutisim and acne
–> polycystic ovaries on ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

What is the presentation of PCOS?

A

–> Triad of - anovulation (oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea) / hyperandrogenism ( Hirsutism and acne)/ Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
–> infertility
–> Hair loss in a male pattern
–> insulin resistance and diabetes
–> acanthosis nigricans (insulin resistance)
–> endometrial hyperplasia and cancer
–> cardiovascular disease
–> hypercholesterolemia
–> obstructive sleep apnoea
–> depression and anxiety
–> sexual problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for hirsutism?

A

–> Medications, such as phenytoin, ciclosporin, corticosteroids, testosterone, and anabolic steroids
–> Ovarian or adrenal tumors that secrete androgens
–> Cushing’s syndrome
–> Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

What is the pathophysiology of insulin resistance in PCOS?

A

Insulin resistance is a crucial part of PCOS. When someone is resistant to insulin, their pancreas has to produce more insulin to get a response from the cells of the body. Insulin promotes the release of androgens from the ovaries and adrenal glands. Therefore, higher levels of insulin result in higher levels of androgens (such as testosterone). Insulin also suppresses sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) production by the liver. SHBG normally binds to androgens and suppresses their function. Reduced SHBG further promotes hyperandrogenism in women with PCOS.

The high insulin levels contribute to halting the development of the follicles in the ovaries, leading to anovulation and multiple partially developed follicles (seen as polycystic ovaries on the scan).

Diet, exercise and weight loss help reduce insulin resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

What are the investigations for PCOS?

A

BLOODS
–> testosterone
–> Sex hormone-binding globulin
–> LH
–> FSH
–> Prolactin - might be slightly elevated
–> TSH

–> Raised LH
–> Raised LH: FSH ratio
–> Raised testosterone
–> raised insulin
–> normal or raised oestrogen levels

–> TVU - the follicles may be arranged around the periphery of the ovary giving a string of pearls appearance - 12 or more developing follicles in one ovary or a ovarian volume >10cm3

–> Diabetes - 2hr OGTT
–> Impaired fasting glucose – fasting glucose of 6.1 – 6.9 mmol/l (before the glucose drink)
–> Impaired glucose tolerance – plasma glucose at 2 hours of 7.8 – 11.1 mmol/l
–> Diabetes – plasma glucose at 2 hours above 11.1 mmol/l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

What is the general management of PCOS?

A

reduce the risks associated with obesity, type 2 diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, and cardiovascular disease. These risks can be reduced by:

Weight loss - significant management - can improve insulin resistance, reduce the risks of associated conditions and reduce hirsutism - orlistat for bmi >30 - lipase inhibitor stops fat absorption.
Low glycaemic index, calorie-controlled diet
Exercise
Smoking cessation
Antihypertensive medications where required
Statins where indicated (QRISK >10%)

Patients should be assessed and managed for the associated features and complications, such as:

Endometrial hyperplasia and cancer
Infertility
Hirsutism
Acne
Obstructive sleep apnoea
Depression and anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

What risk factors do women with PCOS have for endometrial cancer?

A

Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome have several risk factors for endometrial cancer:

Obesity
Diabetes
Insulin resistance
Amenorrhoea

229
Q

What is the reason why women with PCOS are at risk fo endometrial cancer?

A

–> Normally corpus luteum secretes progesterone
–> PCOS - anovulation - less progesterone - more unopposed oestrogen
–> Continuous oestrogen leads to endometrial lining proliferation without regular shedding as there’s no progesterone
–> similar to unopposed oestrogen in women on HRT - leads to endometrial hyperplasia

230
Q

What are the options available for investigation for at-risk PCOS patients for endometrial hyperplasia/cancer?

A

–> pelvic ultrasound scan if extended gaps in periods or abnormal bleeding, cyclical progestogens are given to induce period before scan - if >10mm referred for biopsy
–> Mirena coil for continuous endometrial protection
–> Inducing a withdrawal bleed at least every 3 – 4 months with either: Cyclical progestogens (e.g. medroxyprogesterone acetate 10mg once a day for 14 days)/ Combined oral contraceptive pill

231
Q

How can infertility be managed for PCOS patients?

A

–> Weight loss to help restore regular ovulation
–> Clomifene
–> laparoscopic ovarian drilling
–> IVF
–> if pregnant require OGTT at 24-28 weeks gestation

232
Q

How can hirsutism be managed in PCOS patients?

A

–> Weight loss
–> Co-cyprinidiol is a COCP licensed for the treatment of hirsutism and acne - anti-androgenic effect. Increased risk of VTE so only 3 months of use allowed
–> topical eflornithine
–> electrolysis
–> Laser hair removal
–> Spironolactone (mineralocorticoid antagonist with anti-androgen effects)
–> Finasteride (5α-reductase inhibitor that decreases testosterone production)
–> Flutamide (non-steroidal anti-androgen)
–> Cyproterone acetate (anti-androgen and progestin)

233
Q

How can Acne be managed in PCOS?

A

–> COCP first line
–> Co-cyprinidiol - however increased risk for VTE despite anti-androgenic effect
–> Topical adapalene (a retinoid)
–> Topical antibiotics (e.g. clindamycin 1% with benzoyl peroxide 5%)
–> Topical azelaic acid 20%
–> Oral tetracycline antibiotics (e.g. lymecycline)

234
Q

What is a hydatiform mole?

A

–> type of tumour that grows like a pregnancy in the uterus
–> known as molar pregnancy

235
Q

What are the two types of molar pregnancy?

A

–> Complete mole
–> partial mole

236
Q

What is a complete mole in molar pregnancy?

A

–> Two sperm cells fertilise an ovum that contains no genetic material (an “empty ovum”).
–> These sperm then combine genetic material, and the cells start to divide and grow into a tumour called a complete mole.
–> No fetal material will form.

237
Q

What is a partial mole in molar pregnancy?

A

–> two sperm cells fertilise a normal ovum (containing genetic material) at the same time.
–> The new cell now has three sets of chromosomes (it is a haploid cell).
–> The cell divides and multiplies into a tumour called a partial mole. In a partial mole, some fetal material may form

238
Q

How can the diagnosis of molar pregnancy be made?

A

–> behaves like a normal pregnancy. Periods will stop and the hormonal changes of pregnancy will occur. There are a few things that can indicate a molar pregnancy versus a normal pregnancy:

–> More severe morning sickness
–> Vaginal bleeding
–> Increased enlargement of the uterus
–> Abnormally high hCG
–> Thyrotoxicosis (hCG can mimic TSH and stimulate the thyroid to produce excess T3 and T4)

–> Ultrasound of the pelvis shows a characteristic “snowstorm appearance” of the pregnancy.

–> Provisional diagnosis can be made by ultrasound and confirmed with histology of the mole after evacuation.

239
Q

What is the management of molar pregnancies?

A

Management involves evacuation of the uterus to remove the mole. The products of conception need to be sent for histological examination to confirm a molar pregnancy. Patients should be referred to the gestational trophoblastic disease centre for management and follow up. The hCG levels are monitored until they return to normal. Occasionally the mole can metastasise, and the patient may require systemic chemotherapy.

240
Q

What are baby blues?

A

–> low mood in first week or so after birth

241
Q

What is postnatal depression?

A

–> Low mood seen in 1 in 10 women with a peak around 3 months after birth

242
Q

What is puerperal psychosis?

A

seen in about 1 in 1000 women starting a few weeks after birth

243
Q

What are the symptoms of baby blues?

A

Mood swings
Low mood
Anxiety
Irritability
Tearfulness

244
Q

What factors can cause baby blues to arise?

A

Significant hormonal changes
Recovery from birth
Fatigue and sleep deprivation
The responsibility of caring for the neonate
Establishing feeding
All the other changes and events around this time

245
Q

What is the treatment for baby blues?

A

Symptoms are usually mild, only last a few days and resolve within two weeks of delivery. No treatment is required.

246
Q

What are the features of postnatal depression?

A

Triad:
–> Low mood
–> Anhedonia (lack of pleasure in activities)
–> Low energy

–> typically seen 3 months after birth and should last at least 2 weeks after birth

247
Q

How is postnatal depression managed?

A

–> Mild cases may be managed with additional support, self-help and follow-up with their GP
–> Moderate cases may be managed with antidepressant medications (e.g. SSRIs) and cognitive behavioural therapy
–> Severe cases may need input from specialist psychiatry services, and rarely inpatient care on the mother and baby unit

248
Q

What is the screening tool used to diagnose post-natal depression?

A

Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale
–> There are ten questions, with a total score out of 30 points. A score of 10 or more suggests postnatal depression.

249
Q

What are the features of puerperal psychosis?

A

–> Delusions
–> Hallucinations
–> Depression
–> Mania
–> Confusion
–> Thought disorder

–> 2-3 weeks after delivery - rare

250
Q

What is the management of puerperal psychosis?

A

–> Admission to the mother and baby unit
–> Cognitive behavioural therapy
–> Medications (antidepressants, antipsychotics or mood stabilisers)
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

251
Q

What can SSRI antidepressant usage from mum cause in neonates?

A

–> Neonatal abstinence syndrome
–> poor feeding and irritability
–> supportive management

252
Q

What is an ectopic preganancy?

A

–> Pregnancy implanted outside the uterus

253
Q

Where can the ectopic pregnancy implant?

A

–> Fallopian tubes - most common
–> fallopian tube (cornual region), ovary, cervix or abdomen

254
Q

What are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?

A

–> Previous ectopic pregnancy
–> Previous pelvic inflammatory disease
–> Previous surgery to the fallopian tubes
–> Intrauterine devices (coils)
–> Older age
–> Smoking

255
Q

What is the presentation of ectopic pregnancy?

A

–> around 6-8 weeks gestation
–> missed period
–> Constant lower abdominal pain in the right or left iliac fossa
–> vaginal bleeding
–. lower abdominal or pelvic tenderness
–> Pain when moving the cervix during a bimanual examination
–> Dizziness or syncope (hemorrhage)
–> shoulder tip pain (peritonitis)

256
Q

What is the investigation of choice when diagnosing a miscarriage?

A

Transvaginal ultrasound scan

257
Q

What might be seen on a transvaginal ultrasound in an ectopic pregnancy?

A

–> A gestational sac containing a yolk sac or fetal pole may be seen in a fallopian tube
–> empty uterus

258
Q

What is pregnancy of unknown origin?

A

A pregnancy of unknown location (PUL) is when the woman has a positive pregnancy test and there is no evidence of pregnancy on the ultrasound scan. In this scenario, an ectopic pregnancy cannot be excluded, and careful follow-up needs to be in place until a diagnosis can be confirmed.

259
Q

What investigations can be performed for a pregnancy of unknown origin?

A

–> Tracking of hCG over time - repeated every 48 hours to measure change
–> hCG doubles every 48 hours in normal pregnancy
–> rise of more than 63% after 48 hours - indicated an intrauterine pregnancy and repeat ultrasound in 1-2 weeks. visible pregnancy intrauterine when the hCG is > 1500
–> Rise of < 63% after 48hrs- maybe ectopic - close review
–> A fall of more than 50% - likely miscarriage - urine pregnancy test should be carried out in 2 weeks to confirm complete miscarriage

260
Q

What is the management of an ectopic pregnancy?

