OBGYN EOR Flashcards

1
Q

what is the discriminatory zone for visualization of the gestational sac?

A

bhcg of 1500

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2
Q

bHCG for GTBD

A

> 100,000

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3
Q

ddx for very low but persistent bHCG

A

placental site trophoblastic tumor

very malignant

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4
Q

vasa previa

A

fetal vessel lies over the cervix

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5
Q

Placenta accreta

A

superficial attachment of the placenta to uterine myometrium

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6
Q

placenta increta

A

invades myometrium

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7
Q

placenta percreta

A

invades through myometrium to uterine serosa

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8
Q

MCC og third trimester bleeding

A

placental abruption

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9
Q

Couvelaire Uterus

A

life threatening condition that occurs where there is enough blood from abruption that markedly infiltrates myometrium to reach the serosa, especially at the cornea, that gives the myometrium a bluish purple tone that can be seen on the surface of the uterus

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10
Q

MC maternal complication of placental abruption

A

Consumptive Coagulopathy (DIC) –> leads to thrombocytopenia & hypofibrinogenemia

INCREASED INR & PTT

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11
Q

ideal time for delivery w/ placental abruption

A

34-37 weeks

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12
Q
  • normal fetal heart tracing characterized by normal baseline
  • moderate variability
  • NO variable or late decels
A

category I FHR tracing

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13
Q
  • many variety of fetal heart tracings
  • variable & late decelerations
  • bradycardia/ tachycardia
  • minimal variability/marked variability
  • absent variability w/o decel
A

category II FHR tracing

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14
Q
  • absent fetal heart variability
  • recurrent late of variable decels or bradycardia
  • sinusoidal pattern (c/w fetal anemia)
A

Category III

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15
Q

common tocolytic therapy

A

Indomethacin
Nifedipine
Mag sulfate
Terbutaline

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16
Q

Mag Sulfate Toxicity

A

Toxic levels > 10 mg/dL

Causes respiratory depression, hypoxia, cardiac arrest, decreased DTRs

therapeutic levles = 4-8 mg/dL

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17
Q

indomethacin

A

tocolytic commonly used before 32 weeks gestation for 48-72 hours

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18
Q

FOUR primary causes of preterm labor

A
  • Premature activation of maternal HPA axis
  • Exaggerated inflammatory response OR Infection
  • Abruption (decidual hemorrhage)
  • Pathological uterine distention
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19
Q

effects of increase ACTH during pregnancy

A

increased ACTH → increased cortisol → increased prostaglandins → cervical ripening/rupture of membranes

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20
Q

prolonged rupture of membranes

A

> 18 hours (RF for chorioamnionitis)

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21
Q

preterm rupture of membranes (pPROM) tx (before 36 weeks)

A

typically requires delivery by 34 weeks (avoid infection)

manage with steroids, abx (ampicillin, erythromycin), tocolysis,

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22
Q

erythroblastosis fetalis/fetal hydrops

A

Hyperdynamic state, heart failure, diffuse edema, ascites, pericardial effusion d/t serious anemia

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23
Q

MC RF for preeclampsia

A

nulliparity

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24
Q

Delivery threshold for women with preeclampsia

A

> 32 weeks

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25
Q

prophylaxis indicated in subsequent pregnancies in moms with pmh of preeclampsia

A

aspirin
calcium supplementation

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26
Q

GDM blood sugar levels

A

Fasting: 90
1 hr: 165-180
2 hr: 145-155
3 hr: 125-140

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27
Q

when do you screen post partum for DM in mom w/ hx of GDM?

A

6 weeks

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28
Q

when to induce in GDM

A

40 weeks if well controlled
38 weeks if poorly controlled/macrosomia

** typically want to induce by 37 weeks to prevent preE **

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29
Q

Chorioamniotis

A

maternal fever, uterine tenderness & leukocytosis & fetal tachycardia

Tx = IV abx & delivery

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30
Q

anti-epiletics CI in pregnancy

A

Valproate & Depakote

switch to keppra or lamictal

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31
Q

Amount of Caffeine safe in pregnancy

A

< 150 mg/day

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32
Q

Sheehan Syndrome

A

absence of lactation 2/2 to lack of prolactin or failure to restart menstruation 2/2 to absence of gonadotropins

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33
Q

High fever, leukcytosis, uterine tenderness, post section (5-10 days)

A

consider endomyometritis

Polymicrobial infection of the uterine lining that often invades underlying mucle wall - MC after a C-section but may occur after vaginal deliveries as well

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34
Q

CI to a Fetal Version for Breech Postion

A
  • nulliparity
  • est fetal weight > 38000g
  • incomplete breech position
  • previous Csection
  • ## placenta previa
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35
Q

when is an external version typically initiated for malposition?

A

37 weeks

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36
Q

MC form of delivery

A

spontaneous vertex vaginal delivery

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37
Q

Cardinal Movements of Labor

A

Engagement
Descent
Flexion
Internal rotation
Extension
External rotation (restitution/resolution)
expulsion

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38
Q

when does active phase of labor start?

A

cervical dilation > 4 cm

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39
Q

stage 1 of labor

A

Onset of labor to complete dilation & effacement of cervix

includes both latent and active phases

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40
Q

how often are you performing cervical exam during first stage of labor?

A

Q2-4 hours

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41
Q

stage 2 of labor

A

Time of full dilation → delivery of infant

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42
Q

cut off for prolonged second stage of labor

A

> 2 hrs in nulliparous
> 1 hour in multiparous

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43
Q

stage 3 of labor

A

after delivery of infant to delivery of placenta

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44
Q

1st degree tear

A

mucosa/skin

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45
Q

2nd degree tear

A

extends into perineal body but not involving anal sphincter

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46
Q

3rd degree

A

extends into or through anal sphincter

(must repair anal sphincter w/ several interrupted sutures)

+/- broad spectrum abx

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47
Q

4th degree

A

anal mucosa itself is entered

(repair anat sphinter
“Button wall” - laceration through rectal mucosa into vagina, but with sphincter still intact)

may require antibiotics, debridement and secondary closure

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48
Q

complications of 3rd and 4th degree lacerations

A

wound breakdown, infection, incontinence, and prolapse.

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49
Q

non-reassuring fetal status

A

repetative decels, bradycardia (< 100-110), loss of variability

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50
Q

Immediate tx for nonreassuring fetal status

A
  • O2
  • turn on left side to decrease IVC compression & increase uterine perfusion
  • d/c oxytocin
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51
Q

where is a spinal epidural placed?

A

L3-4

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52
Q

Naegle’s rule

A

LMP – 3 months + 7 days

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53
Q

GTPAL

A

Gravida (# total pregnancies)
Parity (# deliveries)
TPAL term, preterm, abortion, live

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54
Q

when does fetal movement start?

A

18-20 weeks - primigravida
14-18 - multi

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55
Q

when can you detect cardiac activity?

A

6 weeks

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56
Q

most accurate way to determine delivery date?

A

crown-rump length

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57
Q

when is fetal yolk sac visible?

A

5 weeks

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58
Q

1st Trimester Testing

A

heme: CBC, Crit, blood type/ab screen
infx: RPR, rubella ab, hep B surface antigen, VZV ab, PPD
urine: UA + urine culture
genetic: nuchal translucency

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59
Q

nuchal translucency testing

A

performed at 10-13 weeks for trisomies 13, 18, 21,
Turner syndrome

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60
Q

what if there is wide nuchal fold on nuchal translucency test ?

A

perform CVS or amniocentesis

CVS - allows for
first trimester termination

risk of CVS = amnio

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61
Q

2nd trimester testing

A

15-18 weeks: maternal AFP
triple/quad screen

15-18 weeks: +/- amnio if AMA (if pmh or pervious screening indicates need)

18-20 weeks: anatomy scan (US)

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62
Q

what does high vs Low AFP mean?

A

increase = neural tube defects
decrease = down syndrome

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63
Q

what is included in triple screen

A

bHCG + estriol + MSAFP

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64
Q

what is included in quad screen?

A

bHCG + estriol + MSAFP + inhibin A

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65
Q

low uncongugated estrogen
low AFP
high inhibin A

A

trisomy 21

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66
Q

high AFP

A

neural tube defects

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67
Q

3rd trimester testing

A

24-28 weeks:
- OGTT
- vaginal G/C repeated (if high risk)
- HSV testing

36 weeks
- GBS screen

external doppler/NST/ BPP

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68
Q

when do you initate antiviral prophy for latent HSV

A

36 weeks

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69
Q

Normal NST

A

2 accelerations in 20 mins of 15 bpm from baseline for 15 seconds

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70
Q

persistent late decels on NST

A

a decline in fetal HR 15bpm lasting more than 15 seconds or slow return to baseline

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71
Q

what is a BPP

A

NST + amniotic fluid level, gross fetal movements, fetal tone, fetal breathing

2 pt each

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72
Q

highs core in BPP is an indicator for higher risk of ?

A

asphyxia

(suffocation)

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73
Q

MCC with multiple gestations

A

preterm labor/delivery
placenta previa
postpartum hemorrhage
pre-eclampsia
cord prolapse
malpresentation
congenital abnormalities

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74
Q

monozygotic twins are at increased risk of what condition?

A

twin-twin transfusion syndrome

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75
Q

mo-mo twins

A

single placenta
one chorion
one amnion

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76
Q

mono-di twins

A

single placenta
single chorion
two amniotic sacs

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77
Q

di-di twins

A

two placenta
two chorion
two amniotic sacs

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78
Q

total weight gain goal for multiple gestations

A

37-54 lbs

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79
Q

tx for preeclampsia w/ severe features

A

delivery (regardless of gestational age)

Antenatal corticosteroids required for patients diagnosed with preeclampsia if the gestational age is < 34 weeks. planf or delivery after 48 hours

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80
Q

What is the first sign of hypermagnesemia in patients being treated with magnesium sulfate to prevent seizure

A

loss of patellar reflex

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81
Q

prevention for preeclampsia

A

low dose aspirin beginning at weeks 12-28 (ideally before 16 weeks)

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82
Q

GDM Criteria

A

3-hour 100 g OGTT results

> 95 mg/dL fasting
180 mg/dL at 1 hour
155 mg/dL at 2 hours
140 mg/dL at 3 hours

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83
Q

single most common identifiable RF for PPROM?

A

genital tract infections

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84
Q

most sensitive finding for chorio?

A

maternal Fever > 102.2 F w/o clear source

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85
Q

chorio diagnostic criteria

A

one or more of the following:
- purulent-appearing fluid coming from the cervical os visualized during speculum examination
- maternal white blood cell count > 15,000/μL
- baseline fetal heart rate of at least 160 bpm for at least 10 minutes.

PLUS one or more of the following:
- positive Gram stain of amniotic fluid
- positive amniotic fluid culture
- low glucose level in amniotic fluid
- high white blood cell count in amniotic fluid
- histopathologic evidence of infection or inflammation of the placenta/fetal membranes/ umbilical cord vessels

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86
Q

tx of chorio

A

IOL + ampicillin & gentamicin

add metronidazole/clindamycin for anerobe coverage if c-section is warranted

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87
Q

MC organisims of chorioamnionits

A

GBS
E.Coli

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88
Q

what level mag toxicity do you loose patellar reflex

A

> /= 10 mg/dL

respiratory failure >/= 15 mg/dL
cardiac arrest >/= 25 mg/dL

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89
Q

tx for mag toxicity

A

calcium gluconate

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90
Q

target BP goals for preeclampsia patients

A

130 to 150 mm Hg systolic
80 to 100 mm Hg diastolic.

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91
Q

when are antihypertensives indicated in preeclampsia

A

> /= 160 sbp or >/= 110 dbp

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92
Q

preeclampsia criteria

A

New-onset hypertension (≥ 140/90 mm Hg)

PLUS proteinuria (≥ 300 mg/24 hr or urine OR protein:creatinine ratio ≥ 0.3)
significant end-organ dysfunction

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93
Q

Cervical cerclage reccomended at what length?

A

< 25 mm

(can place between 12-14 weeks)

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94
Q

reactive fetal HR

A
  • 2 accelerations of 15 bpm above baseline
  • for 15 seconds each
  • in a 20-minute period
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95
Q

what is misoprostol?

A

initiates cervical dilation and uterine contractions

used in IOL & in combo w/ mifeprestone during abortion tx

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96
Q

polyhydramnios is a complication of which d/o?

A

GDM

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97
Q

polycythemia is a complication of what d/o?

A

GDM

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98
Q

common sequelae of episiotomy

A

dyspareunia

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99
Q

most important RF for post partum endometritis?

100
Q

tx of endometritis

A

clindamycin + gentamicin

101
Q

endometritis triad

A

fever + foul smelling lochia + abdominal pain

102
Q

oxytocin role in breastfeeding?

A

milk ejection (let down reflex)

103
Q

4 T’s PPH

A

truama
tone (MC)
tissue
thrombin

104
Q

rare complication of endometritis?

A

septic pelvic thrombophlebitis

consider in pt w/ endometritis who does not improve w/n 3-5 days

palpable cord like mass (supportive finding)

requires abx + anticoagulation

105
Q

when can you resume intercourse after a uncomplicated vaginal delivery?

106
Q

endometritis tx for pt post c-section?

A

clindamycin + gentamicin

107
Q

c-section prophylaxis for endometritis?

A

first gen cephalosporin

108
Q

what contraception is CI first 6 weeks postpartum?

A

Combined OCPS

increased risk of VTE

109
Q

which type of episiotomy reduces anal sphincter damage?

A

mediolateral

110
Q

CI to breastfeeding?

A

active HIV

111
Q

when does ovulation resume in postpartum women?

A

45 days in nonlactating women
189 days in lactating women.

112
Q

most common type of invasive breast cancer?

A

infiltrating ductal carcinoma

113
Q

spiculated soft tissue mass on US?

A

breast cancer

114
Q

tx of estrogen receptor positive breast cancer

A

chemo + letrozole/tamoxifen

115
Q

In a postmenopausal woman being assessed via transvaginal ultrasound, what is the endometrial thickness threshold that requires follow-up with endometrial sampling?

116
Q

MC type of vulvar cancer?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

117
Q

what hormone is elevated in menopause?

118
Q

Failure of menses to occur by age 15 despite normal development of secondary sex characteristics

A

primary amenorrhea

119
Q

Failure of menses to occur by age 13 in the absence of secondary sex characteristics

A

primary amenorrhea

120
Q

abruption tx

A

< 34 weeks: beta + mag
34-36 weeks: consider beta
> 36 weeks: delivery

121
Q

both physical & mental symptoms that interfere with aspect of life occuring during luteal (2nd half) of menstrual cycle that resolve w/ onset of menses

122
Q

physiological change preventing PPH?

A

uterine involution

123
Q

What additional studies are recommended in patients with nonreassuring patterns on fetal heart tracings?

A

Fetal scalp stimulation or fetal scalp pH measurement

124
Q

Prominent fibroglandular tissue with small cysts but no discernable mass

A

fibrocystic changes

125
Q

All pt > 45 y/o w/ AUB require what testing?

A

endometrial tissue sampling

126
Q

which hormone is responsible for uterine ripening to allow proper implantation of a fertilized ovum?

A

progesterone

127
Q

postcoital bleeding is c/f which diagnosis?

A

cervical cancer

128
Q

most common type of gonadal dysgenesis

A

Turner Syndrome (45, XX)

129
Q

hypoechoic, round, well-circumscribed uterine mass

130
Q

what must be included in hormone treatment in any woman w/ a uterus?

A

progesterine (cannot have unopposed estrogen)

131
Q

osteoporosis screening in women?

132
Q

when do PMS symptoms present in a cycle?

A

end of the luteal phase (aka right before menses)

days 23-27

133
Q

leuprolide

A

GNRH analog - suppresses FSH & LH

can be used to shrink fibroids (however can cause menopausal sx)

134
Q

postpartum hypopituitarism

A

sheehan syndrome

rare complication of postpartum hemorrhage 2/2 to blood loss & hypovolemic shock that leads to pituitary gland ischemia

135
Q

MC site of endometriosis

136
Q

MOA of TXA?

A

prevents the conversion of plasminogen –> plasmin (aka decreased fibrinolysis)

137
Q

risk of long-term combined menopausal hormone therapy?

A

breast cancer

138
Q

failure of menses to appear by AGE 15 w/ normal growth & secondary sex characteristics

A

requires amenorrhea workup

139
Q

failure of menses by age 13 w/ absence of secondary sex characteristics

A

requires primary amenorrhea workup

140
Q

abnormally prolonged (> 7 days) or heavy (> 80 mL) uterine bleeding that maintains a normal menstrual cycle

A

menorrhagia

141
Q

abnormal uterine bleeding in between normal cycles that recur at irregular intervals

A

metorrhagia

142
Q

abnormal uterine bleeding that is heavy or prolonged & occurs at irregular intervals (more frequently than normal menstruation)

A

menometorrhagia

143
Q

labs in SEVERE abnormal uterine bleeding

A

CBC, CMP, PT, PTT, INR & TSH

144
Q

mullerian agenesis is characterized by what clinical finding?

A

absence of uterus and cervix (and vaginal agenesis)

145
Q

how many hours apart do BP readings need to be for dx of preE

A

4 hours (if >140 or >90)

w/n minutes if severe ranges (>160 or > 110)

146
Q

what proteinuria is needed for PreE dx

A

> 300 mg / 24 hour urine
PCR > 0.3
dipstick > 2+

147
Q

at what point can preE be dx in pregnancy?

148
Q

preE w/ severe fx requires delivery by which date?

149
Q

twp types of tx for fibroids?

A

hormonal: OCPs/IUD/GnRH agonists
nonhormonal: NSAIDs

150
Q

palpable uterus above symphysis pubis sx of what?

** enlarged, asymmetric, nontender uterus

A

possible fibroid

151
Q

Which of the following would increase the chance of intrauterine device expulsion or failure?

A

< 25 y/o
prior explusion
hx of menorrhagia or severe dysmenorrhea
postpartum or post-second trimester abortion

152
Q

what week is it considered PPROM?

A

< 37 weeks

153
Q

when is mag considered apart of the PPROM treatment?

A

when it occurs < 32 weeks (provides neuro protection)

154
Q

test to distinguish between false labor & increased risk of preterm labor when membranes have not ruptured?

A

fetal fibronectin

155
Q

Downward displacement of the anterior vaginal wall on speculum exam during Valsalva maneuver

156
Q

most accurate measurement of expected delivery date?

A

CRL

more accurate in early pregnancy (22+0 weeks)

157
Q

cyclical pelvic pain
painful intercourse
abnormal bleeding
abdominal pain
infertility *
ovarian mass*

A

endometriosis

158
Q

endometriosis triad

A

dysmenorrhea
dyspareunia
dyschezia

159
Q

postpartum glucose screenin in women w/ GDM

A

FPG or 2 hour OGTT @4-12 weeks postpartum

if normal, repeat screening Q1-3 weeks

160
Q

s/sx of multiple gestations

A
  • increased morning sickness
  • larger than expected fundal height
  • excessive maternal weigth gain
  • INC. bHCG & AFP
161
Q

fixed mass & larger amt of fluid (ascities) on US??

A

c/f ovarian cancer/carcinoma

162
Q

tumor marker for ovarian cancer (epithelial)

A

CA 125 (> 35 U/mL)

** benign conditions that can cause an elevated CA125 = endometriosis, fibroids, PID.

** CA125 > 200 requires oncology referral

163
Q

more dominant form of estrogen in menopause that undergoes an increase?

A

estrone (E2)

** less potent estrogen

164
Q

new onset HTN in < 20 weeks gestation?

A

suspect molar pregnancy or undiagnosed chronic HTN

165
Q

preE delivery:
–x– weeks w/o severe features
–y– weeks w/ severe features

A

X = 37
Y= 34 (requires seizure prophy w/ mag sulfate)

166
Q

when is it safe to preform an external version?

A

37 weeks

** always requires US prior to confirm orientation of fetus and location of placenta

167
Q

when do you perform anti-D antibody screening?

A

initial visit, 28 weeks, delivery (w/n 72 hours)

168
Q

wickham striae ??

A

s/sx of lichen planus

169
Q

tx of asymptomatic rectocele?

A

observe w/ yearly examination

170
Q

1st line chemo therapy for suboptimally cytoreduced disease in eputhelial ovarian cancer

A

Carboplatin
Paclitaxel

171
Q

when do fibroadenomas typically regress?

A

after menopause (bc they are estrogen dependent)

172
Q

TOC in hemodynamically unstable pt w/ heavy uterine bleeding?

A

uterine curettage

** if this does not work –> IV conjugated equine estrogen (in high doses can reduce heavy bleeding bc it stabilizes the endometrial lining)

173
Q

1st line tx of PMDD

A

relaxation therapy & SSRI

2nd line = OCPs

174
Q

counseling in twin gestations

A
  • wt gain of 37-54 lbs
  • prenatal vitamin during first tri
  • additional iron, mag, zinc after first tri
  • 1 mg folate & 1000 IU vitD
  • sleep on left side during 2nd/3rd tri
175
Q

what type of pregnancies can twin-twin transfusion syndrome occur?

A

monochorionic (share a placenta)

176
Q

GTPAL

A

G = total # pregnancies
T = full-term pregnancies (37-40 wk)
P = preterm deliveries (20-36 wk)
A= abortion/miscarriage (< 20 wks)
L= living children

177
Q

can proteinuria be normal in pregnancy w/o BP changes?

A

yes - 2/2 increased GFR

178
Q

acid base disturbance 2/2 to vomiting?

A

hypokalemia, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

** starvation ketosis can occur 2/2 to decreased calorie intake

179
Q

anti-emetic CI in pregnancy?

A

ondansetron (zofran) –> small risk of congenital anomalies

180
Q

when is there a peak in hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

weeks 8-12

181
Q

increased puslation felt at lateranl fornicies

A

oslander sign

1st tri

182
Q

marked softening of the cervix

A

goodell sign

1st tri

183
Q

asymetrrical enlargement of uterus in case of lateral implantation

A

piskacek sign

1st tri

184
Q

upper part of uterus is enlarged w/ growing ovum & lower part is empty

A

hegar sign

1st tri

185
Q

Naegele Rule

A

EDD: 1st day LMP + 7 days - 3 mo + 1 year

186
Q

how long does PP blues last?

A

24-72 HOURS

187
Q

“fixed uterus” is c/f ….

A

endometriosis

188
Q

MC symptom of fibroids

A

heavy & prolonged menses

189
Q

maternal RF for preterm labor

190
Q

how early can molor pregnancy be detected on US

191
Q

hetertopic pregnancy

A

one intrauterine gestational sac + one ectopic gestational sac

192
Q

CI for labetalol use in PIH

A

asthma –> bc can cause bronchoconstriction

193
Q

how long must elevatred BP persist postpartum to become chronic htn?

A

12 weeks

** if returns to normal by 12 weeks pp it can be classifed as transient

194
Q

empiric tx for acute cystitis during pregnancy

A
  • fosfomycin
  • amoxi-clav
  • cefpodoximine

** must always obtain test of cure for cystitis in pregnancy

195
Q

what cystitis tx is commonly avoided during first trimester & at term?

A

nitrofuratonin

** possible fetal birth defects in first tri
** avoided 30 days before term to reduce possibility of neonatal jaundice

196
Q

definition of REACTIVE NST

A

at least 2 accelerations in 20 min period

197
Q

test with high negative predictive value for perterm labor

A

fetal fibronectin (measured from cervicovaginal specimens)

198
Q

amniotic fluid ph on nitrazine test

199
Q

critical maternal anti-titer titer level

A

1:16 or 1:32

** requires doppler velocimetry of mca to assess for fetal anemia

200
Q

pap screening < 21 y/o

A

not indicated

201
Q

pap screening 21-29

A

pap Q3 years (reflux HPV)

202
Q

Pap 30-65

A

co-test (pap + HPV) Q5 years OR pap Q3 w/ reflux HPV

203
Q

pap screening > 65 or s/p hysterectomy

A

no screening (if no hx of CIN 2+ in past 20 years)

204
Q

guardasil vaccine schedule

A

Two doses (0,6-12 mo) if initiated between ages 9-14 y/o

Three doses (0,1-2, 6 mo) if initiated at ages 15

205
Q

when is colpo indicated for abnormal pap results

A

if test shows (+) HPV w/ ASC-US, HSIL, LSIL or atypical glandular cells

206
Q

when is colpo NOT indicated for abnormal pap results

A

ASC-US & (-) HPV

207
Q

when is Leep used?

A

HSIL lesions

208
Q

black box warning of tamoxifen [used in postmenopausal receptor (+) BC]

A

uterine maliganncy
thromboembolic events

209
Q

Primary treatment of early-stage (stages I, IIA, IIB) breast cancer

A

lumpectomy or total mastectomy

** in hormone (+) BC hormone therapy is indicated after surgical interve

210
Q

BC screening

A

mammo at 40-74 Q2 years in avg risk women

211
Q

complication of loop electrosurgical excision for hpv ?

A

cervical insufficency –> second-tri miscarriage

212
Q

Women with the BRCA1 gene mutation are more likely to be diagnosed with what form of breast cancer?

A

medullary carcinoma

213
Q

most sig rf for BC

214
Q

HPV that causes genital warts

215
Q

sanguinous nipple discharge

A

papillary breast carcinoma (rare type of breast cancer)

216
Q

what is rec in addition to colpo if pt does not have any lesions present on PE?

A

endocervical curettage

217
Q

definitive dx of torsion

A

direct visualization at time of surgical evaluation

218
Q

smoking cessation in pregnancy

A
  • counseling is first line
  • nicotine replacement is appropriate as adjunct

** can use bupropion & varnicline last line

219
Q

MC organism in chorioamnionitis

A

ureaplasma urealyticum

tx w/ amp + gent

220
Q

fetal membranes are held together by what proteins?

A

Collagen
Fibronectin
Laminin

221
Q

pathogenesis of premature rupture of membranes

A

premature activation of a metalloprotease enzyme (which degrades collagen & decreases membrane strength)

222
Q

etiology of enlarged, smooth uterus w/ irregulr shape

A

uterine leiomyomas

223
Q

how is PID dx?

A

clinical findings (most commonly)

224
Q

when is cerclage placed in cervical insuff?

A

CERCLAGE PLACEMENT @ 12-14 WEEKS

WOMEN W/ CERVIX < 25 MM

225
Q

cervical insufficency prophylaxis?

A

hydroxyprogesterone between 16-36 weeks

***if hx of cervical insufficiency and is a singleton pregnancy

** in twin gestations just do expectant mgmt

226
Q

PE presentation of cervical intrapeithelial neoplasia?

A

cervix is normal appearing on PE w/o noticeable suspicious lesions

** really only found on pathology of colpospy
** if lesions are present –> cervical carcinoma (aka scc 2/2 HPV infx)

227
Q

What is the first visible sign of puberty in girls between 8 to 12 years of age and the hallmark of Tanner stage 2?

A

breast buds

228
Q

characteristics of trisomy 18 (edward syndrome)

A
  • clenched fists
  • rocker bottom feet
  • hypoplastic nails
  • prominent occiput
  • low set ears
  • horse shoe kidney
229
Q

trisome 13 (patau) syndrome charc

A
  • micro or anophthalmia
  • cleft lip or palate
  • postaxial polydactyly
230
Q

trisomy 21 on US

A
  • thickened nuchal fold
  • duodenal atresia
  • CVD abnormalities
231
Q

what gestationala ge can you perform an amniocentesis?

232
Q

tx of nedometrial cancer in women who desire fertility?

A

trial of progestin therapy (megestrol acetate)

other candidates for fertility-sparing progestin therapy include women d

** surgical therapy after pt no longer wants children

233
Q

Rf for primary dysmennorhea

A

age < 30 y/o
menarche before 12 y/o

234
Q

tx of HER2 + BC

A

trastuzumab + chemotherapy

235
Q

tx of ER + BC

A

Tamoxifen

MOA: SERM

236
Q

common tx in infiltrating ductal carcinoma (BC)

A

breast-conserving: lumpectomy + radiation

non-conserving: masectomy + radiation

** should do sentinel lymoh node biopsy as well

237
Q

can uterine atony present hours after delivery?

A

yes, can present even up to 12 hours after delivery

238
Q

tx of TOA (even if hemodynamicailly stable)

A

admission + IV abx [+/- surgical drainage]

239
Q

SSRis safe in breastfeeding

A

paroxetine
sertraline
citalopram

** if mild-mod depression in postpartum period –> CBT is 1st line therapy

240
Q

RF for placental abruption

A

astham
hypertension
previous abruption

241
Q

typical ultrasound findings of placental abruption

A

retroplacental hematoma

242
Q

lab findings in placental abruption

A

fibrin level </= 200 mg/dL

[aka consistent w/ DIC which is MC complication of placental abruption]

243
Q

PE findings in vulvar cancer?

A

white lichenified & adherent 2-3 cm plaques on bilateral labia minora

** uncontrolled lichen sclerosis can lead to vulvar cancer

244
Q

urethral caruncle

A

friable, bright red, small papule at urethral meatus

** meds indicated when they cannot control sugars despite LSM

245
Q

1st line tx for GDM

A

lifestyle modifications & self-monitoring glucose

246
Q

additional fetal monitoring in GDM

A

if on medications :
- beg 32 wks: 2x/wk NSTs & amniotic fluid index

despite medications:
- US @ 36-29 weeks to assess fetal weight (to assess dystocia risks & need for csection)