obs Flashcards

1
Q

when does a secondary PPH occur

A

500ml 24hrs-12 weeks post birth

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2
Q

when can you not give ergometrine IV in PPH

A

when there is hx of HTN (it can cause coronary artery spasm)

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3
Q

when can you not give carboprost IV in PPH

A

when there is a hx of asthma (as causes bronchospasm)

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4
Q

what happens if mum gets chicken pox in first 20 weeks of pregnancy

A

fetal varicella syndrome - problems with the eyes, limbs and microcephaly

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5
Q

what is the risk to mum with chicken pox in pregnancy

A

5x more likely to get pneumonitis, hepatitis, encephalitis

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6
Q

what is the risk if mum gets chicken pox around delivery

A

neonatal varicella syndrome

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7
Q

MX of chicken pox exposure in pregnancy

A

-check varicella antibodies
-If no immunity, give oral aciclovir 7-14 days post exposure.
-if rash is present, start aciclovir within 24 hours if more than 20 weeks pregnant

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8
Q

features of congenital rubella syndrome

A

sensorineural deafness, cataracts, CHD

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9
Q

Dx of rubella in pregnancy

A

IgM

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10
Q

Mx of rubella in preg

A

discuss with the health protection unit, offer MMR to non immune mothers after pregnancy

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11
Q

when are babies not at risk of congenital rubella syndrome

A

after 16 weeks

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12
Q

what does congenital CMV cause

A

growth restriction, microcephaly and hearing loss, blueberry muffin skin lesions

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13
Q

what does syphilis cause in babies

A

stillborn

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14
Q

complications of parvovirus in pregnancy

A

miscarriage, severe fetal anaemia –> hydrops fetalis from heart failure

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15
Q

Dx for parvovirus in pregnancy

A

IgM to parvovirus which tests for acute infection, IgG which detects long term immunity and rubella antibodies as a differential diagnosis

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16
Q

What does listeriosis come form

A

unpasteurised dairy products and processed meats

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17
Q

when does herpes present the highest risk to babies

A

in final 6 weeks –> need C section (cause neonatal herpes infection which can be localised or can disseminate)

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18
Q

in a mum who is known to have herpes, what should you consider?

A

prophylactic acyclovir from 36 weeks

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19
Q

if herpes is caught early on in the pregnancy, how is it treated

A

aciclovir

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20
Q

scoring for HG

A

PUQE

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21
Q

Mx of HG

A

1) promethazine / cyclizine
2) prochlorperazine (extrapyramidal SE)
3) ondansetron

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22
Q

Rf for HG

A

molar, multiple, nulliparity

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23
Q

Mx of molar pregnancy

A

evacuation of the uterus and then monitored hCG for 6 months (until it returns to normal), managed at a GTD centre

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24
Q

what is a choriocarcinoma

A

when moles metastasise, get systemic symptoms like coughing, chest pain and breathing difficulties

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25
Q

what contraception is available after birth

A

-POP can be started straight away
-COCP cannot be started for 21 days due to unacceptable VTE risk
-COCP contraindicated for 6 weeks if breastfeeding
-Ius/IUD can be put in in the 48 hours after birth or then after 4 weeks
-Lactational amenorrhea method —> effective for 6 months

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25
Q

taking sertraline in pregnancy gives a risk of what

A

withdrawal in baby (so must be monitored for 24 hours) and persistent pulmonary hypertension

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26
Q

how many women get PND

A

10% - normally start months 1-3, difficulty bonding, low mood, guilt

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27
Q

SSRI if severe PND

A

paroxetine / sertraline

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28
Q

complications of PND

A

recurrence and higher risk of lifetime depression

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29
Q

what class of drugs is firstline in morning sickness

A

antihistamines

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30
Q

if a woman has pre existing HTN in preg, what should happen to their meds?>

A

stop ACEi/ARB and start on labetolol ( also monitor for proteinuria)

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31
Q

what is pregnancy induced HTN

A

HTN occurring in the second half of preg, after 20 weeks
-no proteinuria or oedema which resolves after birth (treat with labetolol and monitor for weekly proteinuria)

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32
Q

cause for preeclampsia

A

abnormal placentation (impaired invasion of trophoblasts leading to shallow invasion of spiral arteries —> oxidative stress –> endothelial dysfunction)
-this causes increased permeability which causes oedema and proteinuria.

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33
Q

high risk factors of preeclampsia

A

pre existing HTN, CKD, DM, autoimmune conditions like SLE

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34
Q

moderate RF of preeclampsia

A

primi, BMI >35, molar, multiple preg, 10 year gap, first degree relative.

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35
Q

what risk reduction is started for women with 1 high risk factor or 2 moderate risk factors for pre eclampsia

A

aspirin 150mg daily from 12 weeks

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36
Q

signs of preeclampsia

A

HTN, oedema in peripheries, proteinuria, growth restriction, oligohydraminos, epigastric/RUQ pain, hyperreflexia

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37
Q

what Ix of you do for someone with preeclampsia

A

FBC
U+E
LFT coat profile
level of proteinuria by ACR (>300mg in 24 hours or 2++ on dip)
PlGF

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38
Q

Mx of preclampsia

A

-regular monitoring of mum and baby (CTG / doppler)(
-aspirin
-labetolol / nidefipine / methyldopa
-VTE prophylaxis

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39
Q

complications of preeclampsia for mum

A

ICH, stroke, pulmonary oedema, eclampsia , HELLP. DIC, placental abruption

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40
Q

complications of preeclampsia for baby

A

stillbirth, small baby, premature, placental abruption

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41
Q

RF of placental abruption

A

low BMI, cocaine, smoking, polyhydraminos, multiple pregnancy

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42
Q

Mx for placental abruption

A

Emergency - A_E
-bloods –> FBC, U+E, LFTs, clotting
-crossmatch
-CTG
-US to rule out praaevia
-anti D prophylaxis (kleihauer test)
-C section if distress

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43
Q

Rf for GDM

A

previous macrocosmic baby, FHx of DM, BMI > 30, black/Asian

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44
Q

what preconception counselling is done for someone known DM

A

-aim HbA1c < 6.5%
-BMI <27
-folic acid 5mg
-stop statin
-stop any oral glycaemias APART from metformin
-carry on with insulin
-managed in joint antenatal and diabetes clinic

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45
Q

for GDM patients, when should delivery occur

A

39-40+6 weeks

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46
Q

for preexisting DM, when should delivery occur

A

37-38+6 weeks

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47
Q

what is the post delivery MX of GDM

A

stop all Tx and re monitor HbA1c at 12 weeks

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48
Q

targets for GDM once starting Tx

A

fasting <5.3
1 hour post meal < 7.8
2 hours post meal <6.7

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49
Q

what 2 ways can preterm labour be prevented

A

1) vaginal progesterone (if cervix <25mm at 20 week US)
2) cervical cerclage

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50
Q

RF of preterm birth

A

previous preterm, PPROM, cervical trauma, smoking

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51
Q

what is it important not to do in PPROM (preterm premature rupture of membranes)

A

DV exam, do a sterile speculum exam instead to look for pooling of water (if unsure check PAMG and IGFBP1)

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52
Q

Mx of PPROM

A

admit - steroids, 10 days erythromycin, monitor temp for infection, expectant mx until 37 weeks

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53
Q

when do you suspect preterm labour with intact membranes

A

when there is regular and painful contractions and cervical dilation without rupture of membranes

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54
Q

Mx of preterm labour with intact membrane

A

1) speculum to look for cervica dilation
2) if < 30 weeks –> offer Tx
3) if > 30 weeks –> TV US to look at cervical length, if it is >15mm then labour is unlikely.
-if insure can check fetal fibronectin. (<50 = unlikely)

The MX:
-CTG
-tocolysis - nifedipine to stop contractions
-steroids
-mag sulphate

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55
Q

what is is important to never do in PROM

A

DV exam due to infection

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56
Q

contraindications to tocolysis

A

dilation >4cm, >34 weeks, chorioamnionitis, non reassuring CTG

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57
Q

what kind of insulin is GDM treated dwith

A

short acting

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58
Q

if a woman is unsure whether she has reduced FM, what should she be advised

A

lie on left side and concentrate on movements, should have 10 movements in 2 hr (after 28 weeks)

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59
Q

Ddx for RFM

A

fetal death, FGR, TORCH, positional change, sedate drugs, oligohydraminos or polyhydraminos

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60
Q

secondary PPH

A

24 hours - 12 weeks

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61
Q

how does uterus feel in atony

A

soft and boggy

62
Q

RF for atony cause of PPH

A

advanced maternal age, polyhydraminos, multiple pregnancy, prolonged labour

63
Q

what bacteria normally causes endometritis (most common cause of a secondaryPPH)

A

mixed gram - and +

64
Q

when is the major haemorrhage protocol activated

65
Q

SE of oxytocin

A

hypotension, flushing, headache

66
Q

complications of PPH

A

anaemia, hysterectomy, sheehan syndrome, PTSD

67
Q

Dx of endometritis

A

vaginal swabs, urine cultures, do US to rule out RPOC

68
Q

MX of endometritis

A

sepsis 6 if septic, otherwise broad spec Abx (prevented by prophylaxis abx in C section)

69
Q

which part of pituitary gland undergoes avascular necrosis in PPH

A

anterior only (as this is supplied by the low pressure hypothalamohypohyseal system)

70
Q

what happens in postpartum thyroiditis

A

hyperthyroid –>hypothyroid –> normal

71
Q

RF of cord prolapse

A

breech, prem, ARM

72
Q

what Abx is given for GBS prophylaxis

A

benzylpenicillin

73
Q

RF for GBS infection

A

preterm, previous baby affected, high temperature, positive urine test, swab test for GBS, PROM

74
Q

which race at risk of OC

75
Q

IX for OC

A

LFT and bile acids, USS abdo, liver autoimmune screen

76
Q

what monitoring is required in OC

A

LFT weekly and after 10 days post pregnancy

77
Q

what vitamin needs to be replaced in OC

78
Q

what happens in placenta accreta

A

the placenta attaches to the myometrium due to a defective decider basalis

79
Q

what’s the different between placenta accrete, placenta increta and placenta percreta

A

placenta accreta –> attaches to myometrium but does not go through it

Placenta increta –> chorionic villas invaded the myometrium

Placenta percreta –> chorionic villi invade through the perimetrium

80
Q

RF for placenta accreta

A

previous C section, placenta praaevia, previous PID, advanced age3

81
Q

Mx of placenta accreta

A

-delivery at 35-36+6 weeks
-hysterectomy if not known until delivery
-expectant Mx (if known about and MRI has been done to look at invasion) –> have blood transfusions and ITU on standby

82
Q

What is measured on a bishops score

A

-dilatation of cervix
-consistency of cervix
-cervical length (effacement)
-position of cervix
-station of presenting part

-max score 13

83
Q

quadruple test screening results for DS increased likelihood

A

↓ AFP
↓ oestriol
↑ hCG
↑ inhibin A

84
Q

causes of oligohydraminos

A

PROM, potter sequence, FGR, TORCH infections

85
Q

IX for oligohydraminos

A

US, karyotyping

86
Q

MX of oligohydraminos

A

serial fetal testing due to increased risk of fetal demise

87
Q

apart from pulmonary hypoplasia, what are the other problems with oligohydraminos

A

limb deformities, cord compression

88
Q

complications of polyhydraminos for mum

A

-worse pregnancy symptoms like reflux and SOB due to compression of the diaphragm
-PPH

89
Q

causes of polyhydraminos

A

idiopathic, macrosomia, oesophageal atresia, muscular dystrophies

90
Q

Mx of polyhydraminos

A

-not normally needed
-if symptoms vvv bad can do amnioreduction
-can use indomethacin - increase water retention and reduce fetal urine output

91
Q

why is risk of VTE so high in preg

A

loss of anticoagulants, venous stasis, increase in clotting factors

92
Q

when is VTE risk assessed

A

at booking and at any subsequent appointments

93
Q

Rf for VTE

A

BMI>30, age >35, smoker, gross varicose veins, preterm birth, hyperemesis, ART

94
Q

what do you do if you identify 4 RF for VTE

A

LMWH straight away until 6 weeks PP

-THIS IS ALSO IF ANY HX OF VTE IN MUM

95
Q

what do you do if you identify 3RF for VTE in preg

A

LMWH from 28 weeks until 6 weeks PP

96
Q

Ix for VTE in preg

A

venography with fetal shield (gold standard)
-doppler US is a good alternative

97
Q

does anything need to be monitored in mum on LMWH

98
Q

what side DVT is more common in preg

A

left sided 85%

99
Q

what is chorioamnionitis

A

infection of fetal membranes and amniotic fluid (RF = PROM and GBS)

100
Q

on SFH, when does a baby need a uterine artery doppler and serial growth scans (where head circumference, abdominal circumference, and femur length are measured)?

A

if on <10th centile

101
Q

what is a large for dates baby

A

> 90th centile

102
Q

what is a severe SGA

A

<3rd centile

103
Q

what does it mean if a foetus has symmetrical IUGR vs asymmetrical

A

symmetrical –> intrinsic factors like chromosome abnormalities and infections

asymmetrical –> malnutrition / alcohol / placenta insufficiency

104
Q

Investigations for fetal growth

A

vital signs, urine dip and BP (to check for preeclampsia), CTG, screen for infections and DP, biophysical profile (amniotic fluid measurements), karyotyping (by amniocentesis), detailed fetal anatomy scan

105
Q

what is done every 3/4 weeks in IUGR

A

serial growth scan and umbilical artery doppler

106
Q

what are worrying signs on umbilical artery doppler

A

-absent end diastolic flow
-reverse end diastolic flow

ANSWER IN EXAM WILL BE UMBILICAL ARTERY DOPPLER

107
Q

uterine artery doppler (think more of a screening tool) shows worrying signs when, this can be done if someone has RF for IUGR as a screening tool firstline

A

pulsatility index >95th gentile and early diatonic notching

108
Q

Causes for a large for dates baby

A

true causes - genetic syndrome like beckwith wiedemann / GDM / maternal obesity

other causes - large fibroids

109
Q

Mx for large for dates babies

A

nothing!! induction not advised unless GDM

110
Q

RF for uterine rupture

A

previous C section, induction, multiple preg

111
Q

what causes symphysis pubic dysfunction (pain when walking/turning over in bed/climbing stairs)

A

separation of the pubic symphysis

112
Q

what happens to mums respiration in pregnancy

A

increased minute ventilation (from increased TV not from increased RR)
-minute ventilation = TV x RR

113
Q

what happens to the immune system in preg

A

mum does into immunosuppressed state so she does not attack the hemi-allogradt

114
Q

what happens to the cardiovascular system in pregnancy

A

cardiac output increases by increasing stroke volume in early pregnancy and in later pregnancy HR increases
-get a procoagable state (loss of anticoagulants and increase in clotting factors)
-activation of RAAS to increase the circulating volume

115
Q

what happens to the renal system in preg

A

eGFR goes up due to increase renal blood flow due to systemic vasodilation

-get reduced reabsorption of glucose in PCT so there is glycosuria

-get relaxation of smooth muscle so decrease in urine passage

116
Q

what is a galactocele

A

a cystic lesion in the breast which causes a milky discharge and normally occurs when a woman stops breast feeding

117
Q

causes for poor supply in breast feeding

A

maternal prolactin deficiency (Thyroid disorder, alcohol), mother perception, breast hypoplasia

118
Q

what is raynauds disease of the nipple

A

intermittent soap pain which is present during / immediately after feeds which causes blanching

119
Q

what are some issues with twin pregnancy

A

worse symptoms for mum (sickness, GORD), increased risk of preeclampsia, PPH, prematurity, poor growth, twin to twin transfusion

120
Q

when can vaginal delivery be attempted with twins

A

if diamniotic and if the first twin is head down

121
Q

what are some delivery points for twins

A

2 obstetricians / 2 midwives around
-offered/encourage to have epidural incase intervention needed
-CTG - with fetal scalp electrode attached to first baby

122
Q

dizygotic twins are always diamnitoic, dichorionic, what are the options for monozygotic twins?

A

can have their own sacs/placentas but can also share

123
Q

what happens in vasa praaevia

A

fetal blood vessels are not protected by the umbilical cord and run near the orifice

124
Q

Mx of vasa praaevia

A

C section at 34-36 weeks

125
Q

RF for vasa praaevia

A

IVF + multiple pregnancy

126
Q

why is UTI common in preg

A

relaxation of smooth muscle (ureteral dilation), immunocompromised state, compression by gravid uterus

127
Q

MX of UTIin preg

A

nitro for 7 days AND always send a urine culture and look for GBS
-in final trimester use amoxicillin / cefalexin

128
Q

after lifestyle measures, what’s firstline for dyspepsia in pregnancy

A

antaacids and alginates

129
Q

what is the blastocyst (embryology)

A

the trophoblast and the embryo blast in the second week with a cavity (blastocele)

130
Q

what happens to the blastocyst

A

the trophoblast becomes the syncytiotrophoblast and the cytoplast and the embryo blast becomes the epiblast and the hypoblast

131
Q

what happens in the third week of embryonic developing

A

gastrulation where the epiblast undergoes migration and invagination and becomes endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm

the hypoblast becomes the embryonic membranes

132
Q

what does the mesoderm become

A

connective tissue - cartilage / smooth muscle

133
Q

how do the villi of the placenta form

A

the primary villi form form the cytotrophoblast, the secondary villli = mesenchymal core and the tertiary villi occur when blood vessels fill the mesenchymal core

134
Q

when is placental development complete by

135
Q

anaemia limits in pregnancy

A

first trimester <110, second and third <105, PP<100

136
Q

consequences of anaemia in mum

A

tired, increased risk of permpartum blood loss, poor concentration

137
Q

consequences of anaemia in foetus

A

preterm delivery, LBW, increased anaemia in first 3 months

138
Q

preconception considerations for haemoglobinopathies

A

1) folic acid 5mg
2) worsening anaemia in preg
3) painful crisis
4) genetic counselling
5) check vaccination status
6) daily penicillin prophylaxis due to hyposplenism
7) risk of prematurity AND growth restriction
8) MX in haem/obstetric clinci

139
Q

when should uterus return to non pregnant size

140
Q

what hepatitis is likely to cause serious illness in preg

A

hep E (spread by feacal oral route, does NOT cause chronic illness or increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma)

141
Q

risks of obesity in preg

A

to mum: pre-eclampsia, GDM, VTE, problems in labour requiring intervention

to baby: more likely to be obese in life, more likely to be premature, big baby - complications for baby like nerve injuries

-need to take 5mg of folic acid
-need to have baby at a obstetric led hospital

142
Q

stepwise MX of PPH

A

1) manual uterine rub and bimanual compression
2) IV oxytocin or IV ergometrine
3) IM carboprost
4) rectal misprostol
5) surgical intervention such as balloon tamponade / uterine artery ligation and last –> hysterectomy

143
Q

where does toxoplasmosis come from

A

cat poo / undercooked meet –> causes chorioretinitis in eye and calcium deposits in brain

144
Q

if women has pre-existing diabetes, when should delivery be done

A

37-38+6weeks

145
Q

mx of pre-existing DM in preg

A

stop oral glycemic apart from metformin, start insulin, want BMI <27, manage in joint diabetes obstetrics clinic

146
Q

Tx is resp depression occurs due to magnesium sulphate

A

calcium gluconate (note must continue magnesium sulphate until 24 hours after the last seizure)

147
Q

apart from magnesium sulphate, whats another important TX for eclampsia

A

fluid restriction

148
Q

Kleihauertest is needed for any sensitisation event over what gestation? to see if any additional anti D is needed

149
Q

major RF for IUGR

+ minor

A

MAJOR
-pre-eclampsia
-kidney disease
-APS / SLE
-previous SGA or previous still birth
-cocaine use
-smoking

MINOR
low or high BMI
nulliparity

150
Q

complications of SGA

A

neonatal hypoglycaemia, iatrgoenic prematurity due to expediting labour, NEC, stillbnirth

151
Q

rhesus antibodies are what

A

IgG (these can cross the placenta)

152
Q

signs of haemolytic disease of the newborn

A

jaundice in first 24hr of life, hepatosplenomegaly, hydrops fetalis,