A

–> All ectopics need to be terminated
–> Expectant - awaiting natural termination
–> medical management - methotrexate
–> surgical management - salpingectomy/salpingotomy

261
Q

What is the criteria for expectant management in ectopic pregnancies?

A

Follow-up needs to be possible to ensure successful termination
The ectopic needs to be unruptured
Adnexal mass < 35mm
No visible heartbeat
No significant pain
HCG level < 1500 IU / l

262
Q

What is the criteria for medical management of ectopic pregnancy - methotrexate?

A

Follow-up needs to be possible to ensure successful termination
The ectopic needs to be unruptured
Adnexal mass < 35mm
No visible heartbeat
No significant pain
HCG level < 5000 IU / l
confirmed absence of intrauterine pregnancy on USS

263
Q

How does medical management with methotrexate of ectopic pregnancy work and side effects?

A

–.> highly teratogenic (harmful to pregnancy). It is given as an intramuscular injection into a buttock. This halts the progress of the pregnancy and results in spontaneous termination.

Women treated with methotrexate are advised not to get pregnant for 3 months following treatment. This is because the harmful effects of methotrexate on pregnancy can last this long.

Common side effects of methotrexate include:
Vaginal bleeding
Nausea and vomiting
Abdominal pain
Stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth)

264
Q

What is the criteria for surgical management of ectopic pregnancies?

A

Pain
Adnexal mass > 35mm
Visible heartbeat
HCG levels > 5000 IU / l

265
Q

What are the surgical management options for an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Laparoscopic salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for ectopic pregnancy. This involves a general anaesthetic and key-hole surgery with removal of the affected fallopian tube, along with the ectopic pregnancy inside the tube.

Laparoscopic salpingotomy may be used in women at increased risk of infertility due to damage to the other tube. The aim is to avoid removing the affected fallopian tube. A cut is made in the fallopian tube, the ectopic pregnancy is removed, and the tube is closed.

There is an increased risk of failure to remove the ectopic pregnancy with salpingotomy compared with salpingectomy. NICE state up to 1 in 5 women having salpingotomy may need further treatment with methotrexate or salpingectomy.

Anti-rhesus D prophylaxis is given to rhesus negative women having surgical management of ectopic pregnancy.

266
Q

What is early miscarriage?

A

before 12 weeks gestation

267
Q

What is late miscarriage?

A

between 12-24 weeks gestation

268
Q

What is a missed miscarriage?

A

the fetus is no longer alive and no symptoms have occurred

269
Q

What is a threatened miscarriage?

A

Vaginal bleeding with closed cervix and foetus still alive

270
Q

What is an inevitable miscarriage?

A

vaginal bleeding with open cervical os

271
Q

What is an incomplete miscarriage?

A

retained products of conception remain in the uterus after miscarriage

272
Q

What is a Complete miscarriage?

A

No products of conception remain in the uterus

273
Q

What is an anembryonic pregnancy?

A

A gestational sac is present but contains no embryo

274
Q

What is the diagnosis of choice when investigating a miscarriage?

A

Transvaginal ultrasound
–> Mean gestational sac diameter
–> Fetal pole and crown-rump length - fetal pole expected when the mean gestational sac diameter is 25mm or more, if no fetal pole at 25mm gestational sac diameter it is repeated after a week to confirm anembryonic pregnancy
–> Fetal heartbeat - expected when the crown-rump length is 7mm or more. if heartbeat the pregnancy is considered to be viable / when there is a crown-rump length of 7mm or more with no heartbeat the scan is repeated in a week’s time to confirm a non-viable pregnancy

275
Q

What is the general management of miscarriage?

A

< 6 weeks gestation - presenting with bleeding - expectant providign no pain or other complications such as previous ectopic pregnancy - awaiting miscarriage without investigations or treatment - too small to see on USS. Repeat urine pregnanacy test performed after 7-10 days, if negative a miscarriage can be confirmed. if bleeding continues then further investigations

> 6 weeks
Expectant management (do nothing and await a spontaneous miscarriage)
Medical management (misoprostol)
Surgical management

276
Q

What is expectant management of miscarriage?

A

Expectant management is offered first-line for women without risk factors for heavy bleeding or infection. 1 – 2 weeks are given to allow the miscarriage to occur spontaneously. A repeat urine pregnancy test should be performed three weeks after bleeding and pain settle to confirm the miscarriage is complete.

Persistent or worsening bleeding requires further assessment and repeat ultrasound, as this may indicate an incomplete miscarriage and require additional management.

277
Q

What is the medical management of miscarriage?

A

Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analogue, meaning it binds to prostaglandin receptors and activates them. Prostaglandins soften the cervix and stimulate uterine contractions.

Medical management of miscarriage involves using a dose of misoprostol to expedite the process of miscarriage. This can be as a vaginal suppository or an oral dose.

The key side effects of misoprostol are:

Heavier bleeding
Pain
Vomiting
Diarrhoea

278
Q

What is the surgical management of miscarriage?

A

misoprostol - prostaglandin can be given prior to surgery to soften the cervix
Manual vacuum aspiration under local anesthetic as an outpatient
Electric vacuum aspiration under general anaesthetic
Anti-rhesus D prophylaxis is given to rhesus-negative women having surgical management of miscarriage.

279
Q

What is the risk with retained products of conception in incomplete miscarriage?

A

infection

280
Q

What are the two options for treatment for an incomplete miscarriage?

A

Medical management (misoprostol)
Surgical management (evacuation of retained products of conception) - curettage involved - key complication is endometritis - infection of endometrium

281
Q

What is the legal framework for termination of pregnancy?

A

1967 abortion act

282
Q

What is the latest gestational limit for TOP?

A

24 weeks - 1990 Human fertilisation and embryology act

283
Q

What are the criteria for TOP before 24 weeks?

A

–> greater risk to the physical and mental health of the women AND/OR existing children of the family

284
Q

When can an abortion occur any time during a pregnanacy?

A

–> Continuing the pregnancy is likely to risk the life of the woman
–> Terminating the pregnancy will prevent “grave permanent injury” to the physical or mental health of the woman
–> There is a “substantial risk” that the child would suffer physical or mental abnormalities making it seriously handicapped

285
Q

What are the legal requirements for abortion?

A

Two registered medical practitioners must sign to agree abortion is indicated
It must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or approved premise

286
Q

How is a medical abortion carried out?

A

A medical abortion is most appropriate earlier in pregnancy but can be used at any gestation. It involves two treatments:

Mifepristone (anti-progestogen)
Misoprostol (prostaglandin analogue) 1 – 2 day later

Rheusus negative women with gestational age of 10 weeks or above having a medical TOP should have anti-D prophylaxis

287
Q

How is a surgical abortion carried out?

A

Prior to surgical abortion, medications are used for cervical priming. This involves softening and dilating the cervix with misoprostol, mifepristone, or osmotic dilators. Osmotic dilators are devices inserted into the cervix, that gradually expand as they absorb fluid, opening the cervical canal.

There are two options for surgical abortion:

–> Cervical dilatation and suction of the contents of the uterus (usually up to 14 weeks)
–> Cervical dilatation and evacuation using forceps (between 14 and 24 weeks)

Rhesus-negative women having a surgical TOP should have anti-D prophylaxis. The NICE guidelines say it should be considered in women less than 10 weeks gestation.

288
Q

What is the post TOP care?

A

–> bleeding and abdominal cramps may continue for 2 weeks
–> Urine pregnancy test is performed 3 weeks after the abortion

289
Q

What are the complications of TOP?

A

Bleeding
Pain
Infection
Failure of the abortion (pregnancy continues)
Damage to the cervix, uterus or other structures

290
Q

What is multiple pregnancy?

A

Pregnancy of more than one fetus
incidence has increased with the use of fertility treatments

291
Q

What is monozygotic - multiple pregnancy?

A

Identical twins from a single zygote

292
Q

What is dizygotic - multiple pregnancy?

A

non identical twins - from two different zygotes

293
Q

What is monoamniotic - multiple pregnancy?

A

single amniotic sac

294
Q

What is diamniotic - multiple pregnancy?

A

two separate amniotic sacs

295
Q

What is monochorionic - multiple pregnancy?

A

share a single placenta

296
Q

What is dichorionic - multiple pregnancy?

A

two separate placentas

297
Q

which multiple pregnancy type has the best outcome?

A

The best outcomes are with diamniotic, dichorionic twin pregnancies, as each fetus has their own nutrient supply.

298
Q

How are multiple pregnancies diagnosed?

A

Multiple pregnancy is usually diagnosed on the booking ultrasound scan. Ultrasound is also used to determine the:

Gestational age
Number of placentas (chorionicity) and amniotic sacs (amnionic)
Risk of Down’s syndrome (as part of the combined test)
When determining the type of twins using an ultrasound scan:

Dichorionic diamniotic twins have a membrane between the twins, with a lambda sign or twin peak sign
Monochorionic diamniotic twins have a membrane between the twins, with a T sign
Monochorionic monoamniotic twins have no membrane separating the twins

299
Q

What are the risks to the mother in multiple pregnancy?

A

–> Anaemia
–> Polyhydramnios
–> Hypertension
–> Malpresentation
–> Spontaneous preterm birth
–> Instrumental delivery or caesarean
–> Postpartum haemorrhage

300
Q

What are the risks to the fetuses or the neonates in multiple pregnancies?

A

–> Miscarriage
–> Stillbirth
–> Fetal growth restriction
–> Prematurity
–> Twin-twin transfusion syndrome
–> Twin anaemia polycythemia sequence
–> Congenital abnormalities

301
Q

What is twin-twin transfusion syndrome?

A

Twin-twin transfusion syndrome occurs when the fetuses share a placenta. It is called feto-fetal transfusion syndrome in pregnancies with more than two fetuses.

When there is a connection between the blood supplies of the two fetuses, one fetus (the recipient) may receive the majority of the blood from the placenta, while the other fetus (the donor) is starved of blood.
–> The recipient gets the majority of the blood, and can become fluid overloaded, with heart failure and polyhydramnios.
–> The donor has growth restriction, anemia and oligohydramnios. There will be a discrepancy between the size of the fetuses.

Women with twin-twin transfusion syndrome need to be referred to a tertiary specialist fetal medicine centre. In severe cases, laser treatment may be used to destroy the connection between the two blood supplies.

302
Q

What is twin anaemia polycythemia sequence

A

Twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence is similar to twin-twin transfusion syndrome, but less acute. One twin becomes anaemic whilst the other develops polycythaemia (raised haemoglobin).

303
Q

What is the antenatal care requirements for multiple pregnanacies

A

The NICE guidelines (2019) on multiple pregnancy advise about additional management for multiple pregnancies. A specialist multiple pregnancy obstetric team manages women with a multiple pregnancy.

Women with multiple pregnancies require additional monitoring for anaemia, with a full blood count at:

Booking clinic
20 weeks gestation
28 weeks gestation

Additional ultrasound scans are required in multiple pregnancy to monitor for fetal growth restriction, unequal growth and twin-twin transfusion syndrome:

2 weekly scans from 16 weeks for monochorionic twins
4 weekly scans from 20 weeks for dichorionic twins

Planned birth is offered between:

32 and 33 + 6 weeks for uncomplicated monochorionic monoamniotic twins
36 and 36 + 6 weeks for uncomplicated monochorionic diamniotic twins
37 and 37 + 6 weeks for uncomplicated dichorionic diamniotic twins
Before 35 + 6 weeks for triplets

Waiting beyond these dates is associated with an increased risk of fetal death. The timing of birth when there are complications is assessed on an individual basis. Corticosteroids are given before delivery to help mature the lungs.

304
Q

When do monoamniotic twins require elective C-section?

A

between 32 and 33+6 weeks

305
Q

When do diamniotic twins require elective C-section?

A

between 37 and 37+6 weeks

306
Q

What are the different delivery options for twins?

A

–> Vaginal delivery is possible when the first baby has a cephalic presentation (head first)
–> Caesarean section may be required for the second baby after the successful birth of the first baby
–> Elective cesarean is advised when the presenting twin is not cephalic presentation

307
Q

What is the cause of gestational diabetes?

A

reduced insulin sensitivity during pregnancy and resolves after birth

308
Q

what is th emost immediate complication of gestational diabetes?

A

–> large for dates fetus
–> macrosomia
–> Risk at birth for shoulder dystocia
–> Longer-term women more likely to develop Type 2 diabetes after pregnancy

309
Q

What should be done for women with risk factors for gestational diabetes and for women who have had previous gestational diabetes?

A

–> risk factors - OGTT at 24-28 weeks gestation
–> previous gestational diabetes - have OGTT soon after the booking clinic

310
Q

What are the risk factors for gestational diabetes?

A

Previous gestational diabetes
Previous macrosomic baby (≥ 4.5kg)
BMI > 30
Ethnic origin (black Caribbean, Middle Eastern and South Asian)
Family history of diabetes (first-degree relative)

311
Q

What is the screening test of choice for gestational diabetes?

A

OGTT

312
Q

What features suggest gestational diabetes before OGTT?

A

–> large for date fetus
–> polyhydramnios - increased amniotic fluid
–> glucose on urine dipstick

313
Q

How does an OGTT work and what are the normal results?

A

An OGTT should be performed in the morning after a fast (they can drink plain water). The patient drinks a 75g glucose drink at the start of the test. The blood sugar level is measured before the sugar drink (fasting) and then at 2 hours.

Normal results are:

Fasting: < 5.6 mmol/l
At 2 hours: < 7.8 mmol/l
Results higher than these values are used to diagnose gestational diabetes

314
Q

What is the management of gestational diabetes?

A

They need four weekly ultrasound scans to monitor the fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume from 28 to 36 weeks gestation.

The initial management suggested by the NICE guidelines (2015) is:

–> Fasting glucose less than 7 mmol/l: trial of diet and exercise for 1-2 weeks, followed by metformin, then insulin
–> Fasting glucose above 7 mmol/l: start insulin ± metformin
–> Fasting glucose above 6 mmol/l plus macrosomia (or other complications): start insulin ± metformin

Glibenclamide (a sulfonylurea) is suggested as an option for women who decline insulin or cannot tolerate metformin.

Women need to monitor their blood sugar levels several times a day. The NICE (2015) target levels are:

Fasting: 5.3 mmol/l
1 hour post-meal: 7.8 mmol/l
2 hours post-meal: 6.4 mmol/l
Avoiding levels of 4 mmol/l or below

315
Q

Women with pre-existing diabetes should take how much folic acid and for how long?

A

5mg folic acid from preconception until 12 weeks of gestation

316
Q

What medication changes are required for pregnant women with pre-existing type 2 diabetes?

A

Metformin and insulin only
all other diabetic medication stopped

317
Q

Which screening should be carried out shortly after booking and at 28 weeks gestation for women with pre existing diabetes?

A

–> retinopathy screening

318
Q

What is the time frame that NICE advises for planned delivery in women with preexisting diabetes?

A

37 and 38 + 6 weeks for women with pre-existing diabetes. (Women with gestational diabetes can give birth up to 40 + 6).

319
Q

What are babies of mothers with diabetes at risk of?

A

–> Neonatal hypoglycaemia
–> Polycythaemia (raised haemoglobin)
–> Jaundice (raised bilirubin)
–> Congenital heart disease
–> Cardiomyopathy
–> macrosomia

320
Q

What is pre-eclampsia?

A

new high blood pressure in pregnancy with end-organ dysfunction, notably with proteinuria

321
Q

When does pre-eclampsia occur?

A

–> After 20 weeks gestation

322
Q

Why does pre-eclampsia occur?

A

When the spiral arteries of the placenta form abnormally leading to high vascular resistance in these vessels

323
Q

Without treatment what can pre-eclampsia cause?

A

–> maternal and fetal mortality
–> maternal organ damage
–> fetal growth restriction
–> seizures - eclampsia
–> early labour

324
Q

What are the features of pre-eclampsia?

A

–> triad of: Hypertension/ proteinuria/ oedema

325
Q

What is chronic hypertension?

A

Chronic hypertension is high blood pressure that exists before 20 weeks gestation and is longstanding. This is not caused by dysfunction in the placenta and is not classed as pre-eclampsia.

326
Q

What is pregnancy-induced hypertension or gestational hypertension?

A

–> Hypertension occurring after 20 weeks without proteinuria

327
Q

What is the pathophysiology of pre-eclampsia?

A

When the blastocyst implants on the endometrium, the outermost layer, called the syncytiotrophoblast, grows into the endometrium. It forms finger-like projections called chorionic villi. The chorionic villi contain fetal blood vessels.

Trophoblast invasion of the endometrium sends signals to the spiral arteries in that area of the endometrium, reducing their vascular resistance and making them more fragile. The blood flow to these arteries increases, and eventually, they break down, leaving pools of blood called lacunae (lakes). Maternal blood flows from the uterine arteries, into these lacunae, and back out through the uterine veins. Lacunae form at around 20 weeks gestation.

When the process of forming lacunae is inadequate, the woman can develop pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia is caused by high vascular resistance in the spiral arteries and poor perfusion of the placenta. This causes oxidative stress in the placenta, and the release of inflammatory chemicals into the systemic circulation, leading to systemic inflammation and impaired endothelial function in the blood vessels.

328
Q

What are the risk factors for pre-eclampsia?

A

High-risk factors are:

Pre-existing hypertension
Previous hypertension in pregnancy
Existing autoimmune conditions (e.g. systemic lupus erythematosus)
Diabetes
Chronic kidney disease

Moderate-risk factors are:

Older than 40
BMI > 35
More than 10 years since previous pregnancy
Multiple pregnancies
First pregnancy
Family history of pre-eclampsia

329
Q

What are the symptoms of pre-eclampsia?

A

Headache
Visual disturbance or blurriness
Nausea and vomiting
Upper abdominal or epigastric pain (this is due to liver swelling)
Oedema
Reduced urine output
Brisk reflexes

330
Q

What are women offered from 12 weeks gestation until birth if they have one high-risk factor or more than one moderate-risk factors?

A

Aspirin

331
Q

How can the diagnosis of pre-eclampsia be made?

A

–> Systolic blood pressure above 140 mmHg/ Diastolic blood pressure above 90 mmHg

PLUS any of:
–> Proteinuria (1+ or more on urine dipstick)
–> Organ dysfunction (e.g. raised creatinine, elevated liver enzymes, seizures, thrombocytopenia or haemolytic anaemia)
–> Placental dysfunction (e.g. fetal growth restriction or abnormal Doppler studies)

Proteinuria can be quantified using:
Urine protein:creatinine ratio (above 30mg/mmol is significant)
Urine albumin:creatinine ratio (above 8mg/mmol is significant)

The NICE guidelines (2019) recommend the use of placental growth factor (PlGF) testing on one occasion during pregnancy in women suspected of having pre-eclampsia. Placental growth factor is a protein released by the placenta that functions to stimulate the development of new blood vessels. In pre-eclampsia, the levels of PlGF are low. NICE recommends using PlGF between 20 and 35 weeks gestation to rule-out pre-eclampsia.

332
Q

How is pre-eclampsia and gestational hypertension monitored?

A

All pregnant women are routinely monitored at every antenatal appointment for evidence of pre-eclampsia, with:

Blood pressure
Symptoms
Urine dipstick for proteinuria

Gestational hypertension (without proteinuria):

Urine dipstick testing at least weekly
Monitoring of blood tests weekly (full blood count, liver enzymes and renal profile)
Monitoring fetal growth by serial growth scans
PlGF testing on one occasion

Aim for a blood pressure below 135/85 mmHg
Admit women with a blood pressure above 160/110 mmHg

Preeclampsia is diagnosed, the general management is similar to gestational hypertension, except:

Scoring systems are used to determine whether to admit the woman (fullPIERS or PREP‑S)
Blood pressure is monitored at least every 48 hours
Urine dipstick testing is not routinely necessary (the diagnosis is already made)
Ultrasound monitoring of the fetus, amniotic fluid and dopplers is performed two weekly

333
Q

What is the management of pre-eclampsia and gestational hyepertension?

A

Prophylaxis: Aspirin (from 12wks) - for women with 1 high risk factor or 2+ moderate

Medical management of pre-eclampsia is with:

1st line: Labetalol
2nd line Nifedipine (modified-release) - asthmatics!
3rd line: Methyldopa (needs to be stopped within two days of birth)

Severe pre-eclampsia or eclampsia:
IV hydralazine
IV magnesium sulphate is given during labour and in the 24 hours afterwards to prevent seizures
Fluid restriction is used during labour in severe pre-eclampsia or eclampsia, to avoid fluid overload

Planned early birth may be necessary if the blood pressure cannot be controlled or complications occur. Corticosteroids should be given to women having a premature birth to help mature the fetal lungs.

334
Q

What is the post-delivery management of pre-eclampsia?

A

Blood pressure is monitored closely after delivery. Blood pressure will return to normal over time once the placenta is removed.

For medical treatment, NICE recommend after delivery switching to one or a combination of:

Enalapril (first-line)
Nifedipine or amlodipine (first-line in black African or Caribbean patients)
Labetolol or atenolol (third-line)

335
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

Eclampsia refers to the seizures associated with pre-eclampsia.

336
Q

What can be given to eclampsia patients to manage seizures?

A

IV magnesium sulphate

337
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

HELLP syndrome is a combination of features that occurs as a complication of pre-eclampsia and eclampsia. It is an acronym for the key characteristics:

Haemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low Platelets

338
Q

When are women screened for anemia?

A

–> Booking clinic
–> 28 weeks gestation

339
Q

During pregnancy why might there be a reduction in hemoglobin reduction?

A

Plasma volume increases

340
Q

Why is it important to optimise the treatment of anaemia during pregnancy?

A

so that the women has reasonable reserves in cases of significant loss during delivery

341
Q

What is the presentation of anaemia in pregnanacy

A

often asymptomatic
SOB
Fatigue
Dizziness
Pallor

342
Q

What is the normal haemoglobin range at booking appointment?

A

> 100g/L

343
Q

What is the normal haemoglobin range at 28 weeks gestation?

A

> 105g/L

344
Q

What is the normal haemoglobin range post partum?

A

> 110g/L

345
Q

When should haemoglobin be checked in pregnancy?

A

Booking appointment
28 weeks gestation
postpartum

346
Q

How can the MCV indicate the cause of anaemia?

A

Low MCV may indicate iron deficiency
Normal MCV may indicate physiological anaemia due to the increased plasma volume of pregnancy
Raised MCV may indicate B12 or folate deficiency

347
Q

Which screening are women also offered at booking appointments which could cause anaemia?

A

haemoglobinopathy screening at the booking clinic for thalassaemia (all women) and sickle cell disease (women at higher risk). Both are causes of significant anaemia in pregnancy.

348
Q

What is the management of anaemia in pregnancy?

A

Iron

Women with anaemia in pregnancy are started on iron replacement (e.g. ferrous sulphate 200mg three times daily). When women are not anaemic, but have a low ferritin (indicating low iron stores), they may be started on supplementary iron.

B12

The increased plasma volume and B12 requirements often result in a low B12 in pregnancy. Women with low B12 should be tested for pernicious anaemia (checking for intrinsic factor antibodies).

Advice should be sought from a haematologist regarding further investigations and treatment of low B12 in pregnancy. Treatment options for low B12 are:

Intramuscular hydroxocobalamin injections
Oral cyanocobalamin tablets

Folate

All women should already be taking folic acid 400mcg per day. Women with folate deficiency are started on folic acid 5mg daily.

Thalassaemia and Sickle Cell Anaemia

Women with a haemoglobinopathy will be managed jointly with a specialist haematologist. They require high dose folic acid (5mg), close monitoring and transfusions when required.

349
Q

Why are VTE’s common in pregnancy?

A

–> Stagnation of blood
–> hyper-coagulable state
are common in preg

350
Q

What are the risk factors for VTE in pregnancy?

A

–>Smoking
–> Parity ≥ 3
–> Age > 35 years
–> BMI > 30
–> Reduced mobility
–> Multiple pregnancies
–> Pre-eclampsia
–>Gross varicose veins
–> Immobility
–> Family history of VTE
–> Thrombophilia
–> IVF pregnancy

351
Q

what do guidelines advise about starting VTE prophylaxis from in pregnancies?

A

–> 28 weeks if there are three risk factors
–> First trimester if there are four or more of these risk factors

352
Q

In which scenarios is prophylaxis of VTE’s considered even in the absence of other risk factors?

A

–> Hospital admission
–> Surgical procedures
–> Previous VTE
–> Medical conditions such as cancer or arthritis
–> High-risk thrombophilias
–> Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

353
Q

What can be given for VTE prophylaxis?

A

–> Low molecular weight heparin (enoxaparin/dalteparin/tinzaparin)
–> started ASAP for very high-risk patients and at 28 weeks for high-risk
–> continued throughout the antenatal period and for six weeks postnatally
–> Prophylaxis temporarily stopped during labour and can be started immediately after delivery only if there is no PPH, spinal anesthesia and epidurals
–> Mechanical prophylaxis may be considered in women with contraindications to LMWH. Intermittent pneumatic compression - inflates and deflates to massage legs and anti-embolic compression stockings

354
Q

What is the presentation of DVT in pregnancy?

A

Calf or leg swelling - unilateral - more than 3cm difference between calves is sig
Dilated superficial veins
Tenderness to the calf (particularly over the deep veins)
Oedema
Colour changes to the leg

355
Q

What is the presentation of PE in pregnancy?

A

–> Shortness of breath
–> Cough with or without blood (haemoptysis)
–> Pleuritic chest pain
–> Hypoxia
–> Tachycardia (this can be difficult to distinguish from the normal physiological changes in pregnancy)
–> Raised respiratory rate
–> Low-grade fever
–> Hemodynamic instability causing hypotension

356
Q

What are the investigations for DVT in pregnancy?

A

–> LMWH started immediatley
–> Doppler ultrasound - repeat on days 3 and 7 in patients with high suspicion
–> CXR
–> ECG
–> Definitive diagnosis through CTPA ( slight increase in breast cancer) or VQ scan (childhood cancers)

357
Q

Why can’t the wells score be used in pregnancy - DVT

A

D-dimers are not helpful in pregnant patients, as pregnancy is a cause of a raised D-dimer.

358
Q

What is the management of pregnant women with a massive PE and hemodynamic compromise?

A

Unfractionated heparin
Thrombolysis
Surgical embolectomy

359
Q

What can group B streptococcus cause in neonates?

A

Early onset infection - sepsis

360
Q

How is group B strep passed onto the neonate from the mother

A

–> Common bacteria found in the vagina and bowel flora
–> Women act as carriers
–> Infants may be exposed to GBS during labour

361
Q

What are the risk factors for GBS infection?

A

–> prematurity
–> Prolonged rupture of the membranes
–> Previous sibling GBS infection
–> Maternal pyrexia e.g. secondary to chorioamnionitis

362
Q

What is the management of GBS?

A

–> Women who’ve had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) OR testing in late pregnancy and then antibiotics if still positive

–> if women are to have swabs for GBS this should be offered at 35-37 weeks or 3-5 weeks prior to the anticipated delivery date

Offer IAP to women with:
–> A previous baby with early- or late-onset GBS disease
–> Preterm labour regardless of GBS status
–> Pyrexia during labour (>38ºC)

Benzylpenicillin is used for GBS prophylaxis

363
Q

What is bacterial vaginosis?

A

Overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria in the vagina

364
Q

What is bacterial vaginosis caused by?

A

Loss of lactobacilli - friendly bacteria in the vagina

365
Q

What can bacterial vaginosis increase the risk of?

A

STI’s

366
Q

Explain why bacterial vaginosis arises when there is a loss of lactobacilli?

A

–> lactobacilli main component of healthy vaginal flora
–> these bacteria produce lactic acid that keeps the vaginal pH low under 4.5
–> acidic environment prevents other bacteria from overgrowing
–> More alkaline condtions enables anaerboic bacteria to multiply

367
Q

Give examples of anaerobic bacteria that is associated with Bacterial vaginosis.

A

–> Gardnerella vaginalis (most common)
–> Mycoplasma hominis
–> Prevotella species

It is worth remembering that bacterial vaginosis can occur alongside other infections, including candidiasis, chlamydia and gonorrhoea.

368
Q

What are the risk factors for bacterial vaginosis?

A

–> Multiple sexual partners (although it is not sexually transmitted)
–> Excessive vaginal cleaning (douching, use of cleaning products and vaginal washes)
–> Recent antibiotics
–> Smoking
–> Copper coil

Bacterial vaginosis occurs less frequently in women taking the combined pill or using condoms effectively.

369
Q

What is the presentation of bacterial vaginosis

A

–> fishy-smelling pudda
–> Watery grey or white vaginal discharge
–> NOT associated with itching, irritation and pain

370
Q

What are the investigations for bacterial vaginosis?

A

–> Swab and pH paper - normal vaginal pH is 3.5-4.5 and BV occurs with a pH over 4.5
–> vaginal swab - microscopy - can be high vaginal during speculum or self taken low vaginal - will show clue cells

371
Q

What is the management of BV?

A

–> metronidazole - targets anaerobic bacteria - oral or vaginal gel
–> clindamycin alternative
–> assess the risk of additional pelvic infections

372
Q

When prescribing metronidazole what should the patients be advised not to drink and why?

A

Alcohol and metronidazole can cause a “disulfiram-like reaction”, with nausea and vomiting, flushing and sometimes severe symptoms of shock and angioedema.

373
Q

What are the complications of BV?

A

–> increase the risk of catching sexually transmitted infections, including chlamydia, gonorrhoea and HIV.
DURING PREGNANCY
–> Miscarriage
–> Preterm delivery
–> Premature rupture of membranes
–> Chorioamnionitis
–> Low birth weight
–> Postpartum endometritis

374
Q

what is endometritis?

A

Inflammation of the endometrium - usually by an infection

375
Q

Why can endometritis occur in the post partum period?

A

–> infection introduced during or after labour and delivery
–> delivery opens the uterus to allow bacteria from the vagina to travel up and infect the endometrium

376
Q

Does endometritis occur more after vaginal births or caesarian section?

A

–> Caesarian section
–> prophylactic abx given during caesarian section to reduce the risk

377
Q

What is endometritis caused by?

A

–> gram-negative, gram-positive and anaerobic bacteria.
–> sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia and gonorrhoea.

378
Q

When endometritis occurs unrelated to pregnancy what is it usually classed as?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

379
Q

What is the presentation of endometritis?

A

–> Foul-smelling discharge or lochia
–> Bleeding that gets heavier or does not improve with time
–> Lower abdominal or pelvic pain
–> Fever
–> Sepsis

380
Q

What are the investigations for endometritis?

A

–> Vaginal swabs (including chlamydia and gonorrhea if there are risk factors)
–> Urine culture and sensitivities
–> USS may be used to rule out retained products of conception

381
Q

What is the management of endometritis?

A

Septic patients will require hospital admission and the septic six, including blood cultures and broad-spectrum IV antibiotics A combination of clindamycin and gentamicin is often recommended. Blood tests will show signs of infection (e.g. raised WBC and CRP).

Patients presenting with milder symptoms and no signs of sepsis may be treated in the community with oral antibiotics. A typical choice of broad-spectrum oral antibiotic might be co-amoxiclav, depending on the risk of chlamydia and gonorrhoea.

382
Q

What does a lower UTI involve?

A

Infection of the bladder - cystitis

383
Q

What does an upper urinary tract infection involve?

A

infection up to the kidneys, called pyelonephritis.

384
Q

Are pregnant women at higher risk of UTI’s

A

YES

385
Q

What do UTI’s increase the risk of in pregnancy?

A

–> pre-term delivery
–> other adverse pregnancy outcomes

386
Q

pregnant women with asymptomatic bacterunia are at higher risk of developing…

A

LUTI and pyelonephritis - high risk of pre term birth

387
Q

When are women tested for asymptomatic bacteriuria?

A

–> At booking and routinely throughout pregnancy
MC&S

Testing for bacteria in the urine of asymptomatic patients is not recommended as it may lead to unnecessary antibiotics. Pregnant women are an exception to this rule, due to the adverse outcomes associated with infection.

388
Q

What is the presentation of LUTI?

A

–> Dysuria (pain, stinging or burning when passing urine)
–> Suprapubic pain or discomfort
–> Increased frequency of urination
–> Urgency
–> Incontinence
–> Haematuria

389
Q

What is the presentation of pyelonephritis?

A

Fever (more prominent than in lower urinary tract infections)
Loin, suprapubic or back pain (this may be bilateral or unilateral)
Looking and feeling generally unwell
Vomiting
Loss of appetite
Haematuria
Renal angle tenderness on examination

390
Q

What are the causes of urinary tract infection?

A

Gram-negative rod shaped - E.Coli
Klebsiella Pneumoniae

391
Q

What is the management of UTI’s in pregnancy?

A

Urinary tract infection in pregnancy requires 7 days of antibiotics.

The antibiotic options are:

Nitrofurantoin (avoid in the third trimester)
Amoxicillin (only after sensitivities are known)
Cefalexin

392
Q

When does nitrofurantoin need to be avoided in pregnancy and why?

A

Nitrofurantoin needs to be avoided in the third trimester as there is a risk of neonatal haemolysis (destruction of the neonatal red blood cells).

393
Q

When does Trimethoprim need to be avoided in pregnancy and why?

A

First trimester
Folate antagonist - can cause neural tube defects such as spina bifida - generally avoided

394
Q

Why is Chickenpox dangerous in pregnancy?

A

–> can lead to varicella pneumonitis, hepatitis or encephalitis
–> fetal varicella syndrome
–> severe neonatal varicella infection if mum is infected around delivery

395
Q

What can be tested if mothers are unsure sbout previous chickenpox immunity?

A

–> Varicella IgG levels for VZV can be tested.
–> Positive for IgG for VZV indicated immunity

396
Q

Women that are not immune to varicella may be offered what?

A

Varicella vaccine before or after pregnancy

397
Q

Is any treatment required for Exposure to chickenpox in pregnancy if the woman has had chickenpox before?

A

NO

398
Q

If a pregnant woman is unsure about Varicella immunity status then what needs to be done?

A

VZV IgG levels

399
Q

If a pregnant women is not immune to varicella then what needs to be done?

A

–> IV varicella immunoglobulins as prophylaxis against developing chickenpox.
–> This should be given within 10 days of exposure.

400
Q

If a Chickenpox rash starts in pregnancy then what needs to be done?

A

Oral aciclovir if they present within 24 hours and after 20 weeks gestation

401
Q

What is congenital varicella syndrome?

A

When VZV infection during the first 28 weeks of gestation
Occurs in 1% of pregnancies with VZV infection.

402
Q

What are the typical features of Congenital varicella syndrome?

A

–> Fetal growth restriction
–> Microcephaly, hydrocephalus and learning disability
–> Scars and significant skin changes following the dermatomes
–> Limb hypoplasia (underdeveloped limbs)
–> Cataracts, inflammation in the eye (chorioretinitis) and micropthalmia

403
Q

What is oligohydramnios?

A

Reduced amniotic fluid - less than 500ml at 32-36 weeks gestation

404
Q

What are the causes of oligohydramnios?

A

–> premature rupture of membranes
Potter sequence–> bilateral renal agenesis + pulmonary hypoplasia
–> intrauterine growth restriction
–> post-term gestation
–> pre-eclampsia
–> maternal medications - ACE inhibitors/NSAIDs

405
Q

What is polyhydramnios?

A

Excess amniotic fluid for gestational age
–> can affect fetal development

406
Q

What are the risk factors for polyhydramnios?

A

Diabetes - chronic or gestational

407
Q

What is uterine rupture?

A

Complication of labour when the muscle layer of the uterus myometrium ruptures

408
Q

What is an incomplete uterine rupture (uterine dehiscence)?

A

The uterine serosa (Perimetrium) surrounding the uterus remains intact

409
Q

What happens in a complete uterine rupture

A

Serosa ruptures along with the myometrium and the contents of the uterus are released into the peritoneal cavity

410
Q

What are the complications of Uterine rupture?

A

–> Haemorrhage significant
–> Baby may be released from the uterus into the peritoneal cavity
–> high morbidity and mortality for the baby and the mother

411
Q

What are the risk factors for uterine ruptures?

A

The main risk factor for uterine rupture is a previous caesarean section. The scar on the uterus becomes a point of weakness, and may rupture with excessive pressure (e.g. excessive stimulation by oxytocin). It is extremely rare for uterine rupture to occur in a patient that is giving birth for the first time.

The risk factors to consider are:

Vaginal birth after caesarean (VBAC)
Previous uterine surgery
Increased BMI
High parity
Increased age
Induction of labour
Use of oxytocin to stimulate contractions

412
Q

What is the presentation of uterine rupture?

A

Uterine rupture presents with an acutely unwell mother and abnormal CTG. It may occur with induction or augmentation of labour, with signs and symptoms of:

Abdominal pain
Vaginal bleeding
Ceasing of uterine contractions
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Collapse

413
Q

What is the management of uterine ruptures?

A

Uterine rupture is an obstetric emergency. Resuscitation and transfusion may be required. Emergency caesarean section is necessary to remove the baby, stop any bleeding and repair or remove the uterus (hysterectomy).

414
Q

What is prematurity defined as?

A

Birth before 37 weeks gestation - the more premature a baby the worse the outcomes

415
Q

When are babies considered non viable?

A

below 23 weeks gestation - Generally from 23 to 24 weeks, resuscitation is not considered that do not show any signs of life.

416
Q

From what gestational age is resuscitation offered?

A

24 weeks

417
Q

What gestational age bracket fits extreme prematurity?

A

Under 28 weeks

418
Q

What prophylaxis can be given for preterm labour?

A

–> vaginal progesterone - gel or pessary - progesterone has a role in maintaining pregnancy and preventing labour by decreasing myometrium activity and preventing cervical remodeling - offered to women with cervical length less than 25mm on TVU and between 16 and 24 weeks gestation

–> Cervical Cerclage - - stick in the cervix to add support and keep it closed - stitch removed when labour starts. offered for women with Cervical length less than 25mm between 16 and 24 weeks gestation who have had previous premature birth or cervical trauma such as colposcopy and cone biopsy

Rescue cervical cerclage may be offered between 16 and 27 +6 weeks when there is cervical dilation without rupture of membranes

419
Q

How can a diagnosis of preterm prelabour rupture of membranes be achieved?

A

Speculum - pooling of amniotic fluid in the vagina
When in doubt can perform insulin-like growth factor-binding protein 1 (IGFBP-1) and placental alpha-microglobin-1 (PAMG-1) - high concentrations in amniotic fluid

420
Q

What is the management of preterm prelabour rupture of membranes?

A

Prophylactic antibiotics should be given to prevent the development of chorioamnionitis. The NICE guidelines (2019) recommend erythromycin 250mg four times daily for ten days, or until labour is established if within ten days.

Induction of labour may be offered from 34 weeks to initiate the onset of labour.

421
Q

What does preterm labour with intact membranes involve?

A

regular painful contraction and cervical dilatation, without rupture of the amniotic sac.

422
Q

How is the diagnosis of preterm labour with intact membranes made?

A

–> Less than 30 weeks gestation, clinical assessment alone is enough to offer management of preterm labour.

–> More than 30 weeks gestation, a transvaginal ultrasound can be used to assess the cervical length. When the cervical length on ultrasound is less than 15mm, management of preterm labour can be offered. A cervical length of more than 15mm indicates preterm labour is unlikely.

Fetal fibronectin is an alternative test to vaginal ultrasound. Fetal fibronectin is the “glue” between the chorion and the uterus, and is found in the vagina during labour. A result of less than 50 ng/ml is considered negative, and indicates that preterm labour is unlikely.

423
Q

What is the management of preterm labour with intact membranes?

A

–> Fetal monitoring (CTG or intermittent auscultation)
–> Tocolysis with nifedipine: nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that suppresses labour
–> Maternal corticosteroids: can be offered before 35 weeks gestation to reduce neonatal morbidity and mortality
–> IV magnesium sulphate: can be given before 34 weeks gestation and helps protect the baby’s brain
–> Delayed cord clamping or cord milking: can increase the circulating blood volume and haemoglobin in the baby at birth

424
Q

What do tocolytic drugs do?

A

Stop uterine contractions

425
Q

What are some examples of tocolytic drugs and how do they work?

A

–> Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is the medication of choice for tocolysis.
–> Atosiban is an oxytocin receptor antagonist that can be used as an alternative when nifedipine is contraindicated.

426
Q

When and why can/is tocolysis be used?

A

Between 24 and 33+6 weeks gestation in pre-term labour to delay delivery and buy time for fetal development

427
Q

Why are antental steroids given in preterm labour?

A

Giving the mother corticosteroids helps to develop the fetal lungs and reduce respiratory distress syndrome after delivery. They are used in women with suspected preterm labour of babies less than 36 weeks gestation.

–> IM dexamethasone two doses 24hrs apart

428
Q

Why is magnesium sulfate given to mothers in premature labour?

A

Giving the mother IV magnesium sulfate helps protect the fetal brain during premature delivery. It reduces the risk and severity of cerebral palsy. Magnesium sulphate is given within 24 hours of delivery of preterm babies of less than 34 weeks gestation. It is given as a bolus, followed by an infusion for up to 24 hours or until birth.

429
Q

What are the key signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity?

A

–> Reduced blood pressure
–> Reduced respiratory rate
–> Absent reflexes

–> Calcium gluconate can be given if there is toxicity

430
Q

What is Spontaneous rupture of membranes (SROM)?

A

The amniotic sac has ruptured spontaneously.

431
Q

What is Prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM) ?

A

The amniotic sac has ruptured before the onset of labour.

432
Q

What is Preterm prelabour rupture of membranes (P‑PROM) ?

A

The amniotic sac has ruptured before the onset of labour and before 37 weeks gestation (preterm).

433
Q

What is Prolonged rupture of membranes (also PROM) ?

A

The amniotic sac ruptures more than 18 hours before delivery.

434
Q

What is cord prolapse?

A

–> when the umbilical cord descends below the presenting part of the foetus and into the vagina through the cervix

435
Q

What is the danger of cord prolapse?

A

–> Fetal hypoxia

436
Q

What is the most significant risk factor for cord prolapse?

A

when the fetus is in an abnormal lie after 37 weeks gestation - this provides space for the cord to prolapse below the presenting part
–> in a cephalic lie the head descends into the pelvis without room for the umbilical cord

437
Q

How is the diagnosis made for cord prolapse?

A

–> Should be suspected when there are signs of fetal distress on the CTG
–> Can be diagnosed with vaginal examination
–> Speculum examination can be used to confirm the diagnosis

438
Q

What is the management of cord prolapse?

A

–> Emergency caesarean section is indicated where cord prolapse occurs. A normal vaginal delivery has a high risk of cord compression and significant hypoxia to the baby. Pushing the cord back in is not recommended. The cord should be kept warm and wet and have minimal handling whilst waiting for delivery (handling causes vasospasm).

–> When the baby is compressing a prolapsed cord, the presenting part can be pushed upwards to prevent it compressing the cord. The woman can lie in the left lateral position (with a pillow under the hip) or the knee-chest position (on all fours), using gravity to draw the fetus away from the pelvis and reduce compression on the cord. Tocolytic medication (e.g. terbutaline) can be used to minimise contractions whilst waiting for delivery by caesarean section.

439
Q

What is an instrumental delivery

A

–> vaginal delivery with assistance by either a ventouse suction cup or forceps to hlep with the delivery of the babies head

440
Q

A single dose of what is recommended after all instrumental deliveries to reduce the risk of maternal infection?

A

Co-amoxiclav

441
Q

What are the indications for performing an instrumental delivery?

A

Failure to progress
Fetal distress
Maternal exhaustation
Control of head in various fetal positions

442
Q

What does an epidural used in place for analgesia increase the risk of during delivery?

A

Instrumental delivery

443
Q

What are the risks to the mother in instrumental delivery?

A

Postpartum haemorrhage
Episiotomy
Perineal tears
Injury to the anal sphincter
Incontinence of the bladder or bowel
Nerve injury (obturator or femoral nerve)

444
Q

What are the key risks to the baby during instrumental delivery?

