Obs-Gyn-Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

Epidemiology of fatty liver of pregnancy

A

AFLP affects 1 in 7000 to 1 in 16,000 deliveries.

There is a predilection for nulliparous women and women with multiple gestations.

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2
Q

What is the prognosis / complications of endometrial polyp

A

0.5% contain adenocarcinoma cells

Frequently re-occur
(NB cervical usually don’t)
Untreated small polyps may regress

Increase the risk of miscarriage in IVF

May cause infertility if near Fallopian tubes

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3
Q

What are the three categories of excessive menorrhagia?

A
Endocrine
Structural 
Pregnancy complication
Infectious
Haematological 
Physiological 
Iatrogenic 
Systemic disease
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4
Q

Ix for UTI in pregnancy

A

Urine dip - +ve nitrites, leucocytes, +/- blood

Urine culture

USS if pyelonephritis / blood cultures

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5
Q

What is considered prolonged phase 3 of labour?

A

Traditionally 30 mins
BUT
90% of placentas are delivered within 10 minutes and the risk of postpartum hemorrhage almost doubles by the time the duration of third stage reaches twenty minutes.

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6
Q

Prognosis of obstetric cholestasis

A

Mild disease
Prognosis is excellent. Most patients can attain a term delivery and complete resolution occurs within 24 to 48 hours in many cases. If prolonged >1 week, the patient should be evaluated for a retained placenta. Recurrence is expected in future pregnancies or with the use of oral contraceptives. All patients should be evaluated for hepatitis C if not already done. Although morbidity can be seen with mild disease, it is rare and no strategy to prevent fetal adverse outcome has been identified.

Severe disease
Most patients will attain gestational age 37 to 38 weeks as fetal demise or compromise is rare prior to term. Less than 10% will require premature delivery.

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7
Q

Define miscarriage

A

Miscarriage is an involuntary, spontaneous loss of a pregnancy before 24 completed weeks. After 24, the loss would be defined as a stillbirth. Miscarriage is associated with unprovoked vaginal bleeding with or without suprapubic pain.

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8
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms/signs of dysfunctional uterine bleeding

A
uterine bleeding
use of hormone therapy
menstrual irregularity
anaemia
premenstrual molimina - Breast fullness and tenderness, weight gain, and mild mood swings are associated with ovulation.

Absence of these symptoms is suggestive of anovulatory DUB.

hirsutism, acne, acanthosis nigricans

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9
Q

A 61-year-old woman presents with 3 months of progressively worsening abdominal bloating and early satiety. She sought medical evaluation 2 months ago and was told she might have irritable bowel syndrome. On examination, the patient is in no acute distress. Her abdomen is dull to percussion and distended with minimal tenderness. A fluid wave is present. On pelvic examination, the cervix appears normal but is slightly deviated to the right. On bi-manual and recto-vaginal examination, a mass is palpable in the left adnexa extending down into the cul-de-sac.

A

Ovarian cancer

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10
Q

What is the epidemiology of toxic shock syndrome

A

Invasive infection complicates about one third of group A streptococcal infections, and it is estimated that there are 3.5 cases per 100,000 people.

People of all ages are affected and most do not have underlying diseases. [25] About 85% of invasive infections occur sporadically in the community, 10% are hospital acquired, 4% occur in residents of long-term care facilities, and 1% occur after contact with an infected person.

Most cases of staphylococcal TSS are due to methicillin-sensitive (MSSA) Staphylococcus aureus.

Non-menstrual cases now account for about 55% of all staphylococcal TSS.

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11
Q

A 42-year-old smoker presented to labour and delivery at 28 weeks of gestation with worsening abdominal pain of a few hours’ duration. She had also had some vaginal bleeding within the past hour. She was found to have low-amplitude, high-frequency uterine contractions, and the fetal heart rate tracing showed recurrent late decelerations and reduced variability. Her uterus was tender and firm to palpation.

A

Placental abruption

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12
Q

Define dysfunctional uterine bleeding

A

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is a common disorder of excessive uterine bleeding affecting pre-menopausal women that is not due to pregnancy or any recognisable uterine or systemic diseases. The underlying pathophysiology is believed to be due to ovarian hormonal dysfunction. However, the exact mechanisms remain unknown. DUB usually presents as heavy, prolonged, or frequent bleeding of uterine origin.

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13
Q

Sx of vulval cancer

A
Vulval lump
Pruritus / irritation
Pain (some tumours ulcerating)
PM bleed
Asymptomatic 
"cauliflower type growths"
Skin thickening 
Most commonly labiamajora / clitoris
Inguinal-femoral LNs
Can be multifocal
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14
Q

Rx of polyhydramnios

A

Most cases of polyhydramnios respond in the first week of treatment with indomethacin. This approach appears to be highly effective (90-100% in some studies), provided that the cause is not hydrocephalus or a neuromuscular disorder that alters fetal swallowing.

_________________

Reductive amniocentesis may be performed and has contributed to prolonged pregnancy in patients who are severely affected by hydramnios.

This procedure can reduce the risk of preterm labor, premature rupture of the membrane (PROM), umbilical cord prolapse, and placental abruption. However, if too much fluid is removed, placental abruption may occur. Other risks of the procedure include infection, bleeding, and trauma to the fetus.
Laser ablation of placental vessels may be effective in cases of twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome, performed at highly specialized centers.

Patients with polyhydramnios tend to have a higher incidence of preterm labor secondary to overdistention of the uterus. Schedule weekly or twice weekly perinatal visits and cervical examinations.

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15
Q

Explain the aetiology of ectopic pregnancy

A

Two broad categories of conditions lead to ectopic pregnancy: 1) conditions that hamper the transport of a fertilised oocyte to the uterine cavity, and 2) conditions that predispose the embryo to premature implantation. However, more than half of diagnosed ectopic pregnancies are not associated with any known risk factors. Pelvic infection can increase risk by distorting fallopian tube anatomy. Factors associated with increased risk of ectopic pregnancy include smoking, multiple sexual partners, use of IUD, prior fallopian tube surgery, in utero diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure, infertility and in vitro fertilisation, age <18 at first sexual intercourse, black race, and age >35 at presentation.

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16
Q

Define gestational hypertension

A

Defined by BP ≥140/90 mmHg on 2 occasions during pregnancy after 20 weeks’ gestation in a previously normotensive patient, without the presence of proteinuria (<300 mg in 24 hours).

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17
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of Rh incompatibility

A

RFs only

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18
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for diabetes in pregnancy and interpret the results

A

ORAL GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST
one-step test option: 75-gram oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
- Glucose level: ≥5.1 mmol/L (≥92 mg/dL) fasting; or ≥10.0 mmol/L (≥180 mg/dL) at 1 hour; or ≥8.5 mmol/L (≥153 mg/dL) at 2 hours

two-step test option: 1-hour 50-gram glucose load test (GLT), followed by 3-hour 100-gram OGTT
- ≥5.8 mmol/L (≥105 mg/dL) fasting; ≥10.6 mmol/L (≥190 mg/dL) at 1 hour; ≥9.2 mmol/L (≥165 mg/dL) at 2 hours; ≥8.0 mmol/L (≥145 mg/dL) at 3 hours.

fasting blood (plasma) glucose >7.0mmol/L
random blood (plasma) glucose >11.1mmol/L
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19
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with ectopic pregnancy

A

With proper patient selection, expectant, medical, and surgical treatments are 82%, 90%, and 92% successful, respectively.

The rate of recurrent ectopic pregnancy is 5% to 20%, but it rises to >30% in women with two consecutive ectopic pregnancies.

The future fertility and tubal patency rates in laparoscopically treated patients are similar to those in the medically managed group. In women with a normal contralateral tube, salpingostomy does not appear to improve fertility prospects compared with salpingectomy.

Neither methotrexate nor salpingectomy affect subsequent ovarian response and pregnancy with IVF in women treated for ectopic pregnancy resulting from IVF.

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20
Q

Define cutaneous warts

A

Genital warts are the most prevalent form of viral genital mucosal lesions and are caused by infection with several types of human papillomavirus (HPV).

The infection manifests as verrucous fleshy papules that may coalesce into plaques. Lesion size ranges from a few millimetres to several centimetres.

The warts may be located anywhere in the anogenital or genital area, including on mucosal surfaces.

The colour can vary from whitish to flesh-coloured to hyperpigmented to erythematous.

They are generally asymptomatic, but may be painful, friable, or pruritic.

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21
Q

Define placenta praevia

A

Placenta praevia (PP) is defined as the placenta overlying the cervical os. It can be complete, partial, marginal, or low-lying. Partial, marginal, and low-lying PP may resolve as pregnancy progresses. In women with a scarred uterus (most commonly from a prior caesarean section), PP may be associated with an abnormally adherent placenta, where the placenta attaches to the myometrial layer of the uterus. Vasa praevia, where the fetal vessels lie over the internal cervical os, is an associated condition.

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22
Q

Define PROM

A

Breakage of the amniotic sac prior to labor

< 37w = PPROM

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23
Q

Recognise the presenting signs and symptoms of atrophic vaginitis

A

thinning of the vaginal walls
shortening and tightening of the vaginal canal
lack of vaginal moisture (vaginal dryness)
vaginal burning (inflammation)
spotting after intercourse
discomfort or pain during intercourse
pain or burning with urination
more frequent urinary tract infections
urinary incontinence (involuntary leakage)

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24
Q

Ix for PCOS

A

Serum total + free testosterone - High
DHEAS - High
Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone - NORMAL (performed to rule out adult onset adrenal hyperplasia)
Serum prolactin - NORMAL (rule out prolactinoma)
Serum TSH - NORMAL (if high think hypothyroidism)
Check glucose tolerance
Fasting lipid panel - Dyslipidaemia frequently seen in PCOS
LH/FSH ratio >3 suggests PCOS
Pelvic USS - ≥12 follicles in each ovary measuring 2 to 9 mm in diameter, and/or increased ovarian volume (>10 mL) in either or both ovaries; endometrial lining >5 to 7 mm in thickness indicates endometrial thickening

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25
Q

What Ix should be performed for PROM

A

Symptoms
Speculum
Testing of fluid

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26
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of urinary incontinence in women

A

COMMON

Involuntary incontinence on effort/sneezing etc - stress incontinence
Involuntary incontinence preceded by urgency
Frequency
Bladder diary
Vaginal bulge/pressure - prolapse - stress incontinence
Urogenital atrophy

UNCOMMON

Hx cognitive impairment
Back injury
Dysuria
Urethral discharge or tenderness

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27
Q

What are the relevant Ix for menopause

A

Preg test - neg
FSH - elevated >30 IU/L (>30 mIU/mL)
Serum estradiol <110 -picomol/L (<30 picograms/mL)
(low because estrone becomes principle oestrogen)

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28
Q

Explain aetiology of cervical cancer & intraepithelial neoplasia

A

Human papillomavirus (HPV) is the most important aetiological factor, with most (99.7%) tumours containing HPV DNA.

HPV-16 and 18 are the 2 most common high-risk types detected in more than 70% of malignancies.

Peak infection incidence is in the late teens and early 20s, but in 80% of patients, the infection resolves within 12 to 18 months with a median duration of infection of roughly 8 months

  • Squamous (80%)
  • Adenocarcinomas (15%)
  • Adenosquamous (3% to 5%)
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29
Q

Aetiology of mastitis / breast abscess

A

Mastitis may occur with or without infection. Infectious mastitis and breast abscess are usually caused by bacteria colonising the skin. Cases due to Staphylococcus aureus are by far the most common, followed by those due to coagulase-negative staphylococci. Methicillin-resistant S aureus is a growing problem and has been increasingly found in cases of mastitis and breast abscesses.

Non-infectious mastitis may result from underlying duct ectasia (peri-ductal mastitis or plasma cell mastitis) and infrequently foreign material (e.g., nipple piercing, breast implant, or silicone).

In lactational mastitis, milk stasis or milk overproduction, coupled with infection from bacteria entering the breast via a traumatised nipple (e.g., cracked or fissured) and/or from the infant’s mouth, can lead to mastitis.

In duct ectasia (dilated ducts associated with inflammation), the mammary duct-associated inflammatory disease sequence involves squamous metaplasia of lactiferous ducts. This causes blockage (obstructive mastopathy) with peri-ductal inflammation and possible duct rupture.

Left untreated, mastitis may cause tissue destruction resulting in an abscess.

NB tubercular possible

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30
Q

RFs of multiple pregnancy

A

Increased age
IVF
?FHx

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31
Q

List the RFs for Rh incompatibility

A

STRONG

Maternal RhD negative status
Maternal sensitisation to RhS
Invasive fetal procedures 
Placental trauma 
Abortion
Multiparity 
Previous Hydrops (Rh incompatibility)

WEAK

External cephalic version
Molar pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy

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32
Q

What is the aetiology of menopause

A

Women are born with a set number of oocytes. As this supply of oocytes becomes depleted during their early 40s, ovarian production of progesterone, estradiol, and testosterone begins to decline. Fertility also significantly declines.

Before the menopause, estradiol is the predominant oestrogen. Serum estradiol levels vary throughout the menstrual cycle but average about 367 picomol/L (100 picograms/mL). After the menopause, oestrone, which is derived from estradiol metabolism in the liver and peripheral conversion of androstenedione in adipose tissue, becomes the dominant oestrogen. Serum oestrone levels average about 110 to 184 picomol/L (30-50 picograms/mL). Symptoms of the menopause, such as hot flushes and urogenital atrophy, are closely related to decreasing estradiol levels.

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33
Q

Epidemiology of cardiac disease in pregnancy

A

Between 1997-9 only 35 deaths in UK from heart disease

10 from congenital
25 from acquired
1/3 of congenital were PHTN

7/25 of acquired were from puerperal cardiomyopathy

Older motherhood and lifestyle habits -> increasing IHD in pregnancy

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34
Q

A 22-year-old woman presents with postcoital bleeding, but denies any other symptoms. She is currently in a monogamous relationship with a male sexual partner. She is concerned that her partner may have had other sexual contacts. She currently uses oral contraception and does not use condoms. Her last sexual contact with her boyfriend was 8 days ago. On examination, her external genitalia are normal. Speculum examination reveals a mucopurulent discharge from the cervical os. The cervix is friable when scraped with a Dacron swab. Manual pelvic examination reveals no cervical motion tenderness. She has no other abnormalities on physical examination.

A

Genital tract chlamydia infection

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35
Q

What is the epidemiology of breech presentation

A

Breech presentation is common in early pregnancy and decreases with advancing gestational age, as most babies turn spontaneously to a cephalic presentation before birth. The prevalence at term in singleton pregnancies is 3% to 4% of all births. The prevalence prior to term at various gestations is as follows:

33% of births less than 28 weeks' gestation

14% of births at 29 to 32 weeks' gestation

9% of births at 33 to 36 weeks' gestation

6% of births at 37 to 40 weeks' gestation.
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36
Q

A 28-year-old G2P1 woman with a dichorionic twin gestation at 11 weeks presents to the emergency department with severe vomiting. She reports that she has experienced severe nausea and vomiting for 24 hours, and that during her previous pregnancy she also experienced severe morning sickness. On examination, the patient is afebrile, with a respiratory rate of 15 breaths/minute, pulse of 101 bpm, and BP of 127/85 mmHg. Urinalysis is positive for ketones.

A

Hyperemesis Gravidarum

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37
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for cutaneous warts and interpret the results

A

Clinical

Investigations to consider:
biopsy
anoscopy
urethroscopy

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38
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of gestational hypertension

A

Previously normotensive
BP 140/90mmHG after 2 readings 6+hrs apart

Measurement of diastolic BP during pregnancy should include K5 or the disappearance of the Korotkoff sound as opposed to K4 or the muffling of this sound.

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39
Q

Rx of LGA

A

Induction of labour for women with a baby with suspected macrosomia leads to babies being born at a lower birth weight, with fewer bone fractures and less shoulder dystocia, but could increase the number of women with perineal tears.

Predicting a baby’s weight can be inaccurate and women could be worried unnecessarily, and request their labour to be induced for no reason.

Doctors disagree whether women should be induced for suspected macrosomia and more research is needed to find out what this is best for women and their babies.

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40
Q

Aetiology of thyroid disease in pregnancy

A

Graves most common hyper

Hashimotos = most common hypo

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41
Q

Define ovarian cancer

A

Epithelial ovarian cancer is a relatively uncommon gynaecological cancer occurring when there is malignant transformation of the ovarian capsule epithelium. [1] The epithelium covering the ovary consists of the same epithelial cells that line the peritoneal cavity. Thus, epithelial ovarian cancer and primary peritoneal cancer occur via the same pathophysiology and are treated with the same basic principles. Sub-types of ovarian cancer include epithelial, germ cell, and sex-cord stromal tumours. The primary focus of this monograph will be the epithelial ovarian sub-type.

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42
Q

Describe the signs/symptoms of endometrial cancer

A

PM bleeding - 5-10% will have endometrial cancer
Uterine mass / adnexal
Abnormal menstruation

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43
Q

Aetiology of obstetric cholestasis

A

The aetiology is most likely multi-factorial with mutations in the canalicular phospholipid export pump MDR3

A large number of hepatobiliary disorders have been linked to these mutations, including familial intrahepatic cholestasis, adult biliary cirrhosis, and familial cholelithiasis.

Intrahepatic cholestasis caused by MDR3 mutations is typically associated with elevated gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) levels, which are encountered in up to 30% of pregnancies complicated by the disorder.

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44
Q

What is succenturiate placenta?

A

Where the placenta has 1 or more accessory lobes

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45
Q

Epidemiology of FGM

A

over 125 million women and girls in the 29 countries in Africa and the Middle East where the procedure is mainly practiced

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46
Q

What are the complications of Rh incompatibility

A

Hyperbilirubinaemia and kernicterus
Transfusion related fetal bradycardia
Fetal / neonatal hydrops
Neonatal anaemia - when haemoglobin falls <8 g/dL

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47
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Asherman’s syndrome (Intrauterine adhesions)

A

An ovulatory woman who develops secondary amenorrhea or hypomenorrhea after an intrauterine procedure, particularly if the procedure was performed on a gravid uterus.

Sx
Uterine bleeding
Infertility 
Cyclical pelvic pain / dysmenorrhoea 
Recurrent pregnancy loss
Incidental finding
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48
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of bacterial vaginosis

A

Vaginitis is the most common gynaecological diagnosis in the primary care setting. [2] Women presenting with vaginal discharge account for approximately 10 million clinic visits each year. In approximately 90% of affected patients in the US, this condition develops secondary to bacterial vaginosis, candidiasis, or trichomoniasis, of which bacterial vaginosis is the most common. [3]

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49
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of placental abruption

A

PV bleed (bleeding associated with abdominal pain, as compared with the painless bleeding of placenta praevia)

Abdo pain
Uterine contractions
Uterine tenderness - may feel hard, with the consistency of wood.

UNCOMMON
Lower back pain
Fetal death - common if 50% has detached

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50
Q

Define fibroids

A

Uterine fibroids (leiomyomata) are benign tumours of the uterus primarily composed of smooth muscle and fibrous connective tissue. They range in size from seedlings to large uterine tumours. Grossly, these tumours are round, firm, and well-circumscribed nodules located just under the uterine serosa (subserosal), within the myometrium (intramural) or just below the endometrium (submucosal). There are often multiple tumours in a single uterine specimen. Microscopically, these nodules are made up of spindle-shaped cells with no mitotic activity or remarkable nuclear atypia.

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51
Q

Discuss the management of cervical polyps

A

Removal by ring forceps
Laser or cauterisation
Abx if infected

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52
Q

Define pregnancy of unknown location

A

Pregnancy of unknown location (PUL) is the term used for a pregnancy where there is a positive pregnancy test but no pregnancy has been visualized using transvaginal ultrasonography

The true nature of the pregnancy can be an ongoing viable intrauterine pregnancy, a failed pregnancy, an ectopic pregnancy or rarely a persisting PUL.

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53
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Asherman’s syndrome and interpret the results (Intrauterine adhesions)

A

Direct visualization of IUAs with hysteroscopy is the gold standard for the diagnosis

USS - thin endometrium

Estrogen/progestin withdrawal test takes too long.

Physical examination may show difficulty passing dilator

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54
Q

What are the relevant Ix for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

FBC - N
Metabolic panel - may show hypernatraemia + hypochloraemia
LFTs - N
Serum urea and Creatinine - Increased in hyperemesis
Serum TSH - may be decreased with hyperemesis
Urinalysis - ketonuria
Fetal USS - multiple gestation

Consider:
Urine culture - N - to exclude pyelonephritis
Serum amylase and lipase - N
RUQ USS - N exclude gallstones etc
Renal USS - N
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55
Q

What are the physiological causes of menorrhagia?

A

DUB

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56
Q

What is secondary amenorrhoea?

A

Lack of menses in a non-pregnant female for at least 3 cycles of her previous interval, or lack of menses for 6 months in a patient who was previously menstruating.

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57
Q

Discuss the aetiology of breech presentation

A

Aetiology is largely unknown. Factors that predispose pregnancies to breech presentation include preterm delivery, small for gestational age fetus, primiparity, congenital anomalies in the fetus, abnormal amniotic fluid volume, placental and uterine anomalies, and previous breech delivery. All these factors are associated with increased infant morbidity and mortality.

Frank

Baby’s buttocks lead the way into the birth canal
Hips are flexed, knees are extended, and the feet are in close proximity to the
65% to 70% of breech babies are in this

Complete

Baby presents with buttocks
Both the hips and the knees are flexed; the baby may be sitting cross-legged.

Incomplete or footling

One or both of the baby’s feet lie below the breech so that the foot or knee is lowermost in the birth
This is rare at term but relatively common with premature fetuses.

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58
Q

Discuss the management plan for gestational hypertension

A

<37w

1) Lifestyle modification
2) Methyldopa 250mg BD Oral
3) Labetalol 100mg BD orally
4) Nifedipine 30-60mg orally OD

> 37w

  • induce labour if mild/mod
  • REDUCE BP if >160/110mmHg
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59
Q

Aetiology of urogenital prolapse

A

Connective tissue defects
Levator ani + intact nerve supply required for function
Damaged through: birth, aging,
Congenital weaknesses (ie 2% of nulliparous still get)
Hysterectomy - with VVault
Anything causing raised intra-abdominal pressure - IE coughing/constipation

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60
Q

Generate a management plan for chlamydia

A

1g single dose azithromycin
Doxycycline
Erythromycin

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61
Q

Rx of thrush

A
  1. topical anti fungal eg clotrimazole
  2. fluconazole: 150 mg/dose orally as a single dose

COMPLICATED thrush
Complicated candidiasis refers to: non-albicans candidiasis, more than 4 episodes a year, and women with uncontrolled diabetes, debilitation, or immunosuppression.
1) fluconazole: 150 mg orally every 3 days for a total of 3 doses

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62
Q

Identify appropriate investigations a for bacterial vaginosis and interpret the results

A

vaginal pH
amine ‘whiff’ test of vaginal secretions
wet mount microscopy of vaginal secretions
Gram stain of vaginal secretions - reduced lactobacilli
HIV test
nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) = chlam/gonorrhoea
VDRL = syphilis
serum rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test = syphilis
culture of vaginal secretions = trichomoniasis 3 day growth

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63
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of molar pregnancies

A

1 in 1000 to 1200 pregnancies

Patients with a previous diagnosis of hydatidiform mole have a 1% to 2% chance of molar gestation in subsequent pregnancies.

Among women over 35 years of age, there is a significantly higher chance of GTD, which increases progressively as maternal age advances

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64
Q

Aetiology of PCOS

A

The aetiology of PCOS is unknown. It is a syndrome wherein multiple systems are affected and the site of the primary defect is unclear. Various lines of evidence have supported primary defects in the hypothalamic-pituitary axis, postulating increased amplitude and frequency of pulses of LH, or defects involving the ovaries through an intrinsic problem leading to androgen over-production. Some theories postulate defects in insulin sensitivity with insulin resistance leading to compensatory hyper-insulinaemia.

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65
Q

Define premature labour

A

There is no internationally recognised definition of premature labour. Preterm birth occurs between 24 and 37 weeks’ gestation. In two-thirds of cases it occurs following spontaneous onset of labour. Only a minority of women who present with preterm contractions known as threatened premature labour (TPTL) progress to actual labour and delivery. The remainder of preterm birth is due to iatrogenic delivery, most commonly because of pre-eclampsia and intrauterine growth restriction. Preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM) is defined as the rupture of membranes at <37 weeks’ gestation and prior to the onset of labour.

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66
Q

Epidemiology of urogenital prolapse

A

41-50% over 40

10% risk of needing an operation for prolapse

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67
Q

What is the epidemiology of epilepsy in pregnancy

A

1 in 200 women of childbearing age

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68
Q

Epidemiology of thromboembolism in pregnancy

A

Risk of DVT/PE highest during pregnancy (in healthy women).

1 in 1000 pregnancies DVT
1 in 7000 pregnancies PE
10% of maternal deaths = PE

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69
Q

Discuss the prognosis of syphilis infection

A

Natural course of infection
Treatment is curative once antibiotic treatment is completed. However, re-infection may occur if there is further exposure to syphilis.

The natural course of organ-specific involvement is determined by the stage of syphilis at diagnosis and whether appropriate treatment has been administered. Follow-up of organ-specific complications requires specialist opinion (e.g., cardiology assessment of aortic regurgitation; neurology assessment of tabes dorsalis).

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70
Q

What are the relevant Ix for placental abruption

A

Fetal CTG - abnormalities in the tracing that suggest an abruption: late decelerations, loss of variability, variable decelerations, a sinusoidal fetal heart rate tracing, and fetal bradycardia, defined as a persistent fetal heart rate below 110 beats per minute

Hb + Hct - N/L
Coag studies - abnormal
K-B test for Rh+

USS - retroplacental haematoma (hyperechoic, isoechoic, hypoechoic); pre-placental haematoma (jiggling appearance with a shimmering effect of the chorionic plate with fetal movement); increased placental thickness and echogenicity; sub-chorionic collection or marginal collection

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71
Q

A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of fever, chills, headache, muscle aches, and shortness of breath over the past 48 hours. Two weeks before her symptoms, she had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at term. She has no significant past medical history. No one else at home has been sick recently or travelled outside the country. On physical examination, she is toxic appearing with a temperature of 39.5°C (103.1°F). Her pulse rate is 132 bpm and her BP is 100/60 mmHg with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/minute. A diffuse erythematous rash is noted on the upper and lower extremities. Breath sounds are diminished at the bases. The rest of the examination is non-contributory.

A

Toxic shock syndrome

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72
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of asthma in pregnancy

A
presence of risk factors
recent upper respiratory tract infection
dyspnoea
cough
expiratory wheezes
nasal polyposis

RFs
FHx
allergens
atopic history

nasal polyposis
obesity
gastro-oesophageal reflux

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73
Q

Complications/prognosis of substance abuse in pregnancy

A

Neonatal withdrawal syndrome occurs in 60% of all fetuses exposed to drugs.

In particular, the incidence of premature delivery, abruptio placentae, breech presentation, and intrauterine growth retardation are significantly increased in mothers who are dependent on drugs.

In particular, cocaine use, with its vasoconstrictive properties, has been associated with an increase in vaginal bleeding, abruptio placentae, placenta previa, premature rupture of membranes, abortion, pneumothorax, pneumonia, malnutrition, and seizures.

Opioid use has been shown to increase the rate of premature labor, premature rupture of membranes, breech presentation, antepartum hemorrhage, toxemia, anemia, uterine irritability, and infection (eg, HIV, hepatitis, syphilis).

Alcohol use has been associated with an increased rate of abruptio placentae. Complications for mothers who drink alcohol heavily can include increased spontaneous abortions and premature placental separation.

Cognitive and developmental defects for most

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74
Q

Discuss the RFs of epilepsy in pregnancy

A
febrile seizure
head trauma
CNS infection
stroke
brain tumour
mental retardation (MR) and/or cerebral palsy
dementia
FHx of seizures
vascular malformations
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75
Q

A 32-year-old women presents with a chief complaint of difficulty becoming pregnant. She was prescribed oral contraceptives at the age of 17 years because of irregular periods (4 to 6 periods per year). She continued with oral contraception until 30 years of age, at which point she and her husband decided they wanted to have a baby. Since ceasing oral contraception, she has gained weight and has only 3 to 5 periods per year. She has actively been trying to conceive, with no results.

A

PCOS

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76
Q

Generate a management plan for epilepsy in pregnancy

A

Aim is to have the lowest possible dose of antiepileptic medication

Sodium valproate - PARTICULARLY teratogenic - therefore CAUTION (consider swapping another medication)
Lamotrigine - SAFEST
Carbamazepine
Lacosamide

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77
Q

A 58-year-old obese post-menopausal woman (gravida 4, para 3) presents to her annual gynaecological visit without initial complaint. During the interview, she denies post-menopausal bleeding but acknowledges increased abdominal bloating and early satiety. Over the past year, she has experienced pelvic and low back pain that is mildly bothersome but worsening. Her family history is notable for a sister with breast cancer and mother with an unknown female cancer. Abdominal examination is non-diagnostic due to her body habitus, and pelvic examination is limited. There is concern for a vague fullness that is appreciated on rectovaginal examination.

A

Ovarian Cyst

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78
Q

A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 22 weeks’ gestation presents to the outpatient obstetrics clinic for a routine antenatal visit. She has no significant past medical history. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and her child (now 4 years of age) is doing well. On examination, she is afebrile with a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, pulse of 91 bpm, and blood pressure (BP) of 132/102 mmHg. Her previous BP reading was 120/80 mmHg. Urinalysis is negative for glucose and protein. The patient is asked to return in 1 week for a BP check. On check-in at the clinic, the patient tells the nurse that she does not have any symptoms. However, on examination, her BP has risen to 142/106 mmHg. Urinalysis remains negative for glucose and protein.

A

gestational HTN

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79
Q

Prognosis / complications of FGM

A

Early post-procedure complications thus include hemorrhage, infection, oliguria, and sepsis

The most common long-term complications are dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and chronic vaginal infections. Other complications are related to voiding

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80
Q

Summarise the indications for external cephalic version

A

Breech presentation after 36/37 weeks.

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81
Q

What is the epidemiology of placental abruption

A

Placental abruption complicates about 0.3% to 1% of births.

The incidence has risen more in black women than in white women.

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82
Q

Discuss the prognosis of ovarian cancer

A

The majority of patients (70% to 80%) will achieve a complete clinical remission after first-line therapy for ovarian cancer (debulking surgery followed by chemotherapy). When patients relapse, the most important prognostic factor is the treatment-free interval or time from completion of first-line therapy to diagnosis of recurrence. For patients with platinum-resistant or refractory disease, the overall prognosis is grim, as the likelihood of responding to second-line agents is estimated between 15% to 20%. For patients who have recurrent disease that is platinum sensitive, response rates for second-line therapy improve as the treatment-free interval increases.

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83
Q

Rx of vulval cancer

A

Excision of primary sites + LNs
Clear margins of 1-2cm
Positive modes -> radiotherapy
+/- chemotherapy

May need radical vulvectomy

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84
Q

Sx of cardiac disease in pregnancy

A

LVF -> pulmonary oedema, leg oedema

RVF -> JVP, fluid retention, orthopnoea, coughing, wheezing

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85
Q

What is the epidemiology of premature labour

A

In the UK in 2014, the percentage of births before 37 weeks’ gestation ranged from 6.4% to 9.9% of live births, depending on ethnicity.

Only 1% of all births occur below 32 weeks’ gestation. Mortality and serious morbidity are uncommon above 32 weeks’ gestation, although more subtle long-term effects, such as behavioural problems during childhood, still occur with later gestations.

The economic and psychological burdens on society are considerable. The estimated cost to the US is $26.2 billion per year.

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86
Q

Describe the pain control management of labour?

A

Pain control

Agents given in intermittent doses for systemic pain control include the following [4] :
Meperidine, 25-50 mg IV every 1-2 hours or 50-100 mg IM every 2-4 hours
Fentanyl, 50-100 mcg IV every hour
Nalbuphine, 10 mg IV or IM every 3 hours
Butorphanol, 1-2 mg IV or IM every 4 hours
Morphine, 2-5 mg IV or 10 mg IM every 4 hours

As an alternative, regional anesthesia may be given. Anesthesia options include the following:
Epidural
Spinal
Combined spinal-epidural

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87
Q

List the Ix for fibroids

A

USS
Endometrial biopsy - N

Consider
Sonohysterography
Hysteroscopy 
MRI
Laparoscopy
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88
Q

What are the RFs for syphilis infection

A
Sexual contact with infected
MSM
Drug use
Commercial sex
Multiple partners
HIV/other STDs
Syphillis during pregnancy
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89
Q

What are the RFs for toxic shock syndrome

A
STRONG
DM
Alcoholism
Minor trauma/injuries with bruising
Surgical procedures 
Single tampon use
Highly absorbent tampons 

WEAK
NSAID
Contraceptive sponges
Untreated strep throat

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90
Q

Define chlamydia

A

Urogenital chlamydia infection is a common STD worldwide. The causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis. Infection is usually asymptomatic in both men and women.

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91
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of dysfunctional uterine bleeding

A

Abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) that is not related to pregnancy is believed to occur in more than half of all women at least once during their reproductive age period. DUB is a diagnosis of exclusion that is encountered in almost half of the occasions of AUB.

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92
Q

Ix for obesity in pregnancy

A

US scans are more difficult
Anaesthesia Spinal/epi challenges
Higher incidence of post-partum depression

Oralcontraception is more likely to fail

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93
Q

Sx of vasa praevia

A

Vasa previa is diagnosed prenatally with an average sensitivity of 93% and a specificity of 99%.

AT DELIVERY:
PV bleed
Sinusoidal fetal heart pattern, fetal bradycardia, or fetal heart rate decelerations during labor may all indicate a ruptured vasa previa

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94
Q

What are the complications of menopause?

A
Hormone-therapy related SEs: 
Vaginal bleeding
Breast tenderness
VTE
Breast cancer 
Stroke

UTIs?

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95
Q

Complications of polyhydramnios

A

Polyhydramnios (amniotic fluid index [AFI] >24 cm) is associated with an increased rate of fetal malformations, genetic syndromes, neurologic disorders, and developmental delay, conditions that may only be diagnosed postnatally.

Other complications include premature rupture of the membranes (PROM), abruptio placenta, malpresentation, and postpartum hemorrhage

20% of cases of polyhydramnios involved associated fetal anomalies, including problems of the gastrointestinal system (40%), central nervous system (26%), cardiovascular system (22%), or genitourinary system (13%).

Risks and complications of amnioinfusion include amniotic fluid embolism, maternal respiratory distress, increased maternal uterine tone, and transient fetal respiratory distress. An increase in the risk of maternal or fetal infection is not substantiated.
Risks of amniocentesis include fetal loss (1-2%). Other complications are placental abruption, preterm labor, fetal-maternal hemorrhage, maternal Rh sensitization, and fetal pneumothorax. The risk of fetal infection is slightly increased.

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96
Q

Describe the signs/symptoms of hyperemesis gravidarum

A
RFs
1st trimester 
WL >5%
Absence of thyroid enlargement 
Absence of CNS signs 
Dry Mucous Membranes
Dizziness
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Ketotic breath
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97
Q

What are the complications of placental abruption

A
Hypovolaemic shock
DIC
Surgical/anaesthetic risks
IUGR
Neurological infant impairment 
Preterm birth
Perinatal death
Acute RF
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98
Q

Epidemiology of oligohydramnios

A

11% pregnancies

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99
Q

What are the complications/prognosis of gestational hypertension

A

Pre-eclampsia
CVD for mother later in life
Fetal/neonatal complications - increases the risk of macrosomia, caesarean delivery, and admission of the neonate to the intensive care unit.

Mean gestational age and mean birth weight tend to be lower.

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100
Q

List RFs for molar pregnancy

A

STRONG
Extremes of maternal age
Prior GTD (10x risk)
WEAK

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101
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with fibroids

A

On cessation of medical therapy, regrowth of fibroids to pretreatment size occurs relatively quickly (within 12 weeks in the case of GnRH agonists, for example) and symptoms return.

Uterine-sparing surgeries such as myomectomy and uterine artery embolisation have been shown to be effective in treating fibroid-related symptoms such as menorrhagia and those related to uterine bulk. In a collection of 5 studies involving 285 patients undergoing myomectomy for menorrhagia, 81% showed reduction or complete resolution of heavy bleeding following surgery.

Unfortunately, there is some risk of recurrence of fibroids (up to 25%), which does not vary by type of surgery.

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102
Q

Describe management of the 3rd stage of labour?

A

The labor process has now entered the third stage, ie, delivery of the placenta. Three classic signs indicate that the placenta has separated from the uterus: (1) The uterus contracts and rises, (2) the cord suddenly lengthens, and (3) a gush of blood occurs.

Delivery of the placenta usually happens within 5-10 minutes after delivery of the fetus, but it is considered normal up to 30 minutes after delivery of the fetus. Excessive traction should not be applied to the cord to avoid inverting the uterus, which can cause severe postpartum hemorrhage and is an obstetric emergency. The placenta can also be manually separated by passing a hand between the placenta and uterine wall. After the placenta is delivered, inspect it for completeness and for the presence of 1 umbilical vein and 2 umbilical arteries. Oxytocin can be administered throughout the third stage to facilitate placental separation by inducing uterine contractions and to decrease bleeding.

Expectant management of the third stage involves allowing the placenta to deliver spontaneously, whereas active management involves administration of uterotonic agent (usually oxytocin, an ergot alkaloid, or prostaglandins) before the placenta is delivered. This is done with early clamping and cutting of the cord and with controlled traction on the cord while placental separation and delivery are awaited.
A review of 5 randomized trials comparing active versus expectant management of the third stage demonstrated that active management was associated with lowered risks of maternal blood loss, postpartum hemorrhage, and prolongation of the third stage, but it increased maternal nausea, vomiting, and blood pressure (when ergometrine was used).

After the placenta is delivered, the labor and delivery period is complete. Palpate the patient’s abdomen to confirm reduction in the size of the uterus and its firmness. Ongoing blood loss and a boggy uterus suggest uterine atony. A thorough examination of the birth canal, including the cervix and the vagina, the perineum, and the distal rectum, is warranted, and repair of episiotomy or perineal/vaginal lacerations should be carried out.

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103
Q

What systemic diseases could cause excessive menorrhagia?

A

Chronic renal and liver disease

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104
Q

Discuss the aetiology of cervical polyps

A

Believed to be due to inflammation of the cervix
May be due to raised oestrogen
or clogged cervical blood vessels

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105
Q

Epidemiology of PCOS

A

6-8% of women

PCOS accounts for 80% to 90% of cases of hyper-androgenism in women

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106
Q

Rx of multiple pregnancy

A

Multifetal reduction possible (postassium chloride injected into selected fetus) - Multifetal reduction in a monochorionic twin setting is typically not recommended due to unknown effects on the remaining twin.

Increased nutrition needed.

Monochorionic - US scans every 2w to detect TTTS
Dichorionic - 4-6weekly

Uncomplicated dichorionic, diamniotic twin gestation- 38 weeks
Uncomplicated monochorionic, diamniotic twin gestation- between 34-37 6/7 weeks
Uncomplicated monochorionic, monoamniotic twin gestations- 32-34 weeks

Trial labour allowed
Breeched second baby > ECV
Dependent on confidence of obstetrician

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107
Q

Recognise the presenting signs/symptoms of diabetes in pregnancy

A

presence of risk factors
elevated BMI
fetal macrosomia

polyuria
polydipsia
glycosuria
UTIs

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108
Q

Epidemiology of thyroid disease in pregnancy

A

Throtoxicosis / hyperthyroid = 2-17% of pregancies
Graves = most common.

Hashimotos = most common hypo
2-10 per 1000 pregnancies = hypothyroid

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109
Q

Define premenstrual syndrome

A

PMS is characterised by cyclical, physical, and behavioural symptoms occurring in the luteal phase of the normal menstrual cycle (the time between ovulation and onset of menstruation).

Symptoms must not be present at other times through the cycle, must also cause significant impairment, and must not represent an exacerbation of another disorder, and at least one symptom-free week must be present.

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110
Q

Define amniotic fluid embolism

A

Amniotic fluid embolism syndrome (AFES) is a rare but catastrophic condition that occurs when amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation.
Acute pulmonary hypertension and rapid right ventricular failure ensue (usually lasting 15 to 30 minutes) followed by left ventricular dysfunction; hypoxemic respiratory failure and cardiovascular collapse quickly ensue and culminate in systemic inflammation and noncardiogenic pulmonary edema.

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111
Q

Discuss the Sx of endometrial polyps

A
Usually none
Irregular MB
IMB
Menorrhagia 
PMB 
If polyp protrudes through cervix -> dispareunia/dysmenorrhoa
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112
Q

What is the epidemiology of PPH?

A

Incidence 5% deliveries in developed world

<38% in developing countries - maj cause maternal mortality

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113
Q

What position should the mother be in labour?

A

Supine with her knees bent (ie, dorsal lithotomy position; the usual choice)
Lateral (Sims) position
Partial sitting or squatting position
On her hands and knees

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114
Q

Spindle-shaped cells with no mitotic activity or remarkable nuclear atypia

A

Fibroid

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115
Q

Explain the aetiology of chlamydia

A

Infections are caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis , which is almost always transmitted by sexual contact, and it is one of the most commonly reported sexually transmitted infections. The bacterium may cause symptoms, but in most people the infection is asymptomatic.

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116
Q

Discuss the complications of toxic shock syndrome

A
Bacteraemia
ARDS
DIC
RF
Wound sequela 
Neuropsychiatric sequelae
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117
Q

What is the epidemiology of endometrial polyps

A

Pedunculated > sessile

40s-50s peak

10% of women

Present in 25% of women with abnormal bleeding

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118
Q

Aetiology of vulval cancer

A

Squamous cell cancers of skin
Femoral+inguinal LN involvement eventually -> before lung / liver

HPV related = young
Non- HPV = old - associated with VIN or lichen sclerosis

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119
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with endometriosis

A

Often long period before diagnosis

Positive association with 2+3rd trimester complications

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120
Q

Define molar pregnancy

A

Hydatidiform moles are chromosomally abnormal pregnancies that have the potential to become malignant (gestational trophoblastic neoplasia). Gestational trophoblastic disease includes tumours of fetal tissues, including hydatidiform moles, arising from placental trophoblasts. Syncytiotrophoblasts secrete human chorionic gonadotrophin and, therefore, this hormonal product is used as a tumour marker for the disease.

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121
Q

Sx of infertility in women

A
RFs
Hx pelvic surgery
Irregular cycles
Hirsituism
ACNE
Palpable uterine abnormalities
Adnexal abnormalities

UNCOMMON
Galactorrhoea
Dyspareunia - could indicate adhesions/endometriosis
Cul-de-sac abnormalities

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122
Q

Generate a management plan for placental abruption

A

Unstable fetus / mother

  • Deliver
  • Corticosteroids if <34w
  • Post op uterotonic
  • haemostatic preparations post op
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123
Q

Define hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy (NVP), commonly referred to as morning sickness, typically begins between the fourth and seventh week after the last menstrual period. It is characterised by nausea and vomiting that occur more frequently during the morning hours, and typically resolves in the second trimester. Hyperemesis gravidarum is the most severe form of NVP and is characterised by persistent vomiting, volume depletion, ketosis, electrolyte disturbances, and weight loss.

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124
Q

Assessment of vaginal bleeding

List causes of vaginal bleeding during reproductive ages?

A
Uterine fibroids
Hypotheroidism
Endometritis 
DUB - exclusion
PCOS
Cervical/endometrial carcinoma/polyp
Leiomyomas (fibroid)
Cervicitis 
Adenomyosis 

POST COITAL
- Cancers / polyps / ectropion

SYSTEMIC

  • liver disease
  • RF
  • Clotting disorders

Pharmacological/iatrogenic

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125
Q

Describe management of the 3rd stage of labour?

A

The labor process has now entered the third stage, ie, delivery of the placenta. Three classic signs indicate that the placenta has separated from the uterus: (1) The uterus contracts and rises, (2) the cord suddenly lengthens, and (3) a gush of blood occurs.

Delivery of the placenta usually happens within 5-10 minutes after delivery of the fetus, but it is considered normal up to 30 minutes after delivery of the fetus. Excessive traction should not be applied to the cord to avoid inverting the uterus, which can cause severe postpartum hemorrhage and is an obstetric emergency. The placenta can also be manually separated by passing a hand between the placenta and uterine wall. After the placenta is delivered, inspect it for completeness and for the presence of 1 umbilical vein and 2 umbilical arteries. Oxytocin can be administered throughout the third stage to facilitate placental separation by inducing uterine contractions and to decrease bleeding.

Expectant management of the third stage involves allowing the placenta to deliver spontaneously, whereas active management involves administration of uterotonic agent (usually oxytocin, an ergot alkaloid, or prostaglandins) before the placenta is delivered. This is done with early clamping and cutting of the cord and with controlled traction on the cord while placental separation and delivery are awaited.
A review of 5 randomized trials comparing active versus expectant management of the third stage demonstrated that active management was associated with lowered risks of maternal blood loss, postpartum hemorrhage, and prolongation of the third stage, but it increased maternal nausea, vomiting, and blood pressure (when ergometrine was used).

After the placenta is delivered, the labor and delivery period is complete. Palpate the patient’s abdomen to confirm reduction in the size of the uterus and its firmness. Ongoing blood loss and a boggy uterus suggest uterine atony. A thorough examination of the birth canal, including the cervix and the vagina, the perineum, and the distal rectum, is warranted, and repair of episiotomy or perineal/vaginal lacerations should be carried out.

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126
Q

What are the relevant Ix for epilepsy in pregnancy

A

Aim is to have the lowest possible dose of antiepileptic medication

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127
Q

Prognosis of PCOS

A

PCOS is a chronic condition. There is no cure. Thus, management options are targeted at alleviating the signs and symptoms to reduce morbidity. Another goal of treatment is to prevent the development of complications such as type 2 diabetes. There have been no clinical trials demonstrating the efficacy of any agent in terms of preventing complications. Many experts believe that weight loss and metformin may prevent diabetes and atherosclerosis.

In PCOS, therapy is generally continued throughout the reproductive years. If treatments are stopped during that time, symptoms generally recur. Once a women with PCOS reaches menopause, hyper-androgenic manifestations may improve as ovarian function declines, allowing withdrawal of therapies directed against hyper-androgenism.

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128
Q

Describe the RFs for pelvic inflammatory disease

A
STRONG 
Prev chalmidya / gonorrhoea
Young age at onset of sexual activity 
Unprotected intercourse with multiple partners 
Hx PID
IUD use 
WEAK
Smoking
Low socioeconomic status
Vaginal douching
Intercourse during menstruation
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129
Q

Epidemiology of LGA

A

1 out of 10 women

1 in 3 Americans

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130
Q

Sx of obesity in pregnancy

A

BMI >30

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131
Q

Describe the prognosis of toxic shock syndrome

A

Mortality ranging from 30% to 85% has been reported for streptococcal toxic shock syndrome (TSS), despite prompt antibiotic therapy.

Shock is the most important predictor of death. Advanced age, hypotension, and multi-organ system failure are significantly associated with increased mortality.

Mortality for menstrual cases is now 1.8% compared with 6% mortality associated with non-menstrual cases.

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132
Q

Discuss the aetiology syphilis infection

A

Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum , a motile spirochaete bacterium. Although often described as spiral or coiled, high-resolution time-lapse microscopy has confirmed earlier reports that T pallidum has a flat-wave morphology. Humans are its only natural host. In-vitro culture is not possible. Entry of T pallidum probably occurs via the lesions of primary and secondary syphilis through areas of minor abrasion as a result of sexual intercourse at genital and mucous membrane sites. Oro-genital sex is an important route of transmission and, therefore, transmission can occur despite the use of condoms for penetrative sex. Other modes of transmission are blood transfusion and transplacental transmission from mother to fetus.

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133
Q

Describe the Sx of labour

A

Frequency and time of onset of contractions
Status of the amniotic membranes (whether spontaneous rupture of the membranes has occurred, and if so, whether the amniotic fluid is clear or meconium stained)
Fetal movements
Presence or absence of vaginal bleeding.

Braxton-Hicks contractions must be differentiated from true contractions. Typical features of Braxton-Hicks contractions are as follows:
Usually occur no more often than once or twice per hour, and often just a few times per day
Irregular and do not increase in frequency with increasing intensity
Resolve with ambulation or a change in activity
Contractions that lead to labor have the following characteristics:
May start as infrequently as every 10-15 minutes, but usually accelerate over time, increasing to contractions that occur every 2-3 minutes
Tend to last longer and are more intense than Braxton-Hicks contractions
Lead to cervical change

The physical examination should include documentation of the following:
Maternal vital signs
Fetal presentation
Assessment of fetal well-being
Frequency, duration, and intensity of uterine contractions
Abdominal examination with Leopold maneuvers
Pelvic examination with sterile gloves

Digital examination allows the clinician to determine the following aspects of the cervix:
Degree of dilatation, which ranges from 0 cm (closed or fingertip) to 10 cm (complete or fully dilated)
Effacement (assessment of the cervical length, which can be reported as a percentage of the normal 3- to 4-cm–long cervix or described as the actual cervical length)
Position (ie, anterior or posterior)
Consistency (ie, soft or firm)

Fatal heart rate assessed constantly via CTG

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134
Q

A 25-year-old pregnant woman presents for her routine antenatal visit. She is at 32 weeks’ gestation and reports no symptoms. On examination, her BP is 145/95 mmHg and urinalysis reveals proteinuria (2+). She is referred to the antenatal day unit where a quantitative protein measurement of 1.5 g/24 hours is confirmed. Further laboratory tests reveal elevated liver enzymes; however, platelets and all other tests are normal.

A

Pre-eclampsia

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135
Q

What are the Aetiology / RFs for gonorrhoea infection

A
STRONG
Age 15-29
MSM
Black ancestry
Current  prior Hx of STI
Multiple recent sexual partners
Inconsistent condom use
RFs of partner 
Hx sexual/physical abuse

WEAK
Substance use
Past incarceration

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136
Q

Generate a management plan for dysfunctional uterine bleeding

A

Progestogens - medroxyprogesterone/norethisterone

Intrauterine progesterone device

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137
Q

A 62-year-old woman with poor access to health care presents with low energy, weight loss, and pelvic pain with an exophytic mass on pelvic exam and renal failure.

A

Cervical cancer

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138
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of atrophic vaginitis

A

An estimated 10 to 40 percent of postmenopausal women have symptoms of atrophic vaginitis

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139
Q

Define fatty liver of pregnancy

A

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP) is a serious complication unique to pregnancy, characterized by microvesicular steatosis in the liver. The foremost cause of AFLP is thought to be due to a mitochondrial dysfunction in the oxidation of fatty acids leading to an accumulation in hepatocytes. The infiltration of fatty acids causes acute liver insufficiency, which leads to most of the symptoms that present in this condition. If not diagnosed and treated promptly, AFLP can result in high maternal and neonatal morbidity and mortality.

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140
Q

Rx of pregnancy of unknown location

A

Treatment should only be considered when a potentially viable intrauterine pregnancy has been definitively excluded

A treated persistent PUL is defined as one managed medically (generally with methotrexate) without confirmation of the location of the pregnancy such as by ultrasound, laparoscopy or uterine evacuation

A resolved persistent PUL is defined as serum hCG reaching a non-pregnant value (generally less than 5 IU/l) after expectant management, or after uterine evacuation without evidence of chorionic villi on histopathological examination

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141
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for ectopic pregnancy and interpret the results

A

Preg test - Positive
TVUS - determines location - “Donut” sign OR “Ring of fire” - increased blood flow with doppler
AbdoUSS - Less sensitivity that TVUS
Serum HCG - <53% increase in level over 48 hours or plateau of level
Uterine aspiration - intrauterine chorionic villi absent

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142
Q

What are the RFs for cervical polyps

A

Post-menarche
Pre-menopausal
Pregnancy

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143
Q

A 30-year-old woman with a history of mastitis presents with sharp shooting breast pain and an exquisitely tender, swollen, red, and warm fluctuant peri-areolar breast mass.

A

Breast abscess

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144
Q

What is the epidemiology of premenstrual syndrome

A

Clinically significant PMS is thought to affect 3% to 8% of women, with a point prevalence of 20% to 30% in some studies. Rates of PMDD are estimated to be between 1.2% and 10%.

W>B

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145
Q

Define epilepsy in pregnancy

A

A seizure is defined as “a transient occurrence of signs and/or symptoms due to abnormal excessive or synchronous neuronal activity in the brain”. Epilepsy is considered to be a disease of the brain defined by any of the following conditions:

At least 2 unprovoked (or reflex) seizures occurring more than 24 hours apart

One unprovoked (or reflex) seizure and a probability of further seizures similar to the general recurrence risk (at least 60%) after 2 unprovoked seizures, occurring over the next 10 years

Diagnosis of an epilepsy syndrome.

Epileptic seizures may be classified as focal, generalised, or unknown onset, with subcategories of motor, non-motor (absence), with retained or impaired awareness for focal seizures.

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146
Q

Discuss the aetiology of premenstrual syndrome

A

PMS and PMDD occur in women with ovulatory cycles, and they do not occur before puberty or after menopause. This association implies a role of gonadal steroid hormones. Absence of PMS/PMDD during pregnancy (in addition to supporting evidence) suggests that changing levels of gonadal steroid hormones play a role in PMS/PMDD.

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147
Q

Ix for mastitis / breast abscess

A

Breast US - if any pointer to abscess
Needle aspiration - purulent fluid indicates a breast abscess
Cytology of FNA
Milk, aspirate, discharge, or biopsy tissue for culture and sensitivity - +ve culture indicates infection
CAN DO PUNCH BIOPSY IF FEAR TB

If indication of systemic infection - perform blood cultures + FBC

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148
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms/signs of cutaneous warts

A

presence of risk factors
female aged 19-22
male aged 22-26
sessile exophytic papillomas

asymptomatic
pruritus
bleeding
pain

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149
Q

Ix for vulval cancer

A

Biopsy

Staging

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150
Q

Describe the relevant Ix for Rh incompatibility

A

Maternal blood type - Rh -ve
Maternal serum AB Rh screen - +ve

Consider fetal/paternal blood typing
Consider USS - may show subcutaneous oedema, ascites, pleural effusion, or pericardial effusion if untreated

Doppler in MCA can predict anaemia in fetus if elevated ≥1.5 MoM

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151
Q

Aetiology of subfertilty in men

A

There is no formal classification of male infertility. It may be categorised according to aetiology:

Primary spermatic failure

Genetic disorders of infertility

Obstructive azoospermia

Varicocele

Hypogonadism

Cryptorchidism

Idiopathic

Male contraception

Male accessory gland infections

Germ cell malignancies and testicular microcalcifications

Disorders of ejaculation.

Factors that alter spermatogenesis through low testosterone levels include obesity, endocrinopathies, and exposure to medicine or environmental toxins.

Other factors that have a direct deleterious effect on spermatogenesis include varicocele, increased scrotal heat, systemic diseases, smoking, history of undescended testicles, and alcohol intake.

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152
Q

Generate a management pan for premature labour

A

Maternal evaluation + assessment of fetal viability

CORTICOSTEROIDS - beclametasone /dexamethasone sodium phosphate
IM

Consider induced delivery

ABx for group B strep -> clindamycin / benzylpenicillin sodium

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153
Q

Define ovarian cyst

A

Ovarian cyst is a surgical, imaging, or examination finding of an enlarged, fluid-filled ovary or portion of ovarian tissue. Ovarian cysts imply a pathophysiological process involving the ovary itself.

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154
Q

Sx of lichen sclerosis

A
Itchiness
Soreness
Splitting of skin (from itching)
White parchment paper appearance
Fissuring possible
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155
Q

Explain RFs fibroids

A

STRONG
Increased BMI
Increased age
Black ethnicity

WEAK
HTN
Dietary intake high in red meat
Sex hormone exposure 
Nulliparous
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156
Q

What is the prognosis of breech presentation

A

No differences at 2 years postnatal were found between planned caesarean section and planned vaginal birth in maternal outcomes of breastfeeding; relationship with child or partner; pain; subsequent pregnancy; incontinence; depression; urinary, menstrual, or sexual problems; fatigue; or distressing memories of the birth experience. However, planned caesarean section was associated with a higher risk of constipation.

Adult intellectual performance at 18 years of age was not affected by mode of delivery. There was also no difference in the risk of death or neurodevelopmental delay.

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157
Q

Define termination of pregnancy

A

Elective termination of pregnancy

The law:

(a) that the pregnancy has not exceeded its twenty-fourth week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family; or
(b) that the termination of the pregnancy is necessary to prevent grave permanent injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman; or
(c) that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk to the life of the pregnant woman, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated
(d) that there is a substantial risk that if the child were born it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped.

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158
Q

Describe management of the second phase of labour?

A

When the woman enters the second stage of labor with complete cervical dilatation, the fetal heart rate should be monitored or auscultated at least every 5 minutes and after each contraction during the second stage.

Although the parturient may be encouraged to actively push in concordance with the contractions during the second stage, many women with epidural anesthesia who do not feel the urge to push may allow the fetus to descend passively, with a period of rest before active pushing begins.

When a prolonged second stage of labor is encountered, clinical assessment of the parturient, the fetus, and the expulsive forces is warranted.

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159
Q

Sx of polyhydramnios

A

LGA
Multiple pregnancy
Fetal abnormalities associated with polyhydramnios include neonatal macrosomia, fetal or neonatal hydrops with anasarca, ascites, pleural or pericardial effusions, and gastrointestinal tract obstruction (eg, duodenal atresia, tracheoesophageal fistula).
Skeletal malformations can also occur, including congenital hip dislocation, clubfoot, and limb reduction defect.
Abnormalities in fetal movement are suggestive of primary neurologic abnormalities or may be in association with a genetic syndrome, such as polyploidy.

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160
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with amniotic fluid embolism

A

Leading cause of maternal deaths in developed countries

85% have neurological injury.

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161
Q

RFs for urogenital prolapse

A

Birth, aging
Congenital weaknesses (ie 2% of nulliparous still get)
Hysterectomy - with VVault
Anything causing raised intra-abdominal pressure - IE coughing/constipation

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162
Q

Define PPH

A

Bloodloss >500-1L after delivery

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163
Q

RFs for trichomonas vaginalis

A

Multiple partners

Disuse of barrier contraceptives

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164
Q

Prognosis of infertility in women

A

Clomifene - 36% probability of pregnancy, 10% of pregnancies twins

GnRH - 20-22% probability of pregnancy, 30% of pregnancies twins

NB twins increase with age

IVF is the most successful treatment for infertility, regardless of diagnosis:

54.4% live births in women under 35 years of age. This declined with age: 42% for women aged 35 to 37 years; 26.6% for women aged 38 to 40 years; 13.3% for women aged 41 to 42 years; and only 3.9% in women aged over 42 years.

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165
Q

What are the relevant Ix for premenstrual syndrome

A

Symptom diary - predominance in luteal phase

TFTs - rule out - N
FSH - rule out Meno - N
Depression screen

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166
Q

Generate a management plan for anaemia in pregnancy

A

Supplemental plan for ALL WOMEN:
IRON - 30mg/day
OR 60mg/day guaranteed in FOOD

A 55 kg woman requires approximately 1 gram of additional iron from conception to delivery

BUT Rx of IDA:
Oral/IV iron
ORAL = Ferrous Sulphate 65mg-200mg daily (absorption increased with Vit C supplementation, avoidance of coffee)
IV = NOT used in 1st trimester, but low threshold in 2/3rd

Usually takes 3 weeks to correct.

Transfusion for SEVERE symptoms

OTHERS

  • Folic acid supplementation
  • Vit B12 supplementation
  • Avoid oxidant meds if G-6PD
  • SCD = transfusion
  • Thal = transfusion
  • A/I causes = transfusion

Continue post partum

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167
Q

A family attends a 12-week dating scan. The midwife sonographer appears concerned during the scan and obtains a second opinion. The second sonographer who undertakes the ultrasound examination confirms the absence of visible heart activity of the embryo.

A

Miscarriage

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168
Q

Sx of skin changes in pregnancy

A

Normally pigmented areas become more so - IE nipples, external genitalia, anal region

Fresh pigmentation on face = normal called CHLOASMA / MELASMA GRAVIDARUM

Fresh pigmentation also seen on linea alba line - called LINEA NIGRA

Thought to be due to excess melanin in pregnancy - Melanocyte-stimulating hormone is elevated early in pregnancy

NORMAL to see striae
- STRIAE GRAVIDARUM

Seen on thighs, abdomen, breast

Persistent striae are called STRIAE ALBICANTES

May be associated with increased ACTH

Increased glands in breasts - glands of Montgomery

Rectus abdominus may separate in middle - diastisis recti

Angiomas/vascular spiders also appear = normal

Palmar erythema also normal

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169
Q

RFs for vasa praevia

A

Vasa previa may be associated with low-lying placenta, placenta with accessory lobes, and with multiple pregnancies.

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170
Q

Summarise the possible complications of a molar pregnancy

A

The risk for recurrent gestational trophoblastic disease in a future pregnancy is 1% (or about 10 times the baseline risk). Patients should be followed closely in subsequent pregnancies.
Among patients with complete molar pregnancy, about 20% develop malignant gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN).

About 5% of patients with partial molar pregnancies will develop malignant GTN. The rate of cure for these conditions exceeds 95%.

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171
Q

Discuss the management plan for gonorrhoea infection

A

Non-Pregnant
- DUAL ABx therapy
Ceftriaxone + azithromycin

Hx of sexual abuse - include metronidazole

Pregnancy = ceftriaxone + azithromycin

Neonate - just ceftriaxone

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172
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of chlamydia

A

Genital chlamydia is the most common bacterial STD in resource-rich countries.

A total of 202,546 chlamydia diagnoses were made in England in 2016, predominantly in departments of genitourinary medicine, where it accounts for 49% of all new STD diagnoses.

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173
Q

Generate a management plan for molar pregnancies

A

DESIRING FERTILITY

  • Dilation and evacuation
  • Contraception

= add antiemetic if hyper-E-Grav
= add Bblocker if thyrotoxicity
= add magnesium sulphate and anti-hypertensives with pre-eclampsia
= caution bleeding

NOT DESIRING FERTILITY
- hysterectomy

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174
Q

Aetiology of vasa praevia

A

Vasa previa occurs when the fetal vessels in the membrane are situated in front of the presenting part of the fetus. This may occur because of a velamentous insertion of the cord or with vessels running between the placenta and a succenturiate lobe. Vasa previa may also exist over the dividing membrane when a second twin has a velamentous insertion of the umbilical cord.

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175
Q

Discuss the aetiology of Rh incompatibility

A

Exposure of an RhD-negative mother to RhD-positive fetal RBCs results in the generation of B lymphocyte clones that recognise the foreign RBC antigen, and promote production of IgG. Memory B lymphocytes await the reappearance of RBCs containing the respective antigen in a subsequent pregnancy. When challenged by these antigenic erythrocytes, the lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells and produce IgG. Maternal IgG crosses the placenta and attaches to fetal erythrocytes that have expressed the antigen. These RBCs are then sequestered by macrophages in the fetal spleen, where extravascular haemolysis occurs, producing fetal anaemia. The fetus attempts to compensate by increasing extramedullary haematopoiesis. This results in hepatosplenomegaly, portal hypertension, cardiac compromise, tissue hypoxia, hypoviscosity, and increased brain perfusion. Extreme fetal haemoglobin deficits of 70 g/L (7 g/dL) or greater can ultimately lead to hydrops fetalis (collection of fluid in serous compartments) and intrauterine fetal death, unless corrected by intrauterine fetal transfusion or neonatal exchange transfusion following delivery.

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176
Q

Aetiology of pregnancy of unknown location

A

The true nature of the pregnancy can be an ongoing viable intrauterine pregnancy, a failed pregnancy, an ectopic pregnancy or rarely a persisting PUL.

Definite ectopic pregnancy Extrauterine gestational sac with yolk sac or
embryo (with or without cardiac activity).

Pregnancy of unknown location – probable ectopic pregnancy Inhomogeneous adnexal mass or extrauterine sac-like structure.

“True” pregnancy of unknown location No signs of intrauterine nor extrauterine pregnancy on transvaginal ultrasonography.

Pregnancy of unknown location – probable intrauterine pregnancy Intrauterine gestational sac-like structure.

Definite intrauterine pregnancy Intrauterine gestational sac with yolk sac or embryo (with or without cardiac activity).

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177
Q

Define vulval cancer

A

Carcinoma of the vulva
HPV related = young
Non- HPV = old - associated with VIN or lichen sclerosis

85% squamous
5% melanoma

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178
Q

What is succenturiate placenta?

A

Where the placenta has 1 or more accessory lobes

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179
Q

A 28-year-old woman in her second post-partum week presents with recent-onset breast pain and a tender wedge-shaped area in one breast that feels firm, warm, and swollen, and appears erythematous. She has decreased milk output, flu-like symptoms, pyrexia of 38°C (100.4°F), and myalgia, in addition to feeling fatigued.

A

Infectious mastitis

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180
Q

A 32-year-old nulliparous woman presents with severe vulval pain and swelling. She has had increasing pain over the last day unrelieved by oral analgesics (paracetamol). She denies history of STDs, and her partner is asymptomatic. On exam, the patient is in severe discomfort and finding it difficult to sit down. She is mildly pyrexial. On vulval exam the left vulva is erythematous with swelling of the medial aspect and introitus, with the labium minus transecting a cystic swelling.
[Fig-2]
There is no involvement of the distal vagina and no palpable groin adenopathy. No lesions or excoriations are present. The cyst is very tender to palpation, and the patient is unable to tolerate speculum insertion for vaginal inspection.

A

Bartholin’s cyst

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181
Q

Summarise the indications for endometrial biopsy

A

Chronic anovulation -> eg PCOS -> increased risk for endometrial hyperplasia/neoplasia.

To rule out endometrial hyperplasia/neoplasia

Suspected uterine cancer (biopsy may discover cells in endometrium)

TVUS usually done BEFORE. If endometrial thickness <4cm then biopsy is RARELY performed

Pipelle used to obtain sample.

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182
Q

Identify the possible complications of cutaneous warts and its management

A

Bleeding/scarring/infection from Rx
SCC / adenocarcinoma
Persistent hyperpigmentation
Rx related hypertrophic scarring

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183
Q

List the complications of ovarian cysts

A
Cyst spillage (may contain malignant cells(
Cyst rupture 
Ovarian torsion
Dyspareunia 
Ovarian cancer
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184
Q

List the complications of placenta praevia

A
Anaemia
C-section complications
Preterm birth
Abnormally adherent placenta 
DIC
IUGR
Fetal death 
Sudden infant death syndrome
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185
Q

A 22-year-old nulliparous woman presents with vulval pain and swelling. She noted sudden onset
of swelling with increasing discomfort after sexual intercourse several days before. Her partner is asymptomatic. She denies any history of STDs. Her general exam is unremarkable and she is afebrile. On vulval exam, a swelling is noted at the medial aspect of the labia and introitus with the labium minus transecting the cystic mass.
[Fig-1]
There is no palpable groin adenopathy. No lesions or excoriations are present. The cyst is mildly tender to palpation. Vaginal speculum exam reveals normal-appearing mucosa without significant discharge.

A

Bartholins cyst

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186
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of ovarian cancer

A

COMMON

Pelvic mass (adnexal) 
GI - abdominal bloating, nausea, dyspepsia, early satiety, diarrhoea, and constipation
Symptom duration 3 months
Ascites
Distention 

UNCOMMON

Pleural effusion

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187
Q

A 37-year-old primigravid white female with a dichorionic twin gestation presents for a routine antenatal visit at 30 weeks. Her chief complaint is that of itching of the palms of her hands and the soles of her feet of several days’ duration. She states that the symptoms started at night but have now progressed to generalised pruritus sparing her face. She cannot sleep at night. She denies nausea, emesis, and abdominal pain and feels excellent fetal activity. She denies new exposures. She previously had her gall bladder removed for cholelithiasis. There is no evidence of jaundice and her liver is non-tender. The fundal height is 31 cm above the pubis and a fetal non-stress test is reactive. Urinalysis is negative for protein. She has excoriations on her arms, legs, and abdomen from scratching. There is no evidence of ulcers, papules, or urticaria.

A

obstetric cholestasis

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188
Q

Rx of oligohydramnios

A

The transabdominal instillation of indigo carmine may be used to evaluate for PROM.
The transcervical instillation of isotonic sodium chloride solution (ie, amnioinfusion) at the time of delivery reduces the risk of cord compression, fetal distress, and meconium dilution. It also reduces the potential need for cesarean delivery.

Maternal bed rest and hydration promote the production of amniotic fluid by increasing the maternal intravascular space. Bed rest may also help when pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is present, allowing prolongation of the pregnancy.

Studies show that oral hydration, by having the women drink 2 liters of water, increases the AFI by 30%.

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189
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Bartholin’s cyst

A

Bartholin’s cysts arise in the duct system of the Bartholin’s gland and are typically the result of occlusion of the main duct into the vestibule.

The glands are believed to provide a lubricating function during sexual intercourse and a moisturising effect on the vulval surfaces. While ductal obstruction is an essential aetiological factor, the cause of obstruction is typically obscure. It may occur secondary to mucus or trauma, or from infection and oedema compressing the duct.

A Bartholin’s abscess more commonly results from polymicrobial non-gonorrhoeal infection of the cyst fluid rather than primary infection of the gland or duct.

Common isolates from Bartholin’s gland abscesses include:

 Staphylococcus aureus
 Staphylococcus epidermidis
 Streptococcus faecalis
 Group B streptococci
 Enterococcus species
 Escherichia coli
 Pseudomonas aeruginosa
 Bacteroides fragilis
 Clostridium perfringens
 Peptostreptococcus species
 Fusobacterium species
 Coliforms
 Neisseria gonorrhoeae (no cases reported in most recent case series)
 Chlamydia trachomatis (no cases reported in most recent case series).
RFs:
Reproductive age
Hx Bartholins
Sex
Trauma/surgery
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190
Q

Define infertility in women

A

The diminished ability of a couple to conceive a child. This may result from a definable cause (e.g., ovulatory, tubal, or sperm problem), or may be unexplained failure to conceive over a 2-year period.

Can be due to ovulatory dysfunction, tubal or other anatomical disorders, endometriosis, or unknown causes.

Workup requires evaluation of reproductive anatomy and physiology; even in the absence of diagnosis, a couple is considered to be subfertile after 2 years of regular unprotected sexual intercourse without pregnancy.

Timing and type of treatment are diagnosis-dependent, but may include medical therapy, surgical therapy, or IVF.

Prognosis is dependent on patient age, infertility diagnosis, and treatment plan.

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191
Q

A 45-year-old G3, P3 black woman presents with several years of progressively heavier and prolonged menstrual periods. Over the past months she has also experienced lethargy and weakness. She recently visited her primary care physician for tiredness and was diagnosed with moderate anaemia (haemoglobin of 90 g/L [9 g/dL]). Family history is remarkable for a sister who underwent hysterectomy at age 49 for uterine fibroids. Bimanual examination discloses a 16-week enlarged, firm and irregular uterus. Adnexal and rectal examinations are normal and stool is haem negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows an enlarged uterus with irregular contour and multiple intramural masses consistent with uterine fibroids. Both ovaries are visualised and normal.

A

Fibroids

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192
Q

Assessment of vaginal bleeding

List the causes of PM bleeding?

A

Malignancies

Atrophic vaginitis = usually associated with intercourse

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193
Q

What are the relevant Ix for epilepsy in pregnancy

A

EEG - defines whether generalsed or focal
Blood Glucose - extreme hypo/hyper can cause provoked generalised tonic-clonic seizures
FBC - CNS/systemic infection can cause seizures
Electrolytes - hypo/hypernatraemia or uraemia can cause
Toxicology screen - drugs can cause
Prolactin - >2x baseline indicates a generalised tonic-clonic seizure
CK - >200mU/mL (questionable reliability but high levels 2hrs after insult can suggest tonic-clonic seizure)

MRI brain - structural lesion can cause

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194
Q

Rx of trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole 200mg TD for a week OR one dose of 2g (and avoidance of alcohol)

Short courses more likely to produce gastritis but may be good if non-adherent patient

Recheck smear after Rx

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195
Q

A 28-year-old woman first presents for antenatal care at 24 weeks of gestation. Past medical history is notable for irregular periods and class I obesity (BMI 30 kg/m²). The results of a 75-gram oral glucose tolerance test performed after an overnight fast are: fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/L (105 mg/dL); 1-hour glucose 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL); and 2-hour glucose 8.9 mmol/L (160 mg/dL).

A

GDM

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196
Q

A 35-year-old woman presents at 37 weeks’ gestation with severe headache and acute abdominal pain. She had a routine antenatal visit 4 days previously with no signs or symptoms reported or observed. On examination, her BP is 165/110 mmHg and urinalysis reveals proteinuria (3+). She is admitted to hospital and is started on labetalol.

A

Pre-eclampsia

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197
Q

A 38-year-old woman, gravida 5, para 4, and an active smoker, is found to have an abnormal placenta on a routine dating ultrasound at 13 weeks. She returns with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks. She is not in labour.

A

Placenta praevia

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198
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Bartholin’s cyst

A

2-3%

Approximately 3% of women who underwent pelvic MRI (serving as controls as part of research studies) were noted to have Bartholin’s gland cysts identified.

Bartholin’s cysts typically occur in sexually active women of reproductive age.

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199
Q

Aetiology of fatty liver of pregnancy

A

The foremost cause of AFLP is thought to be due to a mitochondrial dysfunction in the oxidation of fatty acids leading to an accumulation in hepatocytes. The infiltration of fatty acids causes acute liver insufficiency, which leads to most of the symptoms that present in this condition. If not diagnosed and treated promptly, AFLP can result in high maternal and neonatal morbidity and mortality.

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200
Q

Explain the risk factors of ectopic pregnancy

A
STRONG
previous ectopic pregnancy
previous tubal sterilisation surgery
in utero diethylstilbestrol exposure of the mother
intrauterine device (IUD) use
previous genital infections
chronic salpingitis
salpingitis isthmica nodosa
infertility
multiple sexual partners
smoking
WEAK
assisted reproductive technology (ART)
first sexual encounter <18 years
maternal age >35 years
tubal reconstruction surgery
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201
Q

Rx of UTI in pregnancy

A

Asymptomatic - nitrofurantoin / trimethoprim (can do single dose/3 days/ten days)

Pyelonephritis:
Prompt antimicrobials:
Ampicillin + Gentamicin OR ceftriaxone (until afebrile for 24hr)
IV hydration = cornerstone of Rx

NB 30-40% of pyelos relapse -> consider longer Rx 7-10days nitrofurantoin

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202
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of bacterial vaginosis

A
presence of risk factors
vaginal discharge
dysuria
discharge adherent to vaginal mucosa
prior episodes
pruritus
vulvodynia
vaginal dryness
dyspareunia
erythema
pale epithelium
shiny epithelium
decreased elasticity
friable epithelium
fever
vaginal bleeding
abdominal pain
strawberry cervix
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203
Q

Identify appropriate investigation for anaemia in pregnancy

A

RBC count
CBC count
Iron studies - serum ferritin (eg, <30 ng/mL [<30 mcg/L]),
TIBC, Transferrin Sat (<20%) - beware iron supplements can cause pseudo.

Extreme microcytosis (eg, mean corpuscular volume [MCV] <80 fL), suggestive of thalassemia

Macrocytosis (MCV >100 fL), suggestive of vitamin B12 or folate deficiency or reticulocytosis due to hemolysis

Other cytopenias such as thrombocytopenia or neutropenia

Abnormally high white blood cell (WBC) count or platelet count

Abnormal RBC or WBC morphologies

Failure of the anemia to correct with iron supplementation

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204
Q

Sx of termination of pregnancy/ discuss counselling

A

Most abortion counseling focuses on the decision-making process, the options for continuing the pregnancy, medical issues of the pregnancy, information regarding the pregnancy itself, full disclosure of the risks of continuing to term, information and options for the technique of the abortion procedure, and, finally, information regarding a contraceptive decision. The risks and benefits of both medical and surgical abortions should be reviewed.
The counseling process is aimed primarily at the woman herself but may also include other persons she chooses to be involved. Studies indicate that males are involved in more than 40% of the decisions, but only scant research has been performed on male involvement in the process. Some women can reach a decision quickly; others take longer to decide. The counseling process should include referrals for those who need ongoing support.
Of utmost importance is to ensure that the patient has had enough time to consider her options and that she is not being coerced into her decision. In actual US Supreme Court reference materials there are statements that women may experience “regret…depression…loss of esteem”; however, most research fails to substantiate this, and, in fact, postabortion mental health benefits have been shown. Some studies show significant negative mental health effects of bearing an unwanted child, which others argue should be placed into the counseling context, although it seldom is. Most women experiencing depression postabortion experienced significant preabortion depression. [18]
Many strategies can be used in the counseling session. Open-ended questions bring out issues that are pertinent to the woman and encourage meaningful exchange of dialogue. The patient’s emotions should be validated, and the counselor should encourage the client to explore her feelings in more depth. Health care providers and counselors may not have the time or expertise to devote themselves to lengthy sessions, and not all women are able to complete the process in a day if these issues need to be explored before the abortion procedure.

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205
Q

Define toxic shock syndrome

A

Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is an exotoxin-mediated illness caused by bacterial infection. Organisms commonly responsible include group A streptococcus ( Streptococcus pyogenes ), or methicillin-sensitive (MSSA) or methicillin-resistant (MRSA) Staphylococcus aureus . Although the presenting signs and symptoms can be non-specific (e.g., fever, chills, myalgias, headache), the course of the disease is precipitous, and shock and multi-organ system failure occur early in the course of the disease.

Staphylococcal TSS can be split into 2 groups: menstrual TSS, which occurs in women during menstruation with extended use of a single tampon or, historically, with highly absorbable tampons; and non-menstrual TSS, which can result from a variety of staphylococcal post-partum vaginal and caesarean wound infections.

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206
Q

List the complications of urinary incontinence in women

A
Surgery related:
Retention
UTI
Perforation of bladder
Haemorrhage
Bowel injury 
Voiding disorders
Wound complications
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207
Q

What is the epidemiology of gestational hypertension

A

Hypertension is the most frequently identified medical problem during pregnancy. Hypertensive disorders are a common cause of morbidity and mortality during pregnancy, contributing to poor maternal and neonatal outcomes if not adequately managed. In the UK, gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia complicate around 5% to 6% of pregnancies.

Healthy nulliparous women may experience higher rates of gestational hypertension (6% to 17%) compared with multiparous women (2% to 4%).

African-American women may be at greater risk than white women.

Gestational hypertension occurs more often in twin pregnancies than in singleton pregnancies.

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208
Q

What are the infectious causes of menorrhagia?

A

Endometritis
Salpingitis
PID

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209
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms/signs of endometriosis

A

Dysmenorrhoea
Chronic/cyclic pelvic pain
Dyspareunia
Sub-fertility
Uterosacral ligament nodularity - rectovaginal palmpation reveals “guitar string” ligament + potential pain on palpation
Pelvic mass
Fixed retroverted uterus
Depression
Dysuria/flank pain/haematuria if bladders involved
Dyschezia/haematochezia if colon involved

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210
Q

Identify the possible complications of bacterial vaginosis and its management

A

Preterm birth
Preterm membranes rupture
Low birth weight
Inc STI risk

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211
Q

Define evacuation of retained products of conception (ERPC)

AKA dilation and evacuation OR surgical termination.

A

A method of abortion as well as a therapeutic procedure used after miscarriage to prevent infection by ensuring that the uterus is fully evacuated.

___________

The first step in the procedure itself is dilation of the cervix. The second step is insertion of a vacuum curette through the cervix. Under ultrasound, the tip of that curette is placed up against the fetal chest or abdomen. The suction is turned on. Amniotic fluid is removed and the fetus dies instantly due to removal of the fetal heart, lungs, and abdominal contents.

This leaves the fetal cranium and skeleton with soft tissue to be removed. The thorax, pelvis, cranium, and each arm and leg are removed separately using surgical instruments. The fetal cranium will usually have to be crushed in order to be extracted. Use of ultrasound greatly facilitates this part of the procedure although it may be done safely without ultrasound guidance. In the absence of ultrasound, the tissue will be carefully inspected to insure all fetal tissue is removed. It is important to recognize that this is the removal of dead tissue to protect the patient from bleeding and infection well after the fetus died instantly. Under no circumstances is the fetus being dismembered alive.

After removal of all fetal tissue, the uterine cavity is thoroughly curetted to insure that all placental tissue, blood, and membranes are removed. The uterus will then be massaged to insure it is firmly contracted to minimize post operative bleeding. The entire procedure usually takes less than 30 minutes and is well tolerated.

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212
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of pre-eclampsia

A
  • Headache: usually frontal; occurs in around 40% of patients with severe disease, and is one the few symptoms that predict an increased risk of eclampsia.
  • Upper abdominal pain: usually right upper quadrant pain; occurs in around 16% of patients with severe disease, and is a clinical symptom of HELLP syndrome. HELLP syndrome is a subtype of severe pre-eclampsia characterised by haemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP).
  • Visual disturbances: for example, photopsia (perceived flashing lights in the visual fields), scotomata, retinal vasospasm; are relatively rare but predict an increased risk of eclampsia. Cortical blindness should alert a clinician to underlying cerebral oedema.
  • Breathlessness: due to pulmonary oedema and may complicate pre-eclampsia. If it occurs after delivery, it is one of the main causes of maternal mortality.
  • Seizures: mandates admission to intensive care unit, stabilisation, and delivery.
  • Oliguria.
HTN 
Reduced metal movement 
FGR
Oedema 
Hyperreflexia
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213
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with cutaneous warts

A

There is no cure for genital warts, and recurrence is not uncommon. The goal of treatment is to eliminate visible lesions. There is no evidence showing that treatment affects the natural course of human papillomavirus infection.

If left untreated, 10% to 30% of genital warts will resolve spontaneously within 3 months.

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214
Q

Generate a management plan for urinary incontinence in women

A

STRESS
Lifestyle - pelvic muscle exercises, WL, fluid management, smoking cessation etc

STRESS with urethral sphincter insufficiency
- Pseudoephedrine
Imipramine
Duloxetine

Oestrogen -> estradiol or conjugated oestrogens IF PM

Urethral bulking injection

Surgery

URGE INCONTINENCE

Anticholinergics:
Oxybutynin
Mirabegron - (adrenergic)
Fesoterodine

Neuromodulation - implant in sacral spine, inhibits micturition reflex - 60-70% works

Botox Rx - makes bladder more compliant. Less firing of afferent, and less ability to contract. 6-12months.

MIXED = use aspects of both

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215
Q

What is amenorrhoea?

A

Transient or permanent absence of menstrual flow and may be subdivided into primary / secondary, relative to menarche.

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216
Q

A 27-year-old woman (gravida 2, para 2) presents to her general practitioner with a chief complaint of pelvic pain. The pain began about 3 weeks previously and is characterised as dull with a pressure-like fullness in the right pelvis. The pain is exacerbated by some movements and by sexual intercourse. She noted no change in intensity or character with her last menses 2 weeks previously. Her past gynaecological and medical histories are unremarkable. Previous surgeries include one caesarean delivery and an appendectomy. Review of symptoms reveals some increased frequency of urination but no other notable menstrual, haematological, GI, or genitourinary symptoms. Physical examination reveals a well-nourished female in no acute distress who demonstrates mild tenderness on deep palpation of the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. On pelvic examination, palpation of the right adnexa elicits moderate tenderness.

A

Ovarian cyst

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217
Q

Prognosis of termination of pregnancy

A

Safer to terminate than continue pregnancy

Contraindications to mifepristone include serious medical problems, such as cerebrovascular or cardiovascular disease, severe liver, kidney or pulmonary disease, preoperative anemia (< 10 mg/dL), undiagnosed ectopic pregnancy, allergies, contraindications to prostaglandin use, active uterine bleeding, or large uterine leiomyomata.

Of all methods of second trimester abortion, the safest procedure (using mortality surveillance data) is dilation and extraction. Labor induction with prostaglandins and passive dilators has a higher risk than dilation and extraction due to the risk of retained placenta.

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218
Q

Ix for cervical polyps

A

Pelvic examination + speculum
- Generally bright red, spongy texture, may be pedunculated (attached by a stalk)
Generally <1cm
Biopsy

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219
Q

Rx of cardiac disease in pregnancy

A

TOP:
- If eisenmenger
- Tetraology of fallot = 1% mortality risk
AFTER 12 weeks the risk of termination is as great as continuing the pregnancy

Minor lesions such as uncomplicated septal defects + PDA rarely justify surgical Rx during pregnancy

Any infections = Rx rigorously. Chest infection = admission to hospital + expert cardiology opinion

Anaemia should be avoided and Rx

Good dental care + dental surgery should be Rx with Abs (endocarditis)

Conversion to IV heparin may be considered if on warfarin

CS may be indicated as labour can be tumultuous

LABOUR Rx
Patient should be propped up. Lithotomy position should be avoided (increases venous return)

Analgesia must be OPTIMUM to reduce tachycardia. Epidurals are good -> provided hypotension is avoided

IM ampicillin and gentamicin given IF ANY evidence of structural lesions (to prevent endocarditis)

During stage 2 labour:
Patient should not be made to make substantial expulsive efforts
Vacuum/forceps should be used readily

Stage 3:
Allow time for circulatory adjustment. Do not rush.
The risk of atonic PPH must be balanced with the effects of oxytocin (tachycardia and hypotension)

IF ACUTE PULMONARY OEDEMA:
Sit up
Hang legs over bed
O2 via face mask
Morphine IM
Frusemide 20-40mg
Seek cardiology
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220
Q

Define cervical cancer & intraepithelial neoplasia

A

Cervical cancer is a human papillomavirus-related malignancy of the uterine cervical mucosa.

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221
Q

RFs for LGA

A
Poorly controlled GDM / T2DM (NB T1DM is associated with microsomia)
Obesity 
Gestational age past 40w
Male
Multiparity
Hydrops fetalis
Congenital anomalies causing hydros fetalis
Amoxicillin
Some links to polyhydramnios
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222
Q

RFs for vulval cancer

A
Age
HPV
Lichen sclerosis
Smoking 
Impaired immunity 
Hx of VIN
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223
Q

Epidemiology of failure to progress/abnormal delivery?

A

Of all cephalic deliveries, 8-11% are complicated by an abnormal first stage of labor. Dystocia occurs in 12% of deliveries in women without a history of prior cesarean delivery. Dystocia may account for as many as 60% of cesarean deliveries.

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224
Q

List complications of premenstrual syndrome

A

None

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225
Q

List the RFs for urinary incontinence in women

A

STRONG

Increasing age
Pregnancy - parity, vag delivery, episiotomy
Obesity 
LUTsymptoms
Long term care facility residence 
Dementia
Constipation - straining 
Faecal incontinence 
High impact physical activity 
Pelvic organ prolapse 
Stroke
Parkinsons
MS
Diuretic use 
Caffeine 

WEAK

White
PM-Women
Functional impairment
FHx
Childhood enuresis 
DM - neurogenic - overflow
Depression
Chronic heart failure 
Smoking 
Genitourinary and pelvic surgery
Radiation exposure 
Alcohol
Antihistamine use
Sedative use
Hypnotic use
Anticholinergic use
Antidepressants 
CCBs
Alpha adrenergic agonist
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226
Q

Describe the management plan for PROM

A

If at term - induce labour.
34-36weeks - treat like term
24-34weeks - steroids, watchful waiting, tocolytics, magnesium sulphate,

ABx to prevent group B strep transmission in all

<24 weeks previable. Usually watchful waiting or induction of labor

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227
Q

What are the Rxs for breech presentation

A

<37w = specialist

> 37w

1) external cephalic version
- Contraindications include multiple pregnancy (except after delivery of a first twin), ruptured membranes, current or recent (<1 week) vaginal bleeding, rhesus isoimmunisation, other indications for caesarean section (e.g., placenta praevia or uterine malformation), or abnormal electronic fetal monitoring.

2) Tocolytic - salbutamol / terbutaline, ritodrine
+ Anti D

3) UNSUCCESSFUL = C section
4) No imminent delivery needed = vaginal breech delivery

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228
Q

Define endometrial cancer

A

An epithelial malignancy of the uterine corpus mucosa, usually an adenocarcinoma.

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229
Q

Define endometrial biopsy

A

The endometrial biopsy is a medical procedure that involves taking a tissue sample of the lining of the uterus.
Sent to histology.

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230
Q

Discuss the Ix for miscarriage

A

Urine PREG test
FBC - check Hb
RhD - must assess
Serum B-hCG titres - falling indicates failing pregnancy
TVUS - confirms viability
Serum progesterone - low titres = non-viable preg
Lupus anticoagulant/cardiolipin antibodies
Cytogenetic analysis of products of conception OR parental karyotyping - chromosomal abnormalities
Vaginal swab - bacterial vaginosis

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231
Q

Define diabetes in pregnancy

A

Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) has traditionally been defined as any degree of glucose intolerance with onset or first recognition during pregnancy. However, the criteria for diagnosis are controversial, and some authorities now define it as diabetes diagnosed in the second or third trimester of pregnancy that is clearly not overt diabetes.

It is usually recognised at 24 to 28 weeks of gestation on the basis of abnormal glucose tolerance testing.

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232
Q

Sx of urogenital prolapse

A
"Baring down"
Lump
Discomfort 
Backache
Bleeding
Dyspareunia
Renal failure - if urethral kinking

SPECIFIC
Cysto-urthral - urinary freq/urgency/UTI/Stress incontinence
Rectocele - incomplete bowel emptying, digitation, splinting, anal incontinence

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233
Q

Describe the RFs for ovarian cancer

A
STRONG 
BRCA1 mutation  (AD inheritance)
BRCA2 mutation 
Increased Age
FHx breast/ovarian 
Never used OCP
Lynch II syndrome 

WEAK
Nulliparity
Obesity
HRT

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234
Q

Epidemiology of polyhydramnios

A

1% pregnancies

In pregnancies affected by polyhydramnios, approximately 20% of neonates are born with a congenital anomaly of some type; therefore, the delivery of these newborns in a tertiary care setting is preferred.

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235
Q

An 18-year-old pregnant woman presents at 10 weeks’ gestation with vaginal bleeding. Vital signs indicate sinus tachycardia and hypertension. On pelvic examination the uterus is enlarged to 16 weeks’ gestational size with a palpable left adnexal cyst of about 9 cm diameter. Pelvic ultrasound reveals a mixed echogenic (snow-storm) pattern with no fetus and thin-walled cysts in the left ovary.

A

Molar pregnancy

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236
Q

Identify the possible complications of endometrial ablation

A

Perforation of the uterus
Burns to the uterus (beyond the endometrial lining)
Pulmonary edema or embolism
Bowel burn leading to death
Post-ablation tubal sterilization syndrome

Placenta accreta may occur if the patient becomes pregnant after endometrial ablation, so birth control is necessary.

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237
Q

Define obstetric cholestasis

A

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP) is a pruritic condition during pregnancy caused by impaired bile flow allowing bile salts to be deposited in the skin and the placenta. The cause is a combination of hormonal, genetic, and environmental factors. ICP may predispose mothers to vitamin K deficiency and the fetus to adverse pregnancy outcomes that may include prematurity, intra-uterine fetal demise, and respiratory distress syndrome.

May be associated with an increased risk of adverse pregnancy outcomes, including premature birth, intra-uterine fetal demise, and placental abruption in severe disease.

There is an increased risk of respiratory distress syndrome in neonates, owing to meconium aspiration syndrome, which is unpredictable by available methods of surveillance.

The only definitive cure is delivery of the baby.

The condition is associated with a history of hepatitis C and there may be an association with long-term liver disease.

Mild disease with bile acid levels <40 micromol/L or mild itching can be treated with bile-sequestering agents and antihistamines, such as colestyramine and hydroxyzine. However, if tolerated no treatment is necessary.

Severe disease with bile acid levels >40 micromol/L or severe pruritus remote from term can be treated effectively with ursodeoxycholic acid.

Close fetal surveillance with delivery near term can be expected with premature delivery reserved for those with severe, worsening disease despite treatment.

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238
Q

Epidemiology of vulval cancer

A

10 per 100k incidence

1000 per year in UK

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239
Q

Epidemiology of termination of pregnancy

A

1.7% of US women 15-44 per year
Half have had at least one prior abortion. 89% of abortions occur less than 12 weeks gestation

Globally, abortion mortality accounts for at least 13% of all maternal mortality. New estimates are that 50 million induced abortions are performed each year in developing countries, with approximately 20 million of these performed unsafely because of conditions or lack of provider training.

1 in 100k mortality with 1st trimester abortions BUT always safer for abortion than continuation

Women in their 20s account for more than half of all abortions.

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240
Q

What are the three groupings for primary amenorrhoea?

A

Group I: low oestrogen, low FSH, and no hypothalamic-pituitary pathology, leading to a diagnosis of hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism.
Group II: normal oestrogen, normal FSH, and normal prolactin, leading to a diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome.
Group III: low oestrogen and high FSH, leading to a diagnosis of gonadal failure.

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241
Q

Rx of thromboembolism in pregnancy

A

DVT: LMWH (better bioavailability than unfractionated). Converted to unfractionated during the last month of pregnancy. (less bleeding from epi/spinal)
Unfractionated heparin can be reversed with Protamine Sulfate.

PE:
If needing to undergo CS soon: Vena cava filter

Risk of death lower if given Alteplase BUT increased risk of fatal bleeding episode. Case-by-case decision.

WILL ALL NEED THROMBOPROPHYLAXIS POST CS UNLESS NO RISK FACTORS
6 week Rx
NB warfarin can be given as thromboprophylaxis postnatally.

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242
Q

Ix for fatty liver of pregnancy

A
LFTs - elevated AST ALT
Blood glucose - decreased 
Serum ammonia - increased 
Coagulation assessment - prolongation of prothrombin time, low fibrinogen, and low antithrombin levels (decreased production by the damaged liver)
Bilirubin - high 

IF pancreatitis too - increased serum amylase/lipase
IF kidneys affected - creatinine + uric acid increased (met acidosis seen)

Imaging rarely needed

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243
Q

RFs for infertility in women

A
STRONG
Age >35
Hx sexually transmitted disease
Very high body fat 
Very low body fat
Cigarette smoking 
WEAK
A/I disease
Hx appendicitis
Psychiatric disease
Substance abuse
Alcohol consumption 
Caffeine consumption 
Stress
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244
Q

Describe the second stage of labour

A

Second stage of labor

Begins with complete cervical dilatation and ends with the delivery of the fetus
In nulliparous women, the second stage should be considered prolonged if it exceeds 3 hours if regional anesthesia is administered or 2 hours in the absence of regional anesthesia
In multiparous women, the second stage should be considered prolonged if it exceeds 2 hours with regional anesthesia or 1 hour without it.

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245
Q

Rx of subfertilty in men

A

KALLMANS
- Give GnRH / HCG

HYPERPROLACTINOMA
Cabergoline/bromocriptine

VARICOCELE
varicocelectomy

UNEXPLAINED
- GnRH / HCG / CLOMIFENE / Tanoxifen

NB Clomifene = nonsteroidal SERM

ALL ELSE FAILS
Intrauterine insemination - better than timed sex if male factor infertility
IVF

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246
Q

Define labour?

A

Labor is a physiologic process during which the products of conception (ie, the fetus, membranes, umbilical cord, and placenta) are expelled outside of the uterus. Labor is achieved with changes in the biochemical connective tissue and with gradual effacement and dilatation of the uterine cervix as a result of rhythmic uterine contractions of sufficient frequency, intensity, and duration.

Labor is a clinical diagnosis. The onset of labor is defined as regular, painful uterine contractions resulting in progressive cervical effacement and dilatation. Cervical dilatation in the absence of uterine contraction suggests cervical insufficiency, whereas uterine contraction without cervical change does not meet the definition of labor.

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247
Q

RFs for thromboembolism in pregnancy

A

Stasis
Trauma
Hypercoagulability

Obstetrical:
CS
DM
Haemorrhage/anaemia
Hyperemesis
Immobility 
Multiple gestation
Multiparity 
Pre-eclampsia
Puerperal infection
General:
>35yo
Cancer
Connective tissue disease
Dehydration
Immobility
Infection/inflammatory disease
Nephrotic syndrome 
Obesity 
Oral contraceptivo use
Orthopedic surgery 
Paraplegia 
Hx of VTE
SCD
Smoking
Thrombophilia
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248
Q

Rx of thyroid disease in pregnancy

A

Thyrotoxicosis:
PTU - propylthiouracil is safest drug (least crosses placenta). Recommended to switch to Methimazole in 2nd trimester (PTU associated with hepatotoxicity)
THYROID ABLATION + RADIOACTIVE IODINE Rx IS CONTRAINDICATED IN PREGNANCY

Hypo:
Levothyroxine 1-2ug/kg/day. Survey 4-6 weekly, increase dose by 25ug until normal t4.

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249
Q

RFs of obesity in pregnancy

A

Increased risk of GDM, GHTN, Preclampsia

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250
Q

Explain the risk factors of endometriosis

A
STRONG
Reproductive age group
FHx
Nulliparity
Mullerian abnormalities 
WEAK
White
Low BMI
AI Disease
Late 1st sequel encounters
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251
Q

Identify the possible complications of chlamydia and its management

A
Epididymitis
Reactive Arthritis
Opthalmia Neonatorium
Chlamidya Pneumonia
Ectopic Pregnancy
Infertility
Cervical cancer
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
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252
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of ectopic pregnancy

A

Global rates of ectopic pregnancy are 1.1% in the UK, 1.49% in Norway, and 1.62% in Australia.

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253
Q

Identify the possible complications of Bartholin’s cyst and its management

A

Bartholins abscess
Dyspareunia
Bartholin’s-rectal fistula

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254
Q

Generate a management plan for Rh incompatibility

A

Anti-D immunoglobulin

Specialist: intravascular intrauterine blood transfusions

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255
Q

Define urogenital prolapse

A

Herniation of the genital tract through the pelvic diaphragm
Caused by deficiency pelvic fascia, or weakness of the ligaments, muscles, blood or nerves that supply the pelvic organs.

ANTERIOR VAGINAL WALL
Urethrocele
Cystocele
Cystourethrocele

POSTERIOR VAGINAL WALL
Rectocele
Enterocele

APICAL WALL
Uterovaginal
Vaginal vault

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256
Q

Complications of obstetric cholestasis

A

Resp distress in pre-term
Vit K deficiency
Premature labour
Intrauterine fetal demise

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257
Q

RFs for lichen sclerosis

A

Other A/I conditions:
Thyroid disease
Pernicious anaemia

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258
Q

A 32-year-old single woman with no prior pregnancy presents for a routine examination. She reports recurrent symptoms of fatigue, abdominal bloating, breast tenderness, increased appetite, and irritability that have occurred for many years, predominantly 1 week before the start of menses. The symptoms improved when she was on oral contraceptives during her 20s but recently have become more troublesome, interfering with her interpersonal relationships and her ability to perform optimally at work as a research assistant. Her last menstrual period ended 1 week ago. Physical examination reveals normal findings with normal breast and pelvic examination. She does not meet clinical criteria for depression.

A

Premenstrual syndrome

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259
Q

Complications/prognosis of vasa praevia

A

Fetal mortality for cases not recognized before the onset of labor is reported to range between 22.5% and 100%.

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260
Q

Epidemiology of infertility in women

A

Infertility is a major disease worldwide. The primary cause of infertility worldwide is tubal disease due to infection, including gonorrhoea, chlamydia infection, and tuberculosis.

In their 2015 Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) report, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention identified female factors in 13% (tubal), 15% (ovulatory dysfunction), 31% (diminished ovarian reserve), 8% (endometriosis), and 6% (uterine) of ART cycles. Male factors were detected in 33% of cases and unknown factors in 13% of cases.

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261
Q

What is velamentous insertion?

A

Where the umbilical cord inserts upon the chorioamniotic fetal membranes instead of the placental mass

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262
Q

What is the epidemiology of PROM

A

8% pregnancies at term
30% of premature births
<24weeks 1%

PPROMs account for 5% of all PROMs

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263
Q

Describe the first stage of labour

A

First stage of labor

Divided into a latent phase and an active phase

Begins with regular uterine contractions and ends with complete cervical dilatation at 10 cm

The latent phase begins with mild, irregular uterine contractions that soften and shorten the cervix
Contractions become progressively more rhythmic and stronger

The active phase usually begins at about 3-4 cm of cervical dilation and is characterized by rapid cervical dilation and descent of the presenting fetal part

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264
Q

An 18-year-old female university student with a history of prior chlamydia infection presents with low-grade fever and non-specific lower abdominal pain. Examination reveals mild diffuse lower abdominal tenderness on deep palpation. She has cervical motion tenderness and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge on pelvic examination.

A

PID

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265
Q

Sx of UTI in pregnancy

A
Asymptomatic
Suprapubic dyscomfort
Fever
Dysuria
Freq urination + urgency 
Foul smelling urine

Haematuria, flank pain, shivering, anorexia, N+V

Pyelonephritis = unilateral and RS in 50%
- May cause ARDS NB

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266
Q

Describe the management of endometrial cancer

A
  1. Staging surgery +/- vaginal brachytherapy
  2. (stage 2+) +/- Pelvic radiation
  3. +/- Chemotherapy
    IF ER/PR positive then add hormonal therapy plus aromatase inhibitor
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267
Q

Complications / prognosis of thromboembolism in pregnancy

A
Haemorrhage
thrombocytopenia
Osteoporosis
Death
RVH/F
PHTN
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268
Q

Sx of pregnancy of unknown location

A

Sx of pregnancy

Bleeding

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269
Q

Generate a management plan for bacterial vaginosis

A
non-pregnant: isolated acute episode
 bacterial vaginosis
1st line  – 

 metronidazole
 bacterial vaginosis  – 
1st line  – 

 clindamycin: intravaginal cream
 bacterial vaginosis  – 
2nd line  – 

 clindamycin: oral preparations or intravaginal ovules
 bacterial vaginosis  – 
2nd line  – 

 tinidazole
 trichomoniasis  – 
1st line  – 

 nitroimidazole therapy
 uncomplicated vulvovaginal candidiasis  – 
1st line  – 

 antifungal therapy
 complicated vulvovaginal candidiasis
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270
Q

Assessment of vaginal bleeding

List causes of premenarchal bleeding?

A

Precocious puberty
STDs
Childhood genital malignancy of the vagina
DUB

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271
Q

What are the complications of syphilis infection

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction - acute reaction to ABx therapy to treponemes

Allergic reaction to penicillin
Iatrogenic procaine reaction - occurs when IM benzylpenicillin is administered IV
HIV infection
Asymptomatic progression of disease

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272
Q

Discuss the signs/symptoms of premenstrual syndrome

A

COMMON
- ALL resolve post menstruation

Abdo bloat
Fatigue
Breast tenderness 
Headaches
Labile mood
Adverse effects on life 
Increased appetite
Difficulty concentrating

UNCOMMON

Insomnia/hypersomnia
GI upset
Palpitations
Hot flushes

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273
Q

What is the prognosis of pre-eclampsia

A

Pre-eclampsia is a self-limiting condition of pregnancy that usually resolves once the placenta has been delivered, although it may persist for a few days post delivery. There are few long-term sequelae; however, there are some long-term disease associations.

Women with pre-eclampsia have an increased long-term risk of type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, including hypertension and stroke.

274
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for endometriosis and interpret the results

A

TVUS
Rectal US
Hysterosalpingography
MRI

275
Q

Define endometrial ablation

A

Endometrial ablation is an outpatient medical procedure that is used to remove (ablate) or destroy the endometrial lining of the uterus in women who have heavy menstrual bleeding.

Endometrial ablation should never be performed on women who wish to have children.

Endometrial Ablation procedure is primarily performed while patients are under local and/or light sedative anesthesia, or if necessary, general or spinal anesthesia.

Ablation using cauterisation - minerva.

Pt usually leaves 1hr post procedure.

Progestogen Rx prior to therapy reduces endothelial thickness.

276
Q

Recognise the presenting symptom/signs of Bartholin’s cyst

A
Vulval/perineal mass (common)
• Classically a medially protruding cystic structure at the inferior aspect of the labia majora in the 5 or 7 o'clock position. 
Vulval pressure or fullness (common)
Fever (common)
Dyspareunia (common)
Vulval erythema and induration (common)
Spontaneous rupture (uncommon)
277
Q

What is the prognosis of post-natal depression

A

Episodes of postnatal depression last 3 to 6 months on average, but a few women remain depressed at 1 year

Women with a first episode of postnatal depression have a higher risk of subsequent postnatal depression (41% versus 18%) but a lower risk of non-postnatal depression (38% versus 62%).

Approximately 14% of women with first-time psychiatric contacts during the first postnatal month converted to a bipolar diagnosis within the follow-up period, compared with only 4% of women with a first psychiatric contact unrelated to childbirth.

278
Q

A 65-year-old obese woman with hypertension and diabetes presents with post-menopausal vaginal bleeding, 12 years after menopause. She has never been pregnant. She has a first-degree relative and a second-degree relative who have had endometrial cancer. Bleeding is scanty but has persisted for more than 1 month. She has not recently used HRT and she had a normal Pap smear 6 months previously. She is morbidly obese with a BMI of 41, and vaginal examination reveals evidence of recent bleeding.

A

Endometrial carcinoma

279
Q

Complications of termination of pregnancy

A

Medical abortions can provide some measure of safety in that they eliminate the risk of cervical lacerations and uterine perforations.

Medical: can cause bleeding

A rare and serious infection of Clostridium sordellii is related to medical abortions.

280
Q

Discuss the aetiology of placenta praevia

A

Advanced maternal age, [12] multiple pregnancies, and tobacco use increase the risk of placenta praevia (PP), but the mechanisms are uncertain. With the exception of the risk factor of previous uterine scarring, it is likely that multiple risk factors contribute together to the occurrence of the condition.

281
Q

Define small for dates/IUGR

A

Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) refers to a condition in which a fetus is unable to achieve its genetically determined potential size. This functional definition seeks to identify a population of fetuses at risk for modifiable but otherwise poor outcomes. This definition intentionally excludes of fetuses that are small for gestational age (SGA) but are not pathologically small. SGA is defined as growth at the 10th or less percentile for weight of all fetuses at that gestational age. Not all fetuses that are SGA are pathologically growth restricted and, in fact, may be constitutionally small. Similarly, not all fetuses that have not met their genetic growth potential are in less than the 10th percentile for estimated fetal weight (EFW).

282
Q

What are the complications of breech presentation

A

Compared with cephalic presentation, persistent breech presentation has increased frequency of cord prolapse, abruptio placentae, pre-labour rupture of membranes, perinatal mortality, fetal distress (heart rate <100 bpm), preterm delivery, lower fetal weight.

C section complications:
PE
Bleeding 
Infection
Iatrogenic damage to bladder/bowel

LONG TERM
- repeat c section
Placenta praevia, uterine rupture, emergency hysterectomy etc…

283
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of bacterial vaginosis

A

An overgrowth of bacterial organisms such as Gardnerella vaginalis , Mobiluncus species, Mycoplasma hominis , Escherichia coli , group B streptococci, and Peptostreptococcus species are proven to be the main cause of bacterial vaginosis.

douching
poor or excessive hygiene
antibiotic use
change in feminine hygiene products and/or soap
HIV infection
diabetes
black women
IUD
oral contraceptive pill use
latex condom/diaphragm
reproductive age
menopause
multiple or new sex partners
tobacco
increased frequency of intercourse
pregnancy
284
Q

Discuss the aetiology of toxic shock syndrome

A

Menstrual TSS occurs in women during menstruation with extended use of a single tampon or, historically, with highly absorbable tampons.

Non-menstrual TSS can result from a variety of staphylococcal postpartum vaginal and caesarean wound infections, including mastitis, therapeutical abortions, episiotomy infections, endometritis, and infected abdominal wounds. Sinusitis, septorhinoplasty, osteomyelitis, arthritis, burns, cutaneous infections, soft-tissue infections, enterocolitis, endovascular infections, visceral abscesses, and post-influenza respiratory infections have also been implicated.

285
Q

Most frequent cause of anaemia in pregnancy worldwide?

A

IDA

286
Q

RFs for polyhydramnios

A

IDIOPATHIC
Twin/multiple gestation
TTTS
Oesophageal atresia (usually associated with a tracheoesophageal fistula), tracheal agenesis, duodenal atresia, and other intestinal atresias
CNS problems preventing swallowing
Hydrops associated
Chromosomal abnormalities, most commonly trisomy 21, followed by trisomy 18 and trisomy 13.

287
Q

Complications /prognosis of pregnancy of unknown location

A

Between 6% and 20% have an ectopic pregnancy

Between 30% and 47% of women with pregnancy of unknown location are ultimately diagnosed with an ongoing intrauterine pregnancy, whereof the majority (50–70%) will be found to have failing pregnancies where the location is never confirmed

Persisting PUL is where the hCG level does not spontaneously decline and no intrauterine or ectopic pregnancy is identified on follow-up transvaginal ultrasonography

288
Q

What are the Ix for premature labour

A

Cardiotocogram
Tocography - >1 in 10
TVUS
Cervico-vaginal swab for fetal fibronectin - +ve

FBC - check Hb + WCC
CRP - infection
Urine dip/microscropy
High vaginal/rectal swab - may be positive for group B strep

289
Q

Define FGM

A

Female genital cutting, also known as female circumcision or genital mutilation, is a culturally determined practice, predominantly performed in parts of Africa and Asia and affecting more than 125 million women and girls worldwide

●Type I consists of excision of the prepuce, with or without excision of part or all of the clitoris.
●Type II involves clitoridectomy and partial or total excision of the labia minora.
●Type III, or infibulation, includes removing part or all of the external genitalia and reapproximation of the remnant labia majora, leaving a small neointroitus. Type IV involves other forms of injuries to the genital region including pricking, piercing, stretching, burning, scraping, or any other manipulation of external genitalia.

290
Q

Identify the possible complications of asthma in pregnancy and its management

A

Possible gastrochisis, cardiac defects, autism with B agonists.
Several potential areas of concern have been raised with systemic glucocorticoids: congenital malformations (primarily cleft palate [12th week]), preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, low birth weight, and neonatal adrenal insufficiency.

291
Q

Aetiology of oligohydramnios

A

Rupture of the membranes is the most common cause of oligohydramnios. However, because the amniotic fluid is primarily fetal urine in the latter half of the pregnancy, the absence of fetal urine production or a blockage in the fetus’s urinary tract can also result in oligohydramnios.

A near term fetus produces 500-1200 mL of urine and swallows between 210 and 790 mL of amniotic fluid per day.

292
Q

Complications/prognosis of substance abuse in pregnancy

A

Neonatal withdrawal syndrome occurs in 60% of all fetuses exposed to drugs.

293
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with chlamydia

A

Nearly all patients are cured with the current recommended antibiotic therapy. Potential complications in women for untreated or inadequately treated infections include PID and infertility. Men can develop prostatitis, epididymitis, and urethral strictures if not treated. Occasionally, a reactive arthritis may occur.

294
Q

Ix for infertility in women

A

Semen analysis
Luteal phase progesterone - <9.5 = anovulatory
Urinary LH - a positive test kit result indicates imminent ovulation
Transvaginal USS - may demonstrate follicular development, polycystic appearance of ovaries, presence of significant cysts (including endometriomas), abnormal uterine structure (e.g., with congenital abnormalities), presence of fibroids, endometrial polyps, hydrosalpinges

Hysterosalpingogram - performed between cycle days 7 and 11 - fallopian tubes: patent or blocked, with free spill of dye and normal tubal pattern; uterus: normal or abnormal contour, presence or absence of filling defects

Consider basal FSH measurement - hypogonadotophism
Serum LH - hypogonadotophism

Check serum testosterone, prolactin, TSH

Can do 3d US

Karyotyping - may demonstrate chromosomal abnormality (e.g., with Turner’s syndrome)

295
Q

A 38-year-old woman presents to her gynaecologist for her annual examination. She has no specific complaints. Her menstrual cycle is regular, occurring every 28 to 30 days and lasting about 5 days. She has, however, noticed that recently her periods have been heavier than usual. On pelvic examination, she has an enlarged uterus, about the size of an 8-week pregnant uterus. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Her full blood count is normal. A pelvic ultrasound shows 2 fibroids within the uterine wall measuring 2 cm each.

A

Fibroids

296
Q

An 18-year-old pregnant woman presents at 10 weeks’ gestation with vaginal bleeding. Vital signs indicate sinus tachycardia and hypertension. On pelvic examination the uterus is enlarged to 16 weeks’ gestational size with a palpable left adnexal cyst of about 9 cm diameter. Pelvic ultrasound reveals a mixed echogenic (snow-storm) pattern with no fetus and thin-walled cysts in the left ovary.

A

Molar pregnancy

297
Q

What are the endocrine causes of excessive menorrhagia?

A
PCOS
Hyperprolactinaemia 
Hypothyroidism 
Dysfunction of the hypothalamo-pituitary-ovarian axis 
Dysfunctional corpus luteum
298
Q

Ix for urogenital prolapse

A

Clinical

Potential UTI screen

299
Q

Describe the complications of endometrial cancer

A
Bladder instability post surgery
Vaginal stenosis, atrophy, fibrosis post radio 
Long term sexual dysfunction 
Local/distant spread 
Lymphoedema 
Chemo toxicity 
Bowel/bladder fistulae
300
Q

Generate a management plan for ectopic pregnancy

A

Tubal
Low risk - Expectant management
Mod/high - methotrexate + surgery + anti-D immunoglobulin +/- post surgical methotrexate

301
Q

Summarise the indications for evacuation of retained products of conception (ERPC)

A

Second trimester abortion

Post miscarriage

302
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with diabetes in pregnancy

A

GDM recurs in 30% to 84% of subsequent pregnancies. Risk factors for GDM recurrence are older age, increased BMI, and higher weight gain between pregnancies.

Eventually the majority of women with GDM develop type 2 diabetes.
- metformin/exercise reduces

Ten-year risk approximates 50%

303
Q

A 42-year-old smoker presented to labour and delivery at 28 weeks of gestation with worsening abdominal pain of a few hours’ duration. She had also had some vaginal bleeding within the past hour. She was found to have low-amplitude, high-frequency uterine contractions, and the fetal heart rate tracing showed recurrent late decelerations and reduced variability. Her uterus was tender and firm to palpation.

A

Placental abruption

304
Q

A couple presents to a fertility clinic as they were unable to achieve pregnancy after 1 year of unprotected intercourse. The woman is 28 years old with regular and normal menses. A hysterosalpingogram shows normal uterine contour and patent tubes bilaterally. The male partner is 29 years old with negative medical history. Examination is unremarkable, with normal testicular volume and secondary sexual characteristics. Two semen analyses separated by 1 month show low sperm concentration (15 million/mL), decreased sperm motility (20%), and increased percentages of sperm with abnormal morphology.

A

Male factor infertility

305
Q

Define Bartholin’s cyst

A

A Bartholin’s duct cyst is a non-infectious occlusion of the distal Bartholin’s duct, with resultant retention of secretions.

The paired Bartholin’s ducts are located at the posterior vestibule and provide a conduit for secretions from the Bartholin’s glands. A Bartholin’s duct cyst may be asymptomatic if the cyst is small. It typically presents as a medially protruding mass at the inferior aspect of the labia majora, in the posterior introitus, and is crossed by the labium minus. Duct cysts and gland cysts are indistinguishable, and the terms are used interchangeably. A Bartholin’s duct abscess may be primary (from bartholinitis) or secondary (from infection of Bartholin’s cyst).

306
Q

Define bacterial vaginosis

A

Vaginitis is inflammation of the vagina due to changes in the composition of the vaginal micro-environment from infection, irritants, or from hormonal deficiency (e.g., atrophic vaginitis). Bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis, and candidiasis are types of infections that cause vaginitis.

307
Q

Describe the prognosis for miscarriage

A

Recurrent miscarriage of pregnancies with the same partner affects 1% to 2% of otherwise healthy women. These patients will require a complete assessment to identify the cause.

Persistence of vaginal bleeding or spotting should raise the possibility of gestational trophoblastic disease

Psychological upset after a miscarriage event is not uncommon, but the severity varies.

308
Q

RFs for fatty liver of pregnancy

A

There is a predilection for nulliparous women and women with multiple gestations.

309
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms/signs of ectopic pregnancy

A

abdominal pain

  • Typically unilateral lower abdominal pain; however, patient may present with generalised or upper abdominal pain.
  • Pain with vomiting may be indicative of tubal rupture.

amenorrhoea - 6-8 weeks
vaginal bleeding
abdominal tenderness
- Typically lower quadrant with voluntary guarding.
- If involuntary guarding, rebound, or other acute abdomen findings present, could be warning sign of rupture.
adnexal tenderness or mass
blood in vaginal vault
UNCOMMON
haemodynamic instability, orthostatic hypotension
cervical motion tenderness
urge to defecate
referred shoulder pain
- Bleeding from Fallopian tube -> irritates diaphragm

310
Q

Sx of FGM

A

●Type I consists of excision of the prepuce, with or without excision of part or all of the clitoris.
●Type II involves clitoridectomy and partial or total excision of the labia minora.
●Type III, or infibulation, includes removing part or all of the external genitalia and reapproximation of the remnant labia majora, leaving a small neointroitus. Type IV involves other forms of injuries to the genital region including pricking, piercing, stretching, burning, scraping, or any other manipulation of external genitalia.

Women seek defibulation because they are pregnant or planning pregnancy, or because of apareunia/dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, or difficulty urinating

311
Q

Identify the possible complications of atrophic vaginitis and its management

A

Adverse effects — Adverse effects of vaginal estrogen therapy are uncommon. Women may complain of vaginal irritation, vaginal bleeding, or breast tenderness. Women who dislike the messiness of cream may use the insert or ring.

312
Q

Complications / prognosis of cardiac disease in pregnancy

A

Severe HD:
Preterm labour, IUGR
Cyanosis of mother = severe risk

313
Q

What is vasa praevia?

A

Whereby there is a vilamentous insertion of the cord. Vessels lie on the membranes that cover the internal os.
When the membranes rupture, vessels can be torn and PV bleeding/haemorrhage occurs. HOWEVER this is foetal blood - therefore delivery must be prompt

314
Q

What are the complications of premature labour

A

Neonatal morbidity and mortality

Maternal adverse effects to Beta agonists

315
Q

List Ix used to diagnose pelvic inflammatory disease

A

WCC - High
Vaginal secretion PMNs - High PMNs on smean (polymorphnucs)
ESR - elevated
N.Gonorrhoea/Ctracho in Vag secretions

CONSIDER
TVUSS - increased tubal wall thickness/tubo-ovarian abscess/cogwheel tubal wall
MRI/CT 
Laparoscopy 
Endometrial Biopsy
316
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease

A

MINIMUM CRITERIA FOR DIAGNOSIS:
A young, sexually active woman is presumed to have PID if she has pelvic or lower abdomen pain, no other cause for illness, and one or more of the following minimum criteria on pelvic examination:

  • Adnexal tenderness
  • Uterine tenderness
  • Cervical motion tenderness.
OTHER:
Lower abdominal pain
- May be associated with dysuria, dyspareunia, or uterine bleeding.
Abnormal discharge 
Fever
N+V
317
Q

Describe the management of endometrial polyps

A

Hysteroscopy + curettage / forceps

Histology

318
Q

The most common presentations are hirsutism and infertility. Women typically present with oligo- or anovulation, manifesting as infrequent, irregular menstrual periods. PCOS may also more rarely present with menometrorrhagia. Some women present with regular menses and hirsutism, and on further investigation are found to have anovulatory cycles. There are no pathognomic features that suggest PCOS. It is largely a diagnosis of exclusion.

A

PCOS

319
Q

Ix for subfertilty in men

A

Sperm concentration <15 million per ML

Sperm motility - <40% motile spermatozoa

Sperm morphology - <4% normal forms

Seminal fluid parameters - poor liquefaction; low ejaculate volume (<1.5 ml); decreased seminal pH; presence of fructose; increased leukocyte count

____________

Consider sperm viability testing - >42% sperm necrosis

Sperm membrane function - >40% reacted sperms

Measure FSH, LH, free and total testosterone, estradiol, sex hormone-binding globulin, and prolactin levels.

MRI - prolactinoma
Colour Flow doppler - varicocele

320
Q

List the secondary causes of PPH?

24hrs-6weeks

A

Retained products
Endometritis
Persistent molar / choriocarcinoma

321
Q

What are the complications of LETZ

A
Infection
Haemorrhage
Risk of infertility/sub
Slight risk of miscarriage
Increased risk of preterm births with multiple Rx
322
Q

Prognosis of mastitis / breast abscess

A

When treated promptly and appropriately, most breast infections, including abscess, will resolve without serious complications. Resolution of mastitis after 2-3 days of appropriate antibiotic therapy is expected among most patients.

Lactational abscesses tend to be easier to treat than non-lactational abscesses because their aetiology and pathology is better understood. Non-lactational abscesses can be multifactorial and have a greater risk of becoming chronic.

HIV-infected mothers

To completely prevent HIV transmission via human milk, the US American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that HIV-infected mothers do not breastfeed their infants.

Mastitis may recur with delayed therapy, inappropriate therapy, uncorrected poor breastfeeding technique, nipple candidiasis, an underlying breast condition, and in Staphylococcus carriers. Recurrent mastitis or persistence of a mass after therapy may be due to a breast abscess or underlying breast lesion. Granulomatous mastitis has a high (up to 50%) recurrence rate.

323
Q

Complications of small for dates/IUGR

A

Relative risks associated with IUGR using morbidity and mortality parameters, from the study by Bernstein et al, are as follows:
Relative risk of death, 2.77; 95% confidence interval (CI), 2.31-3.33
Relative risk of respiratory distress syndrome, 1.19; 95% CI, 1.03-1.29
Relative risk of intraventricular hemorrhage, 1.13; 95% CI, 0.99-1.29
Relative risk of severe intravascular hemorrhage, 1.27; 95% CI, 0.98-1.59
Relative risk of necrotizing enterocolitis, 1.27; 95% CI, 1.05-1.53

324
Q

Generate a management plan for asthma in pregnancy

A

Normal Rx except:

  • Caution with systemic glucocorticoids
  • Methylxanthines, chromoglycates NOT USED
  • Terbutaline = parenteral B agonist of choice
  • Budesonide/salmeterol/albuterol used
  • Immunoglobulins seem safe

Maternal positioning – In general, pregnant patients with acute asthma should rest in a seated or lateral position, rather than supine, particularly in the third trimester, to avoid aortocaval compression by the gravid uteru

Albuterol is recommended as the short-acting beta agonist of choice.

Budesonide has been the preferred inhaled glucocorticoid for use during pregnancy

Salmeterol/formoterol has been recommended as the inhaled long-acting beta agonist of choice

Montelukast or zafirlukast could be considered as alternative but NOT preferred therapy for mild persistent asthma or as add-on therapy to inhaled glucocorticoids

325
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for asthma in pregnancy and interpret the results

A
FEV1/FVC ratio
FEV1
peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)
CXR
FBC

bronchial challenge test
immunoassay for allergen-specific IgE
skin prick allergy testing

326
Q

Ix for lichen sclerosis

A

Biopsy can confirm but usually clinical

327
Q

What is the aetiology of post-natal depression

A

The aetiology is poorly understood but is likely to involve an interaction between psychological, social, and biological factors.

328
Q

Define UTI in pregnancy

A

Infection of the urinary tract.
Asymptomatic bacteria = most common
Ranges from cystitis -> pyelonephritis

Pyelonephritis is the most common serious medical complication of pregnancy

329
Q

What is the aetiology of endometrial polyps

A

Appear to grow in response to oestrogen

330
Q

RFs for obstetric cholestasis

A
STRONG
Hx of prev
Hx Hep C
FHx
Age >35

WEAK
Multiple pregnancy

331
Q

What are the Ix for ovarian cancer

A

Pelvic USS - presence of solid, complex, septated, multi-loculated mass; high blood flow
CT scan - peritoneal thickening, enlarged lymph nodes, ascites, omental thickening, liver metastases

CA-125 - >35 units (>65 in PM = usually cancer)

Histopathology - infiltrative destructive growth best demonstrated by clusters of disorganised cells, usually with desmoplasia

CONSIDER PET

332
Q

Define pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) comprises a spectrum of inflammatory disorders of the upper female genital tract, including any combination of endometritis, salpingitis, tubo-ovarian abscess, and pelvic peritonitis. Sexually transmitted organisms, especially Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis , are implicated in many cases; however, micro-organisms that comprise the vaginal flora (e.g., anaerobes, Gardnerella vaginalis , Haemophilus influenzae , enteric gram-negative rods, and Streptococcus agalactiae ) have also been associated with PID. In addition, cytomegalovirus (CMV), Mycoplasma hominis , Mycoplasma genitalium , and Ureaplasma urealyticum might be associated with some cases of PID. Symptoms include fever, vomiting, back pain, dyspareunia, and bilateral lower abdominal pain, as well as symptoms of lower genital tract infection such as abnormal vaginal odour, itching, bleeding, or discharge. In some instances, symptoms are mild or even absent.

333
Q

Describe the relevant investigations for urinary incontinence in women

A

Empty supine stress test - urine leakage
Urinalysis - normal or may show WBCs, nitrites, RBCs with underlying infection, or malignancy
Post-void residual measurement - elevated if >100mL or >50% voided volume
Cough stress test - leakage
Urodynamic testing - The bladder is filled with sterile fluid. Changes such as first sensation, desire to void, and bladder capacity are recorded electronically during the filling and storage phase. Urinary loss from the urethra during provocative manoeuvres, such as coughing, is documented.
Cystourethroscopy - may reveal fistula, foreign body, tumour, or interstitial cystitis

334
Q

Describe the RFs for ovarian cysts

A
STRONG
Premenopausal
Early Menarche
1st Trimester 
PHx infertility / PCOS (due to GnRH Rx)
Tamoxifen
Hx / FHx endometriosis

WEAK
Smoking

335
Q

Sx of mastitis / breast abscess

A
COMMON
Fever - mastitis or asbscess
Flu-like symptoms, myalgia, malaise
Breast pain (when breast feeding)
Decreased milk outflow
Breast warmth - Lactational mastitis tends to involve more peripheral wedge-shaped areas.
Tenderness
Breast firmness
Breast swelling
Erythema 
UNCOMMON
Mass - abscess
Fistula - may be associated with abscess
Discharge 
Lymphadenopathy (axillae)
Extra-mammary lesions
336
Q

Summarise the indications for cardiotocography

A

Labour
Problems in pregnancy
Monitoring in high risk.

337
Q

Define ectopic pregnancy

A

A fertilised ovum implanting and maturing outside of the uterine endometrial cavity, with the most common site being the fallopian tube (97%), followed by the ovary (3.2%) and the abdomen (1.3%). [1] If undiagnosed or untreated, it may lead to maternal death due to rupture of the implantation site and intraperitoneal haemorrhage.

338
Q

Describe the signs/symptoms for toxic shock syndrome

A
Severe diffuse/localised pain in an extremity (streptococcal)
Fever
Localised swelling/erythema
Desquamating rash
Hypotension
UNCOMMON
Diffuse erythematous rash 
Influenza-like symptoms
Muscle tenderness/weakness
Abdominal pain/tenderness
Myocarditis features 
Hypothermia (shock)
339
Q

Generate a management plan for menopause

A

Lifestyle changes - diet, WL, reducing stress

HRT - Oestrogen + Progestin 
SERMs
SSRIs - treat vasomotor symptoms
Gabapentin 
Clonidine 

Can give vag oestrogen-androgen combination in Vag symptoms only

340
Q

What is the epidemiology of post-natal depression

A

The overall prevalence of clinically significant postnatal depressive symptoms is estimated to be 7% to 19%, although estimates vary.

341
Q

What is the epidemiology of Rh incompatibility

A

About 15% of the white population has an RhD-negative blood type.

In the UK, about 16% of the white population is RhD negative. In 2005, it was estimated that about 65,000 RhD-positive babies were born in the UK to women who were RhD-negative (accounting for 10% of all births).

342
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for amniotic fluid embolism and interpret the results

A

INC WCC
Anaemia
DIC - inc D-dimer, low fibrinogen (<200g/L), thrombocytopenia <150-400
ABG - hypoxaemia, pos met acidosis if cardiac arrest
Radiographic - pos bilateral oedema/haemorrhage
ECG - tachy / pos arrhythmia

FETAL signs:

  • decelerations
  • loss of variability
  • bradycardia

Typical investigations include complete blood count, chemistries, renal and liver function tests, cardiac enzymes, brain natriuretic peptide levels, chest radiography, arterial blood gases, electrocardiography, and/or bedside ultrasonography (if available). The primary purpose of initial investigations is to narrow the differential since AFES is a diagnosis of exclusion.

343
Q

Aetiology of lichen sclerosis

A

A/I

Inflammation in the subnormal layers resulting in hyalinisation of the skin

344
Q

Define colposcopy +/- cervical punch biopsy

A

Medical procedure allowing visualisation of the cervix and tissues of the vulva and vagina using a camera.
Illuminated and magnified view.

3% Acetic acid solution and iodine solution (Lugol’s or Schiller’s) are applied to the surface to improve visualization of abnormal areas.

Areas of acetowhiteness correlate with higher nuclear density.

A cervical punch biopsy [punch forceps] is when a small piece of tissue is taken from the cervix.

Endocervical curettage to collect tissue.

Silver nitrate to coagulate blood.

Dorsal lithotomy position

345
Q

Explain the aetiology of fibroids

A

The exact aetiology of uterine fibroids is not completely understood. There is good evidence that uterine fibroids grow from a single mutated uterine smooth muscle cell and are thereby monoclonal tumours. Initiation and promotion of abnormal growth of this single myometrial cell, however, is less well-understood. Chromosomal rearrangements including specific translocations have been identified in some specimens, which may be responsible for the initiation and proliferation of uterine fibroids. Multiple leiomyomas develop de novo rather than through a metastatic mechanism.

346
Q

Describe management of the first phase of labour?

A

Most women experience onset of labor without premature rupture of the membranes (PROM); however, approximately 8% of term pregnancies is complicated by PROM. Spontaneous onset of labor usually follows PROM such that 50% of women with PROM who were expectantly managed delivered within 5 hours, and 95% gave birth within 28 hours of PROM.

Group B streptococcal prophylaxis be given based on prior culture results or risk factors of cultures not available.

On admission to the Labor and Delivery suite, a woman having normal labor should be encouraged to assume the position that she finds most comfortable. Possibilities including walking, lying supine, sitting, or resting in a left lateral decubitus position. Of note, ambulating during labor did not change the progression of labor in a large randomized controlled study of >1000 women in active labor.

The patient and her family or support team should be consulted regarding the risks and benefits of various interventions, such as the augmentation of labor using oxytocin, artificial rupture of the membranes, methods and pharmacologic agents for pain control, and operative vaginal delivery (including forceps or vacuum-assisted vaginal deliveries) or cesarean delivery. They should be actively involved, and their preferences should be considered in the management decisions made during labor and delivery.

The frequency and strength of uterine contractions and changes in cervix and in the fetus’ station and position should be assessed periodically to evaluate the progression of labor. Although progression must be monitored, vaginal examinations should be performed only when necessary to minimize the risk of chorioamnionitis, particularly in women whose amniotic membrane has ruptured. During the first stage of labor, fetal well-being can be assessed by monitoring the fetal heart rate at least every 15 minutes, particularly during and immediately after uterine contractions. In most labor and delivery units, the fetal heart rate is assessed continuously.

Two methods of augmenting labor have been established. The traditional method involves the use of low doses of oxytocin with long intervals between dose increments. For example, low-dose infusion of oxytocin is started at 1 mili IU/min and increased by 1-2 mili IU/min every 20-30 minutes until adequate uterine contraction is obtained.

The second method, or active management of labor, involves a protocol of clinical management that aims to optimize uterine contractions and shorten labor. This protocol includes strict criteria for admission to the labor and delivery unit, early amniotomy, hourly cervical examinations, early diagnosis of inefficient uterine activity (if the cervical dilation rate is < 1.0 cm/h), and high-dose oxytocin infusion if uterine activity is inefficient. Oxytocin infusion starts at 4 mili IU/min (or even 6 mili IU/min) and increases by 4 mili IU/min (or 6 mili IU/min) every 15 minutes until a rate of 7 contractions per 15 minutes is achieved or until the maximum infusion rate of 36 mili IU/min is reached.

347
Q

Discuss the signs and symptoms of post-natal depression

A
Depressed mood
Anhedonia
Decreased energy
Decreased concentration
Appetite change
Feelings of guilt
Loss of confidence
Sleep disturbance 
Obsessive thoughts
Suicidal ideation

OTHER
Self harm
FHx
Psychotic symptoms

348
Q

Rx of obesity in pregnancy

A

Behavioural, pharmacological and surgical methods

Very difficult

Weight reduction not advisable during pregnancy

Should LIMIT weight gain to 5-9kg (lifestyle interventions and physical activity)

Be diligent at picking up GHTN / Pre-Eclampsia

349
Q

Define pre-eclampsia

A

A hypertensive syndrome that occurs in pregnant women after 20 weeks’ gestation, consisting of new-onset, persistent hypertension (defined as a BP ≥140 mmHg systolic and/or ≥90 mmHg diastolic, based on at least 2 measurements taken at least 4 hours apart) with one or more of the following: 1) proteinuria (defined as urinary excretion of ≥0.3 g/24 hours of protein); 2) evidence of systemic involvement, such as renal insufficiency (elevated creatinine), liver involvement (elevated transaminases and/or right upper quadrant pain), neurological complications, haematological complications; 3) fetal growth restriction.

350
Q

Summarise the indications for colposcopy +/- cervical punch biopsy

A

Normally for abnormal Pap smear

Other indications:

  • Immunosuppression
  • HIV
  • Sexual assault forensic examination
351
Q

Summarise the prognosis of molar pregnancies

A

Preeclampsia - usually asymptomatic
Invasive gestational trophoblastic neoplasia - ie invasion of hydatidiform mole - CHECK HCG has gone down
Choriocarcinoma
Trophoblastic tumours in placenta / epithelioid
Post-evacuation resp distress
Ashermans syndrome
Metastases

352
Q

Define cardiotocography

A

Cardiotocography (CTG) is a technical means of recording the fetal heartbeat and the uterine contractions during pregnancy.

Continuous or intermittent.

Heart rate (A) is calculated from fetal heart motion determined by ultrasound, and uterine contractions are measured by a tocodynamometer (B)

Abnormal baseline is termed bradycardia when the baseline FHR is less than 110 bpm; it is termed tachycardia when the baseline FHR is greater than 160 bpm.

Contractions:
Normal- less than or equal to 5 contractions in 10 minutes, averaged over a 30-minute window
Tachysystole- more than 5 contractions in 10 minutes, averaged over a 30-minute window

Using this definition, the baseline FHR variability is categorized by the quantitated amplitude as:

Absent- undetectable
Minimal- greater than undetectable, but less than or equal to 5 beats per minute
Moderate- 6-25 beats per minute
Marked- greater than 25 beats per minute

Moderate = low chance of academia / hypoxic injury.

An abrupt increase is defined as an increase from the onset of acceleration to the peak in less than or equal to 30 seconds. To be called an acceleration, the peak must be greater than or equal to 15 bpm, and the acceleration must last greater than or equal to 15 seconds from the onset to return to baseline.[12] A prolonged acceleration is greater than or equal to 2 minutes but less than 10 minutes in duration.

Early Decelerations are a result of increased vagal tone due to compression of the fetal head during contractions. Early decelerations begin and end at approximately the same time as contractions, and the low point of the fetal heart rate occurs at the peak of the contraction.

Late Decelerations are a result of placental insufficiency, which can result in fetal distress. In contrast to early deceleration, the low point of fetal heart rate occurs after the peak of the contraction, and returns to baseline after the contraction is complete.

Variable Decelerations are generally a result of umbilical cord compression, and contractions may further compress a cord when it is trapped around the neck or under the shoulder of the fetus. When variable decelerations are associated with uterine contractions, their onset, depth, and duration commonly vary with successive uterine contractions.

Prolonged Deceleration: Decrease in FHR from baseline greater than or equal to 15 bpm, lasting greater than or equal to 2 minutes, but less than 10 minutes. A deceleration greater than or equal to 10 minutes is a baseline change.

Internal cardiotocography uses an electronic transducer connected directly to the fetal scalp

353
Q

Define syphilis infection

A

Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the spirochaetal bacterium Treponema pallidum , subspecies pallidum . It is found only in human hosts. Acquired infection is transmitted through direct person-to-person sexual contact with an individual with early syphilis. Vertical transmission from mother to baby causes a congenital infection. Most sexual transmission of syphilis probably occurs from the genital and mucous membrane lesions of primary and secondary syphilis. Syphilis has often been described as the great imitator because many of the symptoms and signs are difficult to distinguish from other diseases.

354
Q

What is the prognosis of placenta praevia

A

About 85% of placentas that are praevia at about 15 to 20 weeks and about one third that are praevia at 20 to 23 weeks will no longer be praevia at the onset of labour.

Prognosis may be worse in complete versus partial placenta praevia.

355
Q

Prognosis/complications of urogenital prolapse

A

Stress incontinence
Dyspareunia
Recurrence

356
Q

Rx of mastitis / breast abscess

A

In an early stage, when signs and symptoms of mastitis have not been present for more than 12-24 hours, it may be possible to manage the condition without antibiotics. However, antibiotics are required if the pain becomes severe or lasts more than 12-24 hours, if milk or blood culture is positive, or if there are any signs of systemic infection.

Breastfeeding should continue frequently (e.g., breastfeeding 8-12 times per day) to promote effective milk removal.

Breast pumping on the affected side if indicated and/or massage, if tolerated, may also be used.

The patient should be advised to increase her fluid intake, try warm and/or cold compresses, and have bed rest.
_________________
Antibiotics are indicated for patients with acute pain, severe symptoms, or symptoms lasting more than 12-24 hours; fever or any other signs of systemic infection; or positive microbiology studies.

Flucloxacillin / cefalexin / clindamycin 10-14 days

NB NO IMPROVEMENT IN 24 HRS = give vancomycin IV

_________________

Needle aspiration (18- to 19-gauge needle) with local anaesthesia, with or without ultrasound guidance, can be used to drain an abscess.

357
Q

Discuss the signs and symptoms of premature labour

A

COMMON

Uterine contractions
PROM
Advanced cervical dilation
Cervical length <2cm

UNCOMMON

Increased maternal/fetal HR
Non-specific lower abdominal or back pain
Fever
Vaginal bleeding

358
Q

Explain the aetiology of molar pregnancy

A

Not fully understood.

An important component is the presence of excess paternal chromosomes. There is a greater risk for malignant transformation in the presence of a Y chromosome, suggesting a genetic component for the more aggressive form of the disease.

Classified as:
Benign trophoblastic tumours
Hydatidiform moles
Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia = malignant possibilities

359
Q

Complications / prognosis of vulval cancer

A

5yr survival 75%
Prognosis poor if >4cm, sphincter involvement, groin mets

Wound breakdown/infection
Thromboemolic disease
Secondary haemorrhage
Chronic leg oedema
Parasthesia over leg
Impaired sexual function
360
Q

Discuss the signs/symptoms of menopause

A
Amenorrhoea 
Irregular cycle in 40s marks perimenopause 
Hot flushes + night sweats (7.4y duration)
Vag dryness, itching
Dyspareunia 
Pale/dry looking
Decreased vag rugae
Irritability + mood swings 
Sleep disturbance 
Mild memory impairment 
Sleep disturbance 
Mild memory impairment
361
Q

Complications of PCOS

A
Infertility 
Spontaneous pregnancy loss
T2DM
NAFLD
CVD
Endometrial hyperplasia/cancer 
Metabolic syndrome
Dyslipidaemia
Psychological complications 
OSA
362
Q

What are the RFs for pre-eclampsia

A
Primiparity 
Hx
FHx
BMI >30
Maternal age > 35
Twin pregnancy 
Sub-fertility 
Gestational HT 
PCOS
A/I disease
Renal disease
Chronic HTN 

WEAK
Interval of 10ys since last pregnancy
High altitude

363
Q

Aetiology of FGM

A

Cultural

364
Q

Ix for thyroid disease in pregnancy

A

HYPER:
Markedly depressed TSH, elevated t4, sometime t3.
Graves: anti-TSH receptor antibodies
May be associated with GTD/Hyperemesis G

HYPO:
High TSH, Low t4
Anti-TPO antibodies

365
Q

Discuss the management of PPH?

A

Basic ABC + resus
IV access
Replace blood / factors etc as needed / u+e
Atony - give syntocinon, IM/PR prostaglandins (carboprost), SURGERY - bilateral uterine artery embolisation
Genital tract trauma - repair
Retained placenta - controlled cord traction delivery + ABx
Accrete

366
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of cervical polyps

A
Irregular menstrual bleeding
IMB
PMB
PC bleed
Thick white/yellow discharge
Asymptomatic
367
Q

Prognosis/complications of fatty liver of pregnancy

A

The prognosis for women who develop AFLP is excellent, assuming they survive the acute event. However, a case of chronic pancreatitis has been described, occurring about 3 months after recovery and discharge from the hospital.

368
Q

List aetiology of pruritus vulvae

A
Candida
Lichen sclerosis
Eczema
VIN
Contact dermatitis

Vulva irritation can be caused by any moisture left on the skin. This moisture may be perspiration, urine, vaginal discharge or small amounts of stool. It may be caused by vaginal infections, vulvitis, HPV (human papilloma virus) infection, anal incontinence, Bowen’s disease, or dietary irritants (caffeine, potatoes, chilli, capsicum, tomatoes, and peanuts).

Patch testing may be useful for diagnosis

369
Q

What are the RFs for miscarriage

A
STRONG
Older age 
Uterine malformation
Bacterial vaginosis (2nd trimester)
Thrombophilia [hyperhomocysteinaemia//antiphosp]
Parental chromosomal anomaly 
WEAK
Hx 
Infertility 
NSAIDs
Caffeine 
Alcohol
Smoking
BMI high
DM
Thyroid dysfunction
370
Q

Define the 3 stages of labour

A

First stage of labor

Divided into a latent phase and an active phase

Begins with regular uterine contractions and ends with complete cervical dilatation at 10 cm

The latent phase begins with mild, irregular uterine contractions that soften and shorten the cervix
Contractions become progressively more rhythmic and stronger

The active phase usually begins at about 3-4 cm of cervical dilation and is characterized by rapid cervical dilation and descent of the presenting fetal part

Second stage of labor

Begins with complete cervical dilatation and ends with the delivery of the fetus
In nulliparous women, the second stage should be considered prolonged if it exceeds 3 hours if regional anesthesia is administered or 2 hours in the absence of regional anesthesia
In multiparous women, the second stage should be considered prolonged if it exceeds 2 hours with regional anesthesia or 1 hour without it.

Third stage of labor

The period between the delivery of the fetus and the delivery of the placenta and fetal membranes
Delivery of the placenta often takes less than 10 minutes, but the third stage may last as long as 30 minutes

Expectant management involves spontaneous delivery of the placenta
The third stage of labor is considered prolonged after 30 minutes, and active intervention is commonly considered.

Active management often involves prophylactic administration of oxytocin or other uterotonics (prostaglandins or ergot alkaloids), cord clamping/cutting, and controlled traction of the umbilical cord

371
Q

Ix for pregnancy of unknown location

A

USS:

Definite ectopic pregnancy Extrauterine gestational sac with yolk sac or
embryo (with or without cardiac activity).

Pregnancy of unknown location – probable ectopic pregnancy Inhomogeneous adnexal mass or extrauterine sac-like structure.

“True” pregnancy of unknown location No signs of intrauterine nor extrauterine pregnancy on transvaginal ultrasonography.

Pregnancy of unknown location – probable intrauterine pregnancy Intrauterine gestational sac-like structure.

Definite intrauterine pregnancy Intrauterine gestational sac with yolk sac or embryo (with or without cardiac activity).

372
Q

Define substance abuse in pregnancy

A

The use and abuse of illicit or harmful drugs during pregnancy

373
Q

Rx of vasa praevia

A

Cesarean delivery is the preferred mode of delivery for known vasa previa and is mandatory if significant vaginal bleeding occurs.

374
Q

Sx of subfertilty in men

A
Inability to conceive
Vasectomy
Palpable and dilated testicular veins
ED
Dec libido
TEstis atrophy 
Body habitus, abnormal hair distribution, and gynaecomastia - KLEINFELTERS
Absent vasa/epididymus 

OTHER UNCOMMON
Headaches/galactorrhoea/visual disturbance -> prolactinoma
Anosmia - kallmans
Frequent resp infections - immotile cilia syndrome - PCD
Pain, blood or pus with ejaculation - prostatitis or epididymitis

375
Q

Define menopause

A

Onset of the menopause is heralded by the cessation of menses for at least 12 consecutive months, without some other reason for amenorrhoea (such as pregnancy, hormone therapy, or other medical condition).

Permanent cessation of ovarian function may occur surgically by removal of both ovaries (surgical menopause) or medically, usually due to chemotherapy or radiotherapy (treatment-induced menopause)

The perimenopause includes the years before and after the cessation of menses in an ovulating woman and is marked by irregular menses and menopausal symptoms. Management of menopause symptoms requires individualisation based on each woman’s clinical circumstance.

376
Q

Ix for vasa praevia

A

Vasa previa is diagnosed prenatally with an average sensitivity of 93% and a specificity of 99%.
US scan

Consider endovaginal color flow Doppler ultrasonography to rule out vasa previa for patients with a known succenturiate lobe or velamentous insertion of the cord.

377
Q

Explain the risk factors of diabetes in pregnancy

A
advanced maternal age (>40 years)
elevated BMI
polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
non-white ancestry
Hx
Smoking
Dec exercise
FH
Low fibre/high glycemic index
378
Q

Define placental abruption

A

The premature separation of a normally located placenta from the uterine wall that occurs before delivery of the fetus. Abruption may be revealed, when blood escapes through the vagina, or concealed, when the bleeding occurs behind the placenta, with no evidence of bleeding from the vagina. [1] Abruption may be partial, affecting only part of the placenta, or total, involving the entire placenta.

Abnormal uterine artery Doppler velocimetry at 23 to 24 weeks of gestation may carry an increased risk of abruption later in pregnancy

379
Q

Aetiology of multiple pregnancy

A

The etiology of monozygotic twinning is unknown. Dizygotic twins are thought to result from the ovulation of multiple follicles caused by elevations in serum gonadotropin levels. Hence, advanced maternal age is associated with an increased prevalence of twin birth.

The availability of assisted reproductive technology has contributed to the increase in multiple gestations seen over the past 20 years. During ovulation induction treatment, the ovaries are stimulated to produce several follicles, thus increasing the risk of multiple eggs being released and subsequently fertilized. The risk of multiple gestations during in-vitro fertilization is directly related to maternal age and number of embryos transferred.

380
Q

A 41-year-old white female presents to her gynaecologist for a routine healthcare visit. She has no complaints except for some mild lower abdominal bloating. Her past medical and surgical history is unremarkable. Her sister has recently been diagnosed with endometriosis. She and her husband have been trying to conceive for the past 2 years and have been unsuccessful. She is requesting a referral to an infertility consultant. On examination, she is thin and in no distress. Pelvic examination reveals 10 cm bilateral adnexal masses indistinguishable from the uterus. Transvaginal ultrasound performed in the clinic is significant for ovarian masses with homogeneous, low-level internal echoes.

A

Endometriosis

381
Q

Rx of fatty liver of pregnancy

A

Monitor fetal wellbeing closely and counsel mother on emergency deliveries

5% dextrose - prevent + Rx hypoglycaemia

Monitor fluid balance closely

Plasmapheresis/plasma exchange has improved outcomes if - severe encephalopathy, on ventilator support, or with severe liver or renal insufficiency who failed to respond to conventional management

Consult anaesthetist regarding the anaesthetics that can be used

382
Q

Generate a management plan for post-natal depression

A

Facilitated self help.
Lifestyle
Antidepressants - Sertraline / paroxetine

383
Q

What are the iatrogenic causes of menorrhagia?

A

IUD
Anticoagulant therapies
Tamoxifen
Herbal supplements - ginseng

384
Q

Ix for substance abuse in pregnancy

A

The following studies are indicated when assessing perinatal drug abuse and neonatal drug withdrawal:
Obtain a serum glucose level.
Obtain a serum calcium level.
Perform a CBC count with differential and platelets.
Consider blood culture and other cultures to rule out newborn sepsis.
Confirm maternal hepatitis status and treat accordingly.
Confirm human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) status.
A urine toxicological screen may be helpful in determining drug use. A urine screen only signifies recent use or heavy use of drugs. In general, the length of time that a drug is present in urine after use is as follows:
Marijuana: 7 days to 1 month in an adult, perhaps even longer in an infant
Cocaine: 24-28 hours in an adult, 72-96 hours in an infant
Heroin: 24 hours in an adult, 24-48 hours in an infant
Methadone: Up to 10 days in an infant

385
Q

A 38-year-old primigravida woman presents for routine antenatal care. Her blood type is known to be Rh-negative with a negative indirect Coombs test, and her sexual partner is Rh-positive. She has been counselled regarding the need for Rh immunoprophylaxis at 28 weeks of pregnancy and postnatally if her newborn is found to be Rh-positive.

A

Rh incompatibility

386
Q

Rx of lichen sclerosis

A

Good skin care - cleaning and moisturising afterwards

Steroid cream eg dermovate

387
Q

A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 22 weeks’ gestation presents to the outpatient obstetrics clinic for a routine antenatal visit. She has no significant past medical history. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and her child (now 4 years of age) is doing well. On examination, she is afebrile with a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, pulse of 91 bpm, and blood pressure (BP) of 132/102 mmHg. Her previous BP reading was 120/80 mmHg. Urinalysis is negative for glucose and protein. The patient is asked to return in 1 week for a BP check. On check-in at the clinic, the patient tells the nurse that she does not have any symptoms. However, on examination, her BP has risen to 142/106 mmHg. Urinalysis remains negative for glucose and protein.

A

gestational HTN

388
Q

What are the RFs for premature labour

A

STRONG

Hx premature labour
Hx cervical trauma 
Hx induced abortion
Maternal infections
Multifetal pregnancies (av 3w before)
Short cervical length 
Positive fetal fibronectin (1/3-1/2 of women have a +ve FFN at 23 weeks deliver before 30weeks)
PROM

WEAK

Fetal abnormalities
Smoking
BMI <19
Social factors and ethnicity
Polyhydramnios
Domestic violence
Poor dental hygeine
389
Q

Define multiple pregnancy

A

The term multifetal gestation includes twins, triplets, and higher-order multiples.

Twins can be classified as monozygotic, originating from the fertilization and subsequent division of one egg, or dizygotic, originating from the fertilization and development of two eggs.

Twins can be further classified by their chorionicity. Dizygotic twins are almost always dichorionic, diamniotic. The chronicity of monozygotic twins depends on the timing of division of the fertilized egg. Dichorionic, diamniotic twins result if the fertilized egg splits 0-3 days after fertilization. This is thought to occur in approximately 20-30% of monozygotic twins. Monochorionic, diamniotic twins occur at days 4-8 after fertilization and account for approximately 70% of monozygotic twins. Monochorionic, monoamniotic twins are rare (1-5% of monozygotic twins) and result secondary to division 8-12 days postfertilization. Conjoined twins occur with division 13 days or later; this is extremely rare.

390
Q

Identify the possible complications of anaemia in pregnancy and its management

A

Intrauterine growth restriction, death in utero, infection, preterm delivery and neurodevelopmental damage, which may be irreversible.

Maternal death (most common cause)

391
Q

Explain risk factors of cervical cancer & intraepithelial neoplasia

A
STRONG
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
Age group
HIV
Multiple sexual partners
Cigarette smoking
Immunosuppression
WEAK
STDs
Oral Contraceptive
High Parity
Uncircumcised male partner
Micronutrient malnutrition
Low folate
Low Vit C
Alcohol abuse
Low socioeconomic
392
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Asherman’s syndrome (Intrauterine adhesions)

A
  1. 5 percent = incidental finding at hysterosalpingogram

21. 5 percent with a hx of postpartum uterine curettage

393
Q

Explain the aetiology of diabetes in pregnancy

A

Women who develop GDM have deficits in beta-cell response leading to insufficient insulin secretion to compensate for the increased insulin demands. Risk is increased by:

Age: due to age-related decreased pancreatic beta-cell reserve
Obesity: leads to increased insulin resistance, which is further compounded by pregnancy
Smoking: increases insulin resistance and decreases insulin secretion
Polycystic ovarian syndrome: associated with insulin resistance and obesity
Non-white ancestry
Family history of type 2 diabetes
Low-fibre and high-glycaemic index diet
Weight gain as a young adult: correlates with risk
Lack of physical activity: exercise increases insulin sensitivity and may impact body weight
Prior GDM: GDM recurs in as many as 80% of subsequent pregnancies.

394
Q

Ix for cardiac disease in pregnancy

A

Pre-pregnancy counselling:

  • assessment of cardiac status
  • eisenmenger = contraindication to pregnancy

Booking:
Haemic systolic murmurs are common in pregnancy
Assessment by cardiologist should be performed

Patients with known lesions should be supervised jointly by a cardiologist and obstetrician

395
Q

List RFs for uterine atony (a cause of PPH)?

A
Multiple pregnancy 
Grand multiparity 
Fetal macrosomia
Polyhydramnios 
Fibroid uterus
Prolonged labour
Previous PPH
Antepartum haemorrhage
396
Q

Describe the third stage of labour

A

Third stage of labor

The period between the delivery of the fetus and the delivery of the placenta and fetal membranes
Delivery of the placenta often takes less than 10 minutes, but the third stage may last as long as 30 minutes

Expectant management involves spontaneous delivery of the placenta
The third stage of labor is considered prolonged after 30 minutes, and active intervention is commonly considered.

Active management often involves prophylactic administration of oxytocin or other uterotonics (prostaglandins or ergot alkaloids), cord clamping/cutting, and controlled traction of the umbilical cord

397
Q

RFs for PCOS

A

STRONG
FHx
Premature adrenarche

WEAK
LBW
Fetal androgen exposure
Obesity 
Environmental endocrine disruptors
398
Q

Describe the signs/symptoms of miscarriage

A
RFs
PV bleed +/- clots 
Suprapubic pain/crampy 
Low-back pain
Recent post-coital bleed 
Uterine structural abnormality eg fibroids
399
Q

What is the epidemiology of vasa praevia?

A

1 in 2000-6000 pregnancies

400
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of atrophic vaginitis

A

An estimated 40% of woman post-menopause
Chemotherapy and radiotherapy
Prescription drugs and medicines that have anti-estrogen effects
Disorders/conditions affecting the function of ovaries, surgical removal of ovarian cysts
The period after childbirth; mothers who are lactating
Reduced incidence of sexual activity (intercourse) in adult women
Deficient production of the hormone estrogen due to cigarette smoking, physiological factors, vaginal changes, depression or intensive stress

401
Q

Generate a management plan for pre-eclampsia

A

ALL WOMEN ADMITTED UNTIL BIRTH unless v low risk.
DEFINITIVE Rx = Delivery
<32 weeks - prolonging gestation is beneficial for fetes
34-37 weeks = early delivery increases risk of fetal respiratory distress syndrome BUT earlier delivery safer for mother
GIVE antenatal corticosteroids before 34 weeks if early delivery to mature fetal lungs
Delivery >36 weeks = optimum

ANTI-HTN

  • Labetalol
  • Nifedipine
  • Methyldopa
  • Hydralazine

SEIZURE COVER
- Magnesium sulfate

ASPIRIN

402
Q

Rx of obstetric cholestasis

A

TREATMENT DEPENDS ON SEVERITY

MILD: <40micromol bile acids
Anti-Histamines - eg dipenhydramine

Ursodeoxycholic acid
Colestyramine
Phytomenadione (vit k)

SEVERE: >40micromol bile acids

Ursodeoxycholic acid
Phenobarbital (induces microsomal enzymes)

FETAL SURVEILLANCE IS REQUIRED

Steroids - systemic reduce itchiness, IM gven to mature metal lung
Colestyramine
Phytomenadione (vit k)
Anti-Histamines - eg dipenhydramine
NB do not give phenobarbital if used within 2 hours of colestyramine.

Pathological CTG - DELIVER
There is increased risk of pre-term delivery and intra-uterine fetal demise in those with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Almost half will have meconium and up to 25% will develop non-reassuring fetal status in labour. The overall perinatal mortality is between 3% and 20%.

403
Q

What are the complications of miscarriage

A
Incomplete evacuation of the uterus 
Post evacuation uterine bleeding
Sepsis
Uterine/cervix perforation 
Recurrence
Ashermans syndrome 
Psychological dysfunction
PV bleeding
404
Q

What is considered prolonged active phase 1 of labour?

A

> 6cm dilation with ruptured membranes and one of the following: 4 hours or more of adequate contractions (>200 MVU) or 6 hours or more of inadequate contractions and no cervical change.

405
Q

What is the prognosis for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Uncomplicated = resolves by 20w
Furthermore, women who experience NVP have been shown to have improved pregnancy outcomes. These include a decrease in miscarriages, pre-term deliveries, and stillbirths. In addition, there is a lower prevalence for reduced fetal birth weight, fetal growth restriction, and fetal mortality.

Hyperemesis:
In contrast with uncomplicated NVP, hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with an increase in maternal morbidity, and also increased fetal morbidity and mortality.

406
Q

Generate a management plan for endometriosis

A
  1. COCP
    - NSAID throughout - +ve feedback of PG synthesis
  2. Progestogen
  3. GnRH agonist
  4. Androgen
  5. Hysterectomy with bilateral salpingooophorectomy + excision of pelvic disease
    - Will need HRT
407
Q

Generate a management plan for cutaneous warts

A
Cryotherapy 
Trichloroacetic acid
Podophyllotoxin topical
Surgical removal 
CO2 laser ablation
408
Q

Epidemiology of pregnancy of unknown location

A

8% and 10% of women attending for an ultrasound assessment in early pregnancy will be classified as having a PUL

409
Q

Define urinary incontinence in women

A

Urinary incontinence is a complaint of involuntary loss of urine. It can have devastating effects on the patient, detrimentally affecting her level of activity and psychosocial state, leading to depression and withdrawal from social settings. Characterisation of the type of incontinence can help to elucidate the underlying aetiology and help to guide management.

410
Q

Ix for small for dates/IUGR

A

SFH
US estimated gestation:
Measures FL, AC, HC
Hadlock 1 used FL, AC
Often uterine + umbilical arteries measured.
MCA doppler performed - abnormal MCA study results had earlier deliveries, lower birth weights, fewer vaginal deliveries, and increased admissions to neonatal ICUs
3D US can be performed in some places

411
Q

Define vasa praevia

A

Vasa previa is an uncommon obstetrical complication that poses a high risk of fetal demise if not recognized before rupture of membranes. It is vital that providers recognize risk factors for vasa previa and diagnose this condition before the onset of labor so that fetal shock or demise is prevented. Neither the umbilical cord nor the placenta supports the vessels. Vasa previa presents with painless vaginal bleeding at the time of spontaneous rupture of membranes or amniotomy (AROM). Fetal shock or demise can occur rapidly. Fetal mortality for cases not recognized before the onset of labor is reported to range between 22.5% and 100%.

412
Q

Ix for oligohydramnios

A

Oligohydramnios is ultrasonographically defined as an AFI less than 7 cm or the absence of a fluid pocket 2-3 cm in depth.

Premature rupture of membrane (PROM) is the most common cause of oligohydramnios; therefore, obtain available tests to confirm or exclude this condition. Maternal substance abuse and certain medications (eg, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs [NSAIDs], angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors [ACEI]) can also cause oligohydramnios.
Test for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which causes immune-mediated infarcts in the placenta as well as placental insufficiency.

Evaluate for pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) and hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome. Test for elevated blood pressure, proteinuria, elevated uric acid levels, increased liver function test results, and low platelet count.

413
Q

Generate a management plan for atrophic vaginitis

A

Vaginial moisturisers / lubricants
Inc sex reduces symptoms
Vaginal dilators

VAGINAL ESTROGEN THERAPY — Estrogen is the most effective treatment for moderate to severe symptoms of vaginal atrophy. (EDependent tumour = contra) vaginal > systemic - dec risk of thrombosis/breast cancer

Ring — A silastic ring impregnated with estradiol

Estradiol cream

Use of an opposing progestin — A progestin is probably not necessary to protect against endometrial hyperplasia or cancer in women treated for vaginal atrophy with low-dose preparations

OSPEMIFENE — Ospemifene (SERM)

414
Q

Discuss the RFs for menopause

A

Age 40-60
Cancer Rx (chemo/radio destroy ovarian follicles)
Smoking
Ovarian surgery
Mothers age - not a strong predictor but weak

415
Q

What is the epidemiology of placenta praevia?

A

Occurs in 0.3% to 0.5% of pregnancies worldwide.
The condition is uncommon in first pregnancies.

One caesarean section increases the incidence in the next pregnancy to about 0.6%. Subsequent caesarean sections increase the risk only slightly compared with one procedure.

416
Q

Epidemiology of substance abuse in pregnancy

A

Neonatal withdrawal = 1-40 per 10k
The prevalence of prenatally exposed newborns to one or more illicit drugs averages approximately 5.5%, with a range of 1.3-50%

14.8% of pregnant women consumed alcohol

417
Q

Identify the possible complications of cervical cancer & intraepithelial neoplasia and its management

A
Bleeding
Bladder instability 
Radiation comps: vaginal stenosis/atrophy/fibrosis
Long term Sex Dys
Post radio lyphoedema
Preterm birth
Bowel/bladder fistula
418
Q

Sx of thyroid disease in pregnancy

A

Hyper:
Often difficult to detect due to normal t4 excess in pregnancy:
SX
Tachycardia, thryomegaly, exophthalmos, failure to gain weight

Hypo:
Fatigue, constipation, cold intolerance, muscle cramps, weight gain.
Oedema, dry skin, hair loss, def deep tendon reflexes

419
Q

Define endometrial polyp

A

Mass in the inner lining of the uterus

May be sessile or pedunculated

420
Q

List the prognosis of ovarian cysts

A

The majority of ovarian cysts resolve spontaneously in all patient groups. Without strong supporting evidence for malignancy, management hinges on determining the likelihood of natural resolution. Surgery provides an immediate solution, but each patient group heralds different risks for recurrence.

Pregnancy related: 70-100% regress

421
Q

A 34-year-old nulligravid woman presents to her gynaecologist with a complaint of inability to conceive. She has been married for 2 years and stopped using contraception 1 year ago. Her menstrual cycles occur regularly every 28 days and are associated with moliminal symptoms (breast tenderness, bloating, and mood changes). She denies dysmenorrhoea or dyspareunia. She has no significant medical history, has never had a sexually transmitted disease, and has never had surgery. Her husband is 34 years old and has never fathered a child. He has a history of hypertension controlled by beta-blockers.

A

Infertility in women

422
Q

Generate a management plan for cervical cancer & intraepithelial neoplasia

A

Stage 1a - Local excision+LN dissection +/- hysterectomy
Stage 1a-b - radical hysterectomy + lymphadenectomy +/- chemoradiation
Stage 2b-4a - chemoradiation
Metastatic - combined chemo +/- local ablative therapy

423
Q

Key questions in history taking for primary amenorrhoea?

A

Galactorrhoea: Hyperprolactinaemia is more commonly associated with secondary amenorrhoea.

History of a traumatic head injury or infection: a remote history may be elicited from the patient or parents.

Headache/visual field changes: suggest a CNS tumour (e.g., craniopharyngioma).

Anosmia: suggests Kallman syndrome or a complete congenital gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency.

Poor nutritional status due to systemic illness, an eating disorder, and/or low body fat: may result in hypothalamic dysfunction. Extreme athleticism, especially with low BMI, may result in a similar phenomenon. An inquiry into a patient’s health status, eating habits, and body image is necessary.

Emotional stress: can impair hypothalamic function, resulting in hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism.

Chronic systemic illness: may present with fatigue, malaise, anorexia, and weight loss.

Family history: height should be documented and compared with that of other family members. Short stature is suggestive of Turner syndrome or hypothalamic-pituitary disease. A history of familial delayed puberty, in addition to onset of menarche in the patient’s mother and female siblings, should be elicited.

424
Q

Define anaemia in pregnancy?

A

First trimester – Hemoglobin <110 g/L (approximately equivalent to a hematocrit <33 percent)

Second trimester – Hemoglobin <105 g/L (approximate hematocrit <31 or 32 percent)

Third trimester – Hemoglobin level <110 g/L (approximate hematocrit <33 percent)

Some individuals may have a significant decrease from baseline without crossing these thresholds, and clinical judgment is required to determine the reason(s) for the decrease and the need for (and aggressiveness of) further evaluation. As an example, in an individual with a baseline hemoglobin of 14 g/dL that decreases to 11 g/dL associated with macrocytosis, checking a reticulocyte count and testing for vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies is reasonable.

Anaemia is normally <120g/L FEMALE
<140g/L MALE
PREGNANCY = RF for anaemia
Other RFs include: extremes of age, female gender, lactation, and pregnancy.

425
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for dysfunctional uterine bleeding and interpret the results

A
Pregnancy test, neg
FBC - anaemia
Coag profile - N
Low progesterone 
Prolactin - hyperprolactinaemia
TSH (hypo/hyperthyroid)
Androgen levels - PCOS
17a hydroxyprogesterone - high in congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Endometrial thickness - N
NSAIDS
Ovulation induction agents
GnRH analogue
426
Q

Generate a management plan for ovarian cancer

A

Grade 1/2 - comprehensive surgical staging
Grade 3 - chemotherapy (carboplatin + docetaxel)
Stage 2/3/4 - just chemotherapy

427
Q

Define obesity in pregnancy

A

Pregnancy in an obese patient

AKA BMI >30

428
Q

What Rx can be given for failure to progress?

A

Syntocinon

Dinoprostone and misoprostol are prostaglandin analogs used to stimulate cervical dilation and uterine contractions; they are pharmacologic alternatives to using laminaria or placing a Foley bulb in the cervix. Using prostaglandin analogs with a scarred uterus (eg, from prior cesarean or myomectomy) for labor induction is absolutely contraindicated due to the significant risk for uterine rupture.

Propranolol can be given

429
Q

Identify the possible complications of dysfunctional uterine bleeding and its management

A

Endometrial hyperplasia/carcinoma possible

ID anaemia

430
Q

Identify the possible complications of diabetes in pregnancy and its management

A
Maternal HTN
C-Section
Fetal macrosomia
Neonatal hypoglycaemia
Neonatal polycythaemia
Neonatal jaundice
Neonatal hypocalcaemia
Birth injuries - shoulder dystocia
Neonatal death
Hypoglycaemia (insulin)
Recurrent GDM
T2DM
431
Q

Define Asherman’s syndrome

Intrauterine adhesions

A

IUAs, or intrauterine synechiae, is a condition in which scar tissue develops within the uterine cavity. Intrauterine adhesions that are accompanied by symptoms (eg, infertility, amenorrhea) are referred to as Asherman syndrome. The degree of adhesion formation and the impact of the adhesions on the contour of uterine cavity vary greatly. Minimal disease is characterized by thin strands of tissue stretched across the uterine cavity while severe disease is characterized by complete obliteration of the cavity, with the anterior wall of the uterus densely adherent to the posterior wall.

432
Q

Define subfertilty in men

A

The clinical definition of male factor infertility is the presence of abnormal semen parameters in the male partner of a couple unable to achieve conception after 1 year of unprotected intercourse. The World Health Organization defines male factor infertility as the presence of ≥1 abnormalities in the semen analysis or the presence of inadequate sexual or ejaculatory function.

Presence of abnormal semen parameters in the male partner of a couple unable to achieve conception after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.

Male factor alone contributes to 20% of cases of infertile couples and to an additional 30% to 40% in combination with other factors.

Most cases are of unknown aetiology.

Diagnosed if abnormal semen parameters in 2 semen analyses separated by 1 month.

Sperm functional assays, endocrine tests, genetic testing, and imaging can be helpful.

Treatment should be targeted to the aetiological factors whenever possible.

Assisted reproductive techniques are often the fastest and most effective method to achieve pregnancy regardless of the aetiology

433
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of dysfunctional uterine bleeding

A

age (years after puberty and before menopause) - women at both ends of their reproductive age period
polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
other anovulatory disorders
endocrine disorders - hypothyroidism and hyperprolactinaemia, are frequently associated with DUB.
obesity

434
Q

Summarise the RFs for endometrial cancer

A
STRONG
Obesity 
- BMI over 30 triples risk
Age >50
Endometrial Hyperplasia 
Unopposed exogenous oestrogen 
Tamoxifen 
FHx endometrial/breast/ovarian
Fix PTEN syndromes
PCOS
Radiotherapy 
WEAK
Inactivity 
Insulin resistance (DM 3x risk) 
Nulliparity / Infertility 
White ethnicity
435
Q

The condition can present in primigravidas or multi-gravidas, in the young and in those of advanced age. It can present as early as 20 weeks’ gestation but usually presents in the third trimester. A small number of women will have jaundice and significant liver dysfunction, and rarely coagulopathy from vitamin K deficiency. In some women the condition can present with signs of non-reassuring fetal status (abnormal fetal heart rate pattern or biophysical profile with score of ≤4) with severe pruritus, jaundice, elevated transferases, and premature labour or intra-uterine fetal demise. In a small number of patients the condition is confused with plaques, urticaria, and papules of pregnancy (PUPPS) as the pruritus leads to scratching, which can cause a rash-like appearance if not severe enough to cause excoriations. Pruritus without rash or other exposures is enough for the presumptive diagnosis.

A

obstetric cholestasis

436
Q

Complications of infertility in women

A

Clomifene induced hypo-oestrogenism
Multiple gestation
Ovarian cancer
Ovarian hyper-stimulation syndrome:

Symptoms range from mild to severe. Mild OHSS manifests as bloating and abdominal discomfort. As the abdominal fluid collection continues it restricts diaphragmatic activity with resultant shortness of breath. Increased abdominal pressure can also restrict the inferior vena cava and reduce pre-load. A reduced intravascular volume decreases glomerular filtration rate and may result in renal failure. As intravascular depletion continues, the rising haematocrit can increase the risk of blood clotting. This risk is further increased by the high level of estradiol. Third spacing can occur in other tissues including the lungs and the brain.
Treatment is supportive. Paracentesis can improve respiratory effort and cardiac output. OHSS occurs in approximately 20% of all IVF cases but is only severe in <5%. Symptoms last approximately 1 week, but will continue longer when conception occurs.

437
Q

Describe the examination of a PPH?

A
ABC
Blood loss quantification
Pulse
BP
Urine output
Uterine contraction - if fully contracted it makes trauma/retained placenta likely cause
Fundal height
Placenta/membranes complete
Genital tract trauma
438
Q

Complications of subfertilty in men

A

Testicular cancer

439
Q

Discuss the aetiology of placental abruption

A

Direct abdominal trauma may cause separation of the placenta.

Indirect trauma may shear the placenta off the uterine wall.

Cocaine use causes vasospasm that may lead to placental separation.

440
Q

Define atrophic vaginitis

A

Vulvovaginal atrophy (also referred to as vaginal atrophy, urogenital atrophy, or atrophic vaginitis) results from estrogen loss and is often associated with vulvovaginal complaints (eg, dryness, burning, dyspareunia) in menopausal women [1]. Urinary frequency and recurrent bladder infections may also occur.

441
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of amniotic fluid embolism

A

AFES is rare. Most studies indicate that the incidence is between 1 and 12 cases per 100,000 deliveries
90% occur during labour/immediately postpartum

442
Q

RFs for termination of pregnancy

A

20s

443
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Bartholin’s cyst and interpret the results

A

Microscopy and culture of abscess material - Polymicrobial growth
Biopsy of vulval lesion - non-malignant cells

444
Q

Atypical presentations may include mastitis and/or abscesses involving both breasts; the development of multiple breast abscesses; associated nipple inversion and/or retraction; and septicaemia and/or toxic shock syndrome. Inflammation of the male breast may occur but is unusual. Epidemic (hospital-acquired) puerperal mastitis is also infrequent. Uncommon causes of breast inflammation include myiasis (maggot infestation) and self-inflicted mastitis (mastitis factitia).

A

mastitis

445
Q

The patient may present with an existing medical condition that is known to affect male fertility, including cystic fibrosis, prior chemotherapy or radiotherapy, hypospadias, cryptorchidism, and Klinefelter’s syndrome. Patients may also present with erectile dysfunction and signs of endocrinopathy.

A

Male factor infertility

446
Q

Assessment of vaginal bleeding

List the causes of bleeding during pregnancy?

A

Ectopic
Miscarriage (before 22w)

2/3rd TRIMESTER
Placenta praevia (placenta overlying the cervical os)
Placental abruption - (premature separation of the placenta from the uterus)

447
Q

Complications/prognosis of multiple pregnancy

A
FOETAL 
Preterm delivery (increases with number of gestations)
TTTS (monochorionic)
3x risk cerebral palsy 
Stillbirth 
7x risk of neonatal death
Congenital anomalies
IUGR
MATERNAL
Preterm leabour
PROM
Pre-eclampsia
GHTN
GDM
Placental abruption
PE
PPH
Polyhydramnios
VTE
AFLP
Malpresentation
448
Q

What are the pregnancy related causes of menorrhagia?

A

Miscarriage
GTD (choriocarcinoma)
Ectopic

449
Q

Aetiology of polyhydramnios

A

Fetal swallowing, which occurs physiologically, reduces the amount of fluid, and an absence of swallowing or a blockage of the fetus’s gastrointestinal tract can lead to polyhydramnios.

A near term fetus produces 500-1200 mL of urine and swallows between 210 and 790 mL of amniotic fluid per day.

IDIOPATHIC
Twin/multiple gestation
TTTS
Oesophageal atresia (usually associated with a tracheoesophageal fistula), tracheal agenesis, duodenal atresia, and other intestinal atresias
CNS problems preventing swallowing
Hydrops associated
Chromosomal abnormalities, most commonly trisomy 21, followed by trisomy 18 and trisomy 13.

450
Q

Define asthma in pregnancy

A

Asthma is a chronic inflammatory airway disease characterised by intermittent airway obstruction and hyper-reactivity. Many cellular components are involved in the asthmatic pathway, including mast cells, eosinophils, T lymphocytes, macrophages, neutrophils, and epithelial cells. On insult, in susceptible people, inflammation causes increased bronchial hyper-responsiveness and recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and coughing, which are usually associated with widespread but variable airway obstruction that is reversible either spontaneously or with treatment.

451
Q

What is the prognosis of pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Prognosis for complete recovery is good in patients treated within 3 days of symptom onset and who are able to complete the full course of therapy. Clinical and microbiological cure rates of 88% to 100% have been reported after oral antibiotic treatment. The risks of tubal occlusion and infertility depend on severity of infection before treatment. Clinical improvement may not translate into improved fertility. Patients who have co-existent conditions (HIV infection, pregnancy, IUD, prior PID or tubo-ovarian abscess) require close observation and may require hospitalisation.

452
Q

Discuss the RFs for PROM

A
Infection of amniotic fluid
PROM Hx
Bleeding PV in pregnancy
Smoking
Low BMI
Polyhydramnios
Multiple gestation
Invasive procedures
Cervical insufficiency
453
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of cervical cancer & intraepithelial neoplasia

A
Vaginal bleeding
Postcoital bleeding
Pelvic pain, dyspareunia
Cervical Mass
Cervical bleeding
Mucoid/purulent discharge
Bladder / renal / bowel OB
Bone pain
454
Q

What is the aetiology of ovarian cysts

A

Physiological: cyst development as an exaggerated response to normal physiological processes; includes follicular, endometriotic, corpus luteum, and theca lutein cysts

Infectious: an abscess or cystic collection of cellular debris

Benign neoplastic: excessive growth of normal ovarian tissue types without dysplasia; includes serous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenoma, adenofibroma, fibroma, thecoma, mature cystic teratoma (dermoid cyst), and Brenner’s tumour

Malignant neoplastic: includes serous cystadenocarcinoma, mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, endometrioid carcinoma, and immature teratoma

Metastatic: invasion and growth of neoplastic tissue from another malignant source, most commonly ovarian, endometrial, colonic, or gastric cancers.

455
Q

Discuss the investigations of PPH?

A
Establish IV access
Send blood haemoglobin, platelets, clotting factors
Cross-match blood
Check U+Es
Full blood count - secondary 
USS - check if retained products/molar 
B-HCG - if molar round - CxR + LFTs
456
Q

Generate a management plan for placenta praevia

A
  • If needing to deliver <34 weeks -> CORTICOSTEROIDS
  • Potential tocolytics if preterm labour
  • Labour desirable -> C section
457
Q

Identify the possible complications of external cephalic version

A

Typical risks include umbilical cord entanglement, abruption of placenta, preterm labor, premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) and severe maternal discomfort.

458
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for chlamydia and interpret the results

A

nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

direct immunofluorescence
enzyme immunoassay
nucleic acid hybridisation tests
cell culture

459
Q

RFs for cardiac disease in pregnancy

A
Aggregating factors:
Anaemia
Respiratory infection
Febrile illness
Excessive exercise
Emotional upset 
-> all cause tachycardias
460
Q

What are the complications of gonorrhoea

A
Ectopic - PID
Infertility in women - PID
Infertility in men
Blindness
PID
Fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome
461
Q

What are the indications for LETZ

A

High grade cervical dysplasia CIN2/3

462
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms/signs of amniotic fluid embolism

A

Aura – 1/3 = sense of sudden doom, chills, nausea and vomiting, agitation, anxiety, or change in mental status

Cardiorespiratory failure and/or arrest – Patients suddenly develop hypoxemic respiratory failure, hypotension from cardiogenic shock, and/or cardiovascular collapse/cardiac arrest.

Typical clinical findings include oxygen desaturation, dyspnea, tachypnea, cyanosis, crackles, and occasionally, wheeze.

Hypoventilation is unusual unless in the setting of respiratory arrest. Those with cardiac arrest can present with bradycardia, tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, pulseless electrical activity (PEA) and/or asystole. If patients survive the initial cardiorespiratory event, noncardiogenic pulmonary edema often develops (worsening dyspnea and tachypnea, crackles) as left ventricular failure resolves.

Hemorrhage from disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) typically occurs shortly after the development of cardiorespiratory compromise but may be the initial presentation [1,2,5,43].

Prolonged bleeding from sites of invasive interventions and bruising are the most common manifestations of DIC.

Neurologic manifestations – Tonic-clonic seizures (30 percent) and stroke (rare) .

Levels of zinc coproporphyrin-1 and sialyl Tn antigen increased in some

463
Q

RFs for substance abuse in pregnancy

A
FHx
Closer relatives = higher risk
Hx sexual abuse 
Psychiatric comorbidity
Teenage years + other RFs
464
Q

Prognosis of subfertilty in men

A

The patient’s prognosis depends on the initial diagnosis. Some reversible causes of male infertility are curable. However, for most conditions, the value of medical and surgical care remains controversial. Artificial reproductive technologies remain an effective option for the infertile man.

Chromosomal defects may be passed on to offspring if intracytoplasmic sperm injection is used. Men with severe oligospermia should be offered karyotypic evaluation and advised of this risk.

465
Q

Define abnormal labour

A

To define abnormal labor, a definition of normal labor must be understood and accepted. Normal labor is defined as uterine contractions that result in progressive dilation and effacement of the cervix. By following thousands of labors resulting in uncomplicated vaginal deliveries, time limits and progress milestones have been identified that define normal labor. Failure to meet these milestones defines abnormal labor, which suggests an increased risk of an unfavorable outcome. Thus, abnormal labor alerts the obstetrician to consider alternative methods for a successful delivery that minimize risks to both the mother and the infant.
Dystocia of labor is defined as difficult labor or abnormally slow progress of labor. Other terms that are often used interchangeably with dystocia are dysfunctional labor, failure to progress (lack of progressive cervical dilatation or lack of descent), and cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD).

Abnormal labor constitutes any findings that fall outside the accepted normal labor curve.

466
Q

Identify the possible complications of evacuation of retained products of conception (ERPC)

A

Rare: damage to uterine lining or cervix, perforation of the uterus, infection, and blood clots

467
Q

List the investigations for molar pregnancies

A

Serum HCG - ABNORMALLY high for gestational age
FBC - anaemia
TSH - N
- DO blood typing
Pelvic USS - MASS
CxR - high output cardiac failure (kerley B lines, fluid, alveolar infiltrates, interstitial markings)

468
Q

Whatare the relevant Ix for gonorrhoea infection

A

urethral/urine/cervical/vaginal NAAT - +VE

Culture - +ve chocolate agar culture
- can culture Urethral, endocervical, rectal, pharyngeal, blood, synovial fluid, CSF, or conjunctival specimen

Urinalysis - +ve leukocyte esterase

Gram-stain urine/discharge

DO HIV / SYPHILIS TEST TOO

469
Q

Define Rh incompatibility

A

Rh incompatibility is caused by destruction of fetal erythrocytes from transplacental passage of maternally derived IgG antibodies. IgG antibodies are produced by the maternal immune system, usually against the rhesus D (RhD) antigen. These antibodies can freely cross the placenta, binding to and destroying RBCs. More than 50 known RBC antibodies potentially cause Rh incompatibility. The consequence is progressive fetal anaemia, which, untreated, may ultimately lead to hydrops fetalis (collection of fluid in serous compartments) and death.

470
Q

What is the prognosis of endometrial cancer?

A

The 5-year survival rate for all types and grades of endometrial adenocarcinoma, following treatment, is:[163]
• 75%to95%forstageI • 70% for stage II
• 50% to 60% for stage III • 5% to 15% for stage IV.

Because endometrial cancer is usually diagnosed in the early stages (70% to 75% of cases are in stage I at diagnosis; 10% to 15% in stage II; 10% to 15% in stage III or IV), there is a better probable outcome from endometrial cancer than from other types of gynaecological cancers such as cervical or ovarian cancer.

Of cases that recur, 85% of cases of endometrial adenocarcinoma recur within the first 2 years. Recurrences for early stage disease occur at the vaginal cuff and pelvis.

471
Q

Prognosis of oligohydramnios

A

Perinatal Mortality Rate = 4.12 deaths per 1000 patients with polyhydramnios and 56.5 deaths per 1000 patients with oligohydramnios.

The mortality rate in oligohydramnios is high. The lack of amniotic fluid allows compression of the fetal abdomen, which limits movement of its diaphragm. In addition to chest wall fixation, the lack of amniotic fluid flowing in and out of the fetal lung leads to pulmonary hypoplasia.
Oligohydramnios is also associated with meconium staining of the amniotic fluid, fetal heart conduction abnormalities, umbilical cord compression, poor tolerance of labor, lower Apgar scores, and fetal acidosis. In cases of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), the degree of oligohydramnios is often proportional to growth restriction, is frequently reflective of the extent of placental dysfunction, and is associated with a corresponding increase in the PMR.

472
Q

Complications of UTI in pregnancy

A

The majority of long-term sequelae are due to complications associated with septic shock, respiratory failure, and hypotensive hypoxia (ie, extremity gangrene).

ARDS

Untreated upper UTIs are associated with low birth weight, prematurity, premature labor, hypertension, preeclampsia, maternal anemia, and amnionitis

473
Q

Ix for thromboembolism in pregnancy

A

Compression US with doppler
D dimer often raised anyway in pregnancy BUT a negative d dimer is reassuring.
MRI if pelvic/iliofemoral suspected..often not seen on US doppler

PE:
CTPA is most sensitive but increased radio dose so:
Ventilation -perfusion scan = preferable
Can do MR-angiography

474
Q

Summarise the indications for endometrial ablation

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding IN THE CONTEXT OF NOT WANTING CHILDREN.

IE DUB / Adenomyosis

Alternative to hysterectomy.

475
Q

List the complications of ovarian cancer

A
Chemotherapy SEs
Blood loss/infection from surgery 
Neutropaenic sepsis/fever 
Bowel obstruction 
BM suppression
476
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of asthma in pregnancy

A

Asthma is one of the most common medical conditions encountered during pregnancy, occurring in 3 to 8 percent of pregnant women

477
Q

Ix for termination of pregnancy

A

Pregnancy test
FBC + haematinics
Rhesus typing
STI screen

May perform
Coagulation studies, RFTs, LFTs

Post operative HCG may be performed - Titer resolution is different between surgical and medical abortions. The titer should decrease to approximately 64% of its preabortion value within 24 hours of misoprostol being administered in medical abortion protocols. By 2 weeks, the titers should have dropped 99%.

US scan may be performed - establish gestation

478
Q

List the common causes of primary amenorrhoea?

A
COMMON
Eating disorders / athlete
Emotional/physical stress
Post contraception with depot medroxyprogesterone 
Hyperprolactinaemia 
PCOS 
Idiopathic premature ovarian failure
Post chemoradiation ovarian failure 
Fragile X carrier
Turner's syndrome mosaic (fewer manifestations than turners)
Non-classic congenital adrenal hyperplasia (presents later)
Hypothyroidism

UNCOMMON
Malnutrition / chronic disease
Empty sella syndrome
Sheehans syndrome (postPart pituitary necrosis(
Post-encephalitis
Androgen producing ovarian/adrenal tumour
A/I prem ovarian failure
Cushing’s syndrome
Ashermans syndrome
Drug induced - ie antipsychotics cause galactorrhea

479
Q

Define cardiac disease in pregnancy

A

The obstetric population is generally fit and healthy, with a small proportion having pre-existing cardiac disease.

Pre-existing: ensure patient is counselled prior to pregnancy

Either way the job of the obstetrician is to involve the MDT

480
Q

Discuss the prognosis of Rh incompatibility

A

RhD alloimmunisation is a disease that will usually progress during the pregnancy and in future pregnancies. Therefore, follow-up of these patients is required through antibody titres and fetal middle cerebral artery Doppler ultrasound during subsequent pregnancies.

481
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of endometriosis

A

Low-end estimates of prevalence are 1% to 7% for women undergoing gynaecological surgery, including tubal sterilisation.
The prevalence is thought to be higher in white women and in those with a lower body mass index.

482
Q

RFs for FGM

A

Africa and the Middle East

483
Q

Describe the signs/symptoms of ovarian cysts

A

Pelvic pain
Bloating / early satiety
Palpable adnexal mass

Mass features consistent with malignancy include irregularity, solid consistency, fixed mobility, nodularity, and presence of ascites.

484
Q

Summarise the aetiology of endometrial cancer

A

Endometrial hyperplasia
• Endometrial hyperplasia commonly results from chronic oestrogen stimulation unopposed by the counterbalancing effects of progesterone.
• Complex hyperplasia with cytological atypia has been termed ‘intra-epithelial endometrial neoplasia’ (IEN).

Unopposed endogenous oestrogenic stimulation of the endometrium
• Seen in chronic anovulation, which is a feature of polycystic ovary syndrome.
• In post-menopausal women, continued ovarian secretion of estradiol or conversion of the androgens
androstenedione and testosterone to oestrone and estradiol occurs, by aromatase in adipocytes.
• In obese women, high levels of endogenous oestrogen are due to the conversion of androstenedione
to oestrone and the aromatisation of androgens to estradiol in adipose tissue.
• Sex cord stromal tumours of the ovary, such as granulosa cell tumours, are also a source of
endogenous estradiol.

Unopposed exogenous oestrogenic stimulation of the endometrium
• Exogenous oestrogen therapy (e.g., HRT) in pre-menopausal and post-menopausal women is associated with endometrial hyperplasia.

Familial cancer syndromes

• Family history of endometrial, ovarian, breast, or colon cancer.
• Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer (HNPCC) or Lynch syndrome.
• Cowden’s syndrome, related to mutation in the PTEN (phosphatase and tensin homologue protein
gene) tumour suppressor gene. Carriers have an increased risk for endometrial, breast, thyroid, colorectal, and renal cancer.

485
Q

What is the prognosis of urinary incontinence in women

A

This disorder has a significant impact on a patient’s quality of life, including loss of self-esteem and decreased ability to exercise, socialise, and maintain independence. As the condition worsens, dependence on carers increases, leading to restriction on social interaction. Treatment is directed at improving quality of life and should be individualised according to impact severity. No treatment is fully curative, and combination therapy may be beneficial.

486
Q

A 19-year-old man presents with dysuria. He denies any penile discharge. He does not use condoms and had recent unprotected vaginal intercourse with a new female sexual partner about 7 days ago. He denies any prior sexually transmitted infections. On examination, there is no apparent discharge on initial inspection. There is a slight whitish discharge after applying pressure along the penile shaft. No other physical abnormalities are noted.

A

Genital tract chlamydia infection

487
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms/signs of anaemia in pregnancy

A
Palpitations
Dizziness
SOB
Fatigue
Pallor
Fainting

Maternal consequences: maternal cardiovascular strain, reduced physical and mental performance, reduced peripartum blood reserves, increased risk for peripartum blood product transfusion, and increased risk for maternal mortality

488
Q

A 32-year-old G1P0 (gravida 1 para 0) woman, at 10 weeks estimated gestational age, presents with a 3- week history of nausea and vomiting. She reports that the episodes are gradually worsening in frequency and severity, although they typically resolve by early afternoon. She has no dizziness or light-headedness and reports no diarrhoea. She has had a weight loss of around 1 kg in recent weeks. The patient reports that symptoms are somewhat resolved by eating salty foods. She has not tried any over-the-counter or prescription medicines. The patient’s vital signs are normal except for a pulse of 105 bpm. Otherwise, the physical examination is unremarkable except for the finding of dry mucous membranes.

A

Hyperemesis G / morning

489
Q

Epidemiology of UTI in pregnancy

A

Asymptomatic bacteria = 5-6% non-pregnant women, more common in diabetics. Usually detected at antenatal clinics. Must be Rx. 25% will develop Sx in pregnancy.

Pyelonephritis is the most common serious medical complication of pregnancy. 15-20% have bacteraemia.

3.5% antepartum admissions for UTIs

490
Q

Explain the management for hyperemesis gravidarum

A
Euvolaemic = conservative 
- Ginger is good
FAILED
- Pyridoxine (B6)
OR
Antiemetics eg:
Meclozine
Metoclopramide
Chlorpromazine
Prochlorperazine
Promethazine 
Domperidone 

HYPEREMESIS
- Corticosteroids eg prednisolone

491
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with dysfunctional uterine bleeding

A

In younger patients suffering from DUB due to anovulation during the first few years following menarche, the prognosis is usually excellent once regular ovulatory menstrual cycles are attained. In peri-menopausal women, DUB has also excellent prognosis after medical treatment. The problem disappears upon reaching the menopause.

492
Q

Generate a management plan for diabetes in pregnancy

A

PREGNANT:
Diet, exercise, metformin, glucose monitoring
Add insulin if uncontrolled
32-34 weeks = fetal monitoring

LABOUR
Best to avoid hyperglycaemia in pregnancy: INSULIN

493
Q

Rx of substance abuse in pregnancy

A

Opiates - naloxone
Other drugs - no specific Rx yet determined

Non-opiate withdrawal - can be Rx with barbiturates:
(phenobarbital)
1. The newborn with a nonopiate withdrawal
2. The newborn with a known polydrug withdrawal
3. The newborn with abstinence-related seizures
4. The newborn who has already received the maximum safe level of deodorized tincture of opium (DTO)

All medically treated newborns should constantly be monitored for cardiovascular, respiratory, and oxygen saturation changes (see Medication).
Increased caloric intake

The child’s comfort is paramount. Being a newborn is extremely stressful in the first few weeks of life because every external stimulus is entirely new to the infant. Add the stress of the internal stimuli from drug withdrawal, and the usefulness of environmental control can be understood. With this in mind, consider that 40% of all withdrawing newborns can be treated symptomatically (without medication).

Involve general paeds follow up
Early intervention and developmental pediatrics
Social services

494
Q

A 46-year-old woman presents for a routine gynaecological examination. She has a history of unprotected intercourse with multiple sexual partners and is a smoker. Pap smear is abnormal.

A

Cervical cancer

495
Q

RFs for oligohydramnios

A

Foetal urinary abnormalities - renal genesis, PKD, obstructive lesion
PROM
Chorioamnionitis
Placental insufficiency (T1DM, maternal Gest-HTN)
Maternal use of prostaglandin synthase inhibitors or angiotensin-converting enzyme

496
Q

Epidemiology of lichen sclerosis

A

1 in 300

15% have involvement elsewhere on body

497
Q

Describe the relevant investigations for endometrial cancer

A

Pelvic TVUSS - Thickening >5mm
Endometrial biopsy + histopathology - show adenocarcinoma
Hysteroscopy + histopathology
Pap smear - NOT a screening test - but can identify abnormalities further up the genital tract in 50%
FBC - anaemia
Serum CA-125 <35 units

Consider:
LFTs - ALP increased if liver involvement
CT for initial staging 
CxR
MRI
PET scan
498
Q

Define external cephalic version

A

External cephalic version (ECV) is a process by which a breech baby can sometimes be turned from buttocks or foot first to head first.

Practitioner experience, maternal weight, obstetric factors such as uterine relaxation, a palpable fetal head, a non-engaged breech, non-anterior placenta, and an amniotic fluid index above 7–10 cm, are all factors which can be associated with higher success rates.

Contraindications: antepartum haemorrhage, placenta praevia, abnormal fetal monitoring, ruptured membranes, multiple pregnancy, pre-eclampsia, reduced amniotic fluid and some other abnormalities of the uterus or baby

499
Q

Identify the possible complications of endometrial biopsy

A

Cramps / pelvic pain

RARE uterine perforation/infection

500
Q

What are the complications of pre-eclampsia

A
IUGR
Eclampsia 
Pulmonary Oedema 
Pregnancy-related stroke 
Placental Abruption
Renal Failure 
Still-birth
501
Q

RFs for UTI in pregnancy

A

Urinary stasis
DM/GDM
Vesicouteric reflux

Puerperal RFs:
Bladder sensitivity reduced post surgery
Discomfort from haematomas / episiotomy lines
Cathetisation to relieve retention

502
Q

What are the Sx of PROM

A
Painless gush PV
Steady leakage PV
Absence of contractions
More palpable baby
Decreased uterine size
Meconium
Examination:
Pooling of amniotic fluid in fornixes
Leakage on valsalva
Nitrazine test - HIGHER pH (7.1-7.3) than acidic vaginal fluid. (turns nitrazine paper from orange to blue)
Fibronectin + AFP blood tests
503
Q

Identify the possible complications of ectopic pregnancy and its management

A

Methotrexate SEs - hepato/nephrotoxicity, myelosuppression
Persistent trophoblast - 4% to 15%
Iatrogenic damage

504
Q

Generate a management plan for syphilis infection

A

1) IM benzathine benzylpenicillin
+ Prednisolone
PENICILLIN ALLERGY = Oral Doxycyclone

505
Q

What is the epidemiology of urinary incontinence in women

A

Prevalence increases with age
1 in 4 seek consultation
Women in long term institutions - 43-65%

506
Q

Discuss the relevant Ix for pre-eclampsia

A

Urinalysis - 1+ protein OR >0.3g/24hrs OR PCR >30mg/mmol
Fetal USS
Fetal CTG
Umbilical doppler - absence of end-diastolic flow is a sign that delivery needs to occur soon.
Amniotic fluid assessment - deepest vertical pocket <2cm = bad
FBC - may reveal low platelets
LFTs may be up
Serum creatinine - may be elevated

507
Q

Ix for multiple pregnancy

A

USS (establish chorionicity)

508
Q

A 32-year-old woman has just been confirmed by ultrasound scan as pregnant with twins at a gestational age of 10 weeks. She had been trying for a pregnancy for the past 5 years, but has had no sub-fertility treatment. On her way home, she notices bright red vaginal bleeding. She is not in any pain. She has no postural dizziness.

A

Miscarriage

509
Q

Generate a management plan for amniotic fluid embolism

A
  • Prompt delivery of child if viable
  • Supportive
  • Examination
  • Small fluid boluses 250-500ml, inotrope, vasopressor therapy, etc etc

Potential transfusion with DIC, replacement of blood, fresh frozen plasma, platelets, and cryoprecipitate should be available in the operating room.

510
Q

A 32-year-old woman presents at 25 weeks’ gestation in her third pregnancy with a positive antibody screen. She is known to be Rh-negative with an Rh-positive sexual partner. Two previous children were born overseas: the first child was carried to term and is healthy. The second child, also born at term, underwent phototherapy in the immediate neonatal period due to jaundice. The patient did not have anti-D prophylaxis given antenatally or postnatally in the previous pregnancies. Physical examination is normal.

A

Rh incompatibility

511
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for cervical cancer & intraepithelial neoplasia and interpret the results

A

Vaginal or speculum examination
Colposcopy - white change/+vascular
Biopsy
HPV testing

CONSIDER
FBC
LFT
RFT
CxR
Renal USS
CT/PET +/- contrast
512
Q

Discuss the aetiology of urinary incontinence in women

A

Stress incontinence - involuntary leakage on effort, exertion, sneezing, or coughing

Urge incontinence - involuntary leakage accompanied by or immediately preceded by urgency

Overactive bladder (detrusor overactivity) - urgency with or without urge incontinence; usually with frequency and nocturia in the absence of an underlying metabolic or pathological condition

Mixed incontinence - combination of stress and urge incontinence symptoms

Nocturnal enuresis - involuntary loss of urine occurring during sleep

Continuous incontinence - continuous loss of urine

Overflow incontinence - urinary leakage from an over-distended bladder; terminology is no longer widely used

Other - involuntary leakage during situations not encompassed by other classifications (i.e., during sexual activity or change in body position).

513
Q

What is the epidemiology of pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is most often seen in young, single, sexually active women with a history of sexually transmitted diseases.

The exact incidence is unknown because it is difficult to diagnose definitively based on clinical signs and symptoms.

PID peaks in women aged 20 to 24 years.

514
Q

List the complications of hyperemesis gravidarum

A
Mallory Weisss
Pre-eclampsia
Splenic avulsion
Oesophageal rupture 
FGR
Fetal mortality
Wernickes Encephalopathy
515
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Asherman’s syndrome (Intrauterine adhesions)

A

IUAs appear to result from trauma to the basalis layer of the endometrium

Pregnancy
Intrauterine procedures - curettage / fibroid removal / myomectomy
Infection: Endometritis, Genital TB,
Uterine compression sutures (used to treat postpartum haemorrhages)

516
Q

Aetiology of LGA

A
Poorly controlled GDM / T2DM (NB T1DM is associated with microsomia)
Obesity 
Gestational age past 40w
Male
Multiparity
Hydrops fetalis
Congenital anomalies causing hydros fetalis
Amoxicillin
Some links to polyhydramnios
517
Q

What is the epidemiology of ovarian cancer

A

In the UK there are approximately 7100 new cases of ovarian cancer per year and 4300 deaths from the disease each year.
The median age of patients with ovarian cancer is 60 years, with an estimated lifetime risk of 1 in 70.
Although the overall 5-year survival rate is relatively low (46%), it varies by age: women younger than 45 years of age are far more likely to survive (77%) than women aged 75 years and older (20%).
W>B

518
Q

Ix for FGM

A

Clinical

519
Q

Generate a management plan for pelvic inflammatory disease

A
  1. Parenteral cephalosporin + doxycycline +/- metronidazole
    +/- IUD removal
  2. Fluoroquinolone

IF severe: IV

520
Q

What is considered prolonged latent phase 1 of labour?

A

According to Friedman et al., latent stage considered to be prolonged if takes >20 hours for nulliparous women and >14 hours for multiparous women. However, prolonged latent phase does not usually lead to any clinically significant adverse events for mother or the infant. Therefore, diagnosis of abnormal labor during the latent phase is uncommon and is not relevant for clinical practice.

521
Q

Define cervical polyp

A

A common benign polyp or tumour of the surface of the cervical canal

522
Q

Sx of LGA

A

Common risks in LGA babies include shoulder dystocia, hypoglycemia, metatarsus adductus, hip subluxation and talipes calcaneovalgus due to intrauterine deformation.

Poorly controlled GDM / T2DM (NB T1DM is associated with microsomia)
Obesity 
Gestational age past 40w
Male
Multiparity
Hydrops fetalis
Congenital anomalies causing hydros fetalis
Amoxicillin
Some links to polyhydramnios
523
Q

What are the S+S of gonorrhoea?

A
COMMON
Urethral discharge in men 
Pelvic pain in women
Tenderness/swelling of epididymus 
Micropurulent exudate at endocervix

OTHER
Urethral irriation
Dysuria

UNCOMMON
Orchitis
Swollen prostate
Anal pruritus
Micropurulent discharge from anus
Rectal pain
Tenesmus
Vaginal discharge
Cervical friability 
Uterine/adnexal/cervical motion tenderness - PID
Uterine mass - PID
OTHERS
Conjunctivitis - gonococcal infection
Fever - disseminated infection
Cutaneous lesions - due to disseminated infection 
Polyarthritis 
Meningitis signs:
Purpuric rash - gonococcal meningitis 
Positive brudzinski / kernig
Seizures
Focal cerebral 

Murmur - gonococcal endocarditis

Opthalma neonatorum - Preg complication to neonate = neonatal conjunctivitis
Infantile Rhinitis
Infantile urethritis

524
Q

Describe the RFs for post-natal depression

A

STRONG

Hx depression, anxiety
Stress
Poor social support 
Discontinuation of anti-depressants
Sleep deprivation
Genetic susceptibility 
Domestic violence

WEAK

Postnatal hypomania
Personality disorder
Birth complications 
Poor socioeconomic status 
Age <16
525
Q

What is the prognosis of menopause?

A

The endocrine changes are permanent, but hot flushes usually resolve in most women within 5 to 10 years. Urogenital atrophy may stay the same or worsen.

526
Q

Sx of trichomonas vaginalisq

A
Acute phase:
Vaginal pain + tenderness acutely
Irritant discharge 
Inflamed vaginal walls
Strawberry vaginitis
Copious frothy, offensive discharge 
Burning sensation
Pruritus 
Dysuria
Dyspareunia
Latet-dormant phase - no symptoms
527
Q

What is the epidemiology of gonorrhoea infection

A

2nd most common WW
Global rate 9/1000 F
24/1000 M
M>F

528
Q

A 27-year-old man notes a painless penile ulcer. He has recently started a new relationship. He is otherwise asymptomatic, as is his partner. On examination, the ulcer is indurated and the inguinal lymph nodes are rubbery and moderately enlarged.

A

Syphilis

529
Q

What are the complications of pelvic inflammatory disease

A
Tuboovarian abscess
Infertility
Chronic pelvic pain
Ectopic
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome - Comprises right upper quadrant abdominal pain associated with perihepatitis. Characterised by 'violin string' perihepatic adhesions seen at laparoscopy. Treatment is the same as for PID.
530
Q

Ix for polyhydramnios

A

US measured AFI >24
or SINGLE pocket of 8cm depth containing >2000ml

Chromosome testing, testing for evidence of congenital infection, ultrasonography of the genitourinary tract, and appropriate radiologic evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract. Electrocardiography and echocardiography may also be indicated.

Histologic examination of the placenta may be helpful in determining the cause of the polyhydramnios or oligohydramnios.

If premature delivery is anticipated with either oligohydramnios or polyhydramnios, the amniotic fluid lamellar body count, lecithin-sphingomyelin (L:S) ratio, and phosphatidylglycerol (PG) concentration are helpful in determining the maturity of the fetal lungs and, therefore, in assessing the likelihood of respiratory distress syndrome.

If fetal hydrops is present, immunologic and fetal infection need to be investigated. This should include screening for maternal antibodies to D, C, Kell, Duffy, and Kidd antigens to determine maternal antibody production against the fetal red blood cells. Infections of the fetus include cytomegalovirus (CMV), toxoplasmosis, syphilis, and parvovirus B19. The investigation should include the following studies:
Venereal Disease Research Laboratories (VDRL) test to screen for syphilis
Immunoglobulin G (IgG) and IgM titers to evaluate for exposure to rubella, CMV, toxoplasmosis, and parvovirus
A test for congenital viruses in the amniotic fluid using polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Kleihauer-Betke test to evaluate fetal-maternal hemorrhage
Hemoglobin Bart in patients of Asian descent (who may be heterozygous for alpha-thalassemia)
Fetal karyotyping for trisomy 21, 13, and 18

531
Q

Identify the possible complications of amniotic fluid embolism and its management

A

Leading cause of maternal deaths in developed countries
Cardiogenic shock / cardiac arrest
Potential neurological injury.
20-50% neonates die.

532
Q

Generate a management plan for ovarian cysts

A

Non-malignant = serial USS

Suspicious: Laparoscopy + histopathology
Gynae oncology referral

Acutely unwell:
Laparoscopy / otomy
+ resus/haemodynamic support/ABx

533
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms/signs of chlamydia

A

presence of risk factors
asymptomatic

cervical discharge
friable cervix
abnormal vaginal bleeding
penile discharge

534
Q

Describe the aetiology of hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Progesterone has been shown to decrease gastric motility and cause nausea and vomiting in non-pregnant women. Some studies have shown that NVP is associated with elevated human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) levels. Other studies have shown that NVP is more common in women with high oestrogen levels and less common in those with lower oestrogen levels. Finally, a recent systematic review demonstrated an association between the presence of Helicobacter pylori and hyperemesis gravidarum.

535
Q

Summaries the epidemiology of fibroids

A

Incidence increases with age during the reproductive years such that cases occur in 20% to 50% of women older than 30 years.

In another study, the estimated cumulative incidence by age 50 was >80% for black women and approaching 70% for white women. Uterine fibroids represent the most common solid tumours of the female pelvis and are the leading cause for hysterectomy.

536
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of placenta praevia

A

Painless PV bleeding 2/3 trimester - {{{Digital vaginal examination should not be performed on women with active vaginal bleeding until the position of the placenta is known with certainty.}}}
Absence of cervical/vaginal causes of bleeding on speculum

Lack of uterine tenderness
Low BP / tachycardia - haemorrhage

537
Q

Identify the possible complications of endometriosis and its management

A

Ovarian failure post surgery

Adhesion formation post surgery

538
Q

Describe the aetiology if pelvic inflammatory disease

A

PID is a polymicrobial infection. Sexually transmitted organisms, especially Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis , are implicated in many cases; however, micro-organisms that comprise the vaginal flora (e.g., anaerobes, Gardnerella vaginalis , Haemophilus influenzae , enteric gram-negative rods, and Streptococcus agalactiae ) also have been associated with PID. In addition, cytomegalovirus (CMV), Mycoplasma hominis , Mycoplasma genitalium , and Ureaplasma urealyticum might be the aetiological agents in some cases of PID.

539
Q

A 24-year-old woman presents 8 weeks after her last menstrual period. She reports one episode of vaginal spotting during the past week. Urine pregnancy screen is positive, and serum beta human chorionic gonadotrophin is elevated. Ultrasound of the pelvis reveals an apparent missed abortion, with no identifiable fetal pole.

A

Molar pregnancy

540
Q

Epidemiology of mastitis / breast abscess

A

1-10% of lactating women
Duct ectasia occurs in 5-9% of non-lactating women
Breast abscess 3-11% of women with mastitis, and
0.1-3% of breastfeeding women

Approximately 50% of infants with neonatal mastitis will develop a breast abscess

Mammary fistula occurs in 1% to 2% of women

541
Q

Define polyhydramnios

A

Amniotic fluid index [AFI] >24 cm

It cushions the fetus from physical trauma, permits fetal lung growth, and provides a barrier against infection. Normal amniotic fluid volume varies. The average volume increases with gestational age, peaking at 800-1000 mL, which coincides with 36-37 weeks’ gestation. An abnormally high level of amniotic fluid, polyhydramnios, alerts the clinician to possible fetal anomalies. An inadequate volume of amniotic fluid, oligohydramnios , results in poor development of the lung tissue and can lead to fetal death.

542
Q

What is the epidemiology of ovarian cysts

A

Worldwide, about 7% of women have an ovarian cyst at some point in their lives.

A large European screening trial revealed a 21.2% incidence of ovarian cysts among healthy post-menopausal women.

543
Q

Identify the possible complications of Asherman’s syndrome and its management

A

Infertility
Menstrual abnormalities
Recurrence 1/3-2/3
Obstetric outcomes

544
Q

Describe the aetiology / pathophysiology of failure of progression?

A

Passenger (infant size, fetal presentation [occiput anterior, posterior, or transverse])
- Macrosomia most common

Pelvis or passage (size, shape, and adequacy of the pelvis)
- mechanical dystocia

Power (uterine contractility)

  • Surgical scars
  • Fibroids
  • Atony
545
Q

Prognosis / complications of LGA

A

Common risks in LGA babies include shoulder dystocia, hypoglycemia, metatarsus adductus, hip subluxation and talipes calcaneovalgus due to intrauterine deformation.

Big babies are at higher risk of hypoglycemia in the neonatal period, independent of whether the mother has diabetes.

Complications were most often due to C-sections and included bleeding (hemorrhage), wound infection, wound separation, fever, and need for antibiotics.

546
Q

What is the prognosis of premature labour

A

Risk of recurrence of spontaneous premature labour and birth are well defined, and remarkably consistent in spite of the varied aetiology. Only if women have recurrent preterm births at early gestations do they tend to have a future risk of >50%. Even in women who have major risk factors, such as extensive cervical surgery, it is rare not to achieve a viable pregnancy with appropriate management. These cases may be more amenable to intervention such as cervical cerclage.

547
Q

Define LGA

A

LGA is often defined as a weight, length, or head circumference that lies above the 90th percentile for that gestational age.

548
Q

Generate a management plan for premenstrual syndrome

A
MILD
Lifestyle mod
CBT
NSAID
B6/12 + calcium carbonate 
COC
SEVERE 
COC
SSRI
GnRH agonist 
Surgical oophorectomy
549
Q

List the primary causes of PPH?

<24hrs after pregnancy

A
Uterine atony 
Trauma
Retained placenta / placenta accrete
Coagulation disorders 
Uterine inversion
Uterine rupture
550
Q

Complications/prognosis of thyroid disease in pregnancy

A

HYPER RELATED
Pre-eclampsia, HF, IUGR, preterm delivery, stillbirth, thyrotoxocosis, goitre

HYPER RELATED DRUGs:
Hepatotoxicity
Fetal malformations if methimazole is used in 1st trimester
transient leukopenia

HYPO RELATED COMPLICATIONS:
Pre-eclampsia
Placental abruption
Cardiac dysfunction 
LBW
Stillbirth 
Fetal hypothyroidism 
HTN possible 
Congenital hypothyroidism
Cretinism
551
Q

Complications of oligohydramnios

A

In the setting of oligohydramnios with renal agenesis, mortality is 100%. Milder forms of renal dysplasia or obstructive uropathy can be associated with a mild to severe degree of pulmonary hypoplasia and long-term renal failure. In cases of pulmonary hypoplasia, the effectiveness of many treatments such as the administration of surfactant, high-frequency ventilation, and nitric oxide has not been established. The prognosis in these cases is related to the volume of amniotic fluid and the gestational age at which oligohydramnios develops.

The mortality rate in oligohydramnios is high. The lack of amniotic fluid allows compression of the fetal abdomen, which limits movement of its diaphragm. In addition to chest wall fixation, the lack of amniotic fluid flowing in and out of the fetal lung leads to pulmonary hypoplasia.
Oligohydramnios is also associated with meconium staining of the amniotic fluid, fetal heart conduction abnormalities, umbilical cord compression, poor tolerance of labor, lower Apgar scores, and fetal acidosis. In cases of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), the degree of oligohydramnios is often proportional to growth restriction, is frequently reflective of the extent of placental dysfunction, and is associated with a corresponding increase in the PMR

The primary complications of oligohydramnios are those related to fetal distress before or during labor. The risk of fetal infection is increased in the presence of prolonged rupture of the membranes.

552
Q

Describe the aetiology of pre-eclampsia

A

Pre-eclampsia is associated with a failure of normal invasion of trophoblast cells leading to maladaptation of maternal spiral arterioles, and is associated with hyperplacentation disorders such as diabetes, hydatidiform mole, and multiple pregnancy.

The systemic maternal response results in vasoconstriction and capillary leaking, leading to hypertension and complications such as:
• cerebral vascular dysregulation and oedema;
• liver vascular dysregulation and oedema; and
• pulmonary oedema.

553
Q

A 23-year-old nulligravida presents with a 2-day history of sharp intermittent RLQ abdominal pain, non- radiating, without any alleviating factors, exacerbated with movement, progressively worsening, and not associated with any gastrointestinal symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. She denies medical problems. Her gynaecological history is significant for a prior chlamydial infection as a teenager, but is otherwise negative.

A

Ectopic

554
Q

Ix for trichomonas vaginalis

A

Smear + microscopy - observation of trichomonas

Culture of smear

555
Q

What are the complications / prognosis of PROM

A
Premature birth
Cord compression
Infection
Placental abruption
PP endometritis 
Chorioamnionitis
Fetus:
<37w:
Necrotising enterocolitis
Resp distress
Brain injury
Death

<24w:
Fetal deformity
Contractures
Pulmonary hypoplasia

556
Q

Prognosis of small for dates/IUGR

A

Increasingly, data support the idea that long-term consequences of IUGR last well into adulthood. Several authors have noted that these individuals have a greater predisposition to develop a metabolic syndrome later in life, manifesting as obesity, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, cardiovascular disease, and type 2 diabetes.

557
Q

Discuss the relevant Ix for toxic shock syndrome

A

Microscopy and culture - blood, wound, fluid, tissue - +ve for group A strep / staph A
FBC - Inc WCC, thrombocytopenia, left shift, anaemia
PT/APTT - increased if DIC + staphylococcal infection
Serum urea + creatinine - increased
Urinalysis - haemoglobinuria precedes hypotension with streptococcal disease
LFTs - increased transaminases + bilirubin
CK - increased in new fasciitis
Calcium + albumin - low in streptococcal
Lactic acid - increased in sepsis

558
Q

Generate a management plan for miscarriage

A
Manual evacuation 
Misoprostol 800mcg IVag
AntiD immunoglobulin
OR conservative (follow up 2w)
Suction evacuation of the uterus + ABx
Counselling
559
Q

Define gonorrhoea infection

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative diplococcus bacterium that is closely related to other human Neisseria species. Gonorrhoea is any manifestation of infection by N gonorrhoeae . Aside from causing infection in the lower genital tract, it can also cause conjunctivitis and severe disseminated infections, especially if acquired congenitally. The pathogen is almost exclusively sexually transmitted and can be found in the genital tract, pharynx, and rectum.

560
Q

What is the aetiology of PROM

A

Infection
Weakness of membranes - poor collagenation, cell death, breakdown by MMPs
Lower levels of TIMPs

561
Q

Recognise the presenting signs/symptoms of fibroids

A
Menorrhagia 
Irregular firm pelvic mass
Pelvic pain
Pelvic pressure 
Dysmenorrhoea 
Bloating 
Infertility 
Urinary complaints 
Constipation
Enlarged uterus (more commonly adenomysosis than fibroids)
562
Q

What is primary amenorrhoea?

A

Lack of menses by age 15 years in a patient with appropriate development of secondary sexual characteristics, or absent menses by age 13 years and no other pubertal maturation.

563
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of anaemia in pregnancy

A

Physiological/Dilutional - plasma volumes increase to a greater proportion than RBC volume

IDA

OTHER:
Haemoglobinopathies
- Thalassaemia
- Sickle Cell

RBC membrane disorders:
- hereditary sphere/ellipto

Acquired:

  • Folate
  • B12 (don’t forget crohns)
  • Vit A deficiency
  • A/I ie SLE / acute viral infection causing anaemia
  • Hypothyroidism / CKD
564
Q

Ix for vaginal thrush

A

Normally clinical
PH - normal in candidiasis
Swab + microscopy - Candidiasis: hyphae and budding yeast are better seen with the KOH preparation microscopy.

565
Q

Sx of multiple pregnancy

A

Women carrying multiple gestations may be initially asymptomatic or may have normal signs and symptoms of pregnancy (eg, breast tenderness, fatigue, nausea, vomiting). Multiple gestations may be suspected in the setting of hyperemesis gravidarum or in a patient who has undergone assisted reproductive technology. A complete history, including a family history, should be taken in every woman suspected to have multiples.

Large for dates

566
Q

Aetiology of termination of pregnancy

A

Few absolute conrtaindications for pregnancy.

Cardiac conditions that still carry maternal mortality rates of 5-15% include severe mitral stenosis, coarctation of the aorta, uncorrected tetralogy of Fallot, aortic stenosis, history of myocardial infarction, and the presence of artificial heart valves. Higher mortality rates have been reported in women with coarctation of the aorta with vascular involvement, pulmonary hypertension, Marfan syndrome with aortic involvement, and myocardial infarction in pregnancy.

The most common fetal anomalies encountered in abortion counseling include most fetal cardiac anomalies; trisomy 21; open and closed neural tube defects; limb, face, or cleft abnormalities; esophageal or duodenal atresia; chest and abdominal wall defects; cystic kidneys or hydronephrosis; intracranial calcifications suggestive of viral disease; or diaphragmatic defects.

Fetal conditions that are incompatible with life include anencephaly, trisomy 13, trisomy 18, renal agenesis, thanatophoric dysplasia, alobar holoprosencephaly, and some hydrocephalic cases.

Medical abortion is contraindicated in patients with clotting disorders, severe liver disease, renal disease, cardiac disease, and chronic steroid use.
Medical abortion is also contraindicated in women with no access to emergency services and no partners or family to be with the patient during the heaviest bleeding times.
Surgical abortion is contraindicated in patients with hemodynamic instability, profound anemia, and/or profound thrombocytopenia. The conditions should be managed and the context of pregnancy continuation must be considered.
The rare instance of placenta accreta and percreta in the second trimester may necessitate laparotomy with hysterotomy or hysterectomy.

567
Q

What does it mean if heavy bleeding BUT irregular cycles?

A

Anovulatory bleeding

568
Q

Rx of FGM

A

Defibulation

We suggest defibulation prior to coitus to prevent dyspareunia or prior to pregnancy to prevent problems with vaginal delivery

569
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of asthma in pregnancy

A

Asthma is a complex disease with underlying multi-gene association interacting with environmental exposure.
The genes associated with the disease include, but are not limited to, ADAM 33, dipeptidyl peptidase 10, PHD finger protein 11, prostanoid DP1 receptor, chromosome 12q, and polymorphisms in tumour necrosis factor (TNF).

Patients’ genetic make-up may predispose them to hyper-responsiveness to environmental aetiological triggers. Those triggers include viral infections (e.g., rhinovirus, respiratory syncytial virus, human metapneumovirus, and influenza virus), bacterial infections ( Mycoplasma pneumoniae or Chlamydia pneumoniae ), allergen exposure (e.g., tree, grass, or weed pollen; fungi; or indoor allergens), occupational exposures (e.g., animal or chemical), food additives and chemicals (e.g., metabisulfites), irritants, or aspirin in predisposed people.

570
Q

What is the epidemiology of endometrial cancer

A

Endometrial cancer is the most common gynaecological tumour in the developed world, with approximately 320,000 new cases each year. It is the sixth most common cancer overall in women. The incidence
in Western countries is 10 times higher than in the developing world because of the increasing obesity epidemic.

571
Q

RFs for mastitis / breast abscess

A
STRONG
Female
>30yo
Poor breastfeeding technique
Lactation
Milk stasis
Nippleinjury 
Hx
Hx abscess
Nipple piercing 
Shaving nipples
Anatomical breast defect 
Breast cancer
Foreign body 
Skin infection
Staph A carrier
Immunosuppression
WEAK
Hx admission
Trauma to breast 
Primiparity 
Overabundant milk supply 
Post maturity 
Complications of delivery 
Maternal fatigue 
Tight clothing
Antifungal nipple cream
Fibrocystic breast disease
Smoking
Poor nutrition
Anti-retroviral therapy
572
Q

Aetiology of UTI in pregnancy

A
E coli 
Kelbsiella
Enterobacter
Proteus 
GBS
Staph A
573
Q

Epidemiology of multiple pregnancy

A

1 in 80 = spontaneous

574
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with bacterial vaginosis

A

Overall, with the proper treatment, the prognosis is very good for all types of vaginitis.

575
Q

Sx of PCOS

A
COMMON
Reproductive age female
Irregular menstruation (oligo/an) <21 >35 days
Infertility
Hirsituism 
Hirsutism is the presence of terminal hairs (thick, pigmented) in androgen-dependent areas (upper lip, chin, chest, back, upper arm, shoulders, linea alba, peri-umbilical region, thigh, buttocks).
Acne
Overweight/obese
HTN

UNCOMMON
Scalp hairloss
Oily skin / excessive sweating
Acanthosis nigricans

576
Q

Sx of thromboembolism in pregnancy

A

DVT:
70% iliofemoral
Pain, oedema, swelling, pain on dorsiflexion, erythema.
NB 30-60% of women with lower extremity DVT have an asymptomatic PE

PE:
Dyspnoea
Pleuritic chest pain
Cough
Syncope
Haemoptysis 

Tachypnoea
Tachycardia
Apprehension

RAD, S1q3t3
May be atelectasis

Haemodynamic instability - saddle emboli

577
Q

Describe the sepsis 6

A
  1. Oxygen
  2. Blood cultures
  3. IV ABx
  4. IV Fluids
  5. Serial lactates (>4 = critical care)
  6. Measure UO
POST SEPSIS SIX IF PT HAS:
SystBP <90
Reduced consciousness despite resus
RR >25
Lactate not reducing 

CRITICAL CARE OUTREACH

578
Q

What are the haematological causes of menorrhagia?

A

Coagulation disorders

579
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of amniotic fluid embolism

A

Cesarean or instrumental vaginal delivery

Precipitous or tumultuous labor

Advanced maternal age (eg, ≥35 years)

Placenta previa, placenta accrete/percreta/increta, or placental abruption

Grand multiparity (≥5 live births or stillbirths)

Cervical lacerations

Fetal distress

Eclampsia

Pharmacologic induction of labor

Uterine rupture

Polyhydramnios

Miscarriage, abortion, amniocentesis

580
Q

Rx of small for dates/IUGR

A

This should include steroid administration when at all feasible, based on the monitoring and delivery strategies

Case by case. Some need immediate delivery, some benefit from delayed:

Situation 1

See the list below:
Test results – AC less than fifth percentile, low AC growth rate, high ratio of head circumference to AC; BPS greater than or equal to 8 and AFV normal; abnormal UV and/or cerebroplacental ratio; normal MCA
Interpretation – IUGR diagnosed, asphyxia extremely rare, increased risk for intrapartum distress
Recommended management – Intervention for obstetric or maternal factors only, weekly BPS, multivessel Doppler every 2 weeks

Situation 2

See the list below:
Test results – IUGR criteria met, BPS greater than or equal to 8, AFV normal, UA with absent or reversed end-diastolic velocities, decreased MCA
Interpretation – IUGR with brain sparing, hypoxemia possible and asphyxia rare, at risk for intrapartum distress
Recommended management – Intervention for obstetric or maternal factors only; BPS 3 times a week; weekly UA, MCA, and venous Doppler

Situation 3

See the list below:
Test results – IUGR with low MCA PI; oligohydramnios; BPS greater than or equal to 6; normal IVC, DV, and UV flow
Interpretation – IUGR with significant brain sparing, onset of fetal compromise, hypoxemia common, acidemia/asphyxia possible
Recommended management – If at more than 34 weeks’ gestation, deliver (route determined by obstetric factors). If at less than 34 weeks’ gestation, administer steroids to achieve lung maturity and repeat all testing in 24 hours.

Situation 4

See the list below:
Test results – IUGR with brain sparing, oligohydramnios, BPS greater than or equal to 6, increased IVC and DV indices, UV flow normal
Interpretation – IUGR with brain sparing, proven fetal compromise, hypoxemia common, acidemia/asphyxia likely
Recommended management – If at more than 34 weeks’ gestation, deliver (route determined by obstetric factors and oxytocin challenge test [OCT] results). If at less than 34 weeks’ gestation, individualize treatment with admission, continuous cardiotocography, steroids, maternal oxygen, and/or amnioinfusion and then repeat all testing up to 3 times a day depending on status.

Situation 5

See the list below:
Test results – IUGR with accelerating compromise, BPS less than or equal to 6, abnormal IVC and DV indices, pulsatile UV flow
Interpretation – IUGR with decompensation, cardiovascular instability, hypoxemia certain, acidemia/asphyxia common, high perinatal mortality, death imminent
Recommended management – If fetus is considered viable by size, deliver as soon as possible at tertiary center. Route determined by obstetric factors and OCT results. Fetus requires highest level of natal ICU care.

581
Q

Complications / prognosis of obesity in pregnancy

A

Early pregnancy loss
Subfertility (increased insulin resistance + loss of gonadotrophin pulses)
Recurrent loss
Preterm delivery

Baby will have:
Increased rates of mortality, morbidity and obesity

General obesity:
T2DM
HTN
CAD
Cardiomyopathy 
Sleep apnoea
Gallbladder disease
NAFLD/NASH
Osteoarthritis
Subfertility
Cancers (endometrium, breast, colon)
DVT
Poor wound healing 
Carpal Tunnel
582
Q

What are the Ix for endometrial polyp

A

Vag USS - may be difficult
Hysteroscopy
Dilation + curettage

1mm-3cm usually
Same red/brown of the endometrium
Larger = darker red

Sessile or Pedunculated

583
Q

Define post-natal depression

A

Postnatal depression refers to the development of a depressive illness following childbirth and may form part of a bipolar or, more usually, a unipolar illness. Postnatal depression is not recognised by current classification systems as a condition in its own right, but the onset of a depressive episode within 4 weeks of childbirth can be recorded via the perinatal-onset specifier in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).

584
Q

Sx of obstetric cholestasis

A

COMMON
RF presence
Pruritus, sparing face
Excoriations BUT NO RASH

OTHER
Mild jaundice

585
Q

Define menorrhagia

A

Blood loss >80mls per month during menses

586
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of breech presentation

A

COMMON

Buttocks or feet presenting part
Fetal head under costal margin
Fetal HR above maternal umbilicus

UNCOMMON

Subcostal tenderness
Pelvic/bladder pain

587
Q

Define mastitis / breast abscess

A

Mastitis is inflammation of the breast with or without infection. Mastitis with infection may be lactational (puerperal) or non-lactational (e.g., duct ectasia). Non-infectious mastitis includes idiopathic granulomatous inflammation and other inflammatory conditions (e.g., foreign body reaction). A breast abscess is a localised area of infection with a walled-off collection of pus. It may or may not be associated with mastitis.

Breast infection (including infectious mastitis and breast abscess) more commonly affects women aged 15-45 years, especially those who are lactating. Mastitis and breast abscess can occur at any age.

Staphylococcus aureus is the most frequent pathogen isolated.

Prompt and appropriate management of mastitis usually leads to a timely resolution and prevents complications, such as a breast abscess.

Treatment of infectious and non-infectious mastitis includes antibiotic therapy and effective milk removal if lactating.

Breast abscess requires removal of pus and antibiotic therapy. Surgical interventions can include aspiration and incision and drainage.

It is imperative to identify and treat any underlying co-existent causes of infection and to exclude breast carcinoma.

588
Q

An 18-year-old woman presents with a chief complaint of hirsutism. She needs to wax her upper lip and chin twice a week. This has been a problem for 4 years. She also has excess hairs on her upper back and lower abdomen. Her periods are irregular, occurring every 2 to 3 months. Embarrassment about the facial hirsutism has affected her social life, and she is finding she feels depressed much of the time.

A

PCOS

589
Q

Describe the aetiology of ovarian cancer

A

The aetiology of ovarian cancer is poorly understood at present, and further studies are warranted. There are promising data implicating genetic causes in specific populations, such as breast ovarian cancer gene 1 (BRCA1) and breast ovarian cancer gene 2 (BRCA2). Also, in patients with hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer, mutations MSH2 and MLH1 can be associated with ovarian cancer.

590
Q

Discuss the Ix relevant for post-natal depression

A

Depression screen questions

TFTs - rule out hypothyroid
FBC - anaemia exclusion
Urine drug screen - N
Brain CT/MRI - in case structural abnormality

591
Q

Aetiology of small for dates/IUGR

A

Maternal causes of IUGR include the following:

Chronic hypertension
Pregnancy-associated hypertension
Cyanotic heart disease
Class F or higher diabetes
Hemoglobinopathies
Autoimmune disease
Protein-calorie malnutrition
Smoking
Substance abuse
Uterine malformations
Thrombophilias
Prolonged high-altitude exposure

Placental or umbilical cord causes of IUGR include the following:

Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome
Placental abnormalities
Chronic abruption
Placenta previa
Abnormal cord insertion
Cord anomalies
Multiple gestations
592
Q

Epidemiology for obstetric cholestasis

A

0.7% prevalence
1-1.5% of Indian-Asian and Pakistani-Asian

Scandinavian (2%) or Chilean descent (14%), with 4.7% of Chilean singletons and 20.9% of Chilean twin gestations affected.

593
Q

Describe the mechanism of labour/fetal steps?

A
Baby engages....then
Do Frogs In Canada Ride In A Pink Limo 
Descent
Flexion
Internal rotation of head
Crowning
Restitution
Internal rotation of shoulders
Anterior shoulder
Posterior shoulder
Lateral flexion
594
Q

What are the structural causes of excessive menorrhagia?

A

Fibroids
Polyps
Adenomyosis (endometrial gland growth into myometrium)

595
Q

What is the prognosis / complications of endometrial polyp

A

0.5% contain adenocarcinoma cells

Frequently re-occur
(NB cervical usually don’t)
Untreated small polyps may regress

Increase the risk of miscarriage in IVF

May cause infertility if near Fallopian tubes

596
Q

Describe the epidemiology of hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy (NVP) occurs in up to 75% of pregnant women.
Hyperemesis gravidarum occurs in 1 in 200 pregnancies and is a severe form of NVP.[5] Its incidence is increased with multiple gestation, gestational trophoblastic disease, triploidy, trisomy 21, and hydrops fetalis.[1]

597
Q

What are the RFs for hyperemesis gravidarum

A
STRONG
FHx
Hx
Multiple gestation / increased placental size 
GTD
Trisomy 21/18

WEAK
Female fetus
Hx motion sickness
Hx migraine

598
Q

Rx of PCOS

A

Fertility

Weight loss
Metformin if insulin resistance
1) Clomifene - Clomifene is a non-steroidal anti-oestrogen that inhibits oestrogen negative feedback on the hypothalamus/pituitary, which in turn leads to an increase in follicle-stimulating hormone secretion that may allow follicular maturation and ovulation.

2) Dexamethasone can be given if Clomifene. fails - surpasses androgen production
3) follitropin alfa/beta - Gonadotrophins (human menopausal gonadotrophins [hMG]: luteinising hormone + follicle-stimulating hormone [FSH]) directly act on the ovary, stimulating follicular recruitment and maturation. (risk of multiple gestation / ovarian hyper stimulation syndrome)
4) IVF
5) Ovarian drilling

NOT REQUIRING FERTILITY

1) COCP
2) Spironolactone / finasteride
3) long acting GnRH
4) Cyclic progesterone

599
Q

Define thyroid disease in pregnancy

A

Increased TBG, increase t3/t4,
Serum TSH decreases in early pregnancy (-ve feedback from weak stimulation by BHCG). Thus TRH also reduced (typically undetectable).

Maternal thyroxine important for normal fatal development.
Fetal thyroid begins producing thyroxine from 12 weeks.
Maternal sources still contribute to 30% at term.

15% of pregnant women have TPO antibodies

600
Q

RFs for subfertilty in men

A
STRONG
Varicocele
Cryptochidism
Prior chemo/radio
Current medications - sulfsalazine/antifungals
CF
Congenital absence of the vas deferens
Y chromosome abnormalities - 
Kleinfelters - 47XXY
Hyperprolactinaemia
Kallmanns
Hx infertility 
WEAK
Genital tract infection
Erectile dysfunction
Retrograde ejaculation - Prostatic surgery, diabetes, and some medications, such as psychiatric agents (thioridazine, chlorpromazine, and amitriptyline)
Obesity
Testicular torsion
Smoking
Alcohol
Age >55 (affects sperm motility sometimes)
Environmental toxin exposure
CAD
DM
Hot tub use 
Hx STD
601
Q

Aetiology od trichomonas vaginalis

A

Colonisation + infection of the vagina by trichomonas vaginalis, a protozoan organism.
Infests the vagina and urethra

Single celled organism with 4 flagella and an undulating membrane

Acquired via sexual intercourse

602
Q

Discuss RFs for endometrial polyp

A
Obesity
High BP
Hx cervical polyps
HRT 
Tamoxifen
Mirena REDUCES incidence in women on tamoxifen
603
Q

Discuss the RFs for premenstrual syndrome

A

STRONG
Post-pubescant/Premenopausal

WEAK
FHx
Mood disorders
Cigarette smoking 
White women
Sexual abuse/trauma
604
Q

What is a resolved praevia?

A

Low-lying placenta seen in early pregnancy that has migrated away from the cervical os

605
Q

A 28-year-old woman presents to her gynaecologist with a complaint of inability to conceive for 1 year. She has 1 child. It took her 1 year to conceive that child. Her antenatal course was uncomplicated, although she required a caesarean section for failure to progress and chorioamnionitis. There were no post-operative complications and the child is healthy. She has heavy menstrual cycles every 35 to 42 days without significant dysmenorrhoea or dyspareunia. Her husband is 38 years old and is the father of her first child. He is healthy, takes no medication, and has no other children.

A

Infertility in women

606
Q

Rx of infertility in women

A

Manage any underlying medical conditions

All women need to be counselled. The process cam be stressful and evidence is emerging that stress can be associated with treatment failure.

ANOVULATORY

  • Gonadotrophin stimulation - menotrophin / follitrophin
  • HCG
  • IVF

PCOS

  • WL
  • Metformin
  • Clomifene / GnRH stimulation
  • Ovarian drilling
  • IVF

TUBAL

  • IVF
  • Can do tubal reconstruction

ENDOMETRIOSIS

  • Clomifene / GnRH stimulation
  • IVF
  • Surgical ablation of endometriosis

AGE RELATED

  • Oocyte donation
  • Can try ovarian stimulation -> Clomifene / GnRH

UNEXPLAINED

  • Try ovarian stimulation
  • Intra-uterine insemination possible (evidence suggests no more successful than timed intercourse)
  • IVF

DAMAGED UTERUS
- Surrogacy

607
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of cutaneous warts

A

intercourse at an early age
increasing number of lifetime sexual partners
increasing number of partner’s lifetime sexual partners
immunocompromise

608
Q

Define oligohydramnios

A

The amniotic fluid that bathes the fetus is necessary for its proper growth and development. It cushions the fetus from physical trauma, permits fetal lung growth, and provides a barrier against infection. Normal amniotic fluid volume varies. The average volume increases with gestational age, peaking at 800-1000 mL, which coincides with 36-37 weeks’ gestation. An abnormally high level of amniotic fluid, polyhydramnios, alerts the clinician to possible fetal anomalies. An inadequate volume of amniotic fluid, oligohydramnios , results in poor development of the lung tissue and can lead to fetal death.

609
Q

Discuss prophylaxis for PPH?

A

Use of an oxytotic drug (reduces incidence by 30-40%)
IE Syntometrine
Contolled cord traction to deliver placenta (Brandt-andrews)
Clamping and cutting the cord

610
Q

Aetiology of cardiac disease in pregnancy

A

Sharp rise in CO during 1st trimester, followed by gradual 40% increase above normal by 2nd trimester

CO rises even more during labour during contractions, and delivery of placentae

Can cause myocardial compromise

Cardiac failure can occur gradually in the pregnancy as the heart fails to meet the demand on the circulation.

LHF presents early in pregnancy if mod-severe disease

More commonly acute HF occurs as tachycardia >110 due to reduced ventricular filling

In mitral valve disease -> 2nd trimester + birth are dangerous -> increases in circulatory volumes

EISENMENGER = CONTRAINDICATION TO PREGNANCY

611
Q

Define trichomonas vaginalis

A

Colonisation + infection of the vagina by trichomonas vaginalis, a protozoan organism.
Infests the vagina and urethra

Single celled organism with 4 flagella and an undulating membrane

Acquired via sexual intercourse

612
Q

What is the prognosis of premenstrual syndrome

A

There are no reports documenting spontaneous remission before the menopause. It is difficult to define spontaneous remission, because women could remit during pregnancy only for symptoms to return subsequent to pregnancy. Women with PMS/PMDD tend to suffer throughout their reproductive life.

613
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of diabetes in pregnancy

A

NICE suggests that the prevalence of GDM in England and Wales is approximately 3.5% of all pregnancies.

614
Q

A 50-year-old white schoolteacher presents complaining of night sweats and difficulty sleeping. She has also noticed a decrease in her libido and discomfort during intercourse. Her family complains that she is more irritable. She is worried about a 3 kg weight gain since her last visit 1 year ago. She has not had a period for 12 months; immediately prior to that her periods were lighter and shorter. On pelvic examination, the labia minora appear thin and the vaginal mucosa is slightly pale, but the rest of the physical examination is unremarkable.

A

Menopause

615
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with cervical cancer & intraepithelial neoplasia

A

Most recurrence happens within 2 years. The tumour may spread locally; to the lymphatics (pelvic or paraaortic 11%, supraclavicular 7%); haematogenously (lungs 21%, bone 16%, liver, adrenals, brain); or transcelomically to the ovary or bowel (more common in adenocarcinomas but still very rare, <2%).

The 5- year survival depends on the stage of the tumour:
• Stage IA1: 100%
• Stage IB2-IIB: 50% to 70% • Stage III: 30% to 50%
• Stage IV: 5% to 15%.

616
Q

Discuss the RFs for placental abruption

A

STRONG

Chronic HTN
Pre-eclampsia
Smoking
Cocaine use
Trauma 
Chorioamnionitis 
Uterine malformations
Hx
Oligohydramnios

WEAK

Prev C-S
Preterm ROM
Multiparity
Inc age
Polyhydramnios
Multiple pregnancy 
Uterine Fibroids
Thrombophilias
617
Q

Identify the possible complications of colposcopy +/- cervical punch biopsy

A

Bleeding

Infection

618
Q

What investigations should be performed for primary amenorrhoea?

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): in concert with estradiol levels, gonadotrophins help determine if amenorrhoea is due to gonadal failure, hypothalamic dysfunction, or systemic or functional causes.
Serum estradiol: low levels are suggestive of either primary ovarian failure (along with elevated FSH) or suppressed hypothalamic function (low FSH).
Serum prolactin: elevated levels of circulating prolactin (hyperprolactinaemia), whether idiopathic or due to a pituitary adenoma, result in hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. For persistently elevated levels, neuroimaging is indicated to rule out intracranial neoplasm. [12]
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): is indicated to rule out (primary) hypothyroidism, more commonly associated with secondary amenorrhoea. Mild or sub-clinical hypothyroidism is unlikely to result in menstrual irregularities. [17] It is proposed that elevated thyrotrophin-releasing hormone (TRH) stimulates prolactin secretion from the pituitary, suppressing FSH production. [18]
Serum androgens: done for signs of hyperandrogenism. Levels such as dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEAS) and free testosterone will be elevated in patients with polycystic ovary syndrome, [19] but might be significantly higher in patients with androgen-producing tumours.
Karyotype: helps to identify patients at risk for gonadal tumours, such as those with premature ovarian failure (usually secondary amenorrhoea) younger than 30 years, androgen insensitivity syndrome, or gonadal dysgenesis. [5]

Cranial MRI - prolactinoma
TVUSS - tumours / endometrial thickness

619
Q

Define PCOS

A

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) includes symptoms of hyper-androgenism, presence of hyper-androgenaemia, oligo-/anovulation, and polycystic ovarian morphology on ultrasound.

620
Q

RFs for small for dates/IUGR

A

Maternal causes of IUGR include the following:

Chronic hypertension
Pregnancy-associated hypertension
Cyanotic heart disease
Class F or higher diabetes
Hemoglobinopathies
Autoimmune disease
Protein-calorie malnutrition
Smoking
Substance abuse
Uterine malformations
Thrombophilias
Prolonged high-altitude exposure

Placental or umbilical cord causes of IUGR include the following:

Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome
Placental abnormalities
Chronic abruption
Placenta previa
Abnormal cord insertion
Cord anomalies
Multiple gestations
621
Q

List the signs and symptoms of syphilis infection

A

COMMON

Genital ulcer - initially a macule, then develops into a papule, then ulcerates. Usually indurated, solitary, and painless 14-21 days after exposure.

Lymphadenopathy
Diffuse rash - Symmetrical macular, papular, or maculopapular rash in secondary syphilis. Usually non-itchy, over the trunk, palms, soles, and scalp.

Constitutional symptoms 
Mouth ulcer
Asymptomatic (latent syphilis)
Tremor
Headache
Meningismus
Eye pain
Hearing loss
Seizures
Peripheral oedema
Jaundice
Peripheral neuropathy 
Areflexia
Angina
Dyspnoea
Organomegaly 

UNCOMMON

Patchy alopecia
Condylomata lata - Oval papules in genitalia (2ndary syphilis)
Memory impairment/dementia
Visual disturbance 
Argyll-robertson pupils (small irregular pupils non-constricting to light, but do to accommodation)
Loss of vibration sense
Ataxia
Loss of anal/bladder sphincter control
\+ve rombergs sign
Diastolic murmur
CONGENITAL Sx
Rhinitis (can be bloody)
Hepatosplenomegaly 
Miscarriage/stillbirth
Premature labour/IUGR
Neonatal skin rash
Tibial bowling
Craniofacial malformation (frontal bossing)
Tooth abnormalities
Necrotising funisitis
622
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of anaemia in pregnancy

A

Estimated 30% WW women of reproductive age = anaemic

WHO WW = 40% preg women

Many individuals = iron deficient but not yet ANAEMIC

623
Q

Discuss the Ix for breech presentation

A

Transabdo USS

TVUSS

624
Q

List the RFs for breech presentation

A
STRONG
Premature fetus (can turn easily)
LBW 
Nulliparity 
Fetal congenital abnormalities 
Hx Breech
Uterine abnormalities
Female (54%)

WEAK
Abnormal amniotic fluid volume (oligo/poly)
Placental abnormalities (praevia)

625
Q

Describe the epidemiology of miscarriage

A

The main symptom of miscarriage is vaginal bleeding, and up to 30% of all pregnancies may end in miscarriage.

The majority of miscarriages occur in the first trimester and <3% occur in the second trimester.

626
Q

What are some causes of primary amenorrhoea?

A

Primary ovarian failure (dysfunctional/agenesis)
PCOS
Mullerian anomalies
HP dysfunction

627
Q

Ix for LGA

A

USS to assess liquor volume and fetal size using haddock formulas (AC/HC/FL)

628
Q

Define endometriosis

A

Endometriosis is defined as the presence of endometrial glands and stroma outside the endometrial cavity and uterine musculature. Surgical appearance varies significantly from superficial blebs to infiltrating fibrosis. Direct visualisation confirmed by histological examination remains essential for diagnosis.

629
Q

Epidemiology of trichomonas vaginalis

A

18% of female population

630
Q

Explain the risk factors of chlamydia

A

age under 25 years, sexually active
new sex partner or multiple sex partners
sexual activity with infected partner
condoms not used

631
Q

What are the complications of epilepsy in pregnancy

A
Rx can cause:
Orofacial clefts
Neural tube defects
Congenital heart disease 
Haemorrhage disease of the newborn
632
Q

Normal anaemia parameters?

A

Anaemia is normally <120g/L FEMALE
<140g/L MALE
PREGNANCY = RF for anaemia
Other RFs include: extremes of age, female gender, lactation, and pregnancy.

633
Q

A 33-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents with 4-day history of vaginal bleeding along with lower abdominal discomfort and nausea. She states that her symptoms have worsened over the previous 24 hours. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She denies medical, gynaecological, or social problems and her review of systems is negative except for the above complaints. Her obstetrical history includes an abortion and two uncomplicated vaginal deliveries followed by an interval tubal ligation 1 year ago.

A

Ectopic

634
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with Asherman’s syndrome

A

Recurrence 1/3-2/3

635
Q

Prognosis / complications of lichen sclerosis

A

Associated with vulval cancer, but not a cause

Many presenting with vulval cancer have lichen sclerosis
Thought 3-5% of lichen sclerosis sufferers will develop vulval cancer

636
Q

What is ovarian hyper-stimulation syndrome

A

Ovarian hyper-stimulation syndrome:

Symptoms range from mild to severe. Mild OHSS manifests as bloating and abdominal discomfort. As the abdominal fluid collection continues it restricts diaphragmatic activity with resultant shortness of breath. Increased abdominal pressure can also restrict the inferior vena cava and reduce pre-load. A reduced intravascular volume decreases glomerular filtration rate and may result in renal failure. As intravascular depletion continues, the rising haematocrit can increase the risk of blood clotting. This risk is further increased by the high level of estradiol. Third spacing can occur in other tissues including the lungs and the brain.
Treatment is supportive. Paracentesis can improve respiratory effort and cardiac output. OHSS occurs in approximately 20% of all IVF cases but is only severe in <5%. Symptoms last approximately 1 week, but will continue longer when conception occurs.

637
Q

List Ix for ovarian cysts

A

TVUS - enlarged ovary or portion of ovarian tissue; may be cystic, solid, or mixed

Serum CA-125 - elevated in malignancy (Levels >35 U/mL in PM women, or >200 U/mL in pre-menopausal)

Doppler - penetrating vessels into solid, papillary, or central areas of malignant tumour

MRI/CT

Laparoscopy + histology

638
Q

What is the prognosis of placental abruption

A

The maternal prognosis is linked primarily to the severity of the abruption, particularly to the amount of blood lost and to the presence or absence of associated coagulopathy.

For the fetus, the prognosis depends primarily on the gestational age at which the abruption occurs, and on the degree of the abruption.

Abruption is also an important cause of indicated preterm birth and is associated with an increased risk of perinatal asphyxia and long-term neurodevelopmental handicap.

639
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of cutaneous warts

A

In the UK, the estimated prevalence of detected human papillomavirus (HPV) among women aged 16 to 25 years undergoing routine cervical screening is 42%. [8] This rate decreases with increasing age. [8]

640
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with asthma in pregnancy

A

Acute asthma exacerbations are common during pregnancy and increase the risk of pre-eclampsia, gestational diabetes, placental abruption and placenta previa

641
Q

What is the aetiology of gestational hypertension

A

The exact aetiology of gestational hypertension remains unknown. It is thought that insulin resistance may mediate the clinical onset of hypertension in pregnancy.

642
Q

Aetiology of thromboembolism in pregnancy

A

Uterus compresses pelvic veins + inferior vena cava. Increases stasis.

Stasis
Trauma
Hypercoagulability

Obstetrical:
CS
DM
Haemorrhage/anaemia
Hyperemesis
Immobility 
Multiple gestation
Multiparity 
Pre-eclampsia
Puerperal infection
General:
>35yo
Cancer
Connective tissue disease
Dehydration
Immobility
Infection/inflammatory disease
Nephrotic syndrome 
Obesity 
Oral contraceptivo use
Orthopedic surgery 
Paraplegia 
Hx of VTE
SCD
Smoking
Thrombophilia
643
Q

Generate a management plan for Bartholin’s cyst

A
Asymptomatic <40 = leave alone
Symptomatic:
Marsupialisation 
Catheter Drainage
Excision - not preferred due to recurrence/infection/loss of function
Aspiration 
Silver nitrate cauterisation
Alcohol sclerotherapy 
\+BS ABx
644
Q

What are the relevant Ix for syphilis infection

A

Dark field microscopy of lesion swab - coiled spirochaete bacterium viewed

Serum treponemal enzyme immune assay (EIA) - +ve
serum T pallidum particle agglutination (TPPA) - +ve
serum T pallidum haemagglutination (TPHA) - +ve
serum Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test - +ve

Lumbar puncture - WCC >10, Protein >50mg/dL, VDRL +ve, TPHA/TPPA/FTA-ABS +ve

CxR
Echo
MRI/CT brain
HIV test 
Fetal USS
FBC
LFTs
Audiometry
645
Q

Ix for obstetric cholestasis

A

Bile acids - >11 micromol/L and <40 micromol/L (mild); >40 micromol/L (severe)

LFTs - transaminases elevated up to 300 units/L in more severe disease; alk phos 5- to 10-fold normal; direct bilirubin elevated in some, not usually >85.5 micromol/L (>5 mg/dL)

Coagulation - prothrombin time may be prolonged in rare cases when vitamin K has been depleted from liver dysfunction

Fasting serum cholesterol - total cholesterol and triglycerides are elevated above the 2- to 3-fold increase usually seen in pregnancy

Hep C serology - positive in hepatitis C infection

646
Q

Generate a management plan for fibroids

A

FERTILITY DESIRED
Myomectomy + anti-progestogen ie leuprorelin/mifepristone
OR mirena OR naproxen 500mg orally

FERTILITY NOT DESIRED
Uterine artery embolisation
Myomectomy 
(same medical Rx post surgery)
IF uterine preservation not desired = hysterectomy
647
Q

What are the complications / prognosis of cervical polyps

A

1% progress to cancer

Unlikely to regrow

648
Q

Define lichen sclerosis

A

Destructive inflammatory condition affecting the anogenital area in women

649
Q

Rx of termination of pregnancy

A

MEDICAL:
Mifepristone + Buccal misoprostone - <9weeks
- Mifepristone administered there + then, misoprostal administered at home 24-48hrs after misoprostol.
- Most women deliver 2-24hr post misoprostol.
The package inserts for the medical regimen are critical to review with the patient and send home with her. They cover side effects, expected progress, and symptoms very completely.
Follow up appointment - 7-14 days later.

OR

Methrotrexate injection, misoprostol on days 6-7

SURGICAL:
Manual vacuum aspiration -  4-10w
Suction curettage - 6-14w
Dilation and evacuation - 14-24w
Hysterotomy - 12-24w (if large fibroids) 

Surgical:
Often sedation only used.
Laminaria japonicas are small sticks of presterilized seaweed that can be inserted preoperatively to dilate the cervix.
May give vag/oral misoprotol to prepare cervix
May give local lidocaine to cervix
Agents useful to control bleeding include oxytocin, methylergonovine, or prostaglandins.
A surgical abortion is usually performed under local anesthesia. For those modestly tolerant of pain, either intravenous sedation or a preoperative antianxiolytic agent can be administered. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) have also been used for preoperative preparation. Narcotics can be used for pain control but are usually not necessary.

Most antibiotics are used prophylactically to prevent postoperative endometritis. Some institutions have used dosages that would cover chlamydia and gonorrhea because patients often cannot be contacted after an abortion.

650
Q

Sx of substance abuse in pregnancy

A

Alcohol withdrawal: Signs of alcohol withdrawal may include hyperactivity, crying, irritability, poor sucking, tremors, seizures, poor sleeping patterns, hyperphagia, and diaphoresis. Signs usually appear at birth and may continue until age 18 months. Withdrawal typically appears within 3-12 hours after delivery.

Barbiturate withdrawal: Signs may include irritability, severe tremors, hyperacusis, excessive crying, vasomotor instability, diarrhea, restlessness, increased tone, hyperphagia, vomiting, and disturbed sleep.

Marijuana withdrawal: For marijuana, a mild opiatelike withdrawal syndrome has been observed. Signs may include fine tremors, hyperacusis, and a prominent Moro reflex; however, these symptoms rarely require treatment.

Nicotine withdrawal: Mild signs are observed, including fine tremors and variations in tone; recent data have shown that maternal smoking was associated with subtle neonatal behaviors, such as poor self-regulation and an increased need for handling.

Methadone withdrawal: Symptoms typically appear within 48-72 hours but may not start until the infant is aged 3 weeks. This is particularly true for infants whose mothers took excessively higher doses.

Opiate withdrawal: Signs of NAS include hyperirritability, gastrointestinal dysfunction, respiratory distress, and vague autonomic symptoms (eg, yawning, sneezing, mottling, fever). Tremors and jittery movements, high-pitched cries, increased muscle tone, and irritability are common. Normal reflexes may be exaggerated. Loose stools are common, leading to possible electrolyte imbalances and diaper dermatitis.
Long-term symptoms have been difficult to study, but evidence supports that these children show hyperphagia, increased oral drive, sweating, hyperacusis, irregular sleep patterns, poor tolerance to environmental changes, and continued loose stools.
NAS appears to be less severe if the mother has used opiates longer than one week prior to delivery.

Cocaine: Acute signs such as tremors, high-pitched cry, irritability, excess suck, hyperalertness, apnea, and tachycardia can be seen with the first 72 hours of life.

651
Q

Sx of fatty liver of pregnancy

A

Malaise
Nausea and vomiting (70%); this may present for the first time in the third trimester
Right upper-quadrant and epigastric pain (50-80%)
Upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage
Acute renal failure
Infection
Pancreatitis
Hypoglycemia
Fulminant liver failure with hepatic encephalopathy

Hypertension
Bleeding
Confusion and altered mental status
Jaundice: Hyperbilirubinemia resulting in jaundice is rarely encountered in patients with severe preeclampsia. When jaundice is present in pregnancy, AFLP should be high on the differential.

652
Q

What is considered prolonged phase 2 of labour?

A

NULLIPAROUS

  1. 8 hours w/o regional anaesthesia
  2. 6 hours with

MULTIP
2hours w/o regional
1 hour with

One study found that if nulliparous women delivered after prolonged second stage, they were twice as likely to have operative vaginal delivery, three times as likely to develop chorioamnionitis, have higher odds of having episiotomy and 3rd or 4th degree lacerations, and one day longer median hospital stay.

653
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of cervical cancer & intraepithelial neoplasia

A

Cervical cancer is the fourth most common malignancy in women worldwide with an estimated 530,000 new cases and 270,000 deaths in 2012.

Effective screening with the Pap smear in developed countries has reduced the incidence and mortality by 75% in the last 50 years.

Human papillomavirus is the most important aetiological factor. Incidence of cervical cancer correlates with early onset of sexual activity, multiple sexual partners, cigarette smoking, low socioeconomic status, poor nutrition, oral contraceptive use, and immunosuppression.

654
Q

What is the aetiology of miscarriage

A

Embryonic factors:

  • Primary embryonic disease/disorder/damage
  • 80% chromosomally abnormal
  • Particularly CNS malformation

Maternal factors:

  • 2nd trimester Ms due to ascending infection from genital tract
  • Exposure to chemo/irradiation/toxicity
  • Asymptomatic Bacterial vaginosis (2nd T)
  • Large submucosal fibroids
  • Antiphospholipid syndrome
  • Cervical incompetence, insufficiency, or weakness account for most recurrent second-trimester miscarriages.
  • Ovulation induction, fetuses with high nuchal translucency, and in women with pre-existing diabetes mellitus

In practice, the most common causes of second-trimester miscarriage are cervical incompetence, weakness, or insufficiency following invasive fetal diagnostic procedures; trans-placental fetal viral infection; trans- placental fetal bacterial infection; severe rhesus isoimmunisation

655
Q

Epidemiology of vasa praevia

A

1 in 2500

656
Q

What is the epidemiology of syphilis infection

A

Syphilis is a common, worldwide STD, with approximately 10.6 million new cases reported in 2005 and 2008, according to the World Health Organization (WHO).

In 2014, 61% of cases of primary and secondary syphilis occurred in MSM.

657
Q

Complications of mastitis / breast abscess

A
Cessation of breast feeding
Abscess
Sepsis
Scarring
Functional mastectomy
Nec-fasc
Extramammary skin infection
Fistula
658
Q

What is the prognosis of gonorrhoea

A

Appropriate treatment with recommended antibiotics should resolve gonorrhoeal infections. The key related morbidity in women is infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain secondary to pelvic inflammatory disease. In men, treatment will help prevent ascending infection to the prostate, epididymis, and testis. Death is rare but can be the result of disseminated infection.

659
Q

What are the RFs for gestational hypertension

A

STRONG

Nulligravity

WEAK

Black/hispanic
Multiparity 
Obesity 
Small mother at gestation
T1DM
Migraine
660
Q

Define breech presentation

A

Breech presentation in pregnancy occurs when a baby presents with the buttocks or feet rather than the head first (cephalic presentation) and is associated with increased morbidity and mortality for both the mother and the baby. There is good current evidence regarding effective management of breech presentation in late pregnancy using external cephalic version and/or planned caesarean section.

661
Q

Describe the epidemiology of pre-eclampsia

A

While the exact incidence is unknown, pre-eclampsia has been reported to occur in about 4% of all pregnancies in the US. When figures include patients who develop pre-eclampsia postpartum, the incidence is between 2% and 8% of all pregnancies worldwide.

662
Q

Define LETZ and describe the procedure

A

Excision of lesion using electrocautical loop
Cervical transformation zone and lesion excised 4-5mm beyond lesion
Usually histological specimens taken.

663
Q

Rx of urogenital prolapse

A

MILD SYMPTOMS:
Pelvic floor physio
Silicon rubber pessaries

Severe:
SURGERY - Colporrhaphy 
UTERINE PRESERVING:
Hysterosacropexy
Manchester repair
Mesh repair

NON PRESERVING
Vaginal hysterectomy
Total abdominal hysterectomy + sacrocolplexy
Subtotal abdominal hysterectomy + sacrocervicoplexy

664
Q

Discuss relevant Ix for placenta praevia

A

Uterine USS + doppler - position of placenta
FBC - potential anaemia
G+S + crossmatch

CONSIDER
MRI placenta
INR/PTT fibrinogen - possible DIC
Kleihauer-Betke test - if Rh+

665
Q

A 38-year-old woman, gravida 5, para 4, and an active smoker, is found to have an abnormal placenta on a routine dating ultrasound at 13 weeks. She returns with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks. She is not in labour.

A

Placenta praevia

666
Q

Generate a management plan for toxic shock syndrome

A

SUSPECTED
Supportive - fluids, vasopressor, source control, etc
Empirical therapy - clindamycin + vancomycin

CONFIRMED STREP
Clindamycin + benzylpenicillin or vancomycin
Potential IVIG

CONFIRMED STAPHY
Clindamycin + oxacillin or vancomycin

667
Q

What are the RFs of placenta praevia

A

STRONG

Uterine scarring (prior C) - do mid trimester USS
Infertility Rxs (2% risk)
Hx

WEAK

Increased age
Multiparity 
Smoking
Induced abortion 
Placental abnormalities 
Short interpregnancy intervals
Illicit drug use
668
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with Bartholin’s cyst

A

85% Rx success

May get vaginal dryness/dyspareunia

669
Q

Discuss signs/symptoms of molar pregnancies

A
COMMON
Presentation in 1st trimester.
Missed period
Vaginal bleeding 
Unusually large uterus for gestational age
UNCOMMON
Headache / photophobia - exacerbated pre-eclampsia symptoms - due to high HcG
SOB - anaemia 
Nausea / emesis - high HCG
Thyrotoxicosis signs - HCG can cross react with TSH
HTN
Uterine bleeding 
Pelvic pain
670
Q

Generate a management plan for Asherman’s syndrome

A

HYSTEROSCOPIC RESECTION — The standard treatment of symptomatic intrauterine adhesions is lysis under direct hysteroscopic visualization

Estrogen therapy — The rationale for postoperative estrogen therapy is that the hormone will promote regrowth of the endometrium over the denuded surface.

Intra-uterine catheter — Catheters (eg, size 8 pediatric bladder catheter with a 5 cc balloon or Malecot catheter) can be inserted into the uterine cavity immediately after adhesion lysis.

Intrauterine gel — Both hyaluronic acid gel and polyethylene oxide-sodium carboxymethylcellulose gel have appeared to reduce the reformation of IUAs,

Prevention: Surgical techniques - cold loop adhesion rather than cautery.
Semisolid (gel) adhesion barriers

671
Q

A 30-year-old man presents with difficulty hearing conversations while in a crowded room. Following referral for audiometry, bilateral high-frequency hearing loss is diagnosed. On further questioning he reports a past history of an anal fissure about 10 weeks previously that healed spontaneously. He also describes a mild transient skin rash 2 weeks before his auditory symptoms appeared. He says that he has been feeling unusually tired.

A

Syphilis

672
Q

Aetiology of infertility in women

A

Female infertility aetiologies include cervical/uterine abnormalities, tubal disease, ovulatory dysfunction, and unexplained infertility. The most common aetiology is ovarian dysfunction.

Polycystic ovarian syndrome, which is estimated to affect 5% of women, is also a major contributor to ovulatory infertility.

The primary cause of infertility worldwide is tubal disease due to infection, including gonorrhoea, chlamydia infection, and tuberculosis.

Cigarette smoking

High/low body fat

Decreased body mass

Endometriosis

Uterine - bicornuate, fibroids, ashermans, uterine septum

673
Q

Discuss the epidemiology of menopause

A

Av age: 51
Hot flushes (vasomotor symptoms [VMS]) are the most common menopausal symptom: moderate to severe hot flushes were reported by 24% of women aged 50 to 54 years.
Prevalence decreased rapidly with age, from 15% in women aged 55 to 59 years to 6% in the 60- to 69-year age group, and to only 3% in women aged >70 years.

674
Q

Aetiology of heavy menorrhagia?

A

Thinning of the vascular smooth muscle cell layer of the spiral arterioles, shifts in prostaglandin secretion towards vasodilatory prostaglandins, and disturbances in the endometrial coagulation mechanisms are often found in women with heavy menstrual bleeding.

675
Q

Discuss the complications of post-natal depression

A

Impaired bonding with baby
Neglect of baby
Suicide
Bipolar Disorder

676
Q

Epidemiology of subfertilty in men

A

It is estimated that 1 in 6 couples will have difficulty conceiving. Male factor alone is responsible for 20% of those cases. In an additional 30% to 40% of couples, male factor is present in combination with other factors including anovulation, tubal factor, increased maternal age, and endometriosis.

677
Q

Sx of small for dates/IUGR

A

For most purposes, an EFW at or below the 10th percentile is used to identify fetuses at risk. Importantly, however, understand that this is not a definitive cutoff for uteroplacental insufficiency. A certain number of fetuses at or below the 10th percentile may be constitutionally small. In these cases, short maternal or paternal height, the neonate’s ability to maintain growth along a standardized curve, and a lack of other signs of uteroplacental insufficiency (eg, oligohydramnios, abnormal Doppler findings) can be reassuring to the clinician and parents. Customized growth curves for ethnicity, parental size, and gender are in development so as to improve sensitivity and specificity of diagnosing IUGR.

678
Q

Epidemiology of hysterectomy in UK?

A

In the UK, 20% of women have a hysterectomy by the age of 60, mainly for heavy bleeding, despite the fact that 40% have a normal uterus on histological examination.

679
Q

Sx of oligohydramnios

A

Marked deformation of foetus if real agenesis

Oligohydramnios adversely affects fetal lung development, resulting in pulmonary hypoplasia that typically leads to death from severe respiratory insufficiency. Other fetal deformations include bowed legs, clubbed feet, a single umbilical artery, gastrointestinal atresias, and a narrow chest secondary to external compression. Infants are typically small for their stated gestational age (SGA)

680
Q

What are the complications of fibroids

A
Recurrence 
Labour + delivery complications:
- Inc risk breach, dysfunctional labour, bleeding, inc CS risk
Acute torsion 
Haemorrhage / anaemia 
Severe infection 
Infertility 
"Degenerative fibroid changes"
Pregnancy loss
681
Q

Prognosis of polyhydramnios

A

If polyhydramnios is not associated with any other findings, the prognosis is usually good.
Polyhydramnios (amniotic fluid index [AFI] >24 cm) is associated with an increased rate of fetal malformations, genetic syndromes, neurologic disorders, and developmental delay, conditions that may only be diagnosed postnatally.

Perinatal Mortality Rate = 4.12 deaths per 1000 patients with polyhydramnios and 56.5 deaths per 1000 patients with oligohydramnios.