Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Rabiah's 3a > Obgyn > Flashcards

Obgyn Flashcards

1
Q

prolactinoma pres

A

child bearing age females
amenorrhea/ oligomen
infertile
galactorrhoea
ED men
visual problems in macroadenoma (eyes on boobs)
RF: MEN-1 or FIPA mutations, oestrogen therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Prolactinoma Ix

A

High serum prolactin
Pituitary MRI
Computerized visual field exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Prolactinoma tx

A

asympt = observation
sympt = 1st dopamine agonist (cabergoline or bromocriptine), 2nd = COCP, 3rd = trans-sphenoidal surgery, 4th = sellar radiotherapy

skip COCP if wanting to get preg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are charcoal swabs used for

A
  • BV
  • Candida
  • Gonorrhoea (specifically endocervical swab after NAAT swab)
  • Trich (specifically posterior fornix swab)
  • Other bac, e.g. group B strep
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are NAAT swabs used for

A

Directly for DNA or RNA via endocervical, vulvovaginal swabs or first catch urine:
- Chlamydia
- Gonorrhoea (after NAAT, charcoal is needed for sensitivities, etc)
- Mycoplasma genitalum (too slow growing for culture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is seen on microscopy with BV

A

clue cells - usually Gardnerella vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

BV tx and advice when prescribing

A

asymptomatic = none
otherwise metronidazole orally 400mg 2x day 5-7 days or vaginal gel

preg = oral

advise avoid alcohol for duration of tx

alternative = clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

thrush organism

A

candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

thrush classic pres

A

cottage cheese thick, white discharge, not smelly
itching and irritation around vag and vulva
soreness or stinging during sex or urination
satellite lesions rash (fungus causes this)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

thrush tx

A

if preg = clotrimazole 500mg via pessary single dose (anti-fungal) not tablets!

pessaries can cause damage condoms etc so alternative contraception for 5 days after use

non-preg = single dose fluconazole or clotrimazole oral tablet 140mg (contraindicated in SSRIs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

trich organism

A

Trichomonas vaginalis = protozoan single-celled parasite with flagella, spread through sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

trich pres and results on ix

A

frothy and yellow green discharge
strawberry cervix (colpitis macaluris) bc of tiny haemorrhages
charcoal swab taken from posterior fornix of vag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

trich tx

A

metronidazole same as BV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

chancroid organism

A

Gram-negative coccobacillus – Haemophilus ducreyi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

chancroid pres

A

PAINFUL genital ulcer – soft, ragged edges, 1-2cm

Fluctuant lymphadenitis (bubos)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

chancroid ix

A

gram stain ulcer and bubo aspirates - school of fish coccibacilli seen
culture and PCR shows h.dycreyi
Syphillis, HSV, HIV should all come back neg. Repeat HIV after 3 months to confirm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

chancroid tx

A

azithro 1mg oral single dose
ciproflox 500mg oral 2x for 3 days (not in preg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Behcet’s three pres

A

oral ulcers
genital ulcers
anterior uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

chlamydia organism

A

gram -ve intracellular chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is lympthogranuloma and its tx

A

strain of chlamydia unilaterally affecting painless ulcer, lymph nodes, inflam of rectum (proctitis, presenting as change in bowel habits, tenesmus) and groove sign, increasingly identified in MSM HIV positive, tx = doxy 100mg 2x daily for 21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

chlamydia ix

A

NAAT is diagnostic

vag exam shows pelvic or ab tenderness, cervical excitation, inflamed cervix, purulent discharged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

chlamydia tx

A
  • 1st doxycycline 100mg 2x for 7 days
  • Contraindicated in preg and breastfeeding – azithromycin, erythro or amox

TOC at 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

syphilis organism

A

treponema pallidum – spirochete

21 day incubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

syphilis primary stage

A

PAINLESS genital ulcer, hard raised edges (chancre), usually resolves 3-8 weeks, local lymphadenopathy in genital areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

syphilis secondary stage

A

systemic symptoms of skin or mucous membranes, e.g. maculopapular rash, low-grade fever, lymphadenopathy, alopecia, oral lesions, Condylomata lata (grey wart-like lesions around genitals and anus), usually after chancre has healed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

syphilis tertiary stage

A

many years after initial infection, multi-organ pres, esp development of rare gummas (soft, non-cancerous growth), aortic aneurysms

poss neurosyphilis - headache, altered behaviour, dementia, Tabes dorsalis (demyelination affecting spinal cord posterior columns), Ocular syphilis (eyes), paralysis, sensory impairment

Argyll-Robertson pupil – a constricted pupil that accommodates when focusing on near object, but doesn’t react to light. Often irregular shaped and referred to as ‘prostitutes pupil’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

syphilis tx and tx SEs

A

Single deep IM dose of benzathine benzylpenicillin

oral doxy 2nd line

neurosyph - aqueuous benpen

SE = Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction – fever, chills, tachy, rash, literally pt will feel like they’re dying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

HSV-1 causes what and lies dormant in what nerve ganglia?

A

cold sores (herpes labialis)

trigem ng

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

HSV-2 causes what and lies dormant in what nerve ganglia?

A

genital ulcers - multiple, tender, erythematous, painful

sacral ng

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

herpes gold std ix

A

NAAT swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

herpes tx

A

Aciclovir 200mg 5x a day for genital herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

herpes in preg tx - meds and mode of birth

A

<28 weeks = aciclovir + prophylactic aciclovir from 36 weeks + normal delivery if asymptomatic

28 weeks = aciclovir + prophylactic aciclovir from 36 weeks + c section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

genital warts caused by what strains of HPV

A

6 and 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

genital warts tx

A
  • Multiple, non-keratinized warts = podophyllotoxin 0.5% solution or 0.15% cream, imiquimod 5%, sinecatechins 10%
  • Solitary, keratinized warts = ablative methods – cryotherapy, excision, electrocautery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

gonorrhoea organism

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae = gram negative intracellular diplococci

Infects mucous membranes with columnar epithelium, e.g. endocervix, urethra, rectum, conjunctiva and pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

gonorrhoea tx

A
  • Single dose IM ceftriaxone 1g if sensitivities not known or if preg
  • Single dose oral ciprofloxacin 500mg if sensitivities known

Follow-up TOC 72 hours after treatment for culture (symptomatic pts), 7 days after tx (RNA NAAT) or 14 days after tx (DNA NAAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

gonorrhea common complications

A
  1. infertility
  2. PID

epidymo-orchitis (men), prostatitis, conjuctivitis, septic arthritis etc.

  • Gonococcal conjunctivitis in neonates – ophthalmia neonatorum – contracted from mother during birth, medical emergency, associated with sepsis, perforation of eye and blindness
  • Disseminated Gonococcal Infection (GDI) = untreated gon infection where bac spreads to skin and joints. Causes skin lesions, polyarthralgia, migratory polyarthritis, tenosynovitis, systemic symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

HIV screening test options

A

1st fourth gen lab combined test for HIV antibodies and p24 antigen - window period of 45 days

Point-of-care HIV antibody tests - results within minutes- 90 day window period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

normal range CD4 count

A

500-1200 cells/mm3

<200 = high risk infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

HIV tx

A

specialist centre / GUM referral

ART meds - aim for normal CD4 count and undetectable viral load (<20 copies/ml)

Prophylactic co-trimaxole if CD4<200 bc risk PCP

Close monitoring CVD, yearly smears, vaccinations (avoid BCG and typhoid bc live)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Preg HIV monitoring and meds

A

36 weeks viral load checked

<50 copies/ml = normal vag delivery

> 50 = consider pre-labour c section

> 400 = pre-labour c-section

IV zidovudine as infusion during labour+delivery if viral load unknown or >1000, then as prophylaxis for baby. avoid breastfeeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