A

Cephalohaematoma (collection of blood between the skull and periosteum) with ventouse
Facial nerve palsy/ facial bruises with forceps

445
Q

What are the serious risks to the baby during instrumental delivery?

A

Subgleal haemorrhage - most dangerous
Intracranial haemorrhage
Skull fracture
Spinal cord injury

446
Q

Which nerve injuries can occur with instrumental delivery in the mother?

A

The femoral nerve may be compressed against the inguinal canal during a forceps delivery. Injury to this nerve causes weakness of knee extension, loss of the patella reflex and numbness of the anterior thigh and medial lower leg.

The obturator nerve may be compressed by forceps during instrumental delivery or by the fetal head during normal delivery. Injury causes weakness of hip adduction and rotation, and numbness of the medial thigh.

447
Q

Failure to progress in labour is more likley to occur in which women?

A

Labour for the first time

448
Q

Progress in labour is influenced by the three p’s

A

Power (uterine contractions)
Passenger (size, presentation and position of the baby)
Passage (the shape and size of the pelvis and soft tissues)

449
Q

What are the three phases in the first stage of labour?

A

Latent phase – from 0 to 3cm dilation of the cervix. This progresses at around 0.5cm per hour. There are irregular contractions.
Active phase – from 3cm to 7cm dilation of the cervix. This progresses at around 1cm per hour, and there are regular contractions.
Transition phase – from 7cm to 10cm dilation of the cervix. This progresses at around 1cm per hour, and there are strong and regular contractions.

450
Q

Delay in the first stage of labour is considered when…

A

Less than 2cm of cervical dilatation in 4 hours
Slowing of progress in a multiparous women

451
Q

How is the progress of the first stage of labour monitored?

A

Partogram

452
Q

What is recorded on a partogram?

A

–> 1st stage of labour
–> Cervical dilation - measured every 4 hours vaginal examination
–> descent of fetal head - in relation to ischial spines
–> maternal BP, HR, temp and UO
–> fetal heart rate
–> frequency of contractions
–> Status of membranes - presence of liquor - if stained with blood or meconium
–> Drugs and fluid that may have been given

Uterine contractions are measure in contractions per 10 minutes. When the midwife says “she is contracting 2 in 10”, it means she is having 2 uterine contractions in a 10 minute period.

There are two lines on the partogram that indicate when labour may not be progressing adequately. These are labelled “alert” and “action”. The dilation of the cervix is plotted against the duration of labour (time). When it takes too long for the cervix to dilate, the readings will cross to the right of the alert and action lines.

Crossing the alert line is an indication for amniotomy (artificially rupturing the membranes) and a repeat examination in 2 hours. Crossing the action line means care needs to be escalated to obstetric-led care and senior decision-makers for appropriate action.

453
Q

What is the second stage of labour?

A

from 10cm dilation to delivery of baby

454
Q

The success of the second stage depends on which three things?

A

Three p’s
–> Power - strength of uterine contractions - oxytocin infusion can be used to stimulate the uterus
–> Passenger - size (shoulder dystonia) , attitude (posture, back rounded, limbs flexed), lie (longitudinal, transverse, oblique) , presentation (Cephalic, shoulder or breech)
–> Passage - size and shape of passageway, mainly pelvis

455
Q

Delay in the second stage of labour is when the active second stage lasts over…

A

2 hours for nulliparous women
1 hour for multiparous women

456
Q

What are the possible interventions for the second stage of labour?

A

Changing positions
Encouragement
Analgesia
Oxytocin
Episiotomy
Instrumental delivery
Caesarean section

457
Q

What is the third stage of labour?

A

The third stage of labour is from delivery of the baby to delivery of the placenta

458
Q

What is a delay in the third stage of labour defined as?

A

More than 30 minutes with active management (IM oxytocin and controlled cord traction)
More than 60 minutes with physiological management

459
Q

How is failure to progress managed?

A

Amniotomy, also known as artificial rupture of membranes (ARM) for women with intact membranes
Oxytocin infusion - aim for 4-5 contraction every 10mins
Instrumental delivery
Caesarean section

460
Q

A contraction rate of more than 4-5 every 10mins can lead to what?

A

Fetal compromise- no opportunity to recover between contractions

461
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

Placenta Implants deeper through the endometrium - into the myometrium and beyond - spectrum - due to defect in the endometrium - hard for the placenta to separate and can cause PPH

462
Q

What is Superficial placenta accreta?

A

–> placenta implants in the surface of the myometrium, but not beyond

463
Q

What is placenta increta?

A

–> placenta implants deeply in the myometrium

464
Q

What is placenta percreta?

A

–> placenta invades past the myometrium and perimetrium - potentially reaching other organs such as the bladder

465
Q

What are the risk factors for placenta acreta spectrum?

A

Previous placenta accreta
Previous endometrial curettage procedures (e.g. for miscarriage or abortion)
Previous caesarean section
Multigravida
Increased maternal age
Low-lying placenta or placenta praevia

466
Q

What is the presentation of placenta acreta spectrum?

A

Placenta accreta does not typically cause any symptoms during pregnancy. It can present with bleeding (antepartum haemorrhage) in the third trimester.

It may be diagnosed on antenatal ultrasound scans, and particular attention is given to women with a previous placenta accreta or caesarean during scanning.

It may be diagnosed at birth, when it becomes difficult to deliver the placenta. It is a cause of significant postpartum haemorrhage.

467
Q

What is the management of placenta acreta?

A

–> Ideally, placenta accreta is diagnosed antenatally by ultrasound. This allows planning for birth. MRI scans may be used to assess the depth and width of the invasion.

A specialist MDT should manage women with placenta accreta. Patients may require additional management at birth due to the risk of bleeding and difficulty separating the placenta. This may include:

Complex uterine surgery
Blood transfusions
Intensive care for the mother
Neonatal intensive care

Delivery is planned between 35 to 36 + 6 weeks gestation to reduce the risk of spontaneous labour and delivery. Antenatal steroids are given to mature the fetal lungs before delivery.

The options during caesarean are:

Hysterectomy with the placenta remaining in the uterus (recommended)
Uterus preserving surgery, with resection of part of the myometrium along with the placenta
Expectant management, leaving the placenta in place to be reabsorbed over time

Expectant management comes with significant risks, particularly bleeding and infection.

The RCOG guideline (2018) suggests that if placenta accreta is seen when opening the abdomen for an elective caesarean section, the abdomen can be closed and delivery delayed whilst specialist services are put in place. If placenta accreta is discovered after delivery of the baby, a hysterectomy is recommended.

468
Q

What is placenta praevia?

A

placenta attached to the lower portion of the uterus, lower than the presenting part of the fetus

469
Q

What is the definition of a low lying placenta?

A

Placenta within 20mm of the internal cervical os

470
Q

What is the definition of placenta praevia?

A

is used only when the placenta is over the internal cervical os

471
Q

What are the three causes of antepartum haemorrhage?

A

placenta praevia
placental abruption
vasa praevia

472
Q

What are the risks of placenta praevia?

A

Antepartum haemorrhage
Emergency caesarean section
Emergency hysterectomy
Maternal anaemia and transfusions
Preterm birth and low birth weight
Stillbirth

473
Q

What are the risk factors of placenta praevia?

A

Previous caesarean sections
Previous placenta praevia
Older maternal age
Maternal smoking
Structural uterine abnormalities (e.g. fibroids)
Assisted reproduction (e.g. IVF)

474
Q

What is the presentation of placenta praevia?

A

Asymptomatic
painless antepartum haemorrhage
bleeding later in pregnancy around or after 36 weeks

475
Q

How is placental praevia diagnosed?

A

20 week anomaly scan used to assess the position of placenta and diagnosis

476
Q

What is the management of placenta praevia?

A

For women with a low-lying placenta or placenta praevia diagnosed early in pregnancy (e.g. at the 20-week anomaly scan), the RCOG guideline (2018) recommends a repeat transvaginal ultrasound scan at:

32 weeks gestation
36 weeks gestation (if present on the 32-week scan, to guide decisions about delivery)

Corticosteroids are given between 34 and 35 + 6 weeks gestation to mature the fetal lungs, given the risk of preterm delivery.

Planned delivery is considered between 36 and 37 weeks gestation. It is planned early to reduce the risk of spontaneous labour and bleeding. Planned cesarean section is required with placenta praevia and low-lying placenta (<20mm from the internal os).

Depending on the position of the placenta and fetus, different incisions may be made in the skin and uterus, for example, vertical incisions. Ultrasound may be around the time of the procedure to locate the placenta.

Emergency caesarean section may be required with premature labour or antenatal bleeding.

The main complication of placenta praevia is haemorrhage before, during and after delivery. When this occurs, urgent management is required and may involve:

Emergency caesarean section
Blood transfusions
Intrauterine balloon tamponade
Uterine artery occlusion
Emergency hysterectomy

477
Q

What is placental abruption?

A

Placental abruption refers to when the placenta separates from the wall of the uterus during pregnancy. The site of attachment can bleed extensively after the placenta separates. Placental abruption is a significant cause of antepartum haemorrhage.

478
Q

What are the risk factors for placental abruption?

A

ABRUPTION:
A = Abruption previously
B = Blood pressure (i.e. hypertension or pre-eclampsia)
R = Ruptured membranes, either premature or prolonged
U = Uterine injury (trauma)
P = Polyhydramnios
T = Twins or multiple gestation
I = Infection in the uterus, especially chorioamnionitis
O = Older age (over 35 years old)
N = Narcotic use (i.e. cocaine and amphetamines, as well as smoking)

479
Q

What is the presentation of placental abruption?

A

Sudden onset severe abdominal pain that is continuous
Vaginal bleeding (antepartum haemorrhage)
Shock (hypotension and tachycardia)
Abnormalities on the CTG indicating fetal distress
Characteristic “woody” abdomen on palpation, suggesting a large haemorrhage

480
Q

How can the severity of antepartum haemorrhage be graded?

A

Spotting: spots of blood noticed on underwear
Minor haemorrhage: less than 50ml blood loss
Major haemorrhage: 50 – 1000ml blood loss
Massive haemorrhage: more than 1000 ml blood loss, or signs of shock

481
Q

What is a concealed placental abruption?

A

Concealed abruption is where the cervical os remains closed, and any bleeding that occurs remains within the uterine cavity. The severity of bleeding can be significantly underestimated with concealed haemorrhage.

Concealed abruption is opposed to revealed abruption, where the blood loss is observed via the vagina.

482
Q

What is the management of placental abruption?

A

Fetus alive and < 36 weeks
fetal distress: immediate caesarean
no fetal distress: observe closely, steroids, no tocolysis, threshold to deliver depends on gestation

Fetus alive and > 36 weeks
fetal distress: immediate caesarean
no fetal distress: deliver vaginally

Fetus dead
induce vaginal delivery

483
Q

What is vasa praevia?

A

Vasa praevia is a condition where the fetal vessels are within the fetal membranes (chorioamniotic membranes) and travel across the internal cervical os. The fetal membranes surround the amniotic cavity and developing fetus. The fetal vessels consist of the two umbilical arteries and single umbilical vein.

Vessels placed over the internal cervical os before the foetus

484
Q

What is the pathophysiology of vasa praevia?

A

In vasa praevia, the fetal vessels are exposed, outside the protection of the umbilical cord or the placenta. The fetal vessels travel through the chorioamniotic membranes, and pass across the internal cervical os (the inner opening of the cervix). These exposed vessels are prone to bleeding, particularly when the membranes are ruptured during labour and at birth. This can lead to dramatic fetal blood loss and death.

485
Q

What are the two types of vasa praevia?

A

Type I vasa praevia – the fetal vessels are exposed as a velamentous umbilical cord
Type II vasa praevia – the fetal vessels are exposed as they travel to an accessory placental lobe

486
Q

What are the risk factors for vasa praevia?

A

Low lying placenta
IVF pregnancy
Multiple pregnancy

487
Q

What is the presentation of vasa praevia?

A

Vasa praevia may be diagnosed by ultrasound during pregnancy. This is the ideal scenario, as it allows a planned caesarean section to reduce the risk of haemorrhage. However, ultrasound is not reliable, and it is often not possible to diagnose antenatally.

It may present with antepartum haemorrhage, with bleeding during the second or third trimester of pregnancy.

It may be detected by vaginal examination during labour, when pulsating fetal vessels are seen in the membranes through the dilated cervix.

Finally, it may be detected during labour when fetal distress and dark-red bleeding occur following rupture of the membranes. This carries a very high fetal mortality, even with emergency caesarean section.

488
Q

What is the management of vasa praevia?

A

ASYMPTOMATIC
–> corticosteroids - from 32 weeks gestation to mature fetal lungs
–> Elective caesarean - 34-36 weeks gestation
–> antepartum haemorrhage - emergency caesarean section

489
Q

To be classed as postpartum haemorrhage there needs to be a loss of how much blood?

A

–> 500ml after a vaginal delivery
–> 1000ml after a caesarean section

490
Q

What is minor PPH?

A

under 1000mls of blood loss

491
Q

What is major PPH?

A

over 1000mls of blood loss

492
Q

What is severe PPH?

A

over 2000mls of blood loss

493
Q

What is primary PPH?

A

Bleeding within 24hrs of birth

494
Q

What is secondary PPH?

A

from 24hrs to 12 weeks after birth

495
Q

What are the causes of PPH?

A

T – Tone (uterine atony – the most common cause)
T – Trauma (e.g. perineal tear)
T – Tissue (retained placenta)
T – Thrombin (bleeding disorder)

496
Q

What are the risk factors for PPH?

A

–> Previous PPH
–> Multiple pregnancy
–> Obesity
–> Large baby
–> Failure to progress in the second stage of labour
–> Prolonged third stage
–> Pre-eclampsia
–> Placenta accreta
–> Retained placenta
–> Instrumental delivery
–> General anaesthesia
–> Episiotomy or perineal tear

497
Q

What are the preventative measures to reduce risks/consequences of PPH?

A

–> Treating anaemia during the antenatal period
–> Giving birth with an empty bladder (a full bladder reduces uterine contraction)
–> Active management of the third stage (with intramuscular oxytocin in the third stage)
–> Intravenous tranexamic acid can be used during caesarean section (in the third stage) in higher-risk patients

498
Q

What is the genral management of PPH?

A

Resuscitation with an ABCDE approach
Lie the woman flat, keep her warm and communicate with her and the partner
Insert two large-bore cannulas
Bloods for FBC, U&E and clotting screen
Group and cross match 4 units
Warmed IV fluid and blood resuscitation as required
Oxygen (regardless of saturations)
Fresh frozen plasma is used where there are clotting abnormalities or after 4 units of blood transfusion

499
Q

What are the different treatment options for stopping bleeding in PPH?

A

Mechanical
Medical
Surgical

500
Q

What are the mechanical treatment options for PPH?

A

–> Rubbing the uterus through the abdomen to stimulates a uterine contraction (referred to as “rubbing up the fundus”)
–> Catheterisation (bladder distention prevents uterus contractions)

501
Q

What are the medical treatment options for PPH?

A

–> Oxytocin (slow injection followed by continuous infusion)
–> Ergometrine (intravenous or intramuscular) stimulates smooth muscle contraction (contraindicated in hypertension)
–> Carboprost (intramuscular) is a prostaglandin analogue and stimulates uterine contraction (caution in asthma)
–> Misoprostol (sublingual) is also a prostaglandin analogue and stimulates uterine contraction
–> Tranexamic acid (intravenous) is an antifibrinolytic that reduces bleeding

502
Q

What are the surgical treatment options for PPH?

A

–> Intrauterine balloon tamponade – inserting an inflatable balloon into the uterus to press against the bleeding
–> B-Lynch suture – putting a suture around the uterus to compress it
–> Uterine artery ligation – ligation of one or more of the arteries supplying the uterus to reduce the blood flow
–> Hysterectomy is the “last resort” but will stop the bleeding and may save the woman’s life

503
Q

Why might secondary post partum haemorrhage occur?

A

–> retained products of conception
–> infection - endometritis

504
Q

What are the investigations for secondary PPH?

A

Ultrasound - retained products of conception
Endocervical and high vaginal swabs for infection

505
Q

What are the treatment options for secondary PPH?

A

Surgical evaluation of retained products of conception
Antibiotics for infection

506
Q

How can you define small for gestational age?

A

below the 10th centile for their gestational age

507
Q

What are the two measurements on ultrasound used to assess fetal size?

A

–> Estimated fetal weight (EFW)
–> Fetal abdominal circumference (AC)
–> Customised growth charts used to assess the size of the foetus based on the mothers ehtnicity/ weight/height and parity

508
Q

What is severe SGA?

A

under the 3rd centile for gestational age

509
Q

What is the definition of low birht weight?

A

<2500g

510
Q

What are the causes of SGA?

A

–> Constitutionally small, matching the mother and others in the family, and growing appropriately on the growth chart
–> Fetal growth restriction (FGR), also known as intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)

511
Q

What is fetal growth restriction?

A

small fetus (or a fetus that is not growing as expected) due to a pathology reducing the amount of nutrients and oxygen being delivered to the fetus through the placenta.

512
Q

What are the causes of fetal growth restriction?

A

Placenta mediated growth restriction refers to conditions that affect the transfer of nutrients across the placenta:

–> Idiopathic
–> Pre-eclampsia
–> Maternal smoking
–> Maternal alcohol
–> Anaemia
–> Malnutrition
–> Infection
–> Maternal health conditions

Non-placenta medicated growth restriction refers to pathology of the fetus, such as:

–> Genetic abnormalities
–> Structural abnormalities
–> Fetal infection
–> Errors of metabolism

513
Q

What signs would indicate FGR rather than SGA?

A

–> Reduced amniotic fluid volume
–> Abnormal Doppler studies
–> Reduced fetal movements
–> Abnormal CTGs

514
Q

What are the complications for FGR?

A

Short term complications of fetal growth restriction include:

Fetal death or stillbirth
Birth asphyxia
Neonatal hypothermia
Neonatal hypoglycaemia

Growth restricted babies have a long term increased risk of:

Cardiovascular disease, particularly hypertension
Type 2 diabetes
Obesity
Mood and behavioural problems

515
Q

What are the risk factors for SGA?

A

Previous SGA baby
Obesity
Smoking
Diabetes
Existing hypertension
Pre-eclampsia
Older mother (over 35 years)
Multiple pregnancy
Low pregnancy‑associated plasma protein‑A (PAPPA)
Antepartum haemorrhage
Antiphospholipid syndrome

516
Q

What is the management of SGA?

A

The critical management steps are:

Identifying those at risk of SGA
Aspirin is given to those at risk of pre-eclampsia
Treating modifiable risk factors (e.g. stop smoking)
Serial growth scans to monitor growth
Early delivery where growth is static, or there are other concerns

When a fetus is identified as SGA, investigations to identify the underlying cause include:

Blood pressure and urine dipstick for pre-eclampsia
Uterine artery doppler scanning
Detailed fetal anatomy scan by fetal medicine
Karyotyping for chromosomal abnormalities
Testing for infections (e.g. toxoplasmosis, cytomegalovirus, syphilis and malaria)

Early delivery is considered when growth is static on the growth charts, or other problems are identified (e.g. abnormal Doppler results). This reduces the risk of stillbirth. Corticosteroids are given when delivery is planned early, particularly when delivered by caesarean section.

517
Q

What are the features of congenital rubella syndrome?

A

Congenital deafness
Congenital cataracts
Congenital heart disease (PDA and pulmonary stenosis)
Learning disability

518
Q

What are the features of congenital CMV?

A

Low birth weight
Purpuric skin lesions
Sensorineural deafness
Microcephaly
Learning disability
Seizures
Visual impairement

519
Q

Which anaerobic bacteria are responsible for bacterial vaginosis?

A

–> Gardnerella vaginalis (most common)
Mycoplasma hominis
Prevotella species

520
Q

What are the risk factors of bacterial vaginosis?

A

–> Multiple sexual partners (although it is not sexually transmitted)
–> Excessive vaginal cleaning (douching, use of cleaning products and vaginal washes)
–> Recent antibiotics
–> Smoking
–> Copper coil

–> Bacterial vaginosis occurs less frequently in women taking the combined pill or using condoms effectively.

521
Q

What is the presentation of bacterial vaginosis?

A

–> fishy smelling watery grey or white discharge

522
Q

What are the investigations for Bacterial vaginosis?

A

–> Vaginal pH testing using swab and pH paper - normal vaginal pH is 3.5-4.5 and BV occurs with a pH above 4.5
–> Charcoal vaginal swab can be a high vaginal swab/ self-taken low vaginal swab
–> Clue cells on microscopy- gardnella vaginalis

523
Q

What is the management of BV?

A

metronidazole
clindamycin is alternative

524
Q

What should patients avoid when taking metronidazole?

A

Alcohol - shock and angioedema

525
Q

What are the complications of bacterial vaginosis?

A

Bacterial vaginosis can increase the risk of catching sexually transmitted infections, including chlamydia, gonorrhoea and HIV.

It is also associated with several complications in pregnant women:

Miscarriage
Preterm delivery
Premature rupture of membranes
Chorioamnionitis
Low birth weight
Postpartum endometritis

526
Q

What are the risk factors for vaginal candidiasis?

A

–> Increased oestrogen (higher in pregnancy, lower pre-puberty and post-menopause)
–> Poorly controlled diabetes
–> Immunosuppression (e.g. using corticosteroids)
–> Broad-spectrum antibiotics

527
Q

What is the presentation of vaginal candidiasis?

A

Thick, white discharge that does not typically smell
Vulval and vaginal itching, irritation or discomfort

528
Q

What are the investigations for vaginal candidiasis?

A

–> Testing the vaginal pH using a swab and pH paper can be helpful in differentiating between bacterial vaginosis and trichomonas (pH > 4.5) and candidiasis (pH < 4.5).
–> A charcoal swab with microscopy can confirm the diagnosis.

529
Q

What are the management options for vaginal candidiasis?

A

A single dose of intravaginal clotrimazole cream (5g of 10% cream) at night
A single dose of clotrimazole pessary (500mg) at night
Three doses of clotrimazole pessaries (200mg) over three nights
A single dose of fluconazole (150mg)

530
Q

What is trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Type of parasite that spreads through sexual intercourse - protozoan
lives in the urethra of men and women and vagina in women

531
Q

What can trichomonas increase the risk of?

A

Contracting HIV
bacterial vaginosis
cervical cancer
PID
pregnancy complications e.g preterm delivery

532
Q

What is the presentation of trichomoniasis?

A

–> vaginal discharge (frothy and yellow/green can be fishy)
–> itching
–> dysuria
–> dyspareunia
–> balanitis
–> strawberry cervix
–> vaginal pH >4.5

533
Q

How is the diagnosis made for trichomonas?

A

–> The diagnosis can be confirmed with a standard charcoal swab with microscopy (examination under a microscope).

–> Swabs should be taken from the posterior fornix of the vagina (behind the cervix) in women. A self-taken low vaginal swab may be used as an alternative.

–> A urethral swab or first-catch urine is used in men.

534
Q

What is the management of trichomoniasis?

A

Patients should be referred to a genitourinary medicine (GUM) specialist service for diagnosis, treatment and contact tracing.

Treatment is with metronidazole.

535
Q

What type of bacteria is chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Gram-negative bacteria

536
Q

What are the risk factors for chlamydia?

A

–> young
–> sexually active
–> multiple partners

537
Q

What screening programme is in place for chlamydia?

A

National chlamydia screening programme
–> screens sexually active person under 25 years annually
–> when change of sexual partner
–> postivie test - prompts re-test after 3 months after treatment

538
Q

In general which STI’s are tested for when a patient attends GUM clinics?

A

Chlamydia
Gonorrhoea
Syphilis (blood test)
HIV (blood test)

539
Q

What is the presentation of chlamydia?

A

The majority of cases of chlamydia in women are asymptomatic. Consider chlamydia in women that are sexually active and present with:

–> Abnormal vaginal discharge
–> Pelvic pain
–> Abnormal vaginal bleeding (intermenstrual or postcoital)
–> Painful sex (dyspareunia)
–> Painful urination (dysuria)

Consider chlamydia in men that are sexually active and present with:

–> Urethral discharge or discomfort
–> Painful urination (dysuria)
–> Epididymo-orchitis
–> Reactive arthritis

It is worth considering rectal chlamydia and lymphogranuloma venereum in patients presenting with anorectal symptoms, such as discomfort, discharge, bleeding and change in bowel habits.

540
Q

What are the potential examination findings in chlamydia?

A

Pelvic or abdominal tenderness
Cervical motion tenderness (cervical excitation)
Inflamed cervix (cervicitis)
Purulent discharge

541
Q

How is the diagnosis of chlamydia made?

A

Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) are used to diagnose chlamydia. This can involve a:

Vulvovaginal swab
Endocervical swab
First-catch urine sample (in women or men)
Urethral swab in men
Rectal swab (after anal sex)
Pharyngeal swab (after oral sex)

542
Q

What is the management of chlamydia?

A

–> First-line for uncomplicated chlamydia infection is doxycycline 100mg twice a day for 7 days.
–> Azithromycin/Erythromycin/amoxicillin in pregnant or breastfeeding as doxycycline cant be taken in preg

543
Q

What are the complications of chlamydia?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease
Chronic pelvic pain
Infertility
Ectopic pregnancy
Epididymo-orchitis
Conjunctivitis
Lymphogranuloma venereum
Reactive arthritis

Pregnancy-related complications include:

Preterm delivery
Premature rupture of membranes
Low birth weight
Postpartum endometritis

544
Q

What is lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

–> condition affecting the lymphoid tissue around the site of infection with chlamydia - common in men who have sex with men and three stages

545
Q

What are the three stages of lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

The primary stage involves a painless ulcer (primary lesion). This typically occurs on the penis in men, vaginal wall in women or rectum after anal sex.

The secondary stage involves lymphadenitis. This is swelling, inflammation and pain in the lymph nodes infected with the bacteria. The inguinal or femoral lymph nodes may be affected.

The tertiary stage involves inflammation of the rectum (proctitis) and anus. Proctocolitis leads to anal pain, change in bowel habit, tenesmus and discharge. Tenesmus is a feeling of needing to empty the bowels, even after completing a bowel motion.

546
Q

What is the treatment of lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

–> Doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 21 days
–> erythromycin and azithromycin are alternatives

547
Q

What type of bacteria is syphilis?

A

–> Treponema pallidum
–> Spirochete - spiral shaped bacteria

548
Q

How can syphilis be contracted?

A

–> Oral, vaginal or anal sex involving direct contact with an infected area
–> Vertical transmission from mother to baby during pregnancy
–> Intravenous drug use
–> Blood transfusions and other transplants (although this is rare due to screening of blood products)

549
Q

What are the stages of syphilis?

A

Primary syphilis involves a painless ulcer called a chancre at the original site of infection (usually on the genitals).

Secondary syphilis involves systemic symptoms, particularly of the skin and mucous membranes. These symptoms can resolve after 3 – 12 weeks and the patient can enter the latent stage.

Latent syphilis occurs after the secondary stage of syphilis, where symptoms disappear and the patient becomes asymptomatic despite still being infected. Early latent syphilis occurs within two years of the initial infection, and late latent syphilis occurs from two years after the initial infection onwards.

Tertiary syphilis can occur many years after the initial infection and affect many organs of the body, particularly with the development of gummas and cardiovascular and neurological complications.

Neurosyphilis occurs if the infection involves the central nervous system, presenting with neurological symptoms.

550
Q

What is the presentation of syphilis?

A

Primary syphilis can present with:

A painless genital ulcer (chancre). This tends to resolve over 3 – 8 weeks.
Local lymphadenopathy

Secondary syphilis typically starts after the chancre has healed, with symptoms of:

Maculopapular rash
Condylomata lata (grey wart-like lesions around the genitals and anus)
Low-grade fever
Lymphadenopathy
Alopecia (localised hair loss)
Oral lesions

Tertiary syphilis can present with several symptoms depending on the affected organs. Key features to be aware of are:

Gummatous lesions (gummas are granulomatous lesions that can affect the skin, organs and bones)
Aortic aneurysms
Neurosyphilis

Neurosyphilis can occur at any stage if the infection reaches the central nervous system, and present with symptoms of:

Headache
Altered behaviour
Dementia
Tabes dorsalis (demyelination affecting the spinal cord posterior columns)
Ocular syphilis (affecting the eyes)
Paralysis
Sensory impairment

551
Q

How is the diagnosis of syphilis made?

A

Antibody testing for antibodies to the T. pallidum bacteria can be used as a screening test for syphilis.

Patients with suspected syphilis or positive antibodies should be referred to a specialist GUM centre for further testing.

Samples from sites of infection can be tested to confirm the presence of T. pallidum with:

Dark field microscopy
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

552
Q

What is the management of syphilis?

A

All patients should be managed and followed up by a specialist service, such as GUM. As with all sexually transmitted infections, patients need:

Full screening for other STIs
Advice about avoiding sexual activity until treated
Contact tracing
Prevention of future infections

A single deep intramuscular dose of benzathine benzylpenicillin (penicillin) is the standard treatment for syphilis.

553
Q

Which virus is responsible for genital herpes?

A

HSV - HSV-2

554
Q

What happens after initial infection with HSV?

A

virus becomes latent in the associated sensory nerve ganglia. Typically this is the trigeminal nerve ganglion with cold sores and the sacral nerve ganglia with genital herpes.

555
Q

What is HSV-1 most associated with?

A

Cold sores- often contracted initially in childhood and remain dormant in the trigememinal nerve ganglion and reactivate as cold sores.

556
Q

What is HSV-2 most associated with?

A

genital herpes - STI
can cause lesions in the mouth

557
Q

What is the presentation of genital herpes?

A

Patients affected by herpes simplex may display no symptoms, or develop symptoms months or years after an initial infection when the latent virus is reactivated.

The symptoms of an initial infection with genital herpes usually appear within two weeks. The initial episode is often the most severe, and recurrent episodes are milder.

Signs and symptoms include:

Ulcers or blistering lesions affecting the genital area
Neuropathic type pain (tingling, burning or shooting)
Flu-like symptoms (e.g. fatigue and headaches)
Dysuria (painful urination)
Inguinal lymphadenopathy

Symptoms can last three weeks in a primary infection. Recurrent episodes are usually milder and resolve more quickly.

558
Q

How is the diagnosis of genital herpes made?

A

The diagnosis can be made clinically based on the history and examination findings.

A viral PCR swab from a lesion can confirm the diagnosis and causative organism.

559
Q

What is the management of genital herpes

A

Aciclovir is used to treat genital herpes. There are various aciclovir regimes listed in the BNF, depending on the individual circumstances. Alternatives are valaciclovir and famciclovir.

Additional measures, including to manage the symptoms include:

Paracetamol
Topical lidocaine 2% gel (e.g. Instillagel)
Cleaning with warm salt water
Topical vaseline
Additional oral fluids
Wear loose clothing
Avoid intercourse with symptoms

560
Q

What is the main risk of genital herpes during pregnancy?

A

–> risk of neonatal herpes simplex infection - high morbidity and high mortality

561
Q

If primary genital herpes is contracted after 28 weeks gestation then what needs to be done?

A

Aciclovir during the initial infection followed immediately by regular prophylactic aciclovir. Caesarean section is recommended in all cases to reduce the risk of neonatal infection

562
Q

What are the risk factors for Gonorhoea?

A

Young
sexually active
multiple partners
other STI - chlamydia and HIV

563
Q

What is Gonorrhoea?

A

–> STI
–> Gram-negative diplococcus
–> Infects mucous membranes with a columnar epithelium e.g urethra, rectum, conjunctiva, pharynx
–> spreads via mucous secretions from infected areas

564
Q

What is the presentation of gonorrhoea?

A

–> more likley to be symptomatic comapred to chlamydia infection

Females
–> odourless purulent discharge - green or yellow
–> dysuria
–> pelvic pain

Males
–> ouderless purulent discahrge possibily green or yellow
–> dysuria
–> testicular pain - epididymo-orchititis

Prostatitis and conjunctivitis

565
Q

How is the diagnosis of gonorrhoea made?

A

NAAT - nucleic acid amplification testing - detects the RNA or NA of gonorrhoea
–> first-catch urine sample
–> rectal and pharyngeal swabs im all MSM
–> Standard charcoal endocervical/ urethral swab for microscopy, culture and abx sensitivities. high rates of abx resistance

566
Q

What is the management of gonorrhoea?

A

A single dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone 1g if the sensitivities are NOT known
A single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg if the sensitivities ARE known

–> follow up test of cure

567
Q

What are the complications of gonorrhoea?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease
Chronic pelvic pain
Infertility
Epididymo-orchitis (men)
Prostatitis (men)
Conjunctivitis - neonates
Urethral strictures
Disseminated gonococcal infection
Skin lesions
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
Septic arthritis
Endocarditis

568
Q

What is a disseminated gonococcal infection?

A

Disseminated gonococcal infection (GDI) is a complication of untreated gonococcal infection, where the bacteria spreads to the skin and joints. It causes:

Various non-specific skin lesions
Polyarthralgia (joint aches and pains)
Migratory polyarthritis (arthritis that moves between joints)
Tenosynovitis
Systemic symptoms such as fever and fatigu