Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards Step/Level 2 > OBgyn Notes > Flashcards

OBgyn Notes Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Certified Sommelier Exam (CMS 2) flashcards
1
Q

The CDC defines anemia in pregnancy as a hematocrit below 33% in the first and third trimesters or below 32% in the second trimester. What is the most likely recommendation in a pt with hematocrit of 33% in the first trimester?

A

Oral ferrous sulfate

[iron supplementation]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Uterine eccyesis

A

Ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

_____ incontinence is failure to empty adequately due to underactive detrusor; presents with increased post-void residual (normal = 50-60 cc)

A

Overflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fetal growth restriction is a significant risk factor for subsequent development of what diseases as an adult?

A 
Cardiovascular disease
Chronic HTN
Stroke
COPD
Type II diabetes mellitus
Obesity
Cognitive delay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment for chorioamnionitis

A

Gentamicin

Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Indomethacin is contraindicated as a tocolytic after ____ weeks due to risk of premature closure of ductus arteriosus

A

32 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A patient presents with incomplete spontaneous abortion and products of conception can be visualized at the cervical os. What is the next best step in management?

A. Dilation and curettage
B. Expectant management
C. Misoprostol
D. Pelvic rest
E. Tissue extraction with forceps
A

E. Tissue extraction with forceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Biophysical profile shows score of 8-10 — what do you do?

A

Nothing - this is reassuring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Preferred HAART in early prenatal care when mom is HIV positive

A

Tenofovir + Emtricitabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Etiology and management of early decelerations on FHR monitoring

A

Fetal head compression

Do nothing - these are not worrisome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most common ovarian neoplasm in women older than 30

A

Epithelial cell tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Features of severe preeclampsia

A 
BP > 160/110 on 2 occasions
Thrombocytopenia
Impaired liver function
Renal insufficiency
Pulmonary edema
New onset cerebral or visual disturbance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ACOG recommendations for routine cervical cancer screening

A

Begin at age 21

Age 21-29 = Cytology q3 years

Age 30-65 = Cytology + HPV cotesting q5 years

Stop screening after age 65 if no history of moderate/severe dysplasia or cancer, and either 3 negative paps in a row OR 2 negative co-test results in a row in the past 10 years with most recent test in the last 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tocolytic that competes with calcium for entry into cells; indicated in pts less than 32 weeks for neuroprotection

A

Magnesium sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Methods to confirm rupture of membranes include testing ____ fluid for ferning and nitrazine testing

A

Vaginal fluid

[cervical fluid will give false positive ferning. Normal pH of vaginal secretions is 4.5-6.0, amniotic fluid has pH of 7.1-7.3 which will turn nitrazine paper blue. False positives occur when semen or blood is present]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Rotterdam criteria for PCOS

A

Chronic anovulation
Hyperandrogenism
Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound

[dx requires 2/3]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Progestin mini pills for contraception MOA:

A. Immobilize sperm
B. Inhibit estrogen
C. Inhibit ovulation
D. Thicken cervical mucus
E. Thicken endometrium
A

D. Thicken cervical mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Endometrial tumor invades less than half of the myometrium or endometrium

A. Stage Ia
B. Stage Ib
C. Stage II
D. Stage III
E. Stage IV
A

A. Stage Ia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Molar pregnancy leads to very high concentrations of hCG — which has an alpha subunit that is identical to those found in LH and TSH. What are the consequences of this hormone change?

A

Lutein ovarian cysts

Elevated T3/T4 (thus low TSH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Treatment for group B strep if pt is allergic to PCN but it is not an anaphylactic allergy

A

Cefazolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Recommended dose of folic acid in women with a previous pregnancy complicated by a fetal neural tube defect

A

4 mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Endometrial tumor invades more than half the myometrium

A. Stage Ia
B. Stage Ib
C. Stage II
D. Stage III
E. Stage IV
A

B. Stage Ib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What progesterone level is suggestive of a normal pregnancy?

A

> 25 ng/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When would you NOT need to treat a patient positive for group B strep with antibiotics during delivery?

A

Only if patient is having C section and there was no rupture of membranes at onset of labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Antibiotic used for GBS prophylaxis in pts with penicillin allergy who do NOT have a history of anaphylaxis

A

Cefazolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When should pts with known BRCA mutations begin breast cancer screening?

A

Age 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How long before pregnancy must MMR vaccine be given to be safe?

A

3 months prior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

5 components of Bishop score

A 
Dilation
Effacement
Station
Consistency
Position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If previous HIV status unknown and now mom is delivering with active HIV, she should be treated with ____ at the time of delivery

A

AZT (Zidovudine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define late-term pregnancy vs. post-term pregnancy

A

Late-term = 41 to 41+6 weeks

Post-term = 42+ weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In a patient with preterm labor, antibiotic therapy with ____ and ____ has been found to prolong the latency period by 5-7 days as well as reduces incidence of maternal chorioamnionitis and neonatal sepsis

A

Ampicillin

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What category of fetal heart tracing is described below?

Absent variability, fetal bradycardia, recurrent late or variable decelerations

A

Category 3

[GO IMMEDIATELY TO C SECTION]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Both are typically treated together, but to be specific:

Gonorrhea is treated with either _____ or _______

Chlamydia is treated with either _____or ______

A

Ceftriaxone; fluoroquinolone

Doxycycline; azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Medical treatment options for urge incontinence and their associated contraindications

A

Beta-3 agonists such as Mirabegron (myrbetriq) — contraindicated in HTN, ESRD, or liver disease

Tolterodine (Detrol) — contraindicated in narrow angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Patient in labor with umbilical cord prolapse but reassuring fetal heart tones. How do you manage pt?

A

Elevate fetal head and proceed to C section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Biophysical profile shows score of 0-2, what do you do?

A

Deliver!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Third trimester use of SSRIs for anxiety/depression has been associated with what fetal effects?

A 
Neonatal agitation
Abnormally increased or decreased muscle tone
Tremor
Temperature instability
Insomnia or somnolence
Difficulty feeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Quad screen result for Downs

A

Beta hCG and inhibin A = elevated

Estriol and AFP = decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Factor V leiden mutation results in an altered factor V that is resistant to inactivation by protein C. What pregnancy complications are associated with this mutation?

A

Stillbirth, preeclampsia, placental abruption, and IUGR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Fetal growth restriction can be assessed with amniotic fluid volume, umbilical artery Doppler studies, and NST. What is the purpose of the umbilical artery Doppler study?

A

Reveals the systolic/diastolic ratio

A normal S/D ratio indicates fetal well-being. An increase in ratio reflects increased vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Incontinence characterized by overactive detrusor

A

Urge incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

At _____ weeks gestation, the uterus is approximately at the level of the pubic symphysis

At _____ weeks gestation, the uterus is halfway between the pubic symphysis and umbilicus

At _____ weeks gestation, the fundus of the uterus is at the level of the umbilicus

A

12

16

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

OCPs are the primary tx for dysmenorrhea. This is because the ____ in OCPs cuases endometrial atrophy, thus there are less prostaglandins being produced

A

Progestin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Blueberry muffin baby, deafness, cataracts, congenital heart defects, IUGR and abortion in 1st trimester, petechiae and purpura in 3rd trimester

A

Congenital rubella (german measles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Tocolytic that acts as nonspecific COX inhibitor, thus blocking prostaglandin production

A

Indomethacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the first step in management following an abnormal MSAFP test (found on triple screen)?

A

Ultrasonography

This is to rule out multiple gestation or inaccurate dating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Depression in pregnancy is typically tx with SSRIs. Which SSRI is considered category D drug due to increased risk of fetal cardiac malformations and persistent pulmonary HTN, and thus should NOT be used in pregnancy?

A

Paroxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Confirm HSV 1 or 2 infection with ____ of active lesions.

Prophylaxis is tx with acyclovir from week ____ to delivery

A

PCR

Week 36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Use of indomethacin as a tocolytic is associated with what intrapartum complication?

A

Oligohydramnios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Endometrial tumor invades stromal CT but confined to uterus

A. Stage Ia
B. Stage Ib
C. Stage II
D. Stage III
E. Stage IV
A

C. Stage II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Define fetal growth restriction

A

Weight less than 10th percentile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

At the time of delivery, you note retraction of the fetal head (turtle sign) indicating shoulder dystocia. What is the next best step in management?

A

McRoberts maneuver — hyperflex moms legs to her abdomen

[this widens the pelvis and flattens lumbar spine; note that fundal pressure and operative vaginal delivery are contraindicated in shoulder dystocia]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Tx for tertiary/neurosyphilis in pregnancy

A

IV PCN q4hours for 7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

______ syndrome patients have male karyotype, 46XY, but female phenotype. This results from mutation or structural abnormality of the Y chromosome. All subjects are phenotypic women of normal height who fail to undergo puberty and possess normal femal external genitalia, uterus, and fallopian tubes. These patients possess gonadal streaks which require removal to prevent development of malignant transformation. They typically present with complaints of delayed puberty

A

Swyer syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What happens if mom gets infected with syphilis in the 1st trimester?

A

Fetal demise —> dead and macerated fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What medical condition is a contraindication to use of magnesium sulfate as tocolytic?

A

Myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

T/F: small, asymptomatic subserosal fibroids do not require tx or monitoring in pregnancy

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Fetus resumes “face-forward” position, with occiput and spine lying in the same plane

A. Engagement
B. Descent
C. Flexion
D. Internal rotation
E. Extension
F. External rotation
G. Expulsion
A

F. External rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

CCB tocolytic that decreases intracellular free calcium concentration and induces myometrial relaxation; associated with fetal hypoxia and decreased uteroplacental blood flow

A

Nifedipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What trisomy is associated with low birth weight, overlapping fingers, micrognathia, and cardiac defects?

A

Trisomy 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Chronic follicular disease that affects the apocrine or sebaceous glands. It is found in the axillary, groin, perianal, perineal, and mammary areas. Initially one solitary lesion appears. After a period of time, the nodule progresses to form an abscess that yields purulent or serosanguinous drainage. Painful clusters of abscesses, sinus tracts, and sores with evidence of scarring are characteristics of chronic disease. Similar to pilonidal disease but its affinity for other intertriginous areas of the skin makes it distinctive

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Tocolytic that acts as oxytocin receptor antagonist, blocking the intracytoplasmic calcium release associated with contractions and downregulates prostaglandin synthesis

A

Atosiban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What 2 types of fibroids are most likely to cause issues in pregnancy?

A

Submucosal

Intracavitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

A pt in labor requires high-dose oxytocin therapy for induction. What electrolyte is most appropriate to replace?

A

Sodium

High dose oxytocin stimulates antidiuresis and natriuresis which can lead to hyponatremia. Oxytocin is structurally similar to vasopressin and at high doses can decrease urine excretion via antidiuresis independent of volume status. The resultant volume overload is sensed by the atria which release ANP, promoting natriuresis. In addition, high doses of oxytocin itself stimulates renal natriuresis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

PALM-COEIN mnemonic for AUB

A 
Structural causes = PALM
Polyp
Adenomyosis
Leiomyoma
Malignancy (or hyperplasia)
Non-structural causes = COEIN
Coagulopathy
Ovulatory dysfunction
Endometrial
Iatrogenic/IUD
Not otherwise classified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Fetal occiput rotates from its original position (usually transverse) toward the symphysis pubis (occiput anterior), or less commonly, toward the hollow of the sacrum (occiput posterior)

A. Engagement
B. Descent
C. Flexion
D. Internal rotation
E. Extension
F. External rotation
G. Expulsion
A

D. Internal rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What category of fetal heart tracing is described below?

Everything is normal and expected with few or absent abnormals; managed with watchful waiting

A

Category 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Initial management of hydatidiform mole

A

Suction D and C

Chest Xray

Labs (CBC, PT/PTT, type and screen)

Rhogam if Rh negative

Serial beta-hCG (48 hours, then weekly until 0, then monthly x6months)

Advise against pregnancy x6-12 months following evacuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What testing should be done on patient with 3 successive first trimester losses?

A 
Lupus anticoagulant
Anticardiolipin antibodies
Diabetes mellitus
Thyroid disease
Maternal and paternal karyotypes
Uterine imaging to r/o anomaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Most common cause for a delay in the latent phase of labor

A

Unripe cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Black box warning on depo injections for contraception

A

May cause bone mineralization loss and long-term use is not advised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

First-line treatment for uterine relaxation for retained placenta

A

Nitroglycerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Biophysical profile is between 3-7 in a patient at 36+ weeks gestation, what do you do?

A

Deliver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Most common cause of preterm labor

A

Idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When should treatment for osteoporosis be initiated according to FRAX score?

A

FRAX score >20% risk for major osteoporotic fracture OR >3% risk for hip fracture

76
Q

An epidermal inclusion cyst is a benign, fluid filled cyst that can be found on the skin. It is lined with cornified epithelium and contains lamellated keratin. Formation of epidermal cysts, osteomas of the skull, and polyposis characterizes ______ syndrome, which is an AD disease caused by mutation in APC gene on Chr 5

A

Gardner’s

77
Q

Criteria for gestational diabetes:

Serum glucose greater than _____ 1 hour after 50 g oral glucose

A

130-140 mg/dL

78
Q

When inducing labor, prostaglandins should be given first when cervix is unfavorable, followed by oxytocin. Prostaglandins are contraindicated in what patient population?

A

Pts with hx of cesarean delivery (increased risk of uterine rupture)

79
Q

Manual vacuum aspiration can be done to terminate pregnancy up to what gestational age?

A

<8 weeks

80
Q

Saddle nose, saber shins, Hutchinson teeth, nasal discharge, generalized LAD, HSM

A

Congenital syphilis

81
Q

What uterotonic must be avoided in asthmatic patients due to bronchoconstrictive effect?

A

Hemabate (PGF2 alpha)

[other AEs include diarrhea, fever, tachycardia]

82
Q

Foul smelling yellow-green vaginal discharge with vaginal pH >5.4

A

Trichomoniasis

83
Q

The incidence of _____ _____ approaches 10% when gestational age exceeds 43 weeks. Characteristics include long thin body, long nails, meconium stained skin and nails, dry peeling skin, and an associated small placenta. There is increased risk for oligohydramnios, cord compression, meconium passage, and stillbirth

A

Fetal dysmaturity

84
Q

Etiology and management of variable decelerations on FHR monitoring

A

Cord compression

If few of these, do nothing they are not worrisome. If repetitive variable decelerations, can treat with amnioinfusion

85
Q

Identical twins, 2 placentas, 2 sacs - when did the egg split?

A

Day 0-3

86
Q

List uterotonics used to control postpartum hemorrhage

A 
Methergine
Misoprostol (PGE1)
Dinoprost (PGE2)
Hemabate (PGF2 alpha)
Oxytocin
Methylergonovine
87
Q

How often is bone mineral density reassessed to monitor treatment on bisphosphonates?

A

q2 years

88
Q

Most common vaginal cancer in postmenopausal women

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

89
Q

What disease process should be considered in the setting of late postpartum hemorrhage (48-72 hours after delivery)?

A

Von willebrand disease

90
Q

What pulmonary function test gets worse in pregnancy?

A

Functional residual capacity

91
Q

Treatment with betamethasone from ____-____ weeks gestation increases pulmonary maturity, reduces incidence/severity of RDS, and decreases risk for intracerebral hemorrhage and necrotizing enterocolitis

A

24-34 weeks

[but steroid administration is considered in patients between 34 and 36+6 weeks]

92
Q

_____ is an ergot alkaloid that is a potent smooth muscle constrictor and thus can be used as a uterotonic in postpartum hemorrhage. It is contraindicated in women with HTN and/or preeclampsia due to vasoconstrictive effect

A

Methylergonovine

93
Q

Tx for Kallmann syndrome

A

Pulsatile GnRH therapy

94
Q

Which of the following pregnant patients has the lowest risk of maternal mortality?

A. 25 y/o AA female with adequate prenatal care
B. 25 y/o AA female with low SES
C. 25 y/o caucasian female with crash C section
D. 25 y/o caucasian female with BMI 25 kg/m
E. 35 y/o caucasian female with excellent prenatal care

A

D. 25 y/o caucasian female with BMI 25 kg/m

Most maternal deaths are after live birth - most commonly d/t PE or HTN. Other risk factors for maternal death are advanced maternal age (>35 at time of delivery), AA or hispanic race, and multifetal gestation

95
Q

Recommended dose of folic acid in non-high risk patients

A

0.4 mg/day

96
Q

Define “prolonged latent phase of labor” in nulliparas and multiparas

A

> 20 hours for nulliparas

> 14 hours for multiparas

97
Q

Postpartum telogen effluvium (postpartum hair loss) affects 40-50% of women postpartum. What is the etiology?

A

High estrogen levels in pregnancy increase synchrony of hair growth — thus hair grows in same phase and is shed at the same time. This can result in hair loss at 1-5 months postpartum

98
Q

___________ is an FDA approved lab used in women with symptoms of preterm labor from 24-35 weeks and during routine screening of asymptomatic patients from 22-30 weeks gestation. 99/100 women with a single negative test result will not deliver in the next 14 days.

A

Fetal fibronectin

[fibronectin is an ECM protein thought to act as an adhesive between fetal membranes and underlying decidua. Its presence in the cervical mucous between 22 and 34 weeks is thought to indicate a disruption or injury to the maternal-fetal interface]

99
Q

Tocolysis should not be continued beyond ____ hours

A

48 hours

100
Q

Endometrial tumor involves vagina, adnexa, with positive regional LNs

A. Stage Ia
B. Stage Ib
C. Stage II
D. Stage III
E. Stage IV
A

D. Stage III

101
Q

Guidelines for weight gain in pregnancy based on BMI

A

BMI <18.5 — gain 28-40 lbs

BMI 18.5-24.9 — gain 25-35 lbs

BMI 25-29.9 — gain 15-25 lbs

BMI >30 — gain 11-20 lbs

102
Q

Patient presents with urinary incontinence, urgency, and nocturia. She describes the urine loss as large and lasting several seconds. Urine loss occurs while standing or sitting and is not associated with specific activity. Post-void residual is 45 cc.

What type of incontinence?

A

Urge incontinence

103
Q

A pregnant female presents at 30 weeks gestation with history of IUGR. Which of the following is the most appropriate screening test?

A. Biophysical profile
B. Contraction stress test
C. Modified biophysical profile
D. Nonstress test
E. Umbilical artery doppler velocimetry
A

E. Umbilical artery doppler velocimetry

[used to noninvasively monitor maternal and fetal hemodynamics because IUGR is associated with diminished blood flow to maternal and fetal vessels]

104
Q

Etiology and management of late decelerations on FHR monitoring

A

Uteroplacental insufficiency (fetal hypoxia and acidemia, commonly due to chronic HTN and post-date pregnancy)

Initial measures to evaluate and treat — change maternal position to left lateral, maternal O2 supplementation, tx maternal hypotension, discontinue oxytocin, intrauterine resuscitation with tocolytics, IV fluids

If initial measures fail, proceed to C section

105
Q

Arrest of labor is defined as the cessation of previously normal active phase cervical dilation for a period of ____ or more

A

2 hours

106
Q

What imaging modality is required once diagnosis of molar pregnancy is confirmed? What other 2 labs MUST be checked?

A

Chest x-ray
Liver and thyroid function

[lungs are most common area affected in gestational trophoblastic disease]

107
Q

What LARC can be used as emergency contraception?

A

Copper IUD

108
Q

Biophysical profile is 3-7 in a patient <36 weeks gestation, what do you do?

A

Next step is contraction stress test

109
Q

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for tubal pregnancy?

A. Age
B. Current IUD
C. History of C section
D. In-utero DES exposure
E. Smoking
A

E. Smoking

110
Q

Treatment for group B strep

A

Ampicillin

111
Q

What is included on triple and quad screen?

A

Triple = estriol + B-hCG + MSAFP

Quad = triple + inhibin A

112
Q

One dose of RhoGAM suppresses the immune response to up to ___ cc of whole fetal blood

A

30 cc

113
Q

Smoking increases risk of what complications in pregnancy?

A 
Placental abruption
Placenta previa
Fetal growth restriction
Preeclampsia
Infection
114
Q

T/F: a mom that is positive for hepatitis B antigen CANNOT breastfeed

A

False - breastfeeding is ok as long as baby has received IVIG Hep B and Hep B vaccine

115
Q

Maternal obesity increases risk of what maternal morbidities?

A

Chronic HTN
Gestational diabetes
Preeclampsia
Fetal macrosomia

Higher rates of C section and postpartum complications

116
Q

Sympathetics to ovaries/testes

A

T10-11

117
Q

Preterm premature rupture of membranes may manifest as what finding on fetal heart tracing?

A

Variable decelerations

[decrease in amniotic fluid —> cord compression —> variable decelerations]

118
Q

Primary intervention that reduces risk for preterm, low-birthweight infant

A

Early adequate weight gain

119
Q

______ = more severe form of PCOS associated with virilization due to the high androstenedione production and testosterone levels, resulting in temporal balding, clitoral enlargement, and deepening of the voice

A

Hyperthecosis

120
Q

Transmission of _____ in the 1st trimester results in fetal effects including brain calcifications, ventriculomegaly, seizures, hearing loss, visual disturbance, and developmental delay

A

Toxoplasmosis

121
Q

Most common ovarian neoplasm in women younger than 30

A

Germ cell tumors

122
Q

Which of the following is least likely to occur with gestational diabetes?

A. Polyhydramnios
B. Neonatal hypoglycemia
C. IUGR
D. Preeclampsia
E. Fetal macrosomia
A

C. IUGR

IUGR is more typical of women with pre-existing diabetes, not gestational. Complications of gestational include shoulder dystocia, metabolic disturbance, preeclampsia, polyhydramnios, and fetal macrosomia

123
Q

Elevation of which of the following would be concerning for an adrenal gland tumor being the underlying cause of infertility?

A. Androstenedione
B. Cortisol
C. DHEA
D. DHEA-S
E. Testosterone
A

D. DHEA-S

DHEA-S is produced by adrenals, not ovarian tissue - A, C, and E are produced by both ovaries and adrenals

124
Q

2 options for medical treatment of pruritis associated with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (once antihistamines and topical emollients have failed)

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid (relieves itching and lowers serum enzyme levels)

Naltrexone (opioid antagonist)

125
Q

Tocolytic that impairs intracellular cAMP concentration resulting in myometrial relaxation; contraindicated in diabetic patients

A

Ritodrine

126
Q

2 primary indications of fetal lung maturity

A

34 weeks gestational age

Positive phosphatidylglycerol in vaginal fluid

127
Q

A pt at 12 weeks gestation has serum lab studies revealing PAPP-A of 0.1 MoM and B-hCG of 0.2 MoM, both below normal for this gestational age. What is the next best step in management?

A. Amniocentesis
B. Chorionic villous sampling
C. Colposcopy
D. Nuchal translucency
E. Urine beta hCG
A

D. Nuchal translucency

Low PAPP-A and serum b-hCG = fetal aneuploidy. Ultrasound (weeks 9-13) provides earlier method for diagnosis than amniocentesis (weeks 15-20) and CVS (10-12 weeks)

128
Q

3 medical treatment options for heavy bleeding associated with fibroids

A
  1. NSAIDs
  2. OCPs
  3. GnRH agonists (also decreases myoma size)
129
Q

Most common complaint with copper IUD

A

Heavy, painful periods

130
Q

Treatment for primary, secondary, or early latent syphilis in pregnancy

A

IM PCN x1

131
Q

How does a multiple-gestation affect the estimated delivery date?

A

Every extra gestation beyond the first pushes up the due date by 4 weeks

[4 fetuses = 3 extra x 4 weeks = 12 weeks early = EDD 28 weeks]

132
Q

What is the goal for viral load of HIV+ mom in order to proceed with cesarean delivery? Vaginal delivery?

A

<1000 copies/mL for C-section

Must be undetectable for vaginal delivery

133
Q

What method of contraception is associated with proportionally higher risk of DVT/PE?

A

The patch

134
Q

Which of the following uterotonics should be avoided in a pt with asthma?

A. Carboprost tromethamine
B. Methylergonovine maleate
C. Oxytocin
D. Ritodrine
E. Terbutaline
A

A. Carboprost tromethamine (PGF2a analog)

Avoid methylergonovine in HTN or preeclampsia

135
Q

Chronic HTN is defined as high blood pressure known to predate the conception or detected before ____ weeks gestation

A

20 weeks

136
Q

What are the delivery and treatment implications in a pregnant mom with positive hepatitis B antigen?

A

C-section
IVIG hepatitis B
Hepatitis B vaccine at day 0

137
Q

What is considered “reactive” on fetal NST in >32 weeks gestation in terms of accelerations and variability?

A

Increased HR of 15 bpm sustained for 15 seconds and occurring twice in 20 minutes (15x15, 2 in 20)

Moderate variability

[if <32 weeks gestation, goal is 10x10, 2 in 20]

138
Q

Followup periods for prenatal care

A

q4 weeks until 28 weeks

q2 weeks until 36 weeks

q1week until delivery

139
Q

Late decelerations suggest possible uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia. What are common causes of uteroplacental insufficiency?

A 
Placental abruption
Maternal hypotension
Uterine hyperactivity
Postdate gestation
Preeclampsia
Chronic HTN
Diabetes mellitus
140
Q

Midcycle bleeding at the time of ovulation may occur and is due to a drop in _____

A

Estrogen

141
Q

Well-circumscribed, non-encapsulated myometrium = ______

A

Fibroids

142
Q

What category of fetal heart tracing is described below?

Variability is present, but there’s an abnormal heart rate, or an occasional deceleration

A

Category 2

[Do not need to deliver emergently, but watch closely]

143
Q

5 factors in biophysical profile

A 
NST
Breathing
Body movement
Tone
Amniotic fluid

[each worth 2 points]

144
Q

Endometrial tumor involves bladder mucosa with distant mets

A. Stage Ia
B. Stage Ib
C. Stage II
D. Stage III
E. Stage IV
A

E. Stage IV

145
Q

Ultrasound criteria for a missed abortion

A

Crown-rump length of 7 mm with no cardiac activity

146
Q

Most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults

A

N.gonorrhea

147
Q

Sympathetics for external genitalia

A

T12

148
Q

Tx for preeclampsia-associated HTN in pt with hx of asthma

A

Nifedipine

[labetolol is typically first line but must be avoided in asthma due to beta blocking properties]

149
Q

Most common symptom of uterine leiomyomas

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding

150
Q

Procedure indicated in severe pelvic prolapse in which vagina is surgically obliterated and can be performed quickly without the need for general anesthesia

A

Colpocleisis

151
Q

What effect can high dose vasopressin administration have on the uterus?

A

Due to structural similarities between oxytocin and vasopressin, high dose vasopressin administration can cause uterine contractions

152
Q

The Bishop score is used to determine the likelihood of a vaginal delivery. It is used to determine if a cervix is favorable, and thus the mode of induction. A score greater than ____ indicates high likelihood of SVD. A score of less than _____ indicates cervix is unfavorable and will need a cervical ripening agent.

A

8

6

153
Q

What conditions need to be met in order to manage ectopic pregnancy with methotrexate?

A 
Hemodynamic stability
Non-ruptured ectopic
Size <4 cm without fetal heart tones
Size <3.5 with fetal heart tones
Normal liver enzymes and renal function
Normal WBC
Reliable follow up
154
Q

Treatment for group B strep if pt has anaphylactic allergy to PCN and GBS is found to be resistant to clindamycin and erythromycin

A

Vancomycin

155
Q

5 parameters of BPP

A 
Fetal breathing
Fetal tone
Fetal movement
Amniotic fluid volume
Repeated NST
156
Q

Indications for breast MRI as screening tool

A

BRCA mutation carriers
First degree relatives of BRCA carriers
Li-Fraumeni syndrome
Women with 20-25% lifetime risk (prediction modeling)
History of chest irradiation during ages 10-30

157
Q

Descent of the biparietal diameter of the fetal head below the plane of the pelvic inlet

A. Engagement
B. Descent
C. Flexion
D. Internal rotation
E. Extension
F. External rotation
G. Expulsion
A

A. Engagement

158
Q

Vaginal vault prolapse is surgically repaired by supporting the vaginal cuff to the ______ or ______ ligaments, or by sacrocolpopexy

A

Uterosacral; sacrospinous

159
Q

Complication associated with abnormal fetal presentation, particularly back-up transverse lie

A

Cord prolapse

160
Q

Etiology of third trimester bleeding that presents accompanied by abdominal pain, uterine hypertonus, fetal distress, and risk factors include smoking, cocaine, chronic HTN, trauma, and prolonged PROM?

A

Placental abruption

161
Q

How are HDL and LDL levels affected by combination HRT?

A

HDL levels increase

LDL levels decrease

162
Q

Olfactory tract hypoplasia

Arcuate nucleus does not secrete GnRH —> no secondary sex characteristics

Present with delayed puberty

A

Kallmann syndrome

163
Q

A passive movement that permits the smallest diameter of the fetal head to pass through the maternal pelvis

A. Engagement
B. Descent
C. Flexion
D. Internal rotation
E. Extension
F. External rotation
G. Expulsion
A

C. Flexion

164
Q

What result on Q tip test is indicative of stress incontinence?

A

Q tip motion >30 degrees from horizon

165
Q

________ = fertilization of two different ova at two separate acts of intercourse in the same cycle

A

Superfecundation

166
Q

Central and/or lateral cystoceles are surgically repaired by fixing defects in the _____ fascia or reattaching it to the sidewall

A

Pubocervical

167
Q

Treatment for group B strep if pt has anaphylactic allergy to penicillin

A

Clindamycin; Erythromycin

168
Q

______ describes regular menstruation cycles occurring at irregularly shortened intermenstruation intervals, defined as 21 days or fewer

A

Polymenorrhea

169
Q

T/F: in the case of intra-amniotic infection, preterm delivery is warranted

A

True

170
Q

Medical treatment that has been shown to reduce the risk of premature labor from all causes including PPROM; administered weekly until 36 weeks gestation

A

17 alpha-hydroxyprogesterone

171
Q

Serious complication of uterine/pelvic infections caused by the spread of the infection to the pelvic venous system. Damage to the pelvic vein endothelium leads to altered blood flow, hypercoagulability, and increased risk for septic embolization. Patients present with back pain and “picket” fence, oscillating fever. Tx is broad spectrum abx and anticoagulation with heparin

A

Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis

172
Q

What do you look for on contraction stress test?

A

3 contractions q10 minutes

Also look for decelerations

173
Q

________ is defined as an irregularly prolonged or heavy menstrual period that maintains a normal menstrual cycle (b/w 21-35 days). Repeat occurrences warrant a workup as there are several potential causes including coagulopathy, endometriosis, leiomyoma, or neoplasms

A

Menorrhagia

174
Q

2 regimen options for outpatient tx of PID

A

Ceftriaxone IM x 1 dose + Doxycycline PO x 14 days +/- Metronidazole PO x 14 days (add if suspect concurrent BV or if pt underwent recent gynecologic instrumentation)

OR

Cefoxitin IM x 1 dose with probenecid PO (inhibits tubular secretion of abx —> increased plasma levels) + Doxycycline PO x14 days +/- metronidazole PO x14 days

175
Q

If indicated in the workup for infertility, __________ hormone levels can be tested to determine what the patient’s ovarian reserve is

A

Anti-mullerian hormone (marker of primordial follicles)

176
Q

Twin-twin transfusion syndrome is most common in what type of twinning?

A

Monochorionic diamniotic twins

177
Q

Multiple prior cesarean deliveries result in scar tissue that prevents proper implantation of the placenta, resulting in higher risk for what placental abnormality?

A

Placenta accreta

178
Q

Which of the following is the most reliable sign of uterine rupture during labor?

A. Abdominal pain
B. Hypotension
C. Maternal tachycardia
D. Non-reassuring fetal heart pattern
E. Vaginal bleeding
A

D. Non-reassuring fetal heart pattern

[usually bradycardia]

179
Q

3 out of 4 of Amsel’s criteria are used to diagnose _____ _____

A

Bacterial vaginosis

Criteria:

  1. Homogenous vaginal discharge
  2. Discharge with pH >4.5
  3. Positive whiff test: an amine-like odor when mixed with 10% KOH
  4. Wet mount demonstrates 20% more clue cells than vaginal epithelial cells

[note other causes of BV include Prevotella, Mobiluncus, Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus, Fusobacterium, Veillonella, Eubacterium, Mycoplasma hominis, Ureaplasma urealyticum, Strep viridans, and Atopobium vaginae]

180
Q

Tx for late latent syphilis in pregnancy

A

IM PCN weekly x3 weeks

181
Q

Exercise-induced hypothalamic amenorrhea is characterized by _____ FSH and ____ estrogen

A

Normal FSH; low estrogen

182
Q

Benign ovarian masses associated with pregnancy; more common with molar pregnancy, multiple gestation, or ovarian hyperstimulation

A

Theca lutein cysts

183
Q

Factors associated with breech presentation

A 
Prematurity
Multiple gestation
Genetic disorders
Polyhydramnios
Hydrocephaly
Anencephaly
Placenta previa
Uterine anomalies
Fibroids
184
Q

_______ tumors are rare breast masses characterized by their large, multilobular shape. Treatment involves wide local excision

A

Phyllodes tumors

185
Q

A pt at 31 weeks gestation presents in labor. She has a hx of insulin-dependent diabetes, myasthenia gravis, and peptic ulcer disease. She is experiencing regular contractions every 3 minutes; there is a fetal heart rate of 135/min. On pelvic exam, her cervix is 3 cm dilated and the fetus is at -1 station. Her temp is 98.6 and BP is 130/85. Which of the following is the most appropriate tocolytic for her?

A. Indomethacin
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Nifedipine
D. Ritodrine
E. Terbutaline
A

C. Nifedipine

[indomethacin is first-line in LESS THAN 32 weeks and is contraindicated in hx of PUD, renal dz, hepatic dz, and bleeding d/o. Mg is contraindicated in myasthenia gravis, ritodrine and terbutaline are beta 2 agonists and can cause hyperglycemia in diabetic moms]

186
Q

If intrapartum fetal surveillance reveals non-reactive NST, what is the next step in management?

A

Biophysical profile

187
Q

G protein mutation resulting in premature menses before breast and pubic hair development, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cafe-au-lait spots, and endocrinopathies

A

McCune Albright Syndrome

Boards Step/Level 2 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions