OBGYN quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main cause for late bleeding in pregnancy?

A

Placenta previa

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2
Q

pregnant patient presents in the 2nd trimester with painless vaginal bleeding, specifically bright red blood in large volumes. What is on the top of your differential?

A

placenta previa

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3
Q

what is the greatest morbidity related to prematurity?

A

placenta previa

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4
Q

when is placenta previa most common?

A

2nd trimester

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5
Q

what is the term used to describe placental migration away from a C-section scar and invades deeper into maternal tissue?

A

Accreta

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6
Q

What is the term used to describe placental invasion into myometrium of the uterus; reaching to the outer serosa but not penetrating it?

A

Increta

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7
Q

Term for invasion of placenta transmurally through uterus and into bowel, causing perforation?

A

percreta

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8
Q

what is the diagnostic test of placenta previa?

A

Transvaginal US - to localize and assess the placenta

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9
Q

Management for a placenta previa with NO BLEEDING?

A

expectant management (no intercourse and no digital exams)

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10
Q

management for palcenta previa with BLEEDING

A

get blood type (Rh), may need tocolysis/steroids/amniocentesis/transfer

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11
Q

How long is a patient with placenta previa monitored before discharge?

A

72 hours of inpatient observation

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12
Q

what is the condition called where the placenta has separated or abruptly pulled away/

A

placental abruption

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13
Q

what would a MILD placental abruption look like?

A

unnoticed during pregnancy, seen when placenta is delivered (clot behind the placenta)

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14
Q

what would a MODERATE placental abruption look like?

A

SYMPTOMATIC (acute PAIN!), tender abdomen

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15
Q

what would a SEVERE placental abruption look like?

A

fetal demise w/ or without coagulopathy

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16
Q

what would the symptoms be for placental abruption?

A

ACUTE PAIN due to uterine distention from bleeding

pain varies from mild cramping to SEVERE cramping and back pain

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17
Q

True or false: in placental abruption, the pain is proportionate to the amount of blood lost

A

FALSE

pain is NOT proportionate to amount of blood loss

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18
Q

which imaging test could you do to assess placental abruption, and what would you see?

A

Transvaginal ultrasound -
retroplacental echolucency,
abnormal thickening of placenta
torn placental edge

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19
Q

Treatment placental abruption?

A

operative or vaginal delivery (if fetal demise, deliver vaginally)

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20
Q

Uterine rupture is MOST COMMONLY associated with a history of _____

A

previous c-section

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21
Q

other than hx previous c-section, what are the risk factors for uterine rupture?

A

inappropriate oxytocin use
trophoblastic neoplasia
uterine anatomical anomaly

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22
Q

What happens to the fetal heart rate in a patient with uterine rupture?

A

Sudden PLUMMET of fetal HR

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23
Q

What is “stair step”, and where is it seen?

A

decrease or cessation of contractions, seen in uterine rupture

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24
Q

What is the treatment for asymptomatic uterine rupture?

A

expectant management

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25
Q

what is the treatment for SYMPTOMATIC uterine rupture?

A

emergent C-section in UNDER 15 minutes

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26
Q

what is the timeframe that a c-section in a uterine rupture needs to be done under?

A

15 minutes!!!

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27
Q

Can someone with a uterine rupture have another successful pregnancy later on?

A

No - uterus won’t handle it. HYSTERECTOMY is usually performed

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28
Q

What is the condition called when fetal vessels run in separate membranes of the placenta, and lobes alternate between alive and dead?

A

Vasa previa

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29
Q

what is the treatment for vasa previa?

A

Immediate C-section

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30
Q

how much cardiac output does the uterus receive?

A

20-30% CO

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31
Q

True or false: aortocaval compression causes 30% of cardiac output to be sequestered, causing signs of hypovolemia to be masked.

A

TRUE

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32
Q

What do the letters in CABD for basic life support in pregnant women stand for?

A

C - circulation
A- airway
B-breathing
D - defibrillator

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33
Q

what side do you roll a mother onto while performing CPR?

A

LEFT - if can’t roll the patient, try and manually pull the uterus to the left to get pressure off the IVC in abdomen

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34
Q

mother is deceased after how many minutes of CPR?

A

4 minutes

–> you now have 2 minutes to get baby out

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35
Q

what are some signs that a patient may be experiencing an amniotic fluid embolism?

A

restlessness, n/v, respiratory distress, seizures, pallor, diaphoresis, sense of impending doom

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36
Q

while monitoring a pregnant patient post-car accident, how long to monitor if they experience <6 contractions/hr

A

monitor 4-6 hours then D/C if stable

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37
Q

while monitoring a patient post-car accident, how long to keep them if they have >6 contractions/hr

A

monitor overnight, then D/C

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38
Q

postpartum hemorrhage is defined as how much blood loss?

A

> 500 mL

also look for signs of hypovolemia

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39
Q

what do you give a patient who is experiencing post-partum hemorrhage?

A

oxytocin!

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40
Q

what nonpharmacological things can you do for a patient who is having post-partum hemorrhage?

A

continuous cord traction

uterine massage

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41
Q

What are the 4 T’s of postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Tone
Trauma
Tissue
Thrombin

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42
Q

If the T(one) regarding assessment of postpartum hemorrhage is a soft, boggy uterus, what actions do you take next?

A

give oxytocin, then carboprost, then misoprostol, then methylergonovine

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43
Q

What might the “TISSUE” (4 T’s) mean regarding post-partum hemorrhage

A

retained placenta - inspect, explore uterus and remove the placenta. Then curretage

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44
Q

What are the 4 medications used in post-partum hemorrhage, in order!

A

Oxytocin
Carboprost
Misoprostol
Methylergonovine

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45
Q

What are the 3 categories of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy?

A

Chronic HTN
Gestational HTN
Preeclampsia-eclampsia

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46
Q

what is chronic hypertension in pregnancy, and how do you manage it?

A

hypertension present BEFORE pregnant; continue to treat it throughout

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47
Q

Is there proteinuria in chronic or gestational hypertension?

A

NO

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48
Q

What 3 classes of pre-eclampsia?

A

Preeclampsia
Eclampsia
HELLP syndrome

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49
Q

is there proteinuria in preeclampsia?

A

YES

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50
Q

True or false: preeclampsia is a multi-system disorder including the eyes, lungs, liver, blood, CNS, pancreas, kidneys

A

TRUE

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51
Q

What is diagnostic of preeclampsia?

A

NEW onset high BP + Proteinuria

2 readings >140/90 or 1 reading >160/110

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52
Q

What level of proteinuria must be present to diagnose preeclampsia/eclampsia

A

dip stick of >1+

300 mg/24 hours

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53
Q

diagnosing preeclampsia WITHOUT proteinuria includes a platelet count of ______, and transaminases _____ normal level

A

platelets <100,000

AST/ALT 2x normal limit

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54
Q

Treatment of preeclampsia WITHOUT severe features

A

expectant management if <37 weeks

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55
Q

treatment of preeclampsia WITH severe features

A

admit, prevent seizures, lower BP to prevent cerebral hemorrhage, expedite delivery

56
Q

what do you give mother as the preferred anticonvulsant to protect her from seizures

A

Mg sulfate

57
Q

Is it possible to give too much Mg to a mother?

A

yes - leads to paralysis and cardiac arrest

58
Q

Which type of preeclampsia pictures gets Mg?

A

Preeclampsia w/ severe features

eclampsia

59
Q

What is the antidote for Mg?

A

calcium gluconate 1 g over 3 minutes

60
Q

What are the 3 meds used in lowering severe high BP during pregnancy

A

Lebatolol
Nifedipine
Hydralazine

61
Q

Eclampsia is defined as a patient who has preeclampsia and develop ____

62
Q

is it possible to have eclampsia AFTER baby delivers

A

YES - greatest risk continues 24 hours after delivery!

63
Q

What 3 factors define HELLP syndrome?

A

H - hemolysis
EL - elevated liver enzymes
LP - low platelets

64
Q

True or false: eclampsia usually happens during labor

A

FALSE - commonly happens postpartum

65
Q

Treatment of HELLP

A

monitor BP, continue Mg for 24 hours until stable

66
Q

This disorder looks very similar to preeclampsia (hypoglycemia, elevated liver enzymes, prolonged PTT), but there is NO high blood pressure. What is the disorder?

A

Acute fatty liver

67
Q

This disorder presents with the usual late pregnancy symptoms (edema, dyspnea, fatigue), but can actually be a cause of Heart failure

A

peripartum cardiomyopathy

68
Q

diagnosis of peripartum cardiomyopathy?

69
Q

symptoms of peripartum cardiomyopathy

A

edema, fatigue, dyspnea

70
Q

Patient presents with unilateral calf pain, which measures 2 cm greater than the other side. What is your concern?

71
Q

which leg is most likely to develop a DVT?

A

LEFT (88% more likely)

72
Q

treatment of DVT in pregnancy

A

LMWH

after delivery, can go back to warfarin/etc.

73
Q

Steroids during preterm labor only work during which weeks of pregnancy?

A

26-34 weeks, otherwise using them has no benefit

74
Q

what is the BISHOP score used for?

A

labor management: assess cervix for ability/risks of vaginal delivery.

75
Q

What infection is present if pH < 4.5, no odor, cheesy discharge

A

Yeast vaginitis

76
Q

Treatment yeast vaginitis

A

Topical “azole”

Fluconazole ORAL

77
Q

What do you use to diagnose bacterial vaginitis

A

AMSEL criteria

78
Q

What are the 4 characteristics of the amsel criteria (bacterial vaginitis)

A
  • thin homogenous discharge
  • positive sniff test (strong fishy smell)
  • clue cells (adherent to cervical squamous cell)
  • pH > 4.5
79
Q

Is pH > 4.5 in yeast or bacterial vaginitis?

80
Q

Treatment BV

A

Metronidazole PO

81
Q

PROFUSE thin discharge, no smell, no symptoms

A

Trichomonas

82
Q

What is a hallmark symptom of trichomonas?

A

Strawberry cervix

Cervicitis, but categorized as vaginitis

83
Q

Treatment Trich

A

Metronidazole P.O.

84
Q

Do you report trich to MDH?

85
Q

Treatment for herpes

A

Acyclovir

It’s a chronic condition

86
Q

What do the ulcers of HSV look like?

A

White center red ring

87
Q

Primary stage of syphilis ulcer characteristics

A

Red center white ring

Secondary stage is sores on hands

88
Q

Difference between herpes and syphilis ulcers

A

Herpes has many ulcers while syphilis usually has one or 2 chancroid ulcers

89
Q

Treponema pallium causes what STI

A

Syphilis

Chronic and systemic

90
Q

Syphilis treatment

A

Penicillin or doxycycline

91
Q

Papulosquamous eruption is found when and where?

A

Secondary stage of syphilis- it is the extragenital sores

92
Q

What is the most common cause of mucopurulent cervicitis?

93
Q

Who are we required to screen for chlamydiea?

A

All sexually active females under 24 years

94
Q

What might a patient with chlamydia present with?

A

Commonly asymptomatic; mucopurulent cervical discharge and cervical motion tenderness

95
Q

Treatment chlamydia

A

Azithromycin ONE SINGLE DOSE

96
Q

What infection is the number 1 cause of septic arthritis in young adults

A

Gonorrhea!

97
Q

Sexually actively patient presents with painful red swollen knee- what do you think?

A

Gonorrhea (assume coinfection wh chlamydia)

98
Q

True or false: if patient has gonorrhea, ALWAYS treat both gonorrhea and chlamydia.

99
Q

Treatment gonorrhea

A

Cefixime or ceftriaxone

100
Q

What is the disorder called when pathogens ascend the upper genital tract, and when is the most common time this happens?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease: happens during menses when cervix is open

101
Q

Most common pathogen that causes PID?

A

CHLAMYDIA
Gonorrhea
E.coli

102
Q

How does PID presentation differ from other infections?

A

Bilateral pelvic pain that radiates, mucopurulent cervical discharge, as exam tenderness, fever, REBOUND TENDERNESS

103
Q

What might you see on transvaginal US for PID

A

Thick, fluid filled tubes

Also elevated WBC, ESR on labs

104
Q

Patient presents 2 days postpartum, with fever and uterine tenderness- what are you concerned about

A

Endometritis (commonly presents after delivery or procedure)

105
Q

What will WBC and bacterial cultures look like for endometritis

A

WBC >20,000

Bacteria: mixed- anaerobic streptococci, gram negative Coliforms

106
Q

Treatment endometritis

A

Clindamycin + gentamicin (inpatient)

OUTPATIENT: metronidazole + doxy

107
Q

Rare, dangerous condition cause by staph aureus and it’s exotoxins

A

Toxic shock syndrome

108
Q

Patient presents with fever 102, diffuse macular rash. What are you thinking and what might happen 1-2 weeks later

A

Toxic shock syndrome; followed by desquamination

109
Q

Treatment TSS

A

Clindamycin + vanco

110
Q

Treatment of mastitis

A

Staph aureus - dicloxacillin

111
Q

Staph aureus can cause which 2 disorders we learned about

A

Mastitis and TSS

112
Q

Management of brewer abscess as it progresses from mastitis

A

Incision and drainage

Then CEFAZOLIN + METRONIDAZOLE

113
Q

Is breastfeeding allowed with mastitis and breast abscess?

A

Mastitis- yes! Allows the infection to leave without harming baby

Breast abscess NO!

114
Q

Condition of leaking blood into peritoneal cavity causing extreme pain at time of ovulation

A

Mittelschmertz

115
Q

In which disorder would you see a “chocolate cyst”

A

Endometriosis

116
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing endometriosis

A

Laparoscopy

117
Q

Treatment plan for endometriosis

A

NSAIDs —> OCs is dysmenorrhea does not respond

Do OCs continuously for 1-2 months before moving into further work up

118
Q

treatment for Mittelschmertz

A

none for pain; if severe enough, can administer OCs to prevent ovulation (which is causing the pain)

119
Q

what is the disorder involving menstrual pain w ovulatory cycles and NO STRUCTURAL ABNORMALITIES

A

primary dysmenorrhea

120
Q

Treatment for primary dysmenorrhea

A

NSAIDs

can do OCs if contraception is desired

121
Q

secondary dysmenorrhea is menstrual pain associated with STRUCTURAL PATHOLOGY: what 2 disorders are included in this category?

A

endometriosis
adenymyosis
IUD in uterus

122
Q

symptoms or endometriosis

A

progressively worsening menstrual pain, improves after period, dyspareunia

123
Q

if you see blue/black “powder burned” implants within the tissue of an organ outside of the uterus, what is this a hallmark of?

A

Endometriosis

124
Q

treatment endometriosis?

A

continuous oral contraceptives: progestins

surgical ablation of endometrial implants or total hysterectomy (for severe)

125
Q

what is the disorder characterized by ingrowth of endometrial tissue into the MYOMETRIUM?

A

adenomyosis

126
Q

diagnostic for adenomyosis

A

US: heterogeneous myometrium (not a smooth muscle layer)

127
Q

treatment adenomyosis

A

OCs, NSAIDs, hysterectomy if meds are not working

128
Q

chronic pelvic pain is described as _____ of continuous noncyclic pain

A

> 6 months

129
Q

which type of pain is most likely to be Gynecologic

130
Q

estrogen dips below _____ when hot flashes develop

131
Q

FSH and LH rise in response to low estrogen. what level is diagnostic of menopause?

A

FSH/LH >35 + absence of menses for 1 year

132
Q

BEST treatment for menopause

A

oral estrogen!

if uterus still present, ADD progestin to estrogen

133
Q

what does GUSM stand for?

A

Genitourinary syndrome of menopause

134
Q

what is the presentation of GUSM?

A

shortening/narrowing of vagina

  • thinning of vaginal lining, reducing lubrication
  • chronic vaginal discharge
135
Q

Treatment GUSM

A

topical estrogens

136
Q

what is normal vaginal flora?

A

Lactobacillus

137
Q

3 treatment options for menopause

A

estrogen, progesterone, Duavee