PEP how many hours after exposure

A

within 72 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

pubic lice organism

A

Phthirus pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

pubic lice tx

A

refer gum, contract tracing, etc

Insecticides: Permethrin 5% cream or Malathion 0.5% aq solution

decontamination clothes etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How often is mammo screening

A

every 3 years for women between 50-70 yrs

annually if high risk + chemoprevention offered: tamoxifen if premeno, anastrozole if postmeno (except if osteoporosis). Offered risk-reducing bilateral mastectomy or bilateral oophorectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

most common metastases of breast cancer

A

2Ls and 2Bs:

lungs, liver, bones, brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

triple assessment for breast cancer

A
  1. clin assessment (hx+exam)
  2. imaging (US or mammography)
  3. histology (fine needle aspiration or core biopsy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is neoadjuvant therapy

A

chemo to shrink tumour before surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is adjuvant chemo

A

chemo after surgery to reduce recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what med supresses lactation

A

cabergoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

tender
palpable
benign, warty lesion
with clear /blood-stained nipple discharge

A

papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

nipple producing thick sticky substance
peri-menopausal

A

mammary ductal ectasia

also known as plasma cell mastitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

symptoms fluctuating with menstrual cycle
tender lump
fluctuating breast size

A

fibrocystic breast changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

small and mobile (breast mouse)
painless
smooth
round
well-circumscribed
firm

A

fibroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

painless
firm
irregular
fixed in local structure
skin dimpling or nipple inversion
associated with oil cyst
possibly after trauma to breast

A

fat necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

firm
mobile
painless
after stopping lactating

A

galactocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

large
fast-growing
40-50yrs old

A

phyllodes tumour (usually benign)

rapid phyllis even when old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

smooth
well-circumscribed
mobile
fluid filled
more tender before periods

A

breast cysts

59
Q

RF breast cancer

A

increased hormone exposure
- early menarche
- late menopause
- nulliparity / late first preg
- oral contraceptives or HRT

mutations
- BRCA

  • advancing age
  • caucasian
  • obesity
  • alcohol and tobacco use
  • hx breast ca
  • previous radiotherapy
60
Q

massive RF for mastitis

A

smoking

61
Q

two week wait for breast if:

A

unexplained breast lump >30 yrs

unilateral nipple changes >50 yrs

62
Q

consider urgent referral for breast if:

A
  • Unexplained lump in axilla in pts >30 yrs
  • Skin changes suggestive to breast cancer (dimpling or oedema – peau d’orange)
63
Q

non urgent breast referral if:

A

<30 yrs

64
Q

tx for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

rest, avoid triggers, bland food, ginger, accupressure

1st meds = antihistamines (oral cyclizine, promethazine)

2nd meds = oral ondansetron (not in first trimester bc cleft palate) or metoclopramide (EPSEs if used > 5 days)

65
Q

what is the Hyperemesis gravidarum triad

A
  • 5% pre-preg weight loss
  • Dehydration
  • Electrolyte imbalance
66
Q

admit for hyperemesis gravidarum if?

A
  • Nausea/vomiting unable to keep down liquids/ oral antiemetics
  • Continued vomiting w ketonuria and or weight loss (>5% of body weight) despite tx w oral antiemetics
  • Confirmed or suspected comorbidity
67
Q

absolute contraindications UKMEC4 for COCP

A

FB SUBMITS

  • factor V leiden
  • breast cancer (current)
  • SLE
  • uncontrolled htn
  • breastfeeding <6 weeks postpartum
  • migraine with aura
  • IHD / stroke
  • thromboembolitic disease
  • smoking >15 cigs a day and >35 yrs
68
Q

2 COCP pills missed

week 1?

week 2?

week 3?

A

1 - emergency contraception if unprotected sex was had

2 - no need for emergency contraception

3 - finish pills current pack + omit 7 day pill free interval

69
Q

UKMEC4 for pop

A

current breast cancer

70
Q

miscarriage tx

A

< 6 weeks = expectant management if no complications
> 6 weeks = refer to EPAU

misoprostol

surgical = manual vacuum aspiration can be done if <10 weeks

71
Q

switching from POP to COCP, how many days extra protection?

A

7 days

72
Q

mastitis tx

A

continue breastfeeding and simple analgesia/ warm compresses

if no improvement 12 hrs later, give oral fluclox

73
Q

how long does POP take to first work

A

2 days

74
Q

emergency contraception within 120 hrs

A

ulipristal

75
Q

emergency contraception for an asthmatic

A

levonorgesterel within 72 hrs

76
Q

induction of labour if bishop score <_6

A

vaginal prostaglandins / oral misoprostol
consider balloon catheter

77
Q

induction of labour if bishop score >6

A

amniotomy and IV oxytocin infusion

78
Q

best measure of ovulation

A

prog levels 7 days before last day of menstrual cycle

79
Q

cystocele surgical tx

A

anterior colporrhapy

80
Q

stress incontinence tx

A

1st = pelvic floor muscle training
lifestyle (weight loss, caffeine reduce, smoking reduce)
2nd = duloxetene

81
Q

urge incontinence tx

A

1st = lifestyle + bladder retraining
2nd = anticholingergics (oxybutynin, tolterodine, etc.) or mirabegron

82
Q

hormone levels in menopause

A

low oestrogen and prog
high LH and FSH

83
Q

depo injection SEs

A

weight gain + osteoporosis

84
Q

asherman’s pres and ix/tx

A
  • Typically after recent d&c, uterine surgery or endometritis, with:
  • Secondary amenorrhoea (absent periods)
  • Sig lighter periods
  • Dysmenorrhoea
  • Poss infertility

gold ix/tx = hysteroscopy

People cause hysterical (hysteroscopy 1st tx) damage, Vansh tries to repair (adhesions), people take an absent period from alcohol (lighter periods, amenorrhoea)

85
Q

what is the name of the phenomenon associated with lichen sclerosis

A

Koebner phenomenon - signs and symptoms worse with friction e.g. tight underwear

86
Q

lichen sclerosis tx

A

clobetasol propionate 0.05% (dermovate) for 4 weeks

87
Q

lichen sclerosis associated with what conditions and cancer

A

autoimmune e.g. T1DM, alopecia, vitiligo, hypothyroid

Risk of squamous cell carcinoma of vulva

88
Q

atrophic vaginitis tx contraindicated in what conditions

A

topical oestrogen:
breast cancer
angina
VTE

89
Q

vulval cancer typical pres

A

old age 75+
immunosupression
lichen sclerosis
HPV

vulval lump
ulceration
lymphodenopathy
labia majora affected

90
Q

cervical cancer most common type

A

squamous cell

91
Q

what HPV strains are associated with cervical cancer

A

16 and 18

92
Q

cervical cancer RF and typical pres

A

HPV association
COCP use >5 yrs
smoking
fhx
HIV
increased no. full term pregs
poss exposure to diethylstilbesterol during fetal development (was used to prevent miscarriages before 1971)

asymptomatic / non specific
post-coital bleeding
abnormal bleeding, discharge, pain

93
Q

smear schedule based on age?

A
  • Under 25: invited 6 months before
  • 25-49: every 3 years
  • 50-64 – every 5 years
  • 65+ - only if recent abnormal test
94
Q

when can you have a smear after pregnancy

A

12 weeks post-partum

95
Q

smear cell process

A
  • speculum exam, cells collected from cervix and deposited into preservation fluid (liquid based cytology)
  • high-risk HPV test
  • if positive, then examined for dyskaryosis
96
Q

what do you do if hrHPV comes back inadequate

A
  • repeat sample within 3 months
  • if two consecutive inadequate samples = colposcopy
97
Q

endometrial cancer cell type

A

adenocarcinoma

98
Q

endometrial cancer RFs and protective factors

A

Depend on pt’s exposure to unopposed oestrogen (oestrogen without progesterone)

  • Increased age
  • Earlier onset menstruation/ late menopause
  • Oestrogen only HRT
  • No or fewer pregs
  • Obesity
  • PCOS
  • Tamoxifen
  • T2DM and HNPCC or Lynch syndrome

protective:
- COCP
- mirena coil
- more pregs
- smoking

99
Q

endometrial cancer ix

A

TVUS
pipelle biopsy
hysteroscopy w biopsy

100
Q

endometrial ca tx

A

Total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (TAH and BSO – removel of uterus, cervix and adnexa)

101
Q

endometrial polyps gold std ix and tx

A

TVUS
hysteroscopy

102
Q

endometriosis typical pres

A

cyclical pelvic pain
dysmenorrhoea
deep dyspareunia
poss retroverted uterus

103
Q

Older woman >30yrs
Menorrhagia
Large boggy uterus
Painful cramps

Typical pres of?

A

Adenomyosis

104
Q

adenomyosis tx

A

tranxemic acid if no pain
mefenamic acid if pain
if contraception wanted- 1st Mirena coil, 2nd COCP

MY condition, bc of the tranexamic and mefenamic acid

105
Q

Fibroids typical pres

A

Fat, black, old, vit D association (FiBrOiDs)

menorrhagia
poss abd mass - bloating, increased urinary freq
anaemia
dyspareunia

106
Q

fibroids tx

A

<3cm = Mirena coil (IUS) 1st line, symptomatic management

> 3cm = refer to gynae, symptomatic tx, GnRH before surgery, poss myomectomy (only tx whilst preserving fertility)

107
Q

ovarian cancer RF anf PF

A

anything that increases duration pt is ovulating for

  • age
  • BRCA
  • early onset periods, late menopause
  • no pregs
  • HRT
  • obesity
  • smoking
  • use of clomifene

protective
- COCP
- preg
- breastfeeding

108
Q

early satiety, bloating, pelvic pain, poss masses, urinary symptoms, older female

suspect what

A

ovarian cancer

109
Q

PCOS rotterdam criteria

A

2/3 needed:
- oligoovulation/ anovulation
- hyperandrogenism/ hirtutism
- polycystic ovaries on US

110
Q

PCOS ix and results

A

raised testo
raised LH
raised LH to FSH ratio
normal FSH
low SHBG

gold = TVUS showing string of pearls/ polycystic ovaries

diabetes screen OGTT

111
Q

PCOS tx

A

reduce endometrial cancer risk: induce bleed with COCP, mirena coil or cyclical prog

infertility: 1st weight loss if overweight, or clomifene if normal weight. 2nd = metformin

hirtsutism: weight loss, COCP (co-cyprindiol)

acne: 1st COCP (co-cyprindiol), consider retinoid

112
Q

co-cyprindiol SE

A

risk of VTE - stop 3 months after use

113
Q

PID tx

A

CDM (cef, doxy, metro)

114
Q

sepsis six?

A

GIVE
- o2
- IV abx
- fluids

TAKE
- urine output
- blood cultures
- lactate

115
Q

trimethoprim MOA and SE in first semester

A

folate antagonist - neural tube defects

116
Q

how often is the depo injection given

A

IM, every 12 weeks

117
Q

criteria and tx for low, mod and high risk ectopic

A

low:
- unruptured
- adnexal mass <35mm
- no visible heartbeat
- no sig pain
- no bleeding
- HCG <1500 IU/l
- patient is able to return for follow-up

repeat bHCG on day 2,4,7 to show level falling

mod:
same as above but
- HCG <5000 IU/l
- confirmed absence of intrauterine preg on US

IM methotrexate

severe:
- pain
- adnexal mass >35mm
- visible heartbeat
- HCG >5000 IU/l
- instability, etc
- or 1st line if a women wants it

surgery - laprascopic salpingectomy 1st (removes fallopian) or salpingotomy 2nd (saves fallopian tubes)

118
Q

molar preg pres

A

severe morning sickness
vag bleeding first or second trimester
increased enlargement uterus
abnormally high hCG
thyrotoxicosis

119
Q

termination of preg meds

A

oral mifepristone
then 48 hrs later, vaginal misoprostol

preg test after 2 weeks to confirm

120
Q

gestinational diabetes cut off values

A

fasting >5.6mmol/l
2 hours >7.8mmol/l

(5,6,7,8)

121
Q

PET high risk factors + prophylaxis

A

CHAD

CKD
Hx htn or pet
Autoimmune conditions
Diabetes

75mg aspirin od from 12 weeks to birth

122
Q

PET seizure med, its SE and tx

A

IV mag sulfate

bronchodilator, monitor resp function

if distress, tx with calcium gluconate

123
Q

PET tx

A

1) labetalol
2) nifedipine
3) methyldopa

admit if over 160/110

124
Q

PET complications

A

HELLP

Haemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low Platelets

125
Q

contraindication for iron infusion

A

active infection
allergy

126
Q

what is the VTE prophylaxis + when is it contraindicated

A

LMWH from 28 weeks onwards, stopped during labour, then continue 6 weeks postnatally

contraindicated w PPH, spinal anaesthesia, epidurals

127
Q

P-PROM tx

A

abx - erythro for 10 days (preventing chorioamniotitis)
steroids to mature lungs
induction of labour from 34 weeks

127
Q

PPROM, maternal pyrexia + tachy and fetal tachy

A

chorioamniotis

128
Q

Tocolytic med examples

A

Nifidipine
Terbutaline

128
Q

what is given after instrumental delivery

A

single dose co-amox

129
Q

shoulder dystocia tx

A

call for help
mcrobert’s manouevre
suprapubic pressure
consider episiotomy

130
Q

placenta praevia RF

A

chossi

C section
hx
older
smoking
structural
IVF

131
Q

PPH amount after vag delivery vs c section

A

500ml after vaginal delivery
1000ml after C section

132
Q

primary vs secondary PPH

A
  • Primary PPH = bleeding within 24 hours of birth
  • Secondary PPH = from 24 hours to 12 weeks after birth
133
Q

When do you give anti-D prophylaxis and what is it

A

IM anti-D injections to rhesus neg women at 28 weeks gest and birth if baby is rhesus positive

also at any time sensitisation could occur, e.g. APH, ectopic preg surgery, abortion (if after 10 weeks gest), amniocentesis, trauma, within 72 hrs

then Kleinhauer test at 20 weeks to assess

134
Q

most common cause of neonatal sepsis? and its tx?

A

maternal GBS

IV abx (ben pen/ pen G) during labour (around 4 hrs before delivery) to mother

135
Q

LUTS

A

HDFUSS

haematuria
dysuria
frequency
urgency
smelly
suprapubic pain

136
Q

most effective form of emergency contraception

A

copper IUD

then consider ulipristal (not in asthma) or levonorgestrel

137
Q

what condition is associated withpost-coital bleeding

A

cervical cancer

138
Q

what are the stages of fetal descent through the birth canal

A

Descent
Engagement
Flexion
Internal rotation
Crowning
Extension of presenting part
External rotation of head
Delivery

139
Q

What is AFI and MVP and what are the cut offs

A

Amniotic fluid index - how deep fluid in 4 areas added up
Mean vertical pocket - deepest area of fluid
oligo = AFI < 5cm, MVP < 2cm
poly = AFI >25cm, MVP >8cm

140
Q

what cancers does the COCP protect against and increase the risk of?

A

protect (protects the vowels):
- endometrial
- ovarian

increase risk:
- breast
- cervical

141
Q

PID + RUQ pain is indicative of what?

A

fitz hugh curtis

Rabiah's 3a (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions