Obj 2.X

Question 1

Which of the following technologies combines the functionality of a firewall, malware scanner, and other security appliances into one device?

IPS
IDS
UTM
Syslog

Answer 1

The correct answer is UTM (Unified Threat Management). UTM devices combine multiple security functions, including firewall, malware scanning, intrusion detection, and prevention into one system. This makes it a versatile solution for managing various security threats through a single interface.

The other choices are incorrect because they serve different purposes. An IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) detects and blocks potential threats but does not include a full suite of security functions like a UTM. An IDS (Intrusion Detection System) monitors network traffic for suspicious activity but does not take action to stop threats or include other features like malware scanning. Syslog is a protocol for logging system messages and events but has no direct security features like firewalls or malware detection.

Question 2

Which type of wireless technology are OFDM, QAM, and QPSK examples of?

Spectrum
Modulation
RF interference
Frequency

Answer 2

The correct answer is Modulation. OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiplexing), QAM (Quadrature Amplitude Modulation), and QPSK (Quadrature Phase Shift Keying) are examples of modulation techniques used to encode data onto a carrier signal for transmission. Modulation allows the wireless signal to carry information over the airwaves.

The other choices are incorrect because they refer to different concepts. Spectrum refers to the range of frequencies used for wireless communication but not how the signal is modulated. RF interference is unwanted noise that disrupts wireless signals but isn’t related to the process of modulating a signal. Frequency refers to the specific part of the radio spectrum being used, but it doesn’t describe how the data is encoded onto the signal.

Question 3

Your company wants to create highly available datacenters. Which of the following will allow the company to continue maintaining an Internet presence at all sites if the WAN connection at their own site goes down?

OSPF
BGP
VRRP
Load balancer

Answer 3

The correct answer is BGP (Border Gateway Protocol). BGP is designed for routing between different networks, such as across the internet. It allows organizations to maintain connectivity even if one of their WAN links goes down by routing traffic through alternative paths to maintain internet presence at multiple data centers. This ensures high availability across different sites.

The other options are incorrect because they are either not suited for routing traffic across multiple data centers or don’t address WAN connection redundancy. OSPF is used for routing within a single organization’s internal network, but it isn’t designed for managing internet routing across WANs. VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol) provides redundancy for a default gateway within a network but does not manage external internet routing. A load balancer distributes traffic across servers for redundancy and scalability within a data center, but it doesn’t maintain internet connectivity if a WAN link fails.

Question 4

Dion Training is trying to connect two geographically dispersed offices using a VPN connection. You have been asked to configure their networks to allow VPN traffic into the network. Which device should you configure FIRST?

Firewall
Router
Modem
Switch

Answer 4

The correct answer is Firewall. The firewall should be configured first to allow VPN traffic into the network. Firewalls are responsible for monitoring and controlling incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. Configuring the firewall to permit the specific VPN protocols (such as IPSec or SSL) ensures that the VPN connection can be established securely.

The other choices are incorrect because they don’t address the initial need to allow VPN traffic. Router configuration is important for directing the VPN traffic, but if the firewall isn’t set up to allow that traffic, the connection will fail. Modem is not the primary device for handling VPN configurations; it provides internet connectivity. A switch is used for connecting devices within a local area network and does not manage traffic at the level needed for VPN connections.

Question 5

Which type of network device operates at layer 1 of the OSI model and requires connected devices to operate at half-duplex using CSMA/CD?

Switch
Hub
Router
Bridge

Answer 5

The correct answer is Hub. A hub operates at Layer 1 of the OSI model (the Physical layer) and simply forwards electrical signals to all connected devices without any intelligence for managing traffic. Because hubs cannot distinguish between multiple data streams, they require devices to operate in half-duplex mode and use CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) to manage collisions that occur when multiple devices attempt to send data at the same time.

The other options are incorrect because they operate at higher layers of the OSI model and do not require half-duplex communication. A switch operates at Layer 2 (Data Link layer) and can manage traffic using MAC addresses, allowing full-duplex communication. A router operates at Layer 3 (Network layer) and directs traffic between different networks. A bridge also operates at Layer 2 and is used to divide network segments but supports full-duplex communication.

Question 6

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 2.4 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps?

802.11a
802.11b
802.11ac
802.11n
802.11g
802.11ax

Answer 6

The correct answer is 802.11g. The 802.11g wireless standard operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and can achieve speeds of up to 54 Mbps. It was designed to be backward compatible with 802.11b and is widely used in many home and office networks.

The other options are incorrect because they operate on different frequency bands or have different speed capabilities. 802.11a operates on the 5 GHz band and has a maximum speed of 54 Mbps but is not compatible with 802.11b or g. 802.11ac operates in the 5 GHz band and supports much higher speeds, while 802.11n can operate on both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands and has higher potential speeds than 54 Mbps. 802.11ax (also known as Wi-Fi 6) improves upon 802.11ac with higher speeds and efficiency but also operates in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands.

Question 7

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps?

802.11ac
802.11n
802.11g
802.11b
802.11a
802.11ax

Answer 7

The correct answer is 802.11a. The 802.11a wireless standard operates in the 5 GHz frequency band and can reach speeds of up to 54 Mbps. It was one of the first standards to utilize the 5 GHz band, providing higher speeds and less interference compared to 2.4 GHz bands.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons. 802.11ac operates on the 5 GHz band as well, but it supports much higher speeds than 54 Mbps. 802.11n can operate on both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, and it can exceed 54 Mbps in terms of speed. 802.11g operates in the 2.4 GHz band, and 802.11b also operates in the 2.4 GHz band, both of which do not meet the criteria for the 5 GHz frequency. 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) operates on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands but also offers significantly higher speeds than 54 Mbps.

Question 8

Elizabeth was replacing a client’s security device that protects their screened subnet. The client has an application that allows external users to access the application remotely. After replacing the devices, the external users cannot connect remotely to the application anymore. Which of the following devices was MOST likely misconfigured and is now causing a problem?

DNS
DHCP
Content filter
Firewall

Answer 8

The correct answer is Firewall. Since the external users cannot connect to the application after the replacement of the security device, it’s likely that the new firewall has misconfigured rules or settings that are preventing access to the application. Firewalls control incoming and outgoing traffic based on pre-established rules, and any changes in configuration can lead to connectivity issues for remote users.

The other options are less likely to be the cause of the problem. DNS issues would typically manifest as a failure to resolve the application’s domain name, not as a direct connection failure once the domain is resolved. DHCP provides IP addresses to devices on the network, and unless there was a failure in assigning addresses, it wouldn’t directly affect the connectivity for external users accessing the application. A Content filter may block certain types of content or websites, but it wouldn’t typically prevent access to an application unless specifically configured to do so. In this scenario, the firewall is the most plausible source of the connectivity issue.

Question 9

A client has asked you to provide their local office with the BEST solution for a wireless network based on their requirements. The client has stated that their users will need a wireless network that provides a maximum of 54 Mbps of bandwidth and operates in the 2.4GHz frequency band. Which of the following wireless network types should you install to meet their needs?

802.11ac
802.11b
802.11a
802.11g

Answer 9

The correct answer is 802.11g. This wireless standard operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and supports speeds of up to 54 Mbps, which aligns perfectly with the client’s requirements.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons. 802.11ac operates primarily in the 5 GHz band and provides significantly higher speeds, which are not needed in this scenario. 802.11b also operates in the 2.4 GHz band, but it has a maximum speed of 11 Mbps, which does not meet the client’s bandwidth requirement. 802.11a operates in the 5 GHz band and supports speeds of up to 54 Mbps, but it does not fulfill the requirement of operating in the 2.4 GHz band. Thus, 802.11g is the most suitable choice for this wireless network installation.

Question 10

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 3.5 Gbps?

802.11g
802.11b
802.11a
802.11n
802.11ax
802.11ac

Answer 10

The correct answer is 802.11ac. This wireless standard operates in the 5 GHz frequency band and can achieve speeds of up to 3.5 Gbps under optimal conditions, making it suitable for high-bandwidth applications.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons. 802.11g operates in the 2.4 GHz band and reaches speeds up to 54 Mbps. 802.11b also operates in the 2.4 GHz band, with a maximum speed of 11 Mbps. 802.11a operates in the 5 GHz band but has a maximum speed of 54 Mbps, which is significantly lower than 802.11ac. 802.11n can operate in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, with speeds up to 600 Mbps, but it does not reach the higher speeds offered by 802.11ac. Therefore, 802.11ac is the correct choice for a wireless network that utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and achieves speeds up to 3.5 Gbps.

Question 11

Your company is experiencing slow network speeds of about 54Mbps on their wireless network. You have been asked to perform an assessment of the existing wireless network and recommend a solution. You have recommended that the company upgrade to an 802.11n or 802.11ac wireless infrastructure to obtain higher network speeds. Which of the following technologies allows an 802.11n or 802.11ac network to achieve a speed greater than 54 Mbps?

MIMO
WPA2
LWAPP
PoE

Answer 11

The correct answer is MIMO. Multiple Input Multiple Output (MIMO) technology allows 802.11n and 802.11ac networks to achieve significantly higher speeds than the older standards like 802.11g, which is capped at 54 Mbps. MIMO achieves this by using multiple antennas at both the transmitter and receiver ends, enabling simultaneous data streams and effectively increasing the data throughput.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons. WPA2 is a security protocol used to encrypt wireless data but does not impact the speed of the network. LWAPP (Lightweight Access Point Protocol) is used for managing wireless access points in a network but does not directly enhance the speed of the wireless connection. PoE (Power over Ethernet) provides power to devices like access points over Ethernet cables, but it also does not influence wireless speed. Therefore, MIMO is the key technology that enables higher speeds in 802.11n and 802.11ac networks.

Question 12

Your company is currently using a 5 GHz wireless security system, so your boss has asked you to install a 2.4 GHz wireless network to use for the company’s computer network to prevent interference. Which of the following can NOT be installed to provide a 2.4 GHz wireless network?

802.11b
802.11g
802.11ac
802.11n

Answer 12

The correct answer is 802.11ac. This wireless standard primarily operates in the 5 GHz frequency band, which means it cannot be used to create a 2.4 GHz wireless network.

The other options can be installed for a 2.4 GHz network. 802.11b and 802.11g both operate exclusively in the 2.4 GHz band, with 802.11b supporting speeds up to 11 Mbps and 802.11g supporting speeds up to 54 Mbps. 802.11n can operate in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, making it versatile for creating a 2.4 GHz network as well. Therefore, 802.11ac is the only option that cannot be installed for a 2.4 GHz wireless network.

Question 13

What is true concerning jumbo frames?

They are commonly used with DHCP
Their MTU size is less than 1500
They are commonly used on a SAN
They are commonly used with a NAS

Answer 13

The correct answer is they are commonly used on a SAN. Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames that have a larger maximum transmission unit (MTU) size than the standard 1500 bytes, typically ranging from 9000 bytes to 9216 bytes. This larger frame size is beneficial for reducing CPU overhead and improving network efficiency, especially in storage area networks (SANs) where large amounts of data are transferred.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons. Jumbo frames are not commonly associated with DHCP, as DHCP relies on standard frame sizes. The statement that their MTU size is less than 1500 is also incorrect since jumbo frames are defined by having an MTU size greater than 1500 bytes. While jumbo frames can be used with NAS (Network Attached Storage) systems, they are particularly emphasized in SAN environments due to the high data transfer rates and large block sizes typically involved in storage operations. Thus, the most accurate statement concerning jumbo frames is that they are commonly used on a SAN.

Question 14

Tamera just purchased a Wi-Fi-enabled Nest Thermostat for her home. She has hired you to install it, but she is worried about a hacker breaking into the thermostat since it is an IoT device. Which of the following is the BEST thing to do to mitigate Tamera’s security concerns? (Select TWO)

Configure the thermostat to use a segregated part of the network by installing it into a screened subnet
Enable two-factor authentication on the device’s website (if supported by the company)
Configure the thermostat to use the WEP encryption standard for additional confidentiality
Upgrade the firmware of the wireless access point to the latest version to improve the security of the network
Disable wireless connectivity to the thermostat to ensure a hacker cannot access it
Configure the thermostat to connect to the wireless network using WPA2 encryption and a long, strong password

Answer 14

The best actions to mitigate Tamera’s security concerns are to configure the thermostat to use a segregated part of the network by installing it into a screened subnet and to configure the thermostat to connect to the wireless network using WPA2 encryption and a long, strong password.

Configuring the thermostat to use a screened subnet (also called a separate VLAN) helps isolate the device from the main network, reducing the risk if the IoT device is compromised. Using WPA2 encryption with a strong password ensures that the connection between the thermostat and the network is secure, preventing unauthorized access.

For the exam, remember that securing IoT devices involves isolating them from critical network components and using strong, modern encryption like WPA2.

Question 15

The network administrator is troubleshooting the switchports for a file server with dual NICs. The file server needs to be configured for redundancy, and the dual NICs need to be combined for maximum throughput. What feature on the switch should the network administrator ensure is enabled for best results?

LACP
Spanning tree
BPDU
Load balancing

Answer 15

The network administrator should ensure that LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol) is enabled for best results.

LACP allows the network administrator to combine multiple physical NICs (Network Interface Card) into a single logical link, which provides both redundancy and increased throughput. This feature ensures that if one NIC fails, the other can still maintain the connection. It also enables traffic distribution across both NICs for better performance.

For the exam, it’s important to know that LACP is used for link aggregation to improve throughput and provide redundancy by combining multiple network interfaces into a single, logical link.

Question 16

An organization has hired you to upgrade its wired computer network. The network currently uses static routing for the internal network, but the organization wants to reconfigure it to use a dynamic routing protocol. The new dynamic routing protocol must support both IPv4 and VLSM. Based on the requirements provided, which of the following routing protocols should you enable and configure?

VRRP
OSPF
RIPv1
HSRP

Answer 16

The best routing protocol to enable and configure is OSPF (Open Shortest Path First).

OSPF is a dynamic routing protocol that supports both IPv4 and VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Masking), making it suitable for modern networks with subnetting requirements. OSPF is widely used for internal routing due to its efficiency and scalability. It also supports multiple areas and is a link-state protocol, which allows for more precise control over routing decisions.

For the exam, know that OSPF supports IPv4, VLSM, and is typically used in larger, more complex network environments. It is preferred over older protocols like RIPv1, which does not support VLSM.

Question 17

Max is a network technician who just terminated the ends on a new copper cable used between two legacy switches. When he connects the two switches using the cable, they fail to establish a connection. What is MOST likely the issue?

The cable is a straight-through cable
The cable has RJ-11 connectors instead of RJ-45
The cable has exceeded bend radius limitations
The cable is a crossover cable

Answer 17

The most likely issue is that the cable is a straight-through cable.

Legacy switches often require a crossover cable to connect directly to each other without using a hub or switch in between. A straight-through cable connects devices of different types, like a switch to a computer. However, for two switches to communicate directly, a crossover cable is typically used to ensure the correct transmission and reception pins are connected.

For the exam, remember that straight-through cables are used for different device types (e.g., PC to switch), while crossover cables are needed for connecting like devices (e.g., switch to switch, router to router).

Question 18

A network administrator needs to install a centrally located firewall that needs to block specific incoming and outgoing IP addresses without denying legitimate return traffic. Which type of firewall should the administrator install?

A stateful network-based firewall
A host-based stateless firewall
A stateless network-based firewall
A host-based stateful firewall

Answer 18

The correct answer is a stateful network-based firewall. This type of firewall is designed to monitor the state of active connections and can make decisions based on the context of the traffic, allowing it to block specific incoming and outgoing IP addresses while still permitting legitimate return traffic.

The other choices are incorrect for several reasons. A host-based stateless firewall does not track the state of connections and would not be able to differentiate between legitimate return traffic and unsolicited traffic, leading to potential issues with communication. A stateless network-based firewall also lacks the capability to maintain connection states, making it unable to properly manage return traffic. Finally, a host-based stateful firewall operates on individual devices rather than centrally, which would not meet the requirement for a centrally located solution.

Question 19

Which of the following IEEE specifications describes the use of network authentication?

802.1d
802.3ad
802.3af
802.1x

Answer 19

The correct answer is 802.1x. This IEEE specification describes network authentication, specifically how it provides port-based access control for both wired and wireless networks. It ensures that only authenticated devices can access the network.

The other choices are incorrect because they refer to different technologies. 802.1d is related to spanning tree protocol, which prevents loops in network switches. 802.3ad defines link aggregation, allowing the bundling of multiple network connections to increase throughput. 802.3af refers to Power over Ethernet (PoE), which enables network cables to carry electrical power along with data. None of these are directly related to network authentication.

Question 20

Which of the following encryption types was used by WPA to better secure wireless networks than WEP?

CCMP
AES
TKIP
IV

Answer 20

The correct answer is TKIP. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) was used by WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) to improve security over WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy). TKIP provided dynamic key generation, making it more secure than WEP’s static key usage.

The other options are incorrect. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) was used in WPA2, not WPA. CCMP is the encryption protocol that works with AES in WPA2. IV (Initialization Vector) is a value used in WEP, but it was vulnerable and part of what made WEP insecure.

Question 21

Max is a network technician who just terminated the ends on a new copper cable used between two legacy switches. When he connects the two switches using the cable, they fail to establish a connection. What is MOST likely the issue?

The cable is a crossover cable
The cable has RJ-11 connectors instead of RJ-45
The cable is a straight-through cable
The cable has exceeded bend radius limitations

Answer 21

The most likely issue is that the cable is a straight-through cable. Legacy switches often require crossover cables to connect to each other because they don’t have auto-MDIX, which automatically adjusts for straight-through versus crossover cable configurations. A straight-through cable connects similar devices in the same manner, so it wouldn’t work in this case.

RJ-11 connectors are used for phone lines, and Max likely used RJ-45 connectors for network connections. Bend radius limitations wouldn’t typically prevent a connection unless the cable was severely damaged. A crossover cable would actually be the correct choice in this scenario.

Question 22

You have been asked to connect three 802.11a devices to an 802.11g access point configured with WEP. The devices are within 20 feet of the access point, but they still cannot associate with the access point. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the devices not associating with the WAP?

Signal loss
Frequency mismatch
Interference
Mismatched encryption

Answer 22

Frequency mismatch

802.11a operates in the 5 GHz band, while 802.11g operates in the 2.4 GHz band. Therefore, 802.11a devices will be unable to communicate with 802.11b or 802.11g access points. Wireless networks utilize three different frequency bands: 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz, and 6 GHz. The 2.4 GHz frequency band is used by 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n. The 5 GHz frequency band is used by 802.11a, 802.11n, 802.11ac, and 802.11ax. The 6 GHz frequency band is used by Wi-Fi 6E under the 802.11ax standard.

Question 23

Dion Training has created a guest wireless network for students to use during class. This guest network is separated from the corporate network for security. Which of the following should be implemented to require the least amount of configuration for a student to access the Internet over the guest network?

Configure WEP with a pre-shared key
Configure the access point to 802.1x for authentication
Enable two-factor authentication on the student’s device
Enable SSID broadcast for the guest wireless network

Answer 23

To require the least amount of configuration for a student to access the Internet over the guest network, enabling SSID broadcast for the guest wireless network is the most suitable choice. By enabling SSID broadcast, students can easily find and connect to the guest network without needing any specific credentials or additional configuration steps. This approach provides a straightforward user experience, allowing students to join the network with just a few clicks.

Configuring WEP with a pre-shared key requires students to manually enter the key, which adds complexity. Setting up the access point for 802.1x authentication involves more extensive configuration and typically requires students to have credentials, making it less convenient. Enabling two-factor authentication would also introduce additional steps for the students, further complicating the process. Therefore, enabling SSID broadcast simplifies access while maintaining the necessary separation from the corporate network.

Question 24

What remediation strategies are the MOST effective in reducing the risk to an embedded ICS from a network-based compromise? (Select TWO)

Patching
Disabling unused services
NIDS
Segmentation

Answer 24

Segmentation is the best method to reduce the risk to an embedded ICS system from a network-based compromise. Additionally, you could disable unused services to reduce the footprint of the embedded ICS.

Many of these embedded ICS systems have a large number of default services running. So, by disabling the unused services, we can better secure these devices. By segmenting the devices off the main portion of the network, we can also better protect them. A NIDS might detect an attack or compromise, but it would not reduce the risk of the attack succeeding since it can only detect it. Patching is difficult for embedded ICS devices since they usually rely on customized software applications that rarely provide updates.

Question 25

Which of the following IEEE specifications describes the use of VLANs?

802.3af
802.1d
802.1q
802.1x

Answer 25

The IEEE specification that describes the use of VLANs is 802.1q. This standard defines the tagging of Ethernet frames to support virtual LANs (VLANs), allowing multiple VLANs to coexist on the same physical network while keeping their traffic separate.

The other options are incorrect because 802.3af pertains to Power over Ethernet (PoE), 802.1d relates to spanning tree protocol (STP) for network redundancy, and 802.1x is focused on port-based network access control for authentication. Thus, 802.1q is specifically the standard that facilitates VLAN implementation in networks.

Question 26

Which of the following network devices is used to separate broadcast domains?

Bridge
Hub
Router
Switch

Answer 26

The correct answer is Router. Routers are designed to separate broadcast domains by forwarding packets between different networks. Each interface on a router can connect to a different network, effectively segmenting traffic and preventing broadcast traffic from one network from reaching another.

The other options are not correct. Bridges and switches operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model and can separate collision domains but do not inherently separate broadcast domains. A hub is a Layer 1 device that broadcasts incoming packets to all ports, meaning it does not separate either collision or broadcast domains.

Question 27

You have been asked by your supervisor, Tamera, to ensure that you enable 802.3af on a managed switch. Which of the following features does she want you to enable?

Port bonding
Trunking
VLAN
PoE

Answer 27

The correct answer is PoE (Power over Ethernet).

Enabling 802.3af on a managed switch refers to the implementation of PoE, which allows the switch to deliver power over the Ethernet cables to devices such as IP phones, wireless access points, and security cameras. This feature eliminates the need for separate power supplies for these devices, simplifying installation and reducing cable clutter.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

• Port bonding refers to combining multiple network connections to increase bandwidth and provide redundancy, but it does not involve power delivery.
• Trunking is a technique used in networking to allow multiple VLANs to be carried over a single physical connection between switches, which is unrelated to providing power.
• VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a method to segment network traffic for improved management and security but does not pertain to powering devices over the network.

Question 28

The network install is failing redundancy testing at the MDF. The traffic being transported is a mixture of multicast and unicast signals. Which of the following devices would BEST handle the rerouting caused by the disruption of service?

Smart hub
Proxy server
Layer 2 switch
Layer 3 switch

Answer 28

The correct answer is Layer 3 switch.

A Layer 3 switch is equipped to handle both routing and switching functions, making it ideal for managing and rerouting traffic in a network that experiences disruptions. It operates at the network layer of the OSI model, allowing it to make intelligent forwarding decisions based on IP addresses. This capability is crucial for effectively managing multicast and unicast traffic, especially in scenarios requiring redundancy and failover support.

The other options are less suitable for this scenario for the following reasons:

• Smart hub is a basic network device that cannot perform routing functions. It typically operates at Layer 1 and lacks the intelligence to manage traffic rerouting during disruptions.
• Proxy server primarily serves as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers. It does not manage network traffic routing and is not designed for redundancy in the same manner as a Layer 3 switch.
• Layer 2 switch operates at the data link layer and is effective for forwarding frames based on MAC addresses but cannot route traffic between different IP subnets or handle the complexities of redundancy testing effectively.

Question 29

Which of the following IEEE specifications describes the use of network authentication?

802.3af
802.3ad
802.1x
802.1d

Answer 29

1. The correct answer is 802.1x. IEEE 802.1x is the standard that provides network authentication through port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It ensures that devices attempting to connect to the network are properly authenticated before being granted access.
2. 802.3af is incorrect because it defines Power over Ethernet (PoE), which delivers power over network cables. 802.3ad refers to link aggregation, which combines multiple network connections for increased bandwidth and redundancy. 802.1d defines Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), which prevents network loops, not network authentication.

Question 30

Which type of network device operates at layer 2 of the OSI model and allows connected devices to operate at full-duplex since each port is in their own collision domain?

Switch
Router
Hub
Access point

Answer 30

1. The correct answer is Switch. A switch operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model (the Data Link layer) and allows connected devices to operate in full-duplex mode. Each port on a switch is in its own collision domain, meaning data collisions are minimized, and devices can communicate simultaneously.
2. Router is incorrect because routers operate at Layer 3 (the Network layer) and are responsible for routing traffic between different networks. Hub is incorrect because hubs operate at Layer 1 (the Physical layer), and all devices connected to a hub share a single collision domain, making full-duplex communication impossible. Access point is incorrect because access points typically operate at Layer 2 but are primarily used for wireless communication, not for handling multiple collision domains per port.

Question 31

A network architect is designing a highly redundant network with a distance vector routing protocol to prevent routing loops. The architect wants to configure the routers to advertise failed routes with the addition of an infinite metric. What should the architect configure to achieve this?

Route poisoning
Split horizon
Spanning tree
Hold down timers

Answer 31

1. The correct answer is Route poisoning. Route poisoning is a technique used in distance vector routing protocols to quickly inform other routers about a failed route by advertising it with an infinite metric (often represented as 16 in RIP). This helps prevent routing loops by signaling to neighboring routers that the route is no longer valid.
2. Split horizon is a technique that prevents a router from advertising a route back out the same interface from which it was learned, but it does not involve the use of an infinite metric for failed routes. Spanning tree is a protocol used to prevent loops in network topologies, particularly in Ethernet networks, but it is not directly related to routing protocols. Hold down timers are used to control how long a router holds onto a route before considering it invalid, but they do not directly advertise a failed route with an infinite metric.

Question 32

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency bands and reaches speeds of 108 Mbps to 600 Mbps?

802.11n
802.11g
802.11b
802.11ac
802.11ax

Answer 32

1. The correct answer is 802.11n. This wireless standard operates on both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands and can achieve speeds ranging from 108 Mbps to 600 Mbps, depending on the configuration and conditions of the network.
2. 802.11g operates exclusively on the 2.4 GHz band and has a maximum speed of 54 Mbps. 802.11b also operates in the 2.4 GHz band, with speeds up to 11 Mbps. 802.11ac operates primarily on the 5 GHz band and can achieve speeds higher than 600 Mbps, but it does not include the lower speed range of 108 Mbps. 802.11ax, known as Wi-Fi 6, can reach even higher speeds and efficiency, but the question specifically asks for the range provided by 802.11n.

Question 33

A technician needs to limit the amount of broadcast traffic on a network and allow different segments to communicate. Which of the following should the technician install to satisfy this requirement?

Add a bridge between two switches
Add a router and enable OSPF
Add a firewall and implement proper ACL
Add a multilayer switch and create a VLAN

Answer 33

1. The correct answer is Add a multilayer switch and create a VLAN. A multilayer switch can segment the network into multiple Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs), which reduces broadcast traffic by limiting it to each VLAN while still allowing communication between different segments through routing capabilities.
2. Adding a bridge between two switches would not effectively limit broadcast traffic as bridges forward all traffic, including broadcasts. Adding a router and enabling OSPF would help in routing traffic between different segments, but it does not directly create the segmentation needed to reduce broadcast traffic. Adding a firewall and implementing proper ACL would secure and control traffic but wouldn’t specifically address the issue of broadcast traffic and segment communication as effectively as using a multilayer switch and VLANs.

Question 34

You have configured your network into multiple segments by creating multiple broadcast domains. Which of the following devices should you use to allow the different network segments to communicate with each other?

Switch
Router
Bridge
Hub

Answer 34

1. The correct answer is Router. A router is designed to connect different broadcast domains and allows network segments to communicate with each other by routing packets between them.
2. Switches operate at Layer 2 and primarily work within a single broadcast domain unless VLANs are implemented. They do not route traffic between different broadcast domains. Bridges can connect multiple network segments but are limited in functionality compared to routers. They also operate at Layer 2 and do not manage IP routing. Hubs are simple Layer 1 devices that do not perform any filtering or segmenting and simply forward all incoming traffic to all ports, making them ineffective for managing broadcast domains.

Question 35

A college needs to provide wireless connectivity in a cafeteria with a minimal number of WAPs. What type of antenna will provide the BEST coverage?

High gain omnidirectional antenna
High gain directional antenna
Low gain omnidirectional antenna
Low gain directional antenna

Answer 35

1. The correct answer is High gain omnidirectional antenna. This type of antenna provides a wide coverage area, making it ideal for environments like a cafeteria where users may be scattered throughout the space. The high gain aspect allows for stronger signals over greater distances, ensuring that the wireless connectivity reaches as many users as possible.
2. A High gain directional antenna focuses the signal in a specific direction, which would be less effective in a cafeteria setting where coverage needs to be provided in multiple directions simultaneously. Low gain omnidirectional antennas provide coverage but with weaker signals compared to high gain options, limiting the overall coverage area. Similarly, low gain directional antennas would also focus the signal in one direction and would not be suitable for providing widespread coverage in a space like a cafeteria.

Question 36

What happens when convergence on a routed network occurs?

All routers use route summarization
All routers are using hop count as the metric
All routers learn the route to all connected networks
All routers have the same routing table

Answer 36

All routers learn the route to all connected networks

Routers exchange routing topology information with each other by using a routing protocol. When all routers have exchanged routing information with all other routers within a network, the routers have converged. In other words: In a converged network, all routers “agree” on what the network topology looks like.

Question 37

Your co-worker has just installed an unmanaged 24-port switch. He is concerned with the amount of broadcast traffic that may exist when using this device. How many broadcast domains are created when using this single 24-port switch?

0
1
24
2

Answer 37

1. The correct answer is 1. An unmanaged switch creates a single broadcast domain regardless of the number of ports it has. This means that any broadcast sent by a device connected to one port will be received by all other devices connected to the same switch.
2. The option 0 is incorrect because a switch does create at least one broadcast domain. 24 is also incorrect, as each port does not create an individual broadcast domain in an unmanaged switch. The option 2 is not applicable since a single switch will not create multiple broadcast domains unless VLANs are configured, which is not the case with an unmanaged switch.

Question 38

Which of the following network devices is used to separate collision domains?

Access point
Hub
Media converter
Bridge

Answer 38

1. The correct answer is Bridge. A bridge is used to separate collision domains by filtering traffic between different network segments. Each segment connected through a bridge can operate independently, reducing the chances of collisions.
2. The option Access point is incorrect because it primarily operates at the data link layer and connects wireless clients to a wired network but does not inherently separate collision domains. Hub is incorrect as it does not separate collision domains; all ports on a hub are in the same collision domain, which increases the likelihood of collisions. Media converter is also incorrect since its primary function is to connect different media types, such as converting from copper to fiber, without addressing collision domains directly.

Question 39

What access control model will a network switch utilize if it requires multilayer switches to use authentication via RADIUS/TACACS+?

802.3af
802.1q
802.11ac
802.1x

Answer 39

1. The correct answer is 802.1x. This is an access control model that allows for port-based network access control. It enables devices to authenticate through a RADIUS or TACACS+ server before granting access to the network, making it a critical security feature for multilayer switches.
2. The option 802.3af is incorrect as it refers to Power over Ethernet (PoE), which provides electrical power along with data over Ethernet cables but does not pertain to authentication. 802.1q is also incorrect because it deals with VLAN tagging in Ethernet frames, facilitating network segmentation rather than access control. 802.11ac is incorrect as it is a Wi-Fi standard that focuses on wireless networking speeds and capabilities, without direct relevance to access control mechanisms like RADIUS or TACACS+.

Question 40

Which of the following wireless technologies use MIMO on non-overlapping channels to increase the wireless network’s bandwidth?

802.11n
802.11b
802.11a
802.11g

Answer 40

The correct answer is 802.11n. This wireless standard employs Multiple Input Multiple Output (MIMO) technology, which utilizes multiple antennas at both the transmitter and receiver to improve data throughput and range. By using MIMO on non-overlapping channels, 802.11n can significantly increase bandwidth compared to previous standards.

The other options are incorrect because 802.11b, 802.11a, and 802.11g do not utilize MIMO technology. While 802.11g can operate in the same frequency band as 802.11b and offers higher data rates, it still lacks MIMO capabilities. 802.11a, while operating on a different frequency (5 GHz) than 802.11b and 802.11g, also does not support MIMO. Thus, only 802.11n is designed to take advantage of MIMO technology to enhance network performance.

Question 41

You are installing a Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) network consisting of a router with 2 ports, a switch with 8 ports, and a hub with 4 ports. The router has one port connected to a cable modem and one port connected to switch port #1. The other 6 ports on the switch each have a desktop computer connected to them. The hub’s first port is connected to switch port #2. Based on the description provided, how many collision domains exist in this network?

9
11
8
3

Answer 41

Based on the description provided, there are 9 collision domains. Each port on the router is a collision domain (2), each port on the switch is a collision domain (8), and all of the ports on the hub make up a single collision domain (1). But, since one of the ports on the router is connected to one of the switch ports, they are in the same collision domain (-1). Similarly, the hub and the switch share a common collision domain connected over the switch port (-1). This gives us 9 collision domains total: the 8 ports on the switch and the 1 port on the route that is used by the cable modem.

Question 42

Which of the following IEEE specifications describes the use of the link aggregation control protocol (LACP)?

802.1x
802.3af
802.3ad
802.1d

Answer 42

The correct answer is 802.3ad. This specification defines the Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP), which allows multiple physical network links to be combined into a single logical link. This aggregation improves bandwidth and provides redundancy in case one of the links fails.

The other options are incorrect because they refer to different protocols and standards. IEEE 802.1x is used for port-based network access control, 802.3af specifies Power over Ethernet (PoE), and 802.1d pertains to the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), which helps prevent loops in network topologies. None of these specifications address link aggregation directly as 802.3ad does.

Question 43

A small law office has a network with three switches (8 ports), one hub (4 ports), and one router (2 ports). Switch 1 (switch port 8) is connected to an interface port (FastEthernet0/0) on the router. Switch 2 (switch port 8) and switch 3 (switch port 8) are connected to Switch 1 (switch ports 1 and 2). The hub has three computers plugged into it on ports 1, 2, and 3. The fourth port on the hub is connected to the router’s other interface port (FastEthernet0/1). Based on the configuration described here, how many broadcast domains are there within this network?

2
16
28
5
1

Answer 43

The correct answer is 2. In this network configuration, there are two separate broadcast domains. One broadcast domain is created by the switch that connects to the router (Switch 1) and the devices connected to it, while the other broadcast domain is formed by the hub and the router’s other interface (FastEthernet0/1) since a hub does not segment traffic into separate broadcast domains.

The other options are incorrect because they overestimate the number of broadcast domains. Each switch creates its own broadcast domain, but since all switches are interconnected and operate within the same VLAN and there is a router that divides the network, we only have two broadcast domains in total.

Question 44

A firewall technician at Dion Training configures a firewall to allow HTTP traffic as follows:

Source IP Zone Dest IP Zone Port Action
Any Untrust Any DMZ 80 Allow

Dion Training is afraid that an attacker might try to send other types of network traffic over port 80 to bypass their security policies. Which of the following should they implement to prevent unauthorized traffic from entering through the firewall?

Stateful packet inspection
Stateless packet inspection
Application-aware firewall
HTTPS (SSL/TLS)

Answer 44

The correct answer is Application-aware firewall. An application-aware firewall, also known as a next-generation firewall, can inspect and filter traffic based on the application layer protocols and not just the port numbers. This means it can detect and block unwanted traffic or exploits that may be trying to use port 80 (typically HTTP) for unauthorized access or bypassing security measures.

Stateful packet inspection is less effective in this case because while it keeps track of the state of active connections, it does not analyze the payload of the traffic to identify whether it conforms to the expected HTTP traffic. Stateless packet inspection would simply look at the packet headers without maintaining any context of the connection or the type of traffic being sent, which is inadequate for preventing more sophisticated attacks. HTTPS (SSL/TLS) would encrypt the traffic, but it does not address the underlying concern of unauthorized traffic entering through the firewall on port 80; instead, it would simply change the nature of the traffic without improving security in this context.

Question 45

A network technician is asked to redesign an Ethernet network before some new monitoring software is added to each network’s workstation. The new software will broadcast statistics from each host to a monitoring server for each of the company’s five departments. The added network traffic is a concern of management that must be addressed. How should the technician design the new network?

Increase the number of switches on the network to reduce broadcast messages
Increase the collision domains to compensate for the added broadcast messages
Place each department in a separate VLAN to increase broadcast domains
Add a router and create a separate segment for all the monitored hosts

Answer 45

The correct answer is to place each department in a separate VLAN to increase broadcast domains. By segmenting the network into VLANs, each department can operate on its own broadcast domain. This means that broadcast messages from one department will not be forwarded to the other departments, effectively reducing the overall broadcast traffic on the network. This design enhances network performance and allows for better management of broadcast traffic generated by the monitoring software.

Increasing the number of switches would not significantly reduce broadcast messages, as switches still forward broadcasts to all ports within the same VLAN. Increasing collision domains alone would not help address the concern of broadcast traffic either, since collision domains relate more to the control of packet collisions rather than broadcast traffic. Adding a router to create a separate segment for all monitored hosts could reduce broadcast traffic but would be less efficient than using VLANs, as routers do not handle broadcasts the same way switches do, potentially complicating network management and requiring more resources. Thus, using VLANs is the most effective method to manage and contain broadcast traffic in this scenario.

Question 46

Which of the following wireless technologies use MU-MIMO on non-overlapping channels to increase the wireless network’s bandwidth?

802.11ac
802.11b
802.11g
802.11n

Answer 46

The correct answer is 802.11ac. This wireless standard uses Multi-User Multiple Input Multiple Output (MU-MIMO) technology, allowing multiple devices to communicate with the access point simultaneously on different streams. This capability helps to increase overall network efficiency and bandwidth, particularly in environments with many users.

802.11n also supports MIMO but does not include MU-MIMO, which is a feature that enhances 802.11ac. On the other hand, 802.11b and 802.11g do not support MIMO or MU-MIMO technology, as they are older standards that rely on different methods for communication and do not provide the same level of performance and efficiency as 802.11ac. Therefore, only 802.11ac utilizes MU-MIMO to maximize bandwidth on non-overlapping channels.

Question 47

Which cellular technology is comprised of LTE and LTE-A to provide higher data speeds than previous cellular data protocols?

3G
WMN
5G
4G

Answer 47

The correct answer is 4G. This cellular technology includes Long-Term Evolution (LTE) and LTE-Advanced (LTE-A), both of which provide significantly higher data speeds and improved performance compared to earlier cellular data protocols like 3G. 4G technology is designed to handle more data traffic and offer enhanced mobile broadband capabilities, making it suitable for high-definition video streaming, gaming, and other data-intensive applications.

3G refers to the third generation of mobile telecommunications technology, which precedes 4G and offers lower data speeds. WMN (Wireless Mesh Network) is not a cellular technology but rather a network topology used for wireless communication. 5G is the next generation of cellular technology beyond 4G, offering even faster speeds and lower latency, but it is distinct from 4G itself.

Question 48

You are scanning a target as part of a penetration test. You discovered that the network uses Snort configured as a network-based IDS. Which of the following occurs when an alert rule has been matched in Snort during your scan?

The IDS will send an alert, stop checking the rest of the rules, and allow the packet to continue its journey
The source IP address will be blocked and its connection with the network terminated
The packet matching the rule will be dropped and the IDS will continue scanning new packets
The entire packet will be evaluated until all of the IDS alert rules have been checked and the packet is allowed to continue its journey

Answer 48

The correct answer is that the entire packet will be evaluated until all of the IDS alert rules have been checked and the packet is allowed to continue its journey. In Snort, when an alert rule matches, the IDS examines the packet against all configured rules to determine if it should generate an alert. After evaluating all rules, the packet is allowed to continue to its destination unless it is explicitly dropped or modified by additional rules or configurations.

The other options are incorrect because Snort does not automatically block source IP addresses or terminate connections solely based on an alert. Snort is primarily an intrusion detection system (IDS), which means it focuses on monitoring and alerting rather than actively blocking packets. If it were in intrusion prevention mode (IPS), it might drop packets based on configured rules, but the basic operation as an IDS involves examining all rules first and then allowing packets to pass.

Question 49

A small law office has a network with three switches (8 ports), one hub (4 ports), and one router (2 ports). Switch 1 (switch port 8) is connected to an interface port (FastEthernet0/0) on the router. Switch 2 (switch port 8) and switch 3 (switch port 8) are connected to Switch 1 (switch ports 1 and 2). The hub has three computers plugged into it on ports 1, 2, and 3. The fourth port on the hub is connected to the router’s other interface port (FastEthernet0/1). Based on the configuration described here, how many collision domains are there within this network?

1
4
2
8

Answer 49

The correct answer is 4 collision domains. In the described network setup, each switch and the router create their own collision domains. The switches operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model and provide separate collision domains for each port, which helps to prevent collisions among connected devices. The router also creates a separate collision domain for each of its ports.

Here’s the breakdown:

• Each of the three switches has 8 ports, contributing three collision domains (one for each switch).
• The router has two ports, contributing two additional collision domains, one for each of its interfaces.

However, since the hub does not separate collision domains (it operates at Layer 1), the computers connected to the hub share the same collision domain. Therefore, in total, you have three collision domains from the switches and one from the hub (which is shared), plus the two from the router. Thus, this results in four distinct collision domains.

Question 50

Sahra connects a pair of switches using redundant links. When she checks the link status of the two ports, one of them is not active. She changes the inactive link to another switchport, but the second link still remains inactive. What MOST likely is causing the second link to become disabled?

Port mirroring
IGRP routing
Spanning tree
SSID mismatch

Answer 50

The correct answer is Spanning Tree. In a network with redundant links, the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is typically used to prevent loops by placing one or more of the links in a blocking state. When Sahra connects the pair of switches, STP evaluates the topology and determines which links should be active and which should be blocked to prevent loops in the network.

When she changes the inactive link to another switchport and it remains inactive, it’s likely that STP is still blocking that port as part of its loop prevention mechanism. This behavior ensures that there is only one active path between any two switches, allowing for redundancy without causing broadcast storms.

The other options are incorrect because port mirroring would not affect link status, IGRP (Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) is related to routing and not directly to link status, and SSID mismatch pertains to wireless networks, which does not apply to switch connections.