ObGyn Flashcards

1
Q

Barrier Methods of Contraception

A

Diaphragm

Cervical cap

Male and Female Condoms

Sponge

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2
Q

When should a diaphram be refitted?

A

After full-term pregnancy (and should not be used postpartum until uterine involution is complete);

Abdominal or pelvic surgery,

Miscarriage or abortion after 14 weeks of pregnancy (and should not be used until 6 weeks after a second-trimester abortion)

Weight change after pregnancy of 20 percent or more.

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3
Q

Diaphram: how to used?

A

filled with spermicide and inserted into the upper vagina covering the cervix creating a spermicidal barrier at the cervical opening.

Diaphrag must be left in the vagina for 6 to 8 hours after intercourse and removed after this period (24h max)

Cervical cap can be left in place for up to 48 hours. It is not recommended for use during menstruation.

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4
Q

Considerations about natural animal condoms

A

No protection against STIs

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5
Q

How to use female comdoms?

A

It can be inserted up to 8 hours before intercourse and it should be removed and discarded immediately after.

Female and male condoms should not be used simultaneously because they can adhere to each other and cause slippage or breakage of one or both devices.

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6
Q

Vasectomy: technques?

A

No-scalpel vasectomy (NSV) - most common

No-needle/no-scalpel vasectomy (NNV)

NSV is considered the standard of care. In NSV, the physician uses a small needle to inject anaesthesia into the skin and vas deferens. In NNV, the physician uses a piston-like instrument to force anaesthetic into the tissues. After anesthetizing the area, the provider creates a small opening (a few millimetres) in the skin of the scrotal sac and locates the vas deferens. The vas are then ligated or cauterized; there is no need for sutures.

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7
Q

Vasectomy: considerations

A

Sexual activity may be resumed about 1 week after the procedure or the time at which the patient feels comfortable.

A backup contraceptive method is needed until the patient has had at least one negative sperm check at least 3 months after the procedure and at least 20 ejaculations.

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8
Q

Female sterilization: techniques and considerations?

A

Surgical tubal occlusion may be done as a laparoscopic procedure or as mini-laparotomy.

These procedures are usually selected for sterilization after childbirth and can be performed on an outpatient basis as ambulatory surgery.

Laparotomy, or an open tubal ligation, requires a hospital stay and is less commonly performed for sterilization purposes.

After the outpatient procedures, women may resume having sexual intercourse as soon as they feel comfortable.

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9
Q

Fertility Awareness: considerations?

A

A variety of contraceptive methods known variously as fertility awareness, natural family planning, rhythm, and other names may be suitable choices for couples who are highly motivated to abstain from vaginal intercourse or who use a barrier method during “fertile” days.

All fertility awareness methods are based on identifying the fertile days in a woman’s menstrual cycle by counting the days in the menstrual cycle and/or noting changes in fertile signs such as cervical mucus and basal body temperature (BBT).

Most effective for women who have reliably regular menstrual periods, between 26 and 32 days in length.

!!!! Women who have two or more periods differing from this length within a single calendar year are not good candidates for these methods !!!!!

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10
Q

Lactation as contraceptive: criteria?

A

Only for women who meet all three of the following conditions:

she is less than six months postpartum,

she is breastfeeding exclusively,

she is amenorrheic.

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11
Q

Lactation as contraceptive: mechanis?

A

A delay in resumption of ovulation postpartum due to prolactin-induced inhibition of pulsatile gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) release from the hypothalamus.

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12
Q

Spermicides: considerations?

A

Spermicides can be applied up to 1 hour before intercourse and must be reapplied with each act of intercourse.

There is an increased risk of vaginal irritation, yeast infection, bacterial vaginosis, UTI and HIV transmission with frequent use (twice daily or more)

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13
Q

Copper IUD: contraindications?

A

Pregnant or thing they may be pregnant,

have septic pregnancy or abortion

have unexplained abnormal vaginal bleeding,

have untreated cervical cancer,

have malignant gestational trophoblastic disease,

have uterine cancer or an abnormal uterus,

have had a pelvic infection or STI within the past 3 months

have pelvic tuberculosis.

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14
Q

BBT method: considerations?

A

Avoid intercourse if rise in 0,3-0,4ºC compared to the six previos day.

Restart sex after 48h in normal BBT

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15
Q

Copper IUD: Considerations?

A

It’s not the best option for women who still want to return to fertility, specially fast return, or who doesn’t have any children yet.

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16
Q

COC overview

A

combined low does synthetic oestrogen (ethinyl estradial 20 – 35 µg) and progestin (norethinedrone, norgestrel, levonorgestrel, dosogestrel, norgestimate, dospirenone) that is taken once a day most commonly for 21 days followed by a seven day break.

Acts at the level of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis to suppress the woman’s levels of FSH and LH to basal levels. This prevents the natural surge of LH that occurs mid-cycle and stops ovulation from occurring. In addition, it causes the decidualization of the endometrium and thickens the cervical mucus resulting in decreased sperm penetration.

Aside from being an effective contraceptive, the OCP can be used in patients to treat dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia and in some cases, endometriosis.

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17
Q

Risks and side effects of the combined oral contraceptive

A

Higher oestrogen dose oral contraceptives are associated with estrogenic side effects such as breast tenderness, nausea and abdominal bloating. Very low dose oestrogen oral contraceptives are associated with higher rates of bleeding disruptions including breakthrough bleeding — the most common side effect

The number of bleeding or spotting days is highest in the first three months of use and decreases thereafter

Cancer increase and decrease risks

risks were significantly lower for colorectal, endometrial and ovarian cancer

The incidence of breast cancer was similar in pill users and patients who had never used the OCP

Significant trends of increasing risk of cervical cancer

Patients on OCP with high doses of oestrogen are also at an increased risk for venous thromboembolism. In addition, COC have been associated with the development of hypertension, myocardial infarction and CVA, hepatic adenomas, and hypertriglyceridemia-induced acute pancreatitis.

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18
Q

COC - what’s the most important caution?

A

It’s mandatory to check if the patient is
pregnant before starting (Beta-HCG)

Thrombophilia screening can be considered, if there’s history

Check the patient in 3 months after starting to see if there’s any symptoms.

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19
Q

COC contraindications

A

Absolute: 2w post partum, history of TE or cerebrovascular disease, migraine with Aura, estrogen-dependent tumors like breast cancer, impaired liver function test or policythemia,

Relative: heavy smoking + >35yo, breastfeeding, HAS, hiperlypidaemia, depression, BMI >35,

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20
Q

COC - About use and forgetting:

A

Shall be used on the same time everyday. If not: alternate contraception method for 7 days
If forgeting to use but remembered within 24h, take the pill ASA remember.
If forgeting for >24H, take the missed pill e continue. But, if the dummy period starts within 7 days, skip it and alternate contraception method for 7 days
If 2 pills missed in the first week, emergency contraception if sex in the previous week in the free pill period or in the current week.
If pills are missed in the 2nd week, no need
If pills are missed in the 3rd week, the next pack must be started withou free period

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21
Q

COC - Most common side effect?

A

Breakthrough bleeding (20-30% of women have i).

It settles in 24 months. If not or if it worries the woman, consider:

  • change to higher oestrogen dose pill, but never 50 mcg of ethyniloestradiol because enhances risk of TE
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22
Q

Progestin-only Pill (POP)(“minipill”)
- Overview

A

Contains only progesterone (e.g. Micronor® 0.35 mg norethindrone) once a day at the same time every day with only a three hour leeway and no pill free days.

It works by thickening cervical mucus and creating a hostile environment for sperm.

In 60% of women, ovulation is inhibited

In non-breast-feeding women, only 30% will ovulate with the mini-pill.

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23
Q

POP - Risks and Side effects

A

menstrual irregularities are common. Unscheduled bleeding, spotting and amenorrhoea are common menstrual patterns.

flaring of acne and headaches

POP have little effect on coagulation factors, blood pressure or lipid levels. They lower the overall risk of ectopic pregnancy as well as intrauterine pregnancy and endometrial cancer.

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24
Q

POP - forgetting

A

If it is taken more than three hours late, it is not protective and alternative contraception should be used for the next three days.

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25
Q

Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) (Depo-Provera®) - overview

A

It is usually initiated within 5 days of beginning of normal menses, immediately post-partum in breastfeeding and non-breastfeeding women

It is a particularly good choice in women in whom an oestrogen-containing contraceptive is either contraindicated or causes additional health concerns.

It works by inhibiting follicular development and preventing ovulation primarily. The progestogen decreases the pulse frequency of GnRH release by the hypothalamus which decreases the release of FSH and LH by the anterior pituitary. Decreased levels of FSH inhibit follicular development preventing an increase in oestrogen levels. Progestogen negative feedback and the lack of oestrogen positive feedback on LH release prevent a LH surge thus preventing ovulation. A secondary mechanism of action is inhibition of sperm penetration by changes in the cervical mucus. Inhibition of ovarian function causes the endometrium to become thin and atrophic therefore theoretically also preventing implantation.

With correct use, the probability of pregnancy in the first year is <1% whereas with typical use, it is 6%.

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26
Q

Contraceptive vaginal ring - Oestrogen-progestin contraceptive ring (NuvaRing®) - overview

A

Are based on the principle that the vaginal epithelium can absorb steroids and steroids in turn can be released from a silicone elastomer into the vagina at a constant rate. Avoiding gastrointestinal absorption and hepatic first pass metabolism allows use of lower hormone does to achieve contraceptive effects.

With perfect use, the failure rate is 0.3% while with typical use, it is 9%.

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27
Q

Until what age is consedered safe to use COC?

A

50 YO
After -> increased risk of CV disease, breast and cervix cancer, VTE

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28
Q

Fibroids - epidemiology and overview

A

Fibroids are a benign tumour of the myometrium. They are currently the most common benign tumour in females and close to half of all women over 40 years of age will have at least one fibroid.

It’s the most common cause of hysterechtomy

The cause is unknown

In a very small percentage (0.1-.0.5%) fibroids can transform into a malignant tumour.

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29
Q

Fibroids - risk factors?

A

Nulliparity (never having given birth)
Being overweight or obese.
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Family history
African

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30
Q

Fibroids - investigation?

A

Pelvic or TV ultrasound - most useful
Histeroscopy - best way to diagnose
MRI - most accurate (when that are multiple or cancer is suspected)

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31
Q

Fibroids - treatment

A

If asymptomatic, nothing is needed

IUD Mirena (not if nulliparous)

Fibroids will recur in up to 60% of women after a laparotomy and in up to 25% after a laparoscopic surgery.

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32
Q

Thyroid disease effects on periods?

A

Hyperthyroidism - less periods

Hypothyroidism - more periods

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33
Q

What is pelvic congestion?

A

Swelling and inflammation of the connective tissue in pelvic ligaments due to hormone influencie.

Causes Pain NOT related to periods

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34
Q

Most common cause of dysmenorrhea?

A

Shift from anovulatory to ovulatory periods due to higher sensitivity to prostaglandines

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35
Q

Menorrhagia - definition?

A

Menstrual blood loss (MBL) exceeding 80mL

An average of 35 mL of menstrual blood is lost during a menstrual period.

!!! Is the most frequent cause of iron deficiency anaemia in Australian women !!!

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36
Q

Hysteroscopy is the gold-standard investigation for endometrial pathology and excessive bleeding, but are generally not first-line investigations. When should they be performed?

A

In women aged over 45,

Intermenstrual bleeding or persisting menorrhagia despite medical therapy

If abnormality is detected on US or endometrial thickness exceeds 12 mm

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37
Q

Menorrhagia - treatments?

A

First line:

  • Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
  • Tranexamic acid (^^^^ risk of VTE)
  • Combined oral contraceptive pill: choice in patients with anovulatory menorrhagia, as it lowers the risk of endometrial cancer.
  • Oral progestogens
  • Levonorgestrel Intrauterine System (LNG-IUS): Around 30% of women are amenorrhoeic after 12 months.

Second line:

  • Danazol - has virilising effects
  • Surgical: in patients who have failed medical therapy and completed their family.
  • Endometrial ablation
  • Hysterectomy
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38
Q

Dysmenorrhoea - pathophysiology and epidemiology

A

Increased prostaglandin F2a (PGF2a), which stimulates uterine contractions. Blood flow is reduced causing ischaemia.

The production of PGF2a requires progesterone, which explains the association between dysmenorrhoea and ovulatory cycles.

Primary dysmenorrhoea affects 71.7% of Australian women, with 15.0% of women experiencing severe pain.

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39
Q

Dysmenorrhoea - risk factors

A

Less than 30 years of age,
Having a low body mass index,
Menarche at less than 12 years of age,
Longer and heavier menstrual periods, smoking,
Alcohol,
history of sexual abuse,
sterilisation,
suspected pelvic inflammatory disease psychological symptoms

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40
Q

Dysmenorrhoea - Investigations, diagnosis and differential diagnosis

A

Primary dysmenorrhoea can be diagnosed on the basis of history and examination but Endometriosis and pelvic inflammatory disease should be excluded.

Investigations include high vaginal and endocervical swabs to exclude pelvic inflammatory disease and transvaginal pelvic ultrasound scans to identify endometriomas or adenomyosis.

Laparoscopy is the gold standard for the evaluation of dysmenorrhoea. It is performed in suspected endometriosis, or when previous investigations have been normal.

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41
Q

Dysmenorrhoea - treatment

A

Lifestyle & Alternative Treatments

  • Low-fat, vegetarian diets and heat in the form of topical abdominal patches have been shown to improve dysmenorrhoea. Also Vitamin B1, magnesium and Chinese herbal medicine

Medical

NSAIDs - first-line treatment. Should be given two days before menstruation and taken for the first three days of menstruation. Suggested doses include mefanamic acid 500mg orally, three times daily or ibuprofen 200 to 400mg orally, 3 times daily.

COCP - induce anovulation and reduce endometrial prostaglandin production

Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system - stimulating endometrial atrophy.

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42
Q

Postmenopausal bleeding (PMB) - definition and etiology

A

Vaginal bleeding occurring 12 months after the last period.

10% of all patients presenting with PMB will have endometrial carcinoma

Other causes include atrophic vaginitis, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial polyps, and uterine fibroids.

Irregular vaginal bleeding is common in the first six to twelve months of starting HRT, but PMB persisting one year after HRT initiation requires further investigation.

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43
Q

Postmenopausal bleeding (PMB) - Investigations, diagnosis and differential diagnosis

A

PMB is endometrial cancer until proven otherwise.

The first-line investigation is transvaginal ultrasound assessing endometrial thickness. Endometrial thickness exceeding 5 mm warrants endometrial biopsy Biopsy is also indicated in patients with persistent PMB despite normal ultrasound findings.

Tamoxifen causes irregular, cystic thickening of the endometrium. As such, patients with PMB on tamoxifen should proceed straight to hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy.

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44
Q

Postmenopausal bleeding - Causes and Treatment

A

Atrophic vaginitis - Local vaginal oestrogen

Cervical polyps - Resection under speculum examination

Endometrial polyps - Hysteroscopic resection

Endometrial hyperplasia - Progestins (e.g. oral or LNG-IUS) or hysterectomy

Endometrial cancer -
Appropriate treatment is dependent on the stage and grade of endometrial cancer

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45
Q

Menopause - pathophysiology

A

During the menopausal transition, the number of ovarian follicles decline. The remaining ovarian follicles are less responsive to FSH levels and ovarian inhibin production subsequently falls. With the loss of negative feedback from the ovary, FSH levels rise. Despite stimulation from FSH, the declining supply of functioning ovarian follicles cause oestrogen levels to further decrease. Anovulatory cycles become increasingly frequent. With each subsequent menstrual cycle, fewer ovarian follicles are recruited until eventually no follicles are recruited at all. FSH and LH remain persistently elevated while oestradiol levels stabilize, falling below 20 pg/mL.

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46
Q

Menopause - Diagnosis

A

Clinical and retrospective

But, FSH levels above 40 mIU/mL are also diagnostic of menopause.

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47
Q

Menopause - Treatment

A

Lifestyle modification:

  • Smoking cessation to reduce exacerbation of vasomotor symptoms.
  • LIfestyle changes include stress management, regular exercise and weight optimization.
  • Vasomotor triggers, such as caffeine, alcohol, hot drinks and spicy food, should be avoided.

Hormonal Therapies

  • HRT should only be reserved for very symptomatic patients.
  • Avoid HRT in patients with a history of breast cancer, venous or arterial thromboembolic disease, pre-existing cardiovascular and cerebrovascular disease and uncontrolled hypertension.

Synthetic steroid

Tibolone is a synthetic steroid. It has oestrogenic, progestogenic and weak androgenic effects and can be used for vasomotor and urogenital symptoms, but is less effective when compared to combined HRT. It offers bone protection but may increase the risk of recurrent breast cancer and stroke.

Selective serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors

Venlafaxine (SNRI) and paroxetine (SSRI) are considered the most effective SSRIs for vasomotor symptoms.
!! Paroxetine should be avoided if taking Tamoxifen for breast cancer

Relief of Urogenital Symptoms

Local vaginal oestrogen is the treatment of choice for women with vaginal symptoms only. Progestogens are usually not required, but are recommended if the dose of oestradiol is over 0.5mg daily due to possible systemic absorption.

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48
Q

HRT in menopause: overview

A

It is recommended that the lowest dose of HRT that allows adequate symptom control should be prescribed for the minimum duration. Most guidelines advise 4 to 5 years for duration of HRT use.

Women should be reviewed every 6 to 12 months for follow-up of symptoms and need for continuing HRT.

Transdermal therapy may be preferred in patients with limited oral absorption or with risk factors for thromboembolic disease.

Oestrogen-only preparations may be used in women after hysterectomy - doesn’t enhance breast cancer risk if used only UP TO SEVEN YEARS

Progesterone is required in women with an intact uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and cancer.

Avoid IF: history of breast cancer, venous or arterial thromboembolic disease, pre-existing cardiovascular and cerebrovascular disease and uncontrolled hypertension.

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49
Q

Factors associated with earlier onset of menopause

A

Smoking
Advances age of menopause by 2 years
Nulliparity
Pelvic surgery, radiation and chemotherapy Leads to artificial menopause.
Family history of early menopause Ethnicity
Black and Hispanic women undergo menopause around 2 years earlier than their Caucasian counterparts
Lower educational attainment
Being separated, widowed or divorced Being unemployed
History of heart disease

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50
Q

Breast cancer - risk factors

A

Family history – there is a 3 to 4 fold increase in developing breast cancer in women who have a first degree relative with a history of breast cancer.

BRCA 1 gene mutation found on chromosome 17 is found in families with early onset breast cancer and ovarian cancer. BRCA 2 gene mutation on chromosome 13 is also associated

Early menarche and late menopause

Nulliparity and late age of first pregnancy The highest risk group in this regard are found in women who have their first child after 35.

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51
Q

PRE CONCEPTION CARE - Diet (what to avoid), vaccination

A
  • Unpasteurised dairy products, soft cheese
    (Risk of Listeria- foetal mortality- 30-50%)
  • Raw meat ( risk of toxoplasma )
  • Mantain good exercise routine and avoid SAD (alcohol)
  • Reduce caffiene intake (IUGR) up to 2 cups of tea / 1cup coffee per day is permissible.
  • Ensure rubella and chicken pox immunity- - check for rubella antibodies. If IgG negative (< 10IU/L) give 1 dose MMR + or- varicella vaccine and Advice not to become pregnant at least for 1 mnth preferably for 3 months. Test for seroconversion after 3 mths.
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52
Q

PRE CONCEPTION CARE - medications

A

5 Folic acid 0.5 mg/day 3 months before and 3 months after pregnancy.

High dose of 5 mg/day if on enzyme inducing medications like antiepileptics, in history of neural tube defects, family H/O neural tube defects and also in women with DM, coeliac disease and sickle cell anaemia.

Folic acid decreases incidence of neural tube defects and spina bifida in baby.

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53
Q

Beta-HCG - when is it detected in blood and urine? When it peaks? Reference value for positive teste?

A

Detected by blood test about 11 days after conception and 12- 14 days by urine test.

Doubles every48- 72 hours, reaches peak in 8-11 weeks, then declines and levels off for rest of pregnancy.

HCG level above 25mIU/ml is considered positive for pregnancy.

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54
Q

First antenatal visit - what to do?

A

Confirm pregnancy by period history and urine/blood Beta HCG.

Book into hospital/ OP department

Complete O&G history- previous pregnancies/ miscarriages.

Medical/surgical history, family history, social history, medications/ allergy.

Establish EDC- by obstetric calendar- from first day of last period subtract 3 from months and add 7 to days. Naegele’s rule- add 7 days and 9 months.

If patient not quite sure of her LMP, do U/S at 8weeks to determine EDC ( dating scan)

Offer Down’s syndrome screening.

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55
Q

When to do USG to determine delivery predicted date?

A

8 w

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56
Q

Calculating the Estimated delivery date?

A

by obstetric calendar- from first day of last period subtract 3 from months and add 7 to days.

Naegele’s rule- add 7 days and 9 months.

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57
Q

First antenatal visit - Antenatal Investigations

A

Blood tests- FBE( Hb),UCE, Blood group and Rh, coagulation profile, Vit D, antibodies for rubella, chicken pox.

STI screen-HepB, Hep C, HIV, syphilis with patient’s consent.

Urine microscopy/ C&S.

PAP smear- if not taken during last 2 years. Safe up to 20 weeks but some recommend up to 24wks.

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58
Q

Pregnancy investigations: when to do US and screenings (and which ones)?

A

U/S at 18- 20 and 32 weeks. (first = 8w if patients doesn’t remember last menses)

Diabetic testing at 26/ 28 weeks.

GBS testing at 36 weeks.

First trimester screening tests for Down syndrome (9-12 weeks):

  • Ultrasonography for nuchal translucency (>0.5mm)
  • Maternal serum biomarkers: Increased free beta hCG with decreased pregnancy-associated plasma protein
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59
Q

How many antenatal visits are expected and when?

A

Average 12.

First trimester- 8-10 weeks.

Up to 28 weeks- every 4-6 weeks.

Up to 36 weeks- every 2 weeks

Up to delivery- every week.

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60
Q

What to look for every visit? (measures, examinations)

A

During each visit:

  • Record weight, BP.
  • Fundal height - if corresponds to gestational age +/- 2cm.
    Up to umbilicus in 20-22 weeks and xiphi sternum in 36-38wks.
    If greater think about wrong dates, poly hydramnios, multiple gestation, hydatidiform mole, big baby( DM), birth defects.
    If less, wrong dates, oligo hydramnios, IUGR, birth defects.
  • Foetal heart - 120-160 beats/min. Usually with hand held Doppler.
    If altered, CTG ( cardiotocographic monitoring)
  • Presentation - usually cephalic/vertex. Breech is the most common abnormal presentation. Face and brow are other abnormal presentations.
  • Normal lie is longitudinal. Other lies- transverse and oblique.
    Malpositions - Abnormal positions of vertex relative to maternal pelvis. Normal position is left occipitoanterior.
  • Occipito posterior( commonest abnormal position). occipito transverse.
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61
Q

Diet concerns during pregnancy

A

Eat most- cereals and bread, fruits and vegetables.
Eat moderate- diary products, meat and fish.
Eat least- sugar and refined carbs, polyunsaturated fats.
Could gain around 12 kg during pregnancy.
If healthy diet, no need for iron, calcium supplements. Only folic acid and iodine.

> > > > According to NHMRC, all women considering pregnancy, pregnant and breast feeding should take 150 micrograms/ day of iodine.

Iodine deficiency leads to defects in the brain, nervous system of the fetus and a reduced IQ in infants.
Dietary sources- fortified bread, dairy products and seafood except seaweed.
Requirement of iodine during pregnancy- 220 micrograms/day.
Requirement during breast feeding- 270 micrograms/day.
If patient is vegan, give folic acid, iron and iodine as supplements.

SAD
Avoid SAD during pregnancy.
No safe limit for drinking during pregnancy.
Effects of alcohol in pregnancy.
1 Miscarriage.
2 Premature birth.
3 Fetal alcohol syndrome- 2 in 1000 live births. Due to teratogenic effects of alcohol.

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62
Q

Vegan pregnant woman - recomendations

A

If patient is vegan, give folic acid, iron and iodine as supplements.

Requirement of iodine during pregnancy- 220 micrograms/day.

Requirement during breast feeding- 270 micrograms/day.

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63
Q

FEATURES OF FAS - Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

A

Microcephaly.

Facial defects- narrow forehead, short palpebral fissures, upturned nose, low set ears, long, smooth philtrum, thin upper lip, micrognathia.

Congenital heart disease.

Skeletal abnormalities.

Central nervous system dysfunction and mental retardation.

Markedly underweight till puberty.

Hyperactivity.

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64
Q

SMOKING IN PREGNANCY - complications

A

1 Ectopics.
2 Miscarriage.
3 Placenta praevia.
4 Abruptio placentae.
5 Low birth weight.
6 Premature labour.
7 SIDS.

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65
Q

SMOKING AND BREAST FEEDING

A

1 Decreased breast milk.
2 Decreased Vit C in breast milk.

Effect of smoking in the later life of child.
1 Asthma.
2 Obesity.

Quitting of smoking- First and foremost, behavioural therapies. Then if necessary, NRT (Nicotine replacement therapy)

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66
Q

Safest time to travel during pregnancy? Worst?

A

2nd trimester

Unadvised during 3rd

OFF after 36w

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67
Q

Weight gaing during pregnancy?

A

Weight gain

1st trimester- 1-2 kg.

2nd trimester and 3rd up to 36 weeks- 500gm/week.

Then levels off after 36 weeks.

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68
Q

Foetal movements - when

A

First in primi- 17- 20 wks.
In multi- 16-18 weeks.
Ideally it should be 10 or more per day.

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69
Q

VAGINAL BLEEDING IN EARLY PREGNANCY - Overview

A

Incidence in normal pregnancy- 10%.

Total incidence is around 25%.

Causes of normal light vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy

Hormonal - could trigger bleeding at the time of periods.( break through bleeding)

Embryo embedding into uterus.(implantation bleeding)

Cervical irritation- due to softening of cervix.

OTHER CAUSES:
Polyps.
Fibroids.
Clotting disorders

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70
Q

Recurrent/habitual abortions - incidence, causes

A
  • 3 consecutive pregnancy losses prior to 20 weeks.
  • Incidence- 1-2%.
  • Causes:
    Chromosomal abnormalities.- first trimester
    Immunologic- antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.
    Anatomical- uterine abnormalities, cervical incompetence.
    Endocrine- DM, thyroid.
    Haematologic- Thrombophilia.
    Infections.
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71
Q

Miscarriage - types, causes

A

Causes

First trimester- chromosomal abnormalities, APAS.

Second trimester- cervical incompetence, uncontrolled DM, infections.

TYPES

Missed abortion - Pregnancy lost but retained. Non viable retained intrauterine pregnancy.

Features - amenorrhea + non progressive pregnancy.

Threatened abortion
Symptoms - Minimal bleeding P/V + Minimal cramps.

Examination - Cervical os closed.

Pregnancy corresponds to gestational age.
50% might stop bleeding and have normal pregnancy.

Inevitable abortion
Symptoms - severe bleeding PV+ severe abdominal cramps.
Examination - Cervical os open.

Products at lower uterine segment.
Uterine size less.

Incomplete abortion
Symptoms - severe bleeding PV+ abdominal cramps+passage of POC.
Examination - Cervical os open.
Tissues protruding through os.
Uterine size less.

Complete abortion
Symptoms - bleeding PV+ abdominal cramps+ all POC lost.
So later bleeding subsides.
Examination - Cervical os closed.
Uterus empty.

ADMINISTER ANTI D GLOBULIN IF PATIENT IS Rh NEGETIVE after doing an indirect Coombs test and if it is negative.
Risk of recurrence- 1%
Risk in general population- 10- 20%.

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72
Q

Miscarriage - magement

A

In threatened- limit activities, admit and observe till bleeding stops. Rest not found to be very effective. U/s after 1 week.

Try to remove POC by sponge forceps in incomplete abortion.

Medical- by misoprostol (PGE1 analogue) orally/ vaginally. Brings cervical softening and induces uterine contractions. Usually before 9 weeks.

Surgical- dialatation and evacuation

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73
Q

ECTOPIC PREGNANCY - definition, most common sites

A

Implantation of blastocyst at sites other than endometrium.

Incidence - 1-2%

Sites-
1 Fallopian tube- most common site
2 Uterine cornua.
3 Ovary
4 Cervix
5 Abdominal/ pelvic cavity.

Most common part of tube for ectopics- ampulla.

Most common part of tube prone for early rupture- isthmus.

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74
Q

ECTOPIC PREGNANCY - RISK FACTORS

A

Tubal abnormalities - previous ectopic ( 10-25% chance of recurrence), H/O PID, tubal surgeries including ligation.
IUCD/ IUS.
Pregnancy due to GIFT, ZIFT.
Smoking.
Prior induced abortion.

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75
Q

ECTOPICS - INVESTIGATIONS

A

Urine pregnancy test- NEGATIVE in minority, weakly positive or positive.
Serum beta HCG estimation- shows decreased rise in Beta HCG levels.
Trans vaginal Ultrasound- Most important tool to diagnose ectopics. Around 5-6weeks.
Becomes positive only when Beta HCG level reaches 1500-1800 mIU/ml.
Findings in U/S- Empty uterus.
Adnexal mass.
Fluid in the POD.
Laparoscopy- criterion standard for diagnosis.

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76
Q

ECTOPICS - SYMPTOMS

A

Classic triad
Abdominal pain.( most common)
Amenorrhea.
Vaginal bleeding.( prune juice bleeding. Absent in 10-15%)
PRE RUPTURE SYMPTOMS

Cramping pain in one or more iliac fossa radiating to rectum,(lavatory sign) vagina or leg.
Vaginal bleeding.
RUPTURED ECTOPIC

Generalised, excruciating abdominal pain, shoulder pain.
Features of shock.

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77
Q

ECTOPICS - MANAGEMENT

A

Medical - Methotrexate - for unruptured.
DOSE - Single (50mg/m2) or multiple I/M injections or under ultrasonic guidance through hysteroscopy directly into sac. Considered more in ectopics in cervix, ovary and interstitial or cornual part of tube.

Action - interferes with DNA synthesis and disrupts cell multiplication.

Pre requesits - haemodynamically stable, no severe/ persisting abdominal pain, normal LFT and RFT.

Beta HCG <5000, no foetal cardiac activity.

CONTRAINDICATIONS

Absolute - Intrauterine pregnancy, sensitivity to methotrexate, immunodeficiency ,tubal rupture, breast feeding, liver/renal dysfunction, haematologic variations.

Relative - Beta HCG >5000, foetal cardiac activity, ectopic sac greater than 3.5- 4 cm in size, significant free fluid in the POD.

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78
Q

ECTOPICS - SURGERY

A

LAP with linear salpingostomy- especially for ampullary ectopics.

LAP with salpingectomy- damaged tubes, previous ectopic in the same tube, family completed.

LAP and segmental resection followed by delayed microsurgical re anastomosis.

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79
Q

ECTOPICS - FOLLOW UP

A

1 Serial Beta HCG estimation after 1 week until level is 0.

If decreasing- treatment effective.
If remaining same- consider another injection of
methotrexate.
If increasing- surgery.

COC until BHCG normalizes!!!

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80
Q

Hydatidiform mole - TYPES

A

Also called vesicular mole.

Incidence - 1:1200.

Gestational trophoblastic disease.
Abnormal placental development.
Types - Complete moles - has no foetal tissue. When a sperm fertilises an empty egg.
Partial mole - some foetal tissue is present. When 2 sperms fertilise 1 normal ovum.
Invasive mole - when it invades the uterus. Are not malignant.
Chorio carcinoma - when they turn cancerous

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81
Q

MOLE - PRESENTATION,

A

Cause

Exact cause unknown.
Diet deficient in carotene and animal fat may be a risk factor.
Risk of recurrence- 1-2%.

Clinical presentation

Vaginal bleeding- most common. Associated passage of vesicles/ grape like material.
Hyperemesis- due to high levels of beta HCG.
Exaggerated pregnancy symptoms.
Hyperthyroidism- due to stimulation of thyroid by high levels of Beta HCG.
Hypertension.
Asymptamatic.– diagnosed by U/S.

Examination.

Uterus large for dates.

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82
Q

MOLE - Investigations

A

Beta HCG- Very high. May be greater than 100,000mIU/mL.
FBE- anaemia.
Coagulation profile- coagulopathy.
LFT.
RFT.
TFT.
S. inhibin and S.activin- higher.

Pelvic U/S- Is the criterion standard. Shows snow storm appearance due to hydropic chorionic villi.

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83
Q

MOLE - Treatment

A

DRABCDE and stabilise patient if in shock.

SURGERY- Dialatation, suction evacuation and curettage. I/V oxytocin after dialatation of cervix, at the initiation of suction and continued post op to reduce bleeding.

Follow up
Prophylactic chemotherapy not recommended.
Serial beta HCG estimation weekly until 0, then monthly for 12 months. Pregnancy to be avoided for 1yr after Beta HCG becomes normal.
Contraception during follow up period- any contraceptive method - AT LEAST 1 YEAR AVOIDING PREGNANCY
If beta HCG levels plateau/rise, it could be an invasive mole or chorio carcinoma.

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84
Q

CHORIOCARCINOMA - RISK FACTORS, TREATMENT, SITES OF MTX

A

Risk factors

Age greater than 40 .
Complete mole.
Beta HCG above 100,000 IU/l.
Theca lutein cysts greater than 6 cm.

SITES OF METASTASIS
Lung- most common site.
Brain, liver, vagina.

Treatment
Chemo therapy- methotrexate with folic acid.
Follow up.

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85
Q

HYPEREMESIS GRAVIDARUM - PRESENTATION, CAUSES

A

Severe nausea, vomiting, dehydration, electrolyte disturbance and weight loss during pregnancy.
Commonest symptom is severe, constant nausea.
Subsides by 12 weeks.
Hyperemesis in normal pregnancy.
Hormonal- due to beta HCG and oestrogen.
Mechanical- due to decreased gastric peristalsis and emptying.
Emotional.

Causes
Normal pregnancy- 10%.
Mole
Multiple pregnancy.
Urinary infection.

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86
Q

HYPEREMESIS GRAVIDARUM - investigation and treatment

A

Investigations

Urine analysis- M/ C&S and also for ketones.
2 Blood - U&E, S.creatinine.
3 LFT.
4 U/S - exclude v.mole, multiple pregnancy.

Treatment

Admit if electrolyte disturbances.
Bed rest.
Nil orally.
Start I/V infusion- 0.9% NaCl or Hartmann’s.
Nasogastric feeding.
Antiemetic medications- metoclopramide 10mg I/v then 10mg tds.
Vitamins- Pyridoxine 25mg 1tab tds. Decreases nausea.
Small, frequent meals.

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87
Q

CARPAL TUNNEL SYNDROME IN PREGNANCY - CAUSE, TTX

A

Symptoms

Pain especially at night, tingling and numbness in the thumb, index finger, middle finger and radial half of ring finger.

Cause

Due to fluid retention caused by hormones.
Usually goes away after delivery.

Treatment
General measures- Rest, limit activities with affected hand, Ice application.
Splint or brace to maintain wrist in neutral position.
Surgery of volar carpal ligament is the last resort.

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88
Q

Prevelance of neural tube defects among non- indigenous population is double than in Aboriginal and Torres Islander babies -T OR F

A

TRUE

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89
Q

When can USG detect pregnancy?

A

Around 5-6w

If sack absent in uterus, consider echtopic

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90
Q

Pre-ovulatory follicle - size?

A

1.8 - 2.0 cm when about to burst

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91
Q

Multiloculated ovarian - benign or malignant?

A

Probably malignant. Mostly if containing solid elements.

Bening cyst are unilocular, thin walled

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92
Q

Normal blood loss during delivery?

A

600-800ml

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93
Q

Signs of hemorrhagic shock unjustifiable with the amount of per vaginal haemorrhage - Diagnosis? Risk factor?

A

Uturine rupture

Previous C-section is a risk factor

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94
Q

What heart condition can lead to death during pregnancy if present?

A

Mitral valve stenosis

The pregnancy-induced increase in blood volume, cardiac output, and tachycardia can increase the trans-mitral pressure gradient and cause pulmonary oedema in women with mitral stenosis.

Pregnancy associated with long-standing mitral stenosis may result in pulmonary hypertension.

Pregnant women with mitral stenosis are at increased risk for the development of atrial fibrillation and other tachyarrhythmias.

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95
Q

Uturine rupture - overview

A

Sudden abdominal pain followed by the cessation of contractions, the termination of the urge to push, and vaginal bleeding.

Abdominal examination shows no fetal heart activity, and signs of a fluid collection like the fluid thrill and shifting dullness are present. This fluid is blood, and it usually enters into the peritoneum after the rupture of the uterus.

Vaginal examination in such patients reveals a range of cervical dilatation with evidence of cephalopelvic disproportion.

The most common site of spontaneous uterine rupture is the anterior lower transverse segment. Patient with tachycardia and hypotension is in shock due to blood loss and requires urgent resuscitation.

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96
Q

Until when it’s normal to find bloody lochia?

A

Bloody lochia can persist for up to 2 weeks without indicating an underlying pathology; however, if bleeding continues beyond 2 weeks, it may indicate placental site subinvolution, retention of small placental fragments, or both.

At this point, appropriate diagnostic and therapeutic measures should be initiated.

The physician should first estimate the blood loss and then perform a pelvic examination in search of uterine subinvolution or tenderness. Excessive bleeding or tenderness should lead the physician to suspect retained placental fragments or endometritis.

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97
Q

When fetal heartsounds can be heard by doppler auscultation?

A

The fetal heart tones are audible in most patients at 10 weeks.

If no fetal heart tones are audible by Doppler auscultation and the patient is 10 weeks or more, an ultrasound of the pregnancy should be ordered.

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98
Q

Oligohydramnios - overview

A

Oligohydramnios is associated with an increased risk for fetal or neonatal death, which may be related to the underlying cause of the reduced amniotic fluid volume or due to sequelae of the reduced amniotic fluid volume. The volume of amniotic fluid reflects the balance between fluid production and movement of fluid out of the amniotic sac. The most common mechanisms for development of oligohydramnios are fetal oliguria/anuria and fluid loss due to rupture of membranes. A reduction in the egress of lung fluid and increased swallowing do not play major roles. Idiopathic cases (ie, idiopathic oligohydramnios) may be due to alterations in the expression of water pores (aquaporin 1, aquaporin 3) in fetal membranes and placenta.

Causes of oligohydramnios

Maternal
Medical or obstetric conditions associated with uteroplacental insufficiency (eg, preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, collagen vascular disease, nephropathy, thrombophilia)
Medications (eg, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, trastuzumab)
Placental
Abruption
Twin to twin transfusion (ie, twin polyhydramnios-oligohydramnios sequence)
Placental thrombosis or infarction
Fetal
Chromosomal abnormalities
Congenital abnormalities, especially those associated with impaired urine production
Growth restriction
Demise
Postterm pregnancy
Ruptured fetal membranes
Infection
Idiopathic
First trimester — The etiology of first trimester oligohydramnios is often unclear. Reduced amniotic fluid prior to 10 weeks of gestation is rare because gestational sac fluid is primarily derived from the fetal surface of the placenta, transamniotic flow from the maternal compartment, and secretions from the surface of the body of the embryo.
Second trimester — By the beginning of the second trimester, fetal urine begins to enter the amniotic sac, and the fetus begins to swallow amniotic fluid. Therefore, disorders related to the fetal renal/urinary system begin to play a prominent role in the etiology of oligohydramnios. These anomalies include intrinsic renal disorders (eg, cystic renal disease) and obstructive lesions of the lower urinary tract (eg, posterior urethral valves, urethral atresia). Maternal and placental factors, as well as rupture of the fetal membranes (traumatic or nontraumatic), are also common causes of oligohydramnios in the second trimester
Third trimester — Oligohydramnios first diagnosed in the third trimester is often associated with PPROM or with uteroplacental insufficiency due to conditions such as preeclampsia or other maternal vascular diseases. Oligohydramnios frequently accompanies fetal growth restriction related to uteroplacental insufficiency. Fetal anomalies and abruptio placentae also play a role at this gestational age. Amniotic fluid volume normally decreases postterm, so oligohydramnios may develop in these pregnancies. In addition, many cases of third trimester oligohydramnios are idiopathic. (Refer to individual topic reviews on these subjects).

There may be an association between pregnancy during the summer season and oligohydramnios, likely related to suboptimal maternal hydration in hot weather.

Maternal TORCH (toxoplasma gondii, rubella virus, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex virus) and parvovirus B19 infections that infect the fetus may be associated with second- or third-trimester oligohydramnios, often in association with other evidence of fetal infection

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99
Q

Initial evaluation of mixed urinary incontinence?

A

A voiding diary to classify predominant type of urinary incontinence (eg, stress, urgency) and to determine optimal treatment.

All patients with mixed incontinence generally require bladder training with lifestyle changes (eg, weight loss, smoking cessation, decreased alcohol and caffeine intake) and pelvic floor muscle exercises (eg, Kegels). Patients who have limited or incomplete symptom relief with bladder training may benefit from pharmacotherapy or surgery, depending on predominant type:

In patients with urgency-predominant incontinence, oral antimuscarinics and timed voiding (eg, urinating on a fixed schedule, rather than based on a sense of urgency) are used .
In patients with stress-predominant incontinence due to weakened pelvic floor muscles (eg, cystocele), surgery with a midurethral sling is performed

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100
Q

Spinal epidural abscess - overview

A

Spinal epidural abscess

Epidemiology

Staphylococcus aureus (65%)
Immunosuppression (HIV, diabetes mellitus, alcohol use, old age)
Inoculating sources
Distant infection (eg, cellulitis, joint/bone)
Spinal procedure (eg, epidural catheter)
Injection drug use
Manifestations

Classic triad
Fever (~50%)
Focal/severe back pain
Neurologic findings (eg, motor/sensory change, bowel/bladder dysfunction, paralysis)
Diagnosis

↑ ESR
Blood & aspirate cultures
MRI of the spine
Treatment

Broad-spectrum antibiotics (eg, vancomycin plus ceftriaxone)
Emergency aspiration/surgical decompression

Lumbar back pain, low-grade fever, and lower-extremity neurologic symptoms (eg, weakness, tingling, numbness), raises strong suspicion for spinal epidural abscess.

Most cases arise via hematogenous spread of a distant infection, contiguous spread from an adjacent infection (eg, vertebral osteomyelitis), or following direct inoculation during spinal/epidural anesthesia.

The epidural space is a vertical, contiguous area that contains fat, arteries, and a venous plexus; infections tend to affect multiple spinal levels and cause progressive neurologic impairment due to direct spinal cord compression, thrombophlebitis of the draining venous plexus, and/or interruption of the arterial blood supply. Although patients classically have the triad of fever, spinal pain, and neurologic symptoms, all 3 are present in a minority of cases. Most patients have fever, malaise, and neurologic symptoms that typically progress in the following fashion (due to worsening spinal cord compression):

Focal back pain → Nerve root pain (eg, shooting, electric-shock sensation) → Motor weakness, sensory changes, bowel/bladder dysregulation → Paralysis

Early diagnosis is crucial to prevent paralysis and death; MRI of the affected spinal area

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101
Q

Kleihauer-Betke testing - definition and indication

A

Measures the amount of fetal blood mixed into maternal circulation following trauma, which helps guide anti-D immunoglobulin dosing in Rh-negative patients (ie, to prevent Rh-alloimmunization).

Rh-positive patients are not at risk for Rh-alloimmunization, and testing does not change management.

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102
Q

Pregnant patient with abdominal pain, contractions, and vaginal bleeding following blunt abdominal trauma (eg, motor vehicle collision) likely has ?

A

Abruptio placentae (ie, placental abruption).

Due to the volume of blood supplied to the uterus, abruptio placentae can cause hypovolemic shock from hemorrhage (ie, hemorrhagic shock), as seen in this patient with hypotension, tachycardia, and cool extremities.

Management of the trauma patient with hemorrhagic shock requires rapid resuscitation with replacement of intravascular volume, transitioning from crystalloid to blood products as soon as possible. In addition, pregnant patients are placed in a left lateral decubitus position (if the spine is stable) to displace the uterus off the aortocaval vessels and maximize cardiac output.

If hemorrhage or hemodynamic instability continues despite initial resuscitation efforts, massive transfusion protocol (MTP) should be activated. MTP is the administration of packed red blood cells, platelets, and fresh frozen plasma in a 1:1:1 ratio to avoid coagulopathy from dilution of platelets and clotting factors.

Emergency cesarean delivery after maternal trauma may be indicated for imminent fetal compromise

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103
Q

rare side effect of oxytocin that can lead to seazure, confusion and lethargy?

A

Hyponatremia

Oxytocin, commonly used for induction of labor and postpartum hemorrhage management, has a similar structure to antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin); therefore, elevated levels can stimulate the renal collecting ducts to increase free water absorption. This leads to acute hyponatremia, decreased serum osmolality, and increased free water movement into the brain cells with resultant cerebral edema and seizure.

> > The risk of this rare but life-threatening side effect is increased with excessive or prolonged oxytocin administration, as seen in this patient who had a 48-hour oxytocin infusion followed by a bolus.

Management of oxytocin-induced hyponatremia includes cessation of oxytocin infusion and gradual administration of hypertonic saline (eg, 3% saline) in symptomatic patients (eg, seizures) to raise serum osmolality and reverse cerebral edema.

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104
Q

CMV - Overview during pregnancy

A

CMV(a DNA virus) is the most common cause of intrauterine infection and the most common viral cause of birth defects. Primary infection of the mother is often asymptomatic but may present as flue-like symptoms. Up to 50% of pregnant women are CMV lgG seropositive.

Vertical transmission from mother to fetus occurs mainly during the viremia of a primary infection. However, since the result of primary infection is predisposition to a residual life -long latency. fetal infection can occur with reactivation as well.

Transplacental fetal infection is 50% with primary infection, regardless of the gestational age but less than 1% with reactivation of a latent infection.

The infected newborn will be symptomatic in 10 % of cases, but of these 10% almost 90% carry a risk of sequelae including:

Microcephaly
Ascites
Hydrops fetalis
Oligo or polyhydramnios
Hepatomegaly
Pseudomeconium ileus
Hydrocephalus (ventricular dilation)
Intrauterine growth restriction(IUGR)
Pleural or pericardial effusions
lntracranial calcification
Abdominal calcification
Hearing loss
Serologic testing for cytomegalovirus is recommended for the following women in pregnancy:

History suggestive of CMV illness
Exposure to known CMV infected individual or blood product
lmmunocompromised
Abnormalities on routine antenatal ultrasound (usually at 18 weeks)
The serology results are interpreted as follows:

A patient with positive lgG but negative lgM has a had past exposure
Changing from an lgG-negative to an lgG-positive state (seroconversion) or a significant rise in lgG indicates a recent primary CMV infection
If the patient has a positive lgM with or without a positive lgG, the result is equivocal and the test should be repeated in 2-4 The reasons for this include:
lgM can remain positive for over one year after an acute infection; therefore, presence of CMV lgM is not helpful for timing of the onset of infection
lgM is only positive in only 75-90% of women with acute infection
lgM can revert from negative to positive in women with CMV reactivation or reinfection with a different strain
NOTE– Interpretation of CMV lgM results in pregnancy requires specialist opinion.

Fetal diagnosis is best achieved by a combination of fetal ultrasound, amniocentesis+/- fetal serology; however, the definite diagnosis of fetal infection is by amniocentesis and PCR or the amniotic fluid for CMV. It should be born in mind that positive results do not predict any degree of fetal damage.

Since this woman is 16 weeks pregnant. amniocentesis for definite diagnosis is the most appropriate option. Amniocentesis is performed in the rather small window of 15-18 (up to 20) weeks. However, repeating the test in 2-4 weeks was the most appropriate option if it was an option.

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105
Q

CMV - Fetal diagnostic evaluation?

A

Fetal diagnosis is best achieved by a combination of fetal ultrasound, amniocentesis+/- fetal serology; however, the definite diagnosis of fetal infection is by amniocentesis and PCR or the amniotic fluid for CMV. It should be born in mind that positive results do not predict any degree of fetal damage.

Since this woman is 16 weeks pregnant. amniocentesis for definite diagnosis is the most appropriate option. Amniocentesis is performed in the rather small window of 15-18 (up to 20) weeks. However, repeating the test in 2-4 weeks was the most appropriate option if it was an option.

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106
Q

Listeria monocytogenes infection durting pregnancy - worst outcomes?

A

Fetal demise

Listeria monocytogenes is a common foodborne infection due to consumption of contaminated food (eg, unpasteurized milk, deli meats) and typically causes a self-limited gastroenteritis. During pregnancy, L monocytogenes can cause transplacental fetal infection and possible intrauterine fetal demise.

Infection acquired in early pregnancy (eg, first and second trimesters) typically results in granulomatosis infantiseptica (ie, disseminated abscesses/granulomas) and possible intrauterine fetal demise. Infection in the third trimester may be less severe and present as fetal distress, preterm delivery, or early-onset neonatal sepsis.

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107
Q

How late can a breech baby turn?

A

36-37 weeks

If spontaneous version to cephalic presentation has not occurred consider following steps:
-External cephalic version.
-If external cephalic version is unsuccessful, consider Cesarean section or vaginal delivery at 38-39 weeks of gestation.

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108
Q

Types of breech presentation

A

Types of breech presentation include:

-Frank breech:
The fetal hips are flexed, and the knees extended (pike position).

-Complete breech:
The fetus seems to be sitting with hips and knees flexed.

-Footling breech:
One or both legs are completely extended and present before the buttocks.

-Kneeling breech:
The baby is in a kneeling position, with one or both legs extended at the hips and flexed at the knees

Fetal position is a transverse lie if the fetal long axis is oblique or perpendicular rather than parallel to the maternal long axis.

Shoulder-first presentation requires cesarian delivery unless the fetus is the 2nd twin.

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109
Q

Pelvic congestion - pain pattern? CF? Definition?

A

Swelling and inflammation of connective tissues in ligaments in pelvis due to hormones

Pain NOT RELATED to periods

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110
Q

Connection between thyroid and periods

A

Hypothyroidism - Heavier and more periods

Hyperthyroidism - Less periods

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111
Q

Change in periods - irregular to regular, with new onset of pain during the menses. Cause?

A

Higher sensitivity to prostaglandins and excessive production. Normal during the change from anovulatory to ovulatory cycles

112
Q

When to offer a GnRH analogue?

A

For ovulation induction in PCOs

113
Q

Primary Dysmenorrhea - CF

A

Menstrual pain associated with ovular cycles without any pathologic findings.

The pain usually commences within 1–2 years after the menarche and becomes less severe with age.
Due to excessive local prostaglandin release.

Features:

Low midline abdominal pain
Pain radiates to back or thighs
Usually lasts 24 hours but may persist for 2–3 days
May be associated with nausea and vomiting, headache, syncope or flushing
No abnormal findings on examination

114
Q

Primary Dysmenorrhea - management

A

Promote a healthy lifestyle:

regular exercise
avoid smoking and excessive alcohol
Yoga, hot water bottles
Medications:

Simple analgesics
NSAIDs
Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
COCs
Progesterone

115
Q

When is smoking contraindication for OCP?

A

After 35y with +15 cigarretes/day or aura present

116
Q

If OCP induced hypertension, what’s the net step?

A

Stop OCP for 1 month and reassess

117
Q

Calendar method - how to calculate?

A

The woman reviews and records six cycle lengths and then selects the shortest and longest cycles.

Ovulation always occurs 14 days before the period – length of luteal phase is always constant.

Subtract 14 from longest and shortest cycles to find out range of ovulation.

Subtract 6 from earliest ovulation – reflecting sperm survival

Add 2 to the latest ovulation – reflecting ovum survival

118
Q

Basal Body Temperature Method - features

A

At the time of ovulation serum progesterone levels start to rise à elevation in temperature rise of 0.3 – 0.4C after ovulation
(compared to BBT of six previous days)

Elevation remains until commencement of periods

OK to commence sexual activity when temperature has been elevated for two days.

119
Q

Tubal ligation - techniques

A

Common, safe procedure

Laparoscopically (unless at time of caesarean section)

Clips (Filshie), rings (Falope)

Potentially reversible method – 50% success rate of reversal

120
Q

Vasectomy - features, recommendations

A

Important to confirm the absence of spermatozoa in ejaculate 2-3 months after procedure – do not cease other contraceptive measures before

It takes 12-15 ejaculates to clear all sperm from tubes proximal to surgical division

Reversal successful in 80% of patients
1:500-1000 chance of recanalisation (vas deferns re-joins)

121
Q

COC overview (indications, when to start)

A

Provide:

good cycle control
effective contraception
least side effects using pill at lowest dose
As early as: in adolescents once menstruation has commenced

Counsel about save sex & STDs!! ADOLESCENTS = PILL + CONDOMS
Can be used safely up to 50 years of age (then, rises risk of breast and cervix cancer, cardiovascular disease)
Start on first day of menses
Cover starts from day one of cycle

122
Q

COC - Doses

A

COC combinations: (all + Progesterone)
Low dose - 20mcg,
Regular 30, 35 mcg,
High dose 50 mcg

FIRST CHOICE:
30 mcg ethinyloestradial (EO) with levenogestrel LNG or norethisterone NET–

High dose (50 mcg oestrogen) should be reserved for the following
Break through bleeding on low dose COCs
Control of menorrhagia
Concomitant use of enzyme-inducing drugs
Low dose pill failure
!!!! Decision with the specialist!!!!

123
Q

What are the Important advices to give for patients initiating COC? What tests to prescribe before?

A

Breakthrough bleeding in first 2-3 months is common

If persists start on COC with 50mcg EO

Periods tend to become shorter, lighter

Drug interactions affecting efficacy

Antacids, vit C, anitbiotics, (esp rifampicin), anticonvulsants (except sodium valporate)

Warfarin, oral hypoglycaemics,

Diarrhoea and vomiting (if vomiting within
2h of taking a pill, take additional active pill)

Yearly GP follow up! Check BP

Pap smear yearly

Common side effects get better with time

> > > > Mandatory to prescribe BetaHCG even if sexually absent.
+ Thrombophilia screening

124
Q

Contraindications to OCP

A

Absolute contraindications

< 6 wks postpartum
smoker over the age of 35 (>15 cigarettes per day)
hypertension (systolic > 160mmHg or diastolic > 100mmHg)
current of past histroy of venous thromboembolism (VTE)
ischemic heart disease
history of cerebrovascular accident
complicated valvular heart disease (pulmonary hypertension, atrial fibrillation, histroy of subacute bacterial endocarditis)
migraine headache with focal neurological symptoms
breast cancer (current)
diabetes with retinopathy/nephropathy/neuropathy
severe cirrhosis
liver tumour (adenoma or hepatoma) OR disease
Polycythaemia
Oestrogen-dependent tumours (e.g. breast)

Relative contraindications

smoker over the age of 35 (< 15 cigarettes per day)
adequately controlled hypertension
hypertension (systolic 140 - 159mmHg or diastolic 90 - 99mmHg)
migrain headache over the age of 35
currently symptomatic gallbladder disease
mild cirrhosis
history of combined OCP-related cholestasis
users of medications that may interfere with OCP metabolism
severe depression

125
Q

Missed pill - advises

A

In general: take missed pill ASAP and then resume usual pill taking schedule
If missed pill in week three – no pill-free interval, start new pack
If forgot to take pill >12h, take ASAP, resume usual schedule PLUS use condoms
Condoms/abstinence for 7 days if
Two for twenty – two or more 20 mcg pills are missed
Three for thirty – three or more of 30 mcg pills are missed
(take most recent pill asap, continue taking remaining pills, use condoms until pill is taken for 7 consecutive days)

126
Q

OCP - Common side effects

A

Acne
Amenorrhoea
Breakthrough bleeding
Breast problems: fullness/tenderness
Depression
Dysmenorrhoea / menorrhagia
Libido loss
Headache
Nausea/vomiting
Weight gain

127
Q

COCs and cancer

A

Possible effect (not absolutely proven) and possibly very low risk:
cervix (take regular smears at yearly intervals)
breast
Protective effect:
endometrial, colon
epithelial ovarian
No effect:
melanoma
choriocarcinoma
prolactinomas

128
Q

Mini pill indications

A

Progesterone only pill “Mini-pill”

Must be taken same time each day
Low compliance – shortens cycle

Indicated: lactation, >45, smokers >45, DM, migraine, well controlled HTN

129
Q

Depo - provera and Implanon features

A

Depo-Provera – IM injectable contraceptive

Effective for 14 weeks (give every 12 weeks in first 5 days of menstrual cycle)
SE: 70% amenorrhoea, excessive weight gain, breast tenderness, depression, delay in return to fertility (average 6 months)
Only use < 2 years, not recommended under 18 yrs old, preferably 25 yrs and older

Implanon – Sub cutaneous implant releases progesterone. Not for use in obese patients.

130
Q

IUCD intrauterine contraceptive device - features

A

CI: pregnancy, active PID, undiagnosed abnormal genital tract bleeding, previous ectopic pregnancy, severe uterine cavity distortion
If pregnancy occurs high risk of ectopic, 50% increased risk of abortion and intra-uterine sepsis. Early removal of IUCD essential
SE: extrusion, perforation, translocation, bleeding (spotting in first 2-3 months normal), back pain
Bioactive substance Copper – affect sperm motility and transport
6 – 10 years

Bioactive substance progesteron (Mirena)
5 years

131
Q

Emergency contraception - types

A

Yuzpe method

High dose COC (50 mcg EO + 250 mcg LNG e.g. Nordiol)
Two pills initially then repeated 12h later

Postinor-2 (Plan B)

2x 750 mcg levenogestrel tablets taken 12 hours apart
Use limited to first 72 hours

132
Q

What’s the most common indication for hysterectomy

A

Leiomyomas

133
Q

Fibroids - risk factors?

A

Higher risk

Early first period (menarche)
Obesity (BMI 30.0 or higher)
A family history of fibroids
Never having given birth
Age (risk increases in your late reproductive years)
Having polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
High blood pressure (hypertension)

Lower risk

Having more than two children
Having had a multiple birth
Use of Depo-Provera (a contraceptive)
Use of the oral contraceptive pill

134
Q

Fibroids - symptoms

A

heavy or prolonged periods
period pain
anaemia or iron deficiency (due to heavy periods), and you may feel:
tired
dizzy
frequent passing of urine
a pressure sensation on the bladder, bowel or back and/or feeling of incomplete emptying of bladder or bowel
lower back pain
swelling in the abdomen
painful sex (dyspareunia)
Bleeding in between periods is not common but can sometimes happen. In rare instances, a fibroid may become cancerous and this is called a sarcoma.

135
Q

Fibroids - Management

A

Single, small : Medical (Mefenemic acid, tranexamic acid, GnRH analogues, OCPs, mirena, iron )

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists are the most effective medical therapy for uterine myomas.

These drugs work by initially increasing the release of gonadotropins, followed by desensitisation and downregulation to a hypogonadotropic, hypogonadal state that clinically resembles menopause.
Most women will develop amenorrhea, improvement in anaemia, and a significant reduction (35 to 60%) in uterine size within 3 months of initiating this therapy.

Multiple/large: Surgical (myomectomy, hysterectomy, uterine artery embolization)

The only surgical procedure that preserves fertility and effectively ameliorates fibroid-related symptoms is myomectomy.

If heavy menstrual bleeding has not settled after 6 months of pharmacotherapy, refer for specialist assessment and consideration of surgical options such as uterine artery embolisation, myomectomy, hysteroscopic resection of fibroids or polyps, or hysterectomy.

Early referral (before 6 months) in heavy menstrual bleeding is indicated for:concurrent severe dysmenorrhoea at baselineconcurrent dysmenorrhoea that does not settle after 3 months of pharmacotherapyindividuals who wish to conceive

136
Q

Follycular cysts - main features

A

Benign cystic teratoma, dermoid cyst - most common benign complex ovarian tumor in young women

Follicular cyst - simple, never have calcifications.

Mucinous cystadenoma - benign epithelial ovarian tumor, frequently multiloculated, but never has calcifications.

Serous cystadenoma - unilocular, no calcifications.

137
Q

Blood tests for Menopause dx? (not mandatory)

A

Blood serum FSH and oestradiol levels

High FSH and Low oestradiol. The dx doesn’t depend on progesterone

138
Q

Post menopausal bleeding (occurring after >6 months of menopause) - causes

A

Endometrial cancer (until proven otherwise)
Induction of follicular activity - due to high FSH levels, a remained follicle could respond and start producing estrogen
Cervical cancer
Women taking HRT

> > THINK OF CANCER!!! IF JUST BLEEDING, without other signs of hormone correlation, like breast enlargement/tenderness,

139
Q

Genitourinary syndrome of Menopause

A

Anatomical and functional changes in the genitourinary tissues
Loss of labial and vulval fullness
Contraction of labia majora and clitoral hood
Narrowing and stenosis of the introitus
Loss of hymenal remnants or reduced elasticity
Vaginal shortening and narrowing
Prolapse
Pelvic floor weakening
Vaginal epithelium dry and thin with petechiae
Loss of superficial cells and increase in parabasal cells
Loss of vaginal rugae
Inflamed vaginal tissues
Alkaline pH changes the vaginal microbiome with loss of Lactobacilli (vaginal pH >4.5)
Persistent or recurrent discharge with odour (not Candida in postmenopause)
Urethral meatal prominence and prolapse with thinning of the urethral epithelium
Touch perception altered either hypersensitive or decreased feeling
Loss of clitoral stimulation

140
Q

What is generally the first workup of an infertile couple in which history and PE reveal no abnormality?

A

Semen analysis

141
Q

What’s The hormone test best able to predict a poor response to ovulation-induction therapy

The best therapy when LH and oestradiol are low?

A

The follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) assay.

If high levels of FSH are found, most of the ovulation-induction therapies are ineffective, although rarely a spontaneous pregnancy does occur rarely.

If the FSH level is normal, ovulation-induction therapy is usually effective with correction of thyroid function being necessary if the thyroid function is not normal, with dopamine agonist therapy being indicated if the prolactin level is elevated

Clomiphene (SERM) or gonadotrophin therapy being employed where the luteinising and oestradiol levels are low, normal or minimally elevated.

142
Q

Male factors for infertility - overview

A

Reduced sperm production:

congenital cryptorchidism (maldescent)
inflammation (e.g. mumps orchitis)

Antispermatogenic agents:

chemotherapy
drugs
irradiation
heat
idiopathic
Klinefelter syndrome (46 XXY)
sperm autoimmunity

Hypothalamic pituitary disease:

hypogonadotropic disorder

Disorders of coitus:

erectile dysfunction
psychosexual ejaculatory failure
retrograde ejaculation:
genitourinary surgery
autonomic disorders (e.g. diabetes)
congenital abnormalities

Ductal obstruction

143
Q

Infertility - assessment

A

First-line

Semen analysis

Basal body temperature chart and cervical mucus diary

Serum progesterone (mid-luteal-day21) in female

Transvaginal ultrasound

Rubella immune status (female)

144
Q

Infertility - Management

A

Better to treat both partners together.
Marital counselling
Educate regarding fertile period
basal body temperature method, cervical mucous method
the chance of fertilisation is best during days 10–16 of a 28-day cycle

Further treatment depends on cause.

Anovulation - Ovulation induction drugs such as clomiphene, bromocriptine, gonadotrophins or GnRH.
PCOS- Life style modifications, Metformin, ovulation inducing drugs, surgery.
Fibroids- Surgery.
Endometriosis- Surgery
Male problems—little can be done (including testosterone and vitamins) to enhance semen quality. Corticosteroids may help if sperm antibodies are present
Severe tubal disease, Unexplained subfertility—use IVF and embryo transfer (IVF-ET).
“Test-tube baby”

depends on the woman’s age and the couple’s attitudes.
Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) into the oocyte.
Artificial insemination.
Donor insemination.
Surrogacy
Adoption/Foster care

145
Q

Menorrhagia;
Metrorrhagia;
Hypomenorrhoea=;
Oligomenorrhoea;
Metromenorrhagia;
Dysmenorrhoea.

A

Menorrhagia= heavy menstrual flow (>80mls/L)

Metrorrhagia= intermenstrual bleeding

Hypomenorrhoea= light flow

Oligomenorrhoea=irregular & light periods

Metromenorrhagia=irregular & heavy periods

Dysmenorrhoea=excessive pain during periods

146
Q

Intermenstrual bleeding - causes

A

IUCD
OCP induced(breakthrough bleeding)
Can be related to sexual activity
Uterine/ cervical pathology (esp cancers)

147
Q

Post coital bleeding - causes

A

Cervical causes are the most important

Cervical polyp
Cervical erosion/ectropion
Cervical cancer
Cervicitis
Atrophic vaginitis
Endometrial pathology to be considered

148
Q

Cervical ectropion/cervical erosion - causes and ttx

A

Single layer of columnar cells of endocervix has extended onto ectocervix à exposed to trauma during coitus
Common in women on OCP and postpartum
Can be left untreated if tolerable discharge or moderate PCB (post-coital bleeding)
IUCD should be removed
Causative pill should be changed to one with higher oestrogen dose

Treatment:

Eradication of cervical lesion by cautery under anaesthesia
Healing of lesion within 4 weeks

149
Q

Diferential diagnosis of menorrhagia

A

In a 45-year-old woman is likely to be due to a disorder of ovulation, most likely that of anovulatory cycles, especially as the cycles have become Irregular.

Endometrial carcinoma is an uncommon cause of menorrhagia and usually causes postmenopausal bleeding.

Fibroids, endometrial polyps and adenomyosis can certainly cause menorrhagia, although the cycles are usually regular and a dramatic change from normal cycles six months previously would be unusual.

The uterus is usually enlarged if fibroids or adenomyosis are the cause of the menorrhagia

150
Q

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding - definition, causes

A

excessive bleeding, whether heavy, prolonged or frequent, of uterine origin, which is not associated with recognisable pelvic disease, complications of pregnancy or systemic disease’.

It is a diagnosis of exclusion.

Heavy bleeding caused by:

Excessive local production of prostaglandins in endometrium -> Prostaglandin inhibitors (NSAIDs)
Excessive local fibrinolysis of clots -> Antifibrinolytic agents (Tranexamic acid)
Hormonal dysfunction -> COC, POP, IUD

Most cases are associated with anovulatory bleeding (90%)

Normally, the production of progesterone in the latter 2 weeks of the cycle balances out the regenerative effects of estrogen, halting further endometrial growth.
In anovulation, level of estrogen does not decline and progesterone is not secreted to balance out the effects of estrogen.
Endometrial growth does not stop and the endometrial tissue accumulates and thickens, resulting in abnormally heavy bleeding.
Also, without progesterone, the endometrium lacks structural support and sloughs off irregularly, causing heavy and/or irregular periods.
Ovulatory DUB is less common than anovulatory DUB, and the bleeding, though abnormally heavy, is usually regular.
Ovulatory DUB may be due to abnormalities in the 2-week luteal phase of menstruation that occurs just before bleeding begins.
Can also result from an atrophic endometrium that can result from a high progesterone to estrogen ratio, may occur in women who take progesterone-only contraceptives.
A lack of cell-building estrogen causes the endometrium to slough off and bleed.
Ovulatory: Regular cycles, more in 30s, 40s.
Anovulatory: Irregular cycles, more in 12-16 yrs, 45-55 yrs.
Histological changes on endometrial samples:
Cystic glandular hyperplasia (in pre menopausal)
Atypical endometrial hyperplasia (in post menopausal)

151
Q

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding - management

A

Medications

1st line: Mefenamic acid, NSAIDs (naproxen, ibuprofen) before the start till end of periods
2nd line: Tranexamic acid (Day 1-4)
3rd line: Oral hormone therapy ( Combined or Progesterone only pills)
5th line: IUDs

152
Q

Endometriosis/ adenomyosis - overview (dx, cf,)

A

Painful periods/ coitus , infertility, haematuria, backache, haemoptysis.
O/E: large tender uterus, nodularity in pouch of Douglas, uterosacral ligament

Inv:

USG(initial),

laparoscopy(diagnostic/gold standard)

Management:

Medical -

GnRH agonists (downregulation of Gnrh activity inducing a pseudomenopause) - MAX 6 MONTHS;

Oral Contraceptive Pills (Decidualization of endometrium leading to atrophy),

danazol (multiple effects causing high androgen low oestrogen enviroment and inhibiting endometrial growth) - MAX 6 MONTHS!!!

POPs (Decidualization of endometrium leading to atrophy);

Surgical- Depending on age, symptoms, family planning
laser or microsurgery can be attempted.

153
Q

Atrophic vaginitis - features, cause, risk factors

A

Itching, bloody/mucoid discharge
On/Examination: inflammation, discharge
Caused by lack of oestrogen.

Common in:

Post menopausal women
Post partum/ breast feeding
Anorexic patients
Athletes
Pre menarche girls

154
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease - most common causes/germs, CF, investigation, ttx

A

Most common is Chlamydia then E.coli.

Chlamydia, gonorrhea
E coli, bacteroides fragilis
Actinomycosis (IUCD)

Inv:

Bloods, cultures
Swabs
Urine PCR (initial)
USG

Acute:

Fever
Lower abdominal pain,
Premenstrual pain,
Irregular/regular heavy periods,
Vaginal discharge
Positive cervical motion tenderness test

Ttx: azithromycin plus metronidazole.

155
Q

Chronic PID - Fx

A

History of

IUCD, D&C, ruptured appendix, pelvic infection, STIs…
Premenstrual pain,
Irregular/regular heavy periods,
vaginal discharge,
infertility,
dyspareunia,
painful and frequent urination.

156
Q

PID with IUD - most common microrganism?

A

Actinomycosis (IUCD)

157
Q

PID - Management according to severity

A

Management

Azithromycin + metronidazole ( mil to mod)
Cefotaxime + doxycycline + metronidazole IV ( severe)
Amoxy + metronidazole (actinomyces)

158
Q

Urinary Incontinence - topographic dx

A

Cystocele-upper anterior vaginal wall;

rectocele-lower posterior,

enterocele-upper posterior (pouch of Douglas).

lower anterior - Urethral displacement

159
Q

Mechanisms of urinary incontinence

A

A. Stress incontinence
B. Urge incontinence
C. Overflow
D. Neurologic bladder dysfunction
E. Psychogenic incontinence

A menopause, multiparty, pelvic relaxation.

B- over active bladder -detrusor instability, sudden urge to urinate.

C- bladder over distended chronically, abdo fullness, random dribbling.

D- can be hyper or hypotonic.

160
Q

Hematocolpos - definition

A

Imperforate hymen leading to vagina beeing pooled with menstrual blood

161
Q

What prolactin level induces amenorrhea?

A

Elevated above 150 mg/l

162
Q

US revealing bridging in the middle of the uterus, unable to conceive

A

Ashermans Syndrome

163
Q

most common cause of secondary amenorrhea

A

pregnancy

164
Q

Investigation of amenorrhoea?

A

Pregnancy test (1st)
FBE, iron
TFTs
Coagulation screen
Antibody screen
USG (TV)
Hysteroscopy & D&C/endometrial sampling (gold standard for uterine bleeding)
Laparoscopy ( gold standard for endometriosis)

165
Q

Secondary Ammenhorea - definition and causes

A

Absence of periods for 3 months after regular periods and 6 months if infrequent periods.

Causes:

Pregnancy.
Premature ovarian failure.
Post pill amenorrhoea.
PCOS.
Thyroid.
Hyperprolactinemia.
Exercise induced.
Eating disorders.
Stress induced.
Asherman’s syndrome.
Other medical illness- DM/ renal.
Medications.

166
Q

Stein –Leventhal Syndrome - other name?

A

Policystic ovaries Syndrome

167
Q

Polycystic ovary syndrome - Rotterdam criteria?

A

Diagnostic criteria for Rotterdam diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome

Two of the following three criteria are required:

oligo/anovulation
hyperandrogenism
clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or
biochemical (raised free testosterone)
polycystic ovaries on ultrasound (10 small antral follicles are seen in each ovary)

Other aetiologies must be excluded such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia, androgen secreting tumours, Cushing syndrome, thyroid dysfunction and hyperprolactinaemia

oligo/anovulation is usually seen in women with menstrual cycles greater than 35 days apart or, conversely, with short cycles of less than 21 days. It is important to remember that even women with regular cycles may be anovulatory. For these women a measure of luteal progesterone (day 21 in a 28 day cycle) will determine ovulatory status

hyperandrogenism. Hirsutism is difficult to assess as most women treat this so it is not obvious on examination. Hyperandrogenaemia is best measured with free testosterone; either calculated free testosterone, free androgen index (FAI) or bioavailable testosterone. Most laboratories will offer at least one of these. Hormonal contraceptive use will affect free testosterone measures. If appropriate, assess after 3 months cessation; alternative contraception should be discussed for this time. If free testosterone is significantly raised or there is evidence of rapid virilisation, further investigations are required to exclude late onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia and virilising tumours

polycystic ovaries on ultrasound are diagnosed when 10 small antral follicles are seen in each ovary.

168
Q

Polycystic ovary syndrome - clinical features

A

Hirsutism and male pattern balding consistent with hyperandrogenism
Irregular or absent menstrual cycles
Subfertility or infertility
Psychological symptoms – anxiety, depression, psychosexual dysfunction, eating disorders
Metabolic features – obesity, dyslipidaemia, diabetes

169
Q

Polycystic ovary syndrome - Oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea - Potential targeted treatment options

A

Oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea

Lifestyle change (5–10% weight loss + structured exercise)
Combined oral contraceptive pill (low oestrogen doses, eg. 20 µg may have less impact on insulin resistance)13
Cyclic progestins (eg. 10 mg medroxyprogesterone acetate 10–14 days every 2–3 months)
Metformin (improves ovulation and menstrual cyclicity)

170
Q

Polycystic ovary syndrome - Hirsutism - Potential targeted treatment options

A

Hirsutism

cosmetic therapy is first line (laser is recommended)
Eflornithine cream can be added and may induce a more rapid response
Pharmacological therapy Consider if there is patient concern or if cosmetic treatment is ineffective/inaccessible/unaffordable
Should be trialled for at least 6 months before making changes in dose or medication
Primary therapy is the COCP (monitor glucose tolerance in those at risk of diabetes)
Anti-androgen monotherapy (eg. aldactone or cyproterone acetate)used with adequate contraception

Combination therapy – if 36 months of COCP is ineffective, add anti-androgen to COCP (daily spironolactone >50 mg twice daily or cyproterone acetate 25 mg/day, days 1–10 of COCP)

171
Q

Polycystic ovary syndrome - Infertility - Potential targeted treatment options

A

Advise smoking cessation, optimal weight, exercise and folate supplementation
Advise regarding the age-related decline in fertility to allow optimal timing of family planning
Infertility therapies may include clomiphene, metformin, gonadotrophins, surgery and in vitro fertilisation
Cardiometabolic risk Lifestyle change with a >5% weight loss in those who are overweight reduces diabetes risk by ~50–60% in high risk groups11
Metformin* reduces the risk of diabetes by ~50% in adherent high risk groups
* Metformin and the COCP are not currently approved for use to manage PCOS by many regulatory bodies. The COCP is indicated for contraception and metformin for diabetes. However, their use is supported by evidence and is recommended by international and national specialist societies and is evidence based

172
Q

Ritordine, Oxygen and fluids - role during labour?

A

often are used in an attempt to arrest labour or premature contractions.

173
Q

Fetal heart rate- normal range

A

120-160 bpm

174
Q

CTG - overview, accelerations, variability

A

Baseline FHR

over 10 minutes

Normal FHR- 120 to 160/ minute
Variability

Variation of FHR from one beat to next
Normal- 6 to 25 beats per minute
Accelerations

Rise in FHR from baseline
Seen as peaks
Normal is 2 or more/ 15 minutes

175
Q

Decelerations on ctg - types and overview

A

3 types

Early-starting with uterine contraction and finishing when contraction finishes. Normal physiological

Variable- no connection with uterine contractions. Denotes umbilical cord compression

Late- starts at peak of contraction and finishes with contraction. Denotes decreased uteroplacental blood flow

176
Q

CVS (chorionic villous sampling) and Amniocentesis - when to it, indications

A

CVS- 9-11 weeks.

CVS higher miscarriage rate. Recommended for women who are genetic carriers of the diseases.

Amniocentesis- 16 weeks.

177
Q

Alpha fetoprotein - when to dose it? clinical meanings?

A

At 16-18 gestation.

Low – down Syndrome, trisomy 18, wrong dates.

High- neural tube defects ( anencephaly, spina bifida), multiple gestation.

178
Q

OLIGOHYDRAMNIOS - clinical presentation at birth?

A

Fetus swallow amniotic fluid but can not excrete it.

The end result of the OLIGOHYDRAMNIOS is hypoplastic lungs, neonatal respiratory distress,

179
Q

Asymptomatic bacteriuria - ttx? risk if left untreated?

A

Amoxicillin

Rapid progression to pyelonephritis due to gravid uterus compressing the ureters and progesterone relaxing effect on ureters.

Untreated bacteriuria in pregnancy is associated with a 20 to 30% increased risk of developing pyelonephritis in later pregnancy. Untreated bacteriuria may be associated with preterm birth and low birth weight. Antibiotic treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria reduces the risk of symptomatic urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy.

180
Q

Asymptomatic bacteriuria - screening, confirmation time, special considerations

A

Screen for asymptomatic bacteriuria during pregnancy by obtaining a urine sample for culture and susceptibility testing at 12 to 16 weeks gestation (or at the first antenatal visit, if this occurs later). Confirm asymptomatic bacteriuria with a second urine culture.

Confirm the infection has resolved by repeating urine culture 1 to 2 weeks after treatment is completed.

Streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococcus [GBS]) is detected in urine at any stage of pregnancy, intrapartum prophylaxis for GBS is usually indicated

181
Q

Recurrent UTI in Pregnancy - ttx and cf

A

Choose treatment for recurrent bacteriuria based on the results of culture and susceptibility testing

Consider giving antibiotic prophylaxis to pregnant women with recurrent bacteriuria or bacteriuria and risk factors for pyelonephritis (eg immune compromise, diabetes, neurogenic bladder). Use:

1 cefalexin 250 mg orally, at night for the remainder of the pregnancy

OR

2 nitrofurantoin 50 mg orally, at night for the remainder of the pregnancy

182
Q

nitrofurantoin during pregnancy - special consideration

A

Avoid using nitrofurantoin close to delivery (after 37 weeks’ gestation, or sooner if early delivery is planned) because of the possible increased risk of neonatal jaundice and haemolytic anaemia.

183
Q

choriocarcinoma and molar pregnancy - overview, ttx, dx, follow up time and measures

A

A choriocarcinoma and molar pregnancy in general may occur after any pregnancy.

50%-complete mole, but others occur after miscarriage (25%), term delivery ( 20%) or ectopic pregnancy (5%). Hydatiform mole- benign, Malignant trophoblastic disease.

Ix: Uterus larger than dates, Fetal heart sounds can not be heard, US appearance, High b-HCG.

TTx: Evacuation by Suction Curette.

FOLLOW UP : b-HCG every 7-10 days, complete disappearance takes 12-14 weeks.

When b-HCG normal for 6 consecutive months-discontinue.

TTx: Malignant is treated with chemotherapy- methotrexate.

184
Q

Chadwick’s sign
Hegar’s sign

A

Hegar’s sign- softness and compressibility of the low uterine segment.

Chadwick’s- dark discoloration of the vulva.

185
Q

Intravenous salbutamol’s role during delivery?

A

Intravenous salbutamol can be used as a second line tocolytic (to reduce uterine contractions) in certain circumstances.

The use of salbutamol is contraindicated in following situations:
– Hyperthyroidism.
– Fetal cardiac disease.
– Maternal cardiac disease.
– Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus.

Salbutamol is often associated with following side effects:
– Hyperglycemia.
– Hypokalemia.
– The maternal tachycardia.
– Pulmonary oedema.
– Hypotension.
– Tremors.

186
Q

Effects of tobacco smoking during pregnancy

A

-Premature birth,
-Placental abruption (double the risk for smokers who consume more than 20 cigarettes a day).
-Spontaneous abortion.
-Low birth weight.
-Stillbirth.
-Placenta praevia.

187
Q

cyclical mastalgia - causes, treatment, age of onset

A

Is usually caused by cyclical hormonal changes and is common in females between 35 to 50 years of age.

As conservative management including reduced caffeine intake, use of analgesics and vitamin B complex especially B1 and B6

Danazol is an androgen that is effective in relieving breast pain in more than 90 percent of cases with minimal side effects.

Tamoxifen can be used in severe mastalgia, but it causes more severe adverse effects including DVT and endometrial cancer so not preferred.

Bromocriptine has been proven to improve breast pain in many women but is not as effective as danazol.

Oral contraceptive pills are considered as one of the causes of mastalgia so they are better avoided in that case.

188
Q

When to give pertussis booster during pregnancy?

A

From 28 weeks (3rd trimester)

189
Q

Anti-hipertensive drugs during pregnancy - overview (contraindications, first-option, etc)

A

Contraindicated or are better avoided before conception and during pregnancy.

These drugs include:

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors eg. ramipril, captopril
Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) g. losartan, irbesartan
Diuretics
Calcium channel blockers
Most beta blockers

Methyldopa is the first-line antihypertensive agent during pregnancy for controlling mild to mode rate hypertension during pregnancy.

Beta blockers can cause fetal bradycardia and with long-term use result in growth restriction. Labetolol is an exception and can be used in hypertensive emergencies.

Angiotensin receptor blockers and ACE inhibitors both are teratogenic in first trimester.
In the second and third trimesters they can result in fetal renal dysfunction, oligohydramnios and skull hypoplasia.

Hydralazine can be safely used for treatment of hypertensive emergencies during pregnancy. Otherwise,methyldopa remains the choice.

Other anithypertensive medications:

Diuretics – Diuretics can cause fetal electrolyte disturbances and reduction in maternal blood volume. This can consequently lead to restricted fetal growth.

Calcium channel blockers (CCBs)- with the exception o f nifedipine, CCBs should be avoided in pregnancy due to risk of maternal hypotension and fetal hypoxia. Nifedipine is commonly used as first-line tocolytic agent. but is not used as an anti hypertensive medication during pregnancy.

190
Q

Approach to epilepsy during pregnancy - what types of drus are better depending on the kind of seizure?

A

When approaching a woman who wishes to become pregnant while on antiepileptic drugs, two major groups of epilepsies should be distinguished because they typically respond differently to different drugs.

Partial epilepsies respond to most antiepileptic drugs, but for idiopathic generalized epilepsies, especially juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, seizure can be controlled with a reasonably low dose of sodium valproate. Although lamotrigine may be helpful, it is not as effective as sodium valproate and sometimes worsens the myoclonic seizures of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Therefore, substitution of sodium valproate with lamotrigine is not the right choice.

Topiramate and levetiracetam may be effective in idiopathic generalized epilepsies, while carbamazepine, phenytoin and gabapentin may worsen some seizure types, especially myoclonic and absence seizures. For some women with idiopathic generalized epilepsies, there may be no effective alternative to sodium valproate. Cessation of sodium valproate is associated with recurrence and not advisable.

On the other hand, sodium valproate has the highest teratogenicity potential compared with other antiepileptic medications. The Australian Pregnancy Register has reported the risk to be as high as 16% for the first trimester. Sodium valproate should therefore be avoided in women of reproductive age. If a patient is willing to become pregnant, she should be fully informed of the risk of teratogenicity, but the decision should be left to her. If she decides to accept the risks and pregnancy is unavoidable, the lowest effective dose should be used.

If sodium valproate dose has been reduced to a minimum during pregnancy, the prepartum effective dose may need to be re-established before the onset of labor. This is a time of increased seizure risk, especially in patients with idiopathic generalized epilepsy who are very sensitive to sleep deprivation.

191
Q

Prolonged ACO use increases the risk for what cancer?

A

Cervical carcinoma

192
Q

High risk factors for developing cervical carcinoma

A

– Oral contraceptive pills for more than 5 years
– Smoking
– Immunosuppression
– Persistence infection of high risk human papilloma virus infection.
Sexual activity is an average risk factor for developing cervical carcinoma

193
Q

What class of drugs is the first option in nausea and vomiting during pregnancy?

A

Anti-histaminics (Doxylamine, Cyclizine, prochlorperazine, promethazine, diphenhydramine)

194
Q

GBS screening - when and hows it’s done, treatment, risk factors

A

screening at 35-37 weeks gestation for rectovaginal GBS colonisation via a combined low vaginal and anorectal swab.

Adequate intrapartum chemoprophylaxis is defined receipt of ß lactam (penicillin, amoxicillin or cefazolin) antibiotics for more than 4 hours before birth.

Provide intrapartum antibiotics for women with:
– A positive culture.
– A previous infant with GBS disease regardless of present culture.
– Symptomatic or asymptomatic GBS bacteriuria of any count in current
pregnancy

Clinical risk factors for early onset of group B streptococcus sepsis include:
– Spontaneous onset of labour at less than 37 weeks gestation.
– Rupture of the membranes more than 18 hours.
– Maternal fever above 38°C.
– A previous infant with early onset GBS sepsis.
– GBS bacteriuria during the current pregnancy.
– Known carriage of GBS in the current pregnancy.
– Clinical diagnosis of chorioamnionitis.
For elective caesarian section before the onset of labour, no additional prophylaxis is recommended, irrespective of GBS carriage

195
Q

What types of HPV are associated with cervical neoplasia?

A

HPV types 16, 18, and 31

196
Q

What types of HPV are associated with bening condyloma?

A

HPV types 6 and 11

197
Q

The most common cause of performing cesarean section in Australia

A

history of previous cesarean section

198
Q

When to give steroids during pregnancy?

A

If delivery prior to 34 w

199
Q

Risk factors which increase the possibility of endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer include

A

– Weight more than 90 kg.
– Age more than 45.
– Early menarche.
– Late menopause.
Also, nulliparous women are at higher risk of developing endometrial cancer than multiparous.History of infertility and previous tamoxifen use also increases the risk of endometrial cancer.

200
Q

Postmenopausal cysts - management

A

Simple unilateral, unilocular ovarian cysts of <5 cm and low risk of malignancy (normal Ca125) can be managed conservatively as the RMI would be zero and 50% of these will resolve spontaneously in 3 months. Cysts of 2–5 cm should be rescanned in 3–4 months.

Women with a moderate-to-high risk RMI should be referred to a gynaecologist or gynaecological oncologist for consideration of surgical management. In addition, any woman who does not meet the criteria for conservative management should be offered surgical management. If malignancy is suspected, an oophorectomy is recommended rather than a cystectomy. This allows removal of the cyst intact and prevention of spillage into the peritoneal cavity. A bilateral oophorectomy may be offered for postmenopausal women because the contralateral ovary may also be affected; however, there are no studies that have assessed malignancy after unilateral versus bilateral oophorectomy.

201
Q

Nipple discharge - ddx according to type

A

Nipple discharge, as a sign, may have a variety of underlying causes. Some of these causes are as follows:

Bloody nipple discharge – bloody discharge from nipple is usually caused by benign duct papilloma, but breast neoplasm including breast duct carcinoma and Paget disease of the breast should always be excluded

Serous, green, yellow-brown discharge – it is usually due to benign fibrocystic changes

Toothpaste {worm)-like discharge – it is characteristic of mammary duct

202
Q

High risk of cervical cancer through pap test - types and management

A

Higher risk

  • HPV 16/18 positive
  • non–16/18 positive with any of the following:
    possible high grade cytology
    high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL)
    cancer
    glandular abnormality.

Refer immediately to a specialist for further investigation.

Some colposcopy clinics are currently experiencing high demand and long waiting lists. If you are concerned about your patient being delayed, contact the specialist or clinic your patient has been referred to.

203
Q

Intermediate risk of cervical cancer through pap test - types and management

A

Intermediate risk

HPV non-16/18 positive (with negative or low-grade cytology):
Follow up HPV test at 12 months where possible.
A delay of 3 to 6 months may be acceptable. We discourage delays of more than 6 months.

Follow up HPV test – HPV non 16/18 (possible high grade cytology or high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL):
Treated as Higher risk.
Refer immediately to a specialist for further investigation.

Follow up HPV test – HPV non-16/18 positive (with negative or low-grade cytology):

If your patient is:

2 or more years overdue for screening at the time of the initial screen
identifies as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander
aged 50 years or older.
They may be at increased risk and should be referred immediately to a specialist for further investigation.

2nd Follow up HPV test – HPV detected
Treated as Higher risk:
Refer immediately to a specialist for further investigation.

204
Q

magnesium sulfate toxicity - features and management

A

Patients may initially present with nausea, flushing, and hyporeflexia due to magnesium inhibition of presynaptic acetylcholine release (ie, neuromuscular inhibition). Further toxicity is uncommon in patients with normal renal function, but those with decreased urine output, such as this patient, are at a higher risk due to decreased urinary excretion of magnesium.

Therefore, magnesium toxicity can progress to cause further muscle weakness, loss of deep tendon reflexes (ie, areflexia), and respiratory depression (eg, drowsiness, respirations of 10/min). At severely high serum magnesium levels, patients are at risk for respiratory paralysis and cardiac arrhythmias.

Because of these life-threatening risks, patients treated with magnesium sulfate require close monitoring. Patients with signs of toxicity require a serum magnesium level and immediate cessation of magnesium sulfate. In addition, patients are administered calcium gluconate, which reverses neuromuscular paralysis, stabilizes cardiac membranes, and prevents cardiac arrest.

205
Q

What kinds of contraception should be avoided after 50y?

A

– Combined oral contraceptives.

– Depo Medroxyprogesterone acetate-injectable.

– Vaginal ring containing estrogen and progesterone.

All of these three can lead to increased cardiovascular risk and so should be avoided in the women over 50 years of age.

For the women over 50 years of age, following is the list of suitable contraceptives:

– Progesterone only pill.

– Contraceptive implant (Implanon).

-Intrauterine contraceptive devices (Mirena or copper).

– Tubal ligation

206
Q

Uterine prolapse - which ligament is the most importantly related?

A

uterosacral ligament

These ligaments are the round ligament, uterosacral ligaments, broad ligament and the ovarian ligament.

207
Q

Fundal height and date of pregnancy

A

After 20 weeks gestation, fundal height in centimeters should directly correlate to gestational age in weeks with a small variation (eg, ±2-3 cm)

208
Q

gestational diabetes mellitus - Diagnosis

A

A diagnosis of GDM can be made with an elevated 75g 1-hour GTT (eg, ≥ 10.0 mmol/L) or 2-hour GTT (≥8.5 mmol/L)

209
Q

Contraindications to Fetal Blood Sampling include

A

– Evidence of serious, sustained fetal compromise.
– Risk of fetal bleeding disorders (e.g. fetal thrombocytopenia, haemophilia).
– Non-vertex presentation.
– Maternal infection* (e.g. HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C, active primary herpes and suspected fetal sepsis).

*Group B Streptococcus carrier status does not preclude FBS.

210
Q

Endometritis - cf

A

The clinical features of endometritis include:
-Lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness, followed by fever most commonly within the first 24 to 72 hours postpartum.
-Chills, headache, malaise, and anorexia are common.
-The diagnosis of postpartum endometritis is clinical and primarily based upon the presence of a postpartum illness that cannot be attributed to another aetiology after a thorough history and physical examination between day 2 to day 10 postpartum.

211
Q

Endometritis - ttx

A

The most appropriate treatment is intravenous antibiotics within the first hour of presentation.
The first-line choice of antibiotics is intravenous Piperacillin/Tazobactam 4.5 gram three times a day.
If the patient is allergic to penicillin (non-anaphylactic, no angioedema), intravenous cefuroxime 1.5 gram three times a day along with intravenous Metronidazole 500mg three times a day.
In severe penicillin allergy ( anaphylactic reaction or angioedema), then Clindamycin and gentamicin can be used as an alternative. The dose of clindamycin is usually 900mg three times a day and gentamicin as per local hospital protocol

212
Q

Ovarian torsion - conservative ttx?

A

Ovarian torsion is a gynecologic emergency and conservative management has no place in the treatment decision of suspected torsion even if pain improves in the ED.

Failure to surgically correct this entity may result in ischemia and subsequent necrosis of the involved ovary. Therefore, the mainstay of therapy is laparoscopy or laparotomy.

213
Q

Diagnostic steps in the workup of infertile couple

A

The primary diagnostic steps in the workup of the infertile couple include (1) documentation of ovulation by measurement of basal body temperature (BBT) or mid–luteal phase serum progesterone; (2) semen analysis; (3) postcoital test; (4) hysterosalpingogram; and (5) endometrial biopsy. Women should record their BBT for evidence of ovulation. In addition, serial serum progesterone levels may be helpful to confirm ovulation. Serum progesterone values should be obtained 7 days after ovulation and may also be helpful in evaluating inadequate luteal phase. An endometrial biopsy may also provide valuable information regarding the status of the luteal phase. The biopsy is obtained 12 days after the thermogenic shift, or 2 to 3 days before the expected onset of menses, on about day 26 of a 28-day cycle. A postcoital test is an in vivo test that evaluates the interaction of sperm and cervical mucus. It is performed during the periovulatory period up to 12 hours after coitus. The cervical mucus is obtained, and its quantity and quality as well as its interaction with the sperm are evaluated. The hysterosalpingogram is performed in the mid–follicular phase in order to evaluate the fallopian tubes and the contour of the uterine cavity; it should not be done while the patient is menstruating or after ovulation has occurred. Although gonadotropin levels are not routinely evaluated, they should be obtained in the early follicular phase when testing is indicated (eg, in cases where there is a history of oligo-ovulation).

214
Q

maternal vitamin D deficiency in pregnancy

A

The maternal vitamin D deficiency in pregnancy is associated with:
– Hypocalcemia in newborn.
– Rickets later in life.
– Defective tooth enamel.
– Small for gestational due to effect on skeletal growth
– Fetal convulsions or seizures due to hypocalcemia

215
Q

POP contraindications

A

Progestogen-only methods are contraindicated in suspected pregnancy, breast cancer and undiagnosed vaginal bleeding. For all progestogen-only methods, with the possible exception of DMPA, drug interactions are likely with many anticonvulsants, rifampicin, spironolactone and griseofulvin

216
Q

Shingles - prophilaxy during pregnancy

A

If VZV IgG antibodies are absent, then she would need Varicella Zoster Immunoglobulins within ten days since the exposure to shingles.

217
Q

signet cells in the ovaries - dx

A

Krukenberg tumors are typically bilateral, solid masses of the ovary that nearly always represent metastases from another organ, usually the stomach or large intestine. They contain large numbers of signet ring adenocarcinoma cells within a cellular hyperplastic but nonneoplastic ovarian stroma.

218
Q

Sreening tests routine and Diagnostic tests for Down Syndrome

A

SCREENING TESTS

At present there are two recommended sets of antenatal screening tests for Down syndrome:

First trimester screening tests for Down syndrome (9-12 weeks):

Ultrasonography for nuchal translucency (>0.5mm)
Maternal serum biomarkers: Increased free beta hCG with decreased pregnancy-associated plasma protein = PAPP-A

Second trimester screening tests for Down syndrome (15-18 weeks):

Triple marker screening tests:
Free beta hCG
Increased
Alpha-fetoproteln(AFP) Decreased
Unconjugated estriol Decreased
- Sensitivity 65-70%

Quadruple marker screening test:
Free beta hCG Increased
Alpha-fetoprotein(AFP) Decrease,
Unconjguated estriol Decrease
lnhibin A level Increased
Sensitivity 70-75%

DIAGNOSTIC TESTS

Chorionic villous sampling – performed at 12- 14 weeks of pregnancy and carries a 1:100 risk of pregnancy loss
Amniocentesis – performed at 15-18 weeks of pregnancy and carries a 1:200 risk pregnancy loss

219
Q

Placenta accreta - CF, Mx, Dx

A

Placenta accreta

Definition

Morbidly adherent placental attachment to the myometrium
Risk factors

Placenta previa + prior uterine surgery (eg, cesarean delivery, D&C, myomectomy)

Clinical features

Prenatal diagnosis: US with placenta previa, numerous placental lacunae, myometrial thinning
Postpartum diagnosis: adherent placenta, postpartum hemorrhage

Management

Electtive Cesarean hysterectomy with placenta in situ or emergency hysterectomy if needed after delievery if undiagnosed during pregnancy

220
Q

Choriocarcinoma - overview

A

Choriocarcinoma is a metastatic form of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia that may occur after a hydatidiform mole, normal pregnancy, or spontaneous abortion. The lungs are the most frequent site of metastasis. Choriocarcinoma should be suspected in postpartum women with an enlarged uterus, irregular vaginal bleeding, pulmonary symptoms, and multiple infiltrates on chest x-ray. Diagnosis is confirmed by an elevated β-hCG level. Treatment with chemotherapy (methotrexate)

221
Q

Major risk for monochorionic twins

A

Monochorionic twins are at risk for twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS), a complication that can result in heart failure and fetal/neonatal mortality in both twins. In TTTS, unbalanced arteriovenous anastomoses are present between the shared placental vessels that supply the twins. Because of these anastomoses, blood from the placental arteries (high resistance/pressure) of one twin (donor) is shunted into the placental veins (low resistance/pressure) of the other twin (recipient). The shunting of blood away from the donor twin causes anemia that leads to renal failure, oligohydramnios, low-output heart failure, and fetal growth restriction. In contrast, the shunting of blood toward the recipient twin causes polycythemia, which leads to polyhydramnios, cardiomegaly, high-output heart failure, and hydrops fetalis. Both twins are at risk for intrauterine and neonatal death.

Mild TTTS is expectantly managed with serial ultrasounds to evaluate for worsening clinical features. Moderate-to-severe cases are treated with laser coagulation of the placental anastomoses.

221
Q

What is T sign and Lambda sign

A

Twin gestations are at increased risk for many pregnancy complications. This risk is further stratified based on the chorionicity (number of placentas) and amnionicity (number of amniotic sacs) of the gestation.

This patient has monochorionic diamniotic twins (1 placenta, 2 amniotic sacs) based on 2 embryos, a single placenta, and a thin intertwin membrane (composed of 2 amniotic sacs) that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle (“T sign”).

In patients who appear to have a single placenta, the base shape of the intertwin membrane distinguishes between a monochorionic (“T sign”) and fused dichorionic (“lambda sign” or twin peak sign) gestation.

222
Q

What conditions have their incidence decreased by combined hormonal therapy?

A

Colon Cancer

Osteoporosis

223
Q

What contraception methods can be used during the postpartum period while breastfeeding?

A

Condoms 🌟: Can be used immediately; avoid spermicide gels.
Minipill (POP - Progestin-Only Pill) 💊: Can be started in breastfeeding women but recommended after 3-4 weeks.
Etonorgestrel implant (Implanon®) 💪: Can be inserted from 6 weeks postpartum after excluding pregnancy.
Progesterone intramuscular injection (e.g., Depo-Provera®) 💉: Recommended after 6 weeks postpartum but can be used earlier if necessary.
Mirena® (Levonorgestrel) IUD or Copper Intrauterine Devices (Cu-IUD) 🩸: Should be delayed until 4 weeks postpartum unless inserted within 48 hours. Mirena® effective within 7 days; Cu-IUDs effective immediately.

224
Q

What is Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM) and its criteria for contraception effectiveness?

A

Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM) 🤱: A contraceptive method during breastfeeding.
Criteria for LAM Effectiveness:
Woman remains amenorrheic 🩸.
Less than 6 months since giving birth 📆.
Baby is fully breastfed (or breastfed with very infrequent supplements) 🍼.
Ovulation may occur in the absence of menstruation if not meeting LAM criteria ❌.

225
Q

How can enzyme-inducing drugs affect the efficacy of contraception? What are the exceptions?

A

Enzyme-Inducing Drugs 💊: Reduce plasma levels of progesterone and estrogen, affecting contraceptive efficacy.
Affected Contraception Methods:
Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs) 🚫.
Progestin-only pills (POPs) 🚫.
Progestin implants (Implanon®) 🚫.
Exceptions 🛡️: Mirena® and Depo Provera® not affected by enzyme-inducing drugs.

226
Q

What are the recommended contraception options for women using enzyme-inducing drugs?

A

Recommended Contraception Options 🩺:
Progestin-only injectable (e.g., Depo Provera®).
Copper-bearing intrauterine devices (Cu-IUDs) 🩸.
Levonorgestrel-containing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) 🪙.
Short-Term Enzyme-Inducing Drug Use and POP/Implant 🚑:
Additional contraception (e.g., condoms) should be used during enzyme-inducing drug use and 28 days after stopping treatment.
Option to switch to DMPA injection during short-term enzyme-inducing drug use.
Increased COC Dose 📈: COC users with enzyme-inducing drugs may increase COC dose (≥50mcg ethinyl estradiol) with extended/tricycling regimen.
Rifampicin and Rifabutin 🚫: Advising to increase COC dose is inappropriate; an alternative method is needed.

227
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria and treatment options for bacterial vaginosis (BV)?

A

Bacterial Vaginosis (BV) Diagnosis:
BV is suspected in the presence of ‘fishy-smelling’ thin white vaginal discharge 🐟.
Diagnostic Criteria (Amsel’s criteria) include:
Clue cells on microscopy 👀.
Vaginal pH > 4.5 📊.
Positive whiff test: Addition of potassium hydroxide to the discharge results in a fishy odor 👃.
Bacterial Vaginosis (BV) Treatment:
First-line: 7 days of oral metronidazole (400 mg twice daily) or,
Second-line: Vaginal clindamycin (1 g at night) 🌙.
Cure rates range from 70-90%, but recurrence occurs in over 50% of patients within 6 months of treatment ♻️.
Australian national guidelines recommend oral clindamycin or metronidazole for 7 days as preferred treatments (category A and B2) 🇦🇺.

228
Q

What are the recommendations for managing women with gestational diabetes (GDM) after delivery?

A

Postpartum GDM Management:
Less than 10% of women with GDM remain hyperglycemic after delivery.
Ongoing care from a diabetes or medical clinic in collaboration with the general practitioner is required.
Recommendations:
Check a random blood glucose level the day after delivery 🩸.
Perform a 4-point blood glucose level (BGL) measurement on the day prior to discharge, including fasting and two hours post meals for three meals 📊.
Cease blood glucose monitoring if BGL is within the normal range.
If BGL is elevated (above 10 mmol/L), contact the medical registrar or diabetes educator; after-hours contacts are justified if BGLs are considerably elevated ☎️.
Schedule a follow-up oral glucose tolerance test (75 gr) at 6-12 weeks postpartum for women who had GDM, and repeat every 1-2 years thereafter.
Provide lifestyle counseling.
A summary letter is given to the woman’s GP for follow-up care 📝.

229
Q

What are the effects of warfarin exposure during pregnancy according to the semester?

A

Effects of Warfarin Exposure During Pregnancy:
Warfarin crosses the placenta and should be avoided throughout pregnancy, especially in the first and third trimesters.
Warfarin exposure at 6-12 weeks’ gestation results in fetal warfarin syndrome, which includes:
Characteristic nasal hypoplasia 👃.
Short fingers with hypoplastic nails 🖐️.
Calcified epiphyses, specifically chondrodysplasia punctata (visible as stippling of epiphyses on X-ray) 🦴.
Intellectual disability 🧠.
Low birth weight 👶.
The risk of fetal warfarin syndrome in babies of women who require warfarin throughout pregnancy is approximately 5%, and these effects are dose-dependent.
Later exposure (after 12 weeks) is associated with central nervous system anomalies like microcephaly, hydrocephalus, agenesis of the corpus callosum, Dandy-Walker malformation, and mental retardation.
Eye anomalies can occur, including optic atrophy, microphthalmia, and Peter anomaly.
Blindness may be seen in newborns exposed to warfarin in all three trimesters.
Perinatal intracranial and other major bleeding can also occur in neonates exposed to warfarin.

230
Q

What is round ligament pain, and how is it managed during pregnancy?

A

Round Ligament Pain:
Round ligament pain is a normal finding during pregnancy.
It commonly occurs during the second trimester.
Symptoms include sharp, often unilateral or bilateral pain in the iliac fossa (lower abdomen) that may radiate to the groin.
The pain is sudden-onset, sharp, and spastic, typically lasting for a few seconds.
It can be aggravated by activities such as standing, getting off chairs, sneezing, laughing, or rolling in bed.
Sudden changes in body position can trigger the pain.
Management:
Rest and avoiding sudden changes in body position are key to managing round ligament pain during pregnancy.
No specific medical interventions are usually required for this condition.

231
Q

How should cervical neoplasia be managed during pregnancy? (LSIL, HSIL, Invasive carcinoma)

A

LSIL (CIN 1):
Women with low-grade cytologic lesions should be managed similarly to non-pregnant women.
Repeat smear after 12 months if previous cervical screening is normal in the past 2-3 years.
Refer to a specialist for colposcopy if no recent normal screening.
HSIL (CIN 2,3):
High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) (CIN 2,3) requires referral for colposcopy.
Colposcopy is safe during pregnancy but may be more challenging.
Biopsy may be deferred if invasive cancer is excluded by an experienced colposcopist.
Review at 20-24 weeks with cytology and colposcopy if HSIL is diagnosed.
Invasive carcinoma:
Immediate delivery and treatment if fetal lungs are mature.
Initiate therapy if the pregnancy is previable and the patient opts not to continue.
Consider disease stage, trimester, and patient preferences for other cases.

232
Q

What are the general principles for managing invasive cervical carcinoma in pregnancy?

A

If fetal lungs are mature or near maturity, prefer immediate delivery and treatment.
Administer antenatal corticosteroid therapy if needed.
For previable pregnancies and patient choice not to continue, initiate maternal therapy.
Decisions on timing depend on disease stage, trimester, and patient preferences.

233
Q

What should be considered in a pregnant woman with persistent nausea and vomiting, and how is hyperemesis gravidarum diagnosed?

A

Onset of HG is typically at 5-6 weeks of gestation, peaking at 9 weeks and abating by 16-20 weeks (🤰🤢).
Symptoms may persist until the third trimester in 15-20% of women and until delivery in 5% (📆).
Diagnosis of HG is mainly clinical; investigations are needed to assess the patient’s status and exclude other causes (🩺🔍).
Initial evaluation includes weight, vital signs, orthostatic blood pressure, serum electrolytes, urine ketones, specific gravity, and urine microscopy and culture (⚖️🩸🧪).
Attending to hydration and electrolytes is crucial before further investigations (💧⚡).
Obstetric transvaginal ultrasound (option A) checks for trophoblastic disease or multiple gestation (🩺👶).
Stool exam and culture (option C) may be considered for suspected gastroenteritis (🩸🦠).
Quantitative serum beta HCG (β-HCG) (option D) is less useful for dating errors (📏).
Abdominal ultrasound (option E) is inferior to transvaginal ultrasound for female reproductive organs (🩺🔍).

234
Q

What is Meconium Staining of Amniotic Fluid (MSAF)?

A

MSAF occurs in 10-15% of labors 🩸
Rare before 30 weeks gestation 📆
Incidence increases with longer gestations (mature fetus) 📈
Approximately 20% of term newborns have MSAF 🤰👶
An intrapartum risk factor for the fetus’ well-being 🚼
Indication for continuous cardiotocography (CTG) monitoring 📉📈

235
Q

What defines a reassuring CTG?

A

Baseline fetal heart rate (FHR) 110-160 bpm ❤️
Variability of FHR 6-25 bpm 📈
Absence of decelerations or presence of early decelerations ⏬
Significance of accelerations unclear 🤔
Allows normal labor progression 🏃‍♀️🤰

236
Q

What characterizes a non-reassuring CTG?

A

Baseline FHR between 100-109 bpm or 161-170 bpm 📉📈
Reduced FHR variability (3-5 bpm for >40 minutes) 📊
Variable decelerations without complicating features 🔄
Absence of accelerations not considered abnormal 🤷‍♀️

237
Q

What indicates an abnormal CTG?

A

Baseline FHR <100 bpm or >170 bpm 📉📈
Absent or <3 bpm FHR variability 📊
Prolonged (>3 minutes), late, or complicated variable decelerations ⏳⏰
Two or more features from non-reassuring CTG present 📉🔄
Requires investigation and potential reversal of causes 🏥🔄

238
Q

What is fetal scalp blood sampling and when is it contraindicated?

A

Used to assess fetal well-being during non-reassuring or abnormal CTG 🩸👶

Contraindications:

Serious fetal compromise
Prolonged deceleration
Mobile presenting part
Unknown presentation
Face presentation
Undilated cervix (<3 cm)
Active second stage of labor
Fetal hereditary bleeding disorders
Maternal infection
Prematurity (<34 weeks) 🚫🩸🤚

239
Q

What are the first-line and second-line treatment options for primary dysmenorrhea?

A

First-line: NSAIDs (inhibit prostaglandin synthesis) 💊🚫
Second-line: Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) (suppress ovulation, reduce prostaglandin levels) 🆗🩸
If either treatment fails after 2-3 menstrual cycles, consider the other modality 🔄🆗
Combined therapy with hormonal contraceptives and NSAIDs may be effective 🩸💊

240
Q

How is secondary dysmenorrhea evaluated?

A

Consider secondary dysmenorrhea if treatment fails despite NSAIDs and OCPs 🚫💊
Re-evaluate for possible underlying causes such as endometriosis, leiomyomas, or polyps 🏥🔍
First-line: Abdominal and transvaginal ultrasonography (inexpensive, effective, readily available) 📊🔍
Transvaginal ultrasound preferred if possible for higher accuracy 📏🔍
Transabdominal ultrasound can be used if transvaginal is not possible, e.g., in virgin girls 🧍‍♀️📏
Dilation and curettage or laparoscopy might be indicated later if initial evaluation points towards a specific pathology 🩸🏥

241
Q

How should measles infection in a pregnant woman be managed?

A

Positive IgM indicates acute infection 🧪
Negative IgG suggests early infection without seroconversion 🩸
Conservative management for symptoms and complications 🤒🩺
Notify cases of measles to public health units 📢
Priority in contact tracing for infants, immunocompromised individuals, and pregnant women 👶🦠🤰

242
Q

What is the importance of contact tracing in measles control?

A

Measles control relies on early diagnosis, notification, and contact tracing 🦠📢
Contacts defined as those sharing the same enclosed air space 🏢🌬️
Prioritize contact tracing in specific settings:
Household and communal facilities
Educational settings with shared classrooms
Shared waiting areas and healthcare facilities
Work settings with shared work areas 🏠🏫🏥💼

243
Q

How is measles prevention and post-exposure prophylaxis managed?

A

MMR vaccine used for prevention and post-exposure prophylaxis, not after contracting measles 🚫💉
Contraindicated during pregnancy 🤰
Serologic testing of the fetus not useful due to maternal antibodies crossing the placenta 🩸👶
NHIG used for post-exposure prophylaxis in cases with MMR contraindications 🩸🚫
Repeating measles-specific serologic tests not necessary for established measles diagnosis 🧪🚫

244
Q

What is PPROM, and how does it differ from PROM?

A

PPROM defined as rupture of membranes before 37 + 0 weeks 🩸👶
Classic presentation: sudden gush of watery fluid or continuous leakage 🌊
Presence of liquor flow from cervical os or pooling in vaginal fornix is pathognomonic 🏊‍♀️

245
Q

What are the risks associated with PPROM?

A

Risks include preterm labor, cord prolapse, placental abruption, chorioamnionitis, fetal pulmonary hypoplasia, limb positioning defects, perinatal mortality 🚑💔

246
Q

How is PPROM diagnosed and managed?

A

Diagnosis via history, physical exam, fetal monitoring, and speculum vaginal exam 📝🔍
Obtain high and low vaginal swabs and perform nitrazine test 🩸🧫
Consider ultrasound for amniotic fluid volume and fetal well-being 📏🤰
Management includes maternal corticosteroids, antibiotics, and tocolytics if indicated 🚼💉🦠
Transfer to tertiary care facility if necessary 🏥

247
Q

When are corticosteroids indicated in PPROM, and what are the regimens?

A

Indicated between 23+0d and 34+6d weeks if preterm labor a concern 🤰📆
Given if preterm birth planned/expected within 7 days 🚼⏰
Regimens: IM betamethasone (11.4 mg x 2 doses, 24 hrs apart) or IM dexamethasone (12 mg x 2 doses, 24 hrs apart) 📅💉

248
Q

Why are antibiotics used in PPROM, and what’s the prophylactic choice?

A

Antibiotics reduce maternal/fetal infection and delay preterm labor 🦠🚼
Prophylactic choice: erythromycin for 10 days intravenously 🩸💊

249
Q

What is chorioamnionitis, and how does it affect tocolysis?

A

Chorioamnionitis feared complication of PPROM 🦠
Clinical diagnosis includes maternal fever and other signs 🌡️
Chorioamnionitis an absolute contraindication to tocolysis 🚫🦠
PPROM in absence of intrauterine infection relatively contraindicated for tocolysis due to difficulty in excluding infections 🤷‍♀️💊

250
Q

How should CTG abnormalities and prolonged decelerations be managed?

A

First steps: Reverse potential causes of decelerations 🔄
Maternal hypotension
Cord prolapse or compression
Uterine hypertonia
Scar dehiscence
Placental abruption
Rapid fetal descent
Management of prolonged decelerations or bradycardia includes:
Repositioning the woman (e.g., lateral position)
Checking maternal blood pressure and IV fluids for hypotension
Discontinuing or decreasing oxytocin infusion
Differentiating maternal pulse rate from FHR
Vaginal exam if indicated for cord prolapse or cervical dilatation
Consider fetal scalp electrode
Assess abdominal tone for uterine hypertonia
Prepare for assisted delivery (vacuum/forceps) or emergency cesarean section if bradycardia persists 🚼🩺💉

251
Q

How should uterine hyperstimulation and prolonged decelerations due to oxytocin be managed?

A

Cessation of oxytocin (cyntocinon) infusion is the immediate step 🚫
Check maternal blood pressure for hypotension, and administer IV fluids if needed 💉
Continue CTG monitoring for fetal assessment and response to treatment 📈

252
Q

What are the measures to consider if conservative steps fail to correct fetal compromise?

A

Assisted vaginal delivery using forceps or vacuum (options A and B) or emergent cesarean delivery (option E) 🩺🔪
Consider after attempting conservative interventions for prolonged decelerations 🚼🩺

253
Q

contraception with combined oral contraceptives (COCs) if not contraindicated PLUS condoms are advised for what groups?

A

Young women (<25 years)
Women older than 25 years with a new partner
Women older than 25 year with two or more partners in the last year
Women older than 25 years whose regular partner has multiple partner

254
Q

What are the indications pregnant women who have suffered trauma to the abdomen?

A

Apart from routine trauma workup necessary for non-pregnant patients, a minimum 24-hour period of monitoring is recommended for all pregnant women who have sustained trauma if any of the following is present:

Regular uterine contractions
Vaginal bleeding
A non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
Abdominal/uterine pain
Significant trauma to the abdomen

255
Q

What are the non-pharmacological treatments for infertility in women due to POS?

A

Non-Pharmacological Treatment:

Age < 35 Years, BMI > 25: For women in this category with no other suspected cause of infertility, an intensive lifestyle program addressing weight loss is recommended without pharmacological treatment for the first 6 months. Small amounts of weight loss (~5%) may restore menstrual cycle regularity and ovulation, providing benefit even if pharmacological intervention is subsequently required. 🏃‍♀️🥦💪

256
Q

What are the pharmacological treatments for infertility in women due to POS?

A

Pharmacological Treatment:

First-Line: If pharmacological treatment is necessary, the first-line option is clomiphene citrate, which has a pregnancy rate of 30-50% after six ovulatory cycles. 💊🤞
BMI < 30-32 kg/m²: For women with a BMI below this range, metformin may have similar efficacy to clomiphene citrate and is the first-line treatment (with or without clomiphene citrate) if there is concomitant impaired glucose tolerance. 📊🥄
Second-Line: If clomiphene citrate, metformin, or their combination is unsuccessful in achieving pregnancy, gonadotropins are the next pharmacological options. 🩸💉
Third-Line: Laparoscopy with ovarian surgery/drilling (LOS) is an appropriate second-line treatment if clomiphene citrate with metformin has failed. The pregnancy rate with LOS is as effective as 3-6 cycles of gonadotropin ovulation induction. 🪄🔍
In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) or Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI): If all previous treatments are unsuccessful or if other factors contribute to infertility, such as endometriosis or male factors, IVF or ICSI is recommended. 👶🧬

257
Q

What is the next step in managing a pregnant patient presents with high blood pressure, seizures, and altered consciousness?

A

suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH

The clinical presentation suggests SAH, which can be a rare complication of pregnancy.
To confirm the diagnosis, a non-contrast CT scan of the brain is the preferred initial step.
Although CT scanning exposes the fetus to radiation, its benefits usually outweigh the risks, especially when appropriate measures are taken to shield the uterus.
CT is more sensitive than MRI in detecting blood and is the primary investigation for intracranial hemorrhage.
If the CT scan is inconclusive, lumbar puncture should be considered and performed within 12 hours of symptom onset. 🤰🧠🏥

258
Q

What characterizes Turner syndrome?

A

urner syndrome is characterized by a 45-XO karyotype.
Clinical features of Turner syndrome include short stature, a webbed neck, puffy hands and feet, coarctation of the aorta, cardiac abnormalities, high-arched palate, and absent secondary sexual characteristics when puberty is expected.
In Turner syndrome, the ovaries consist of small amounts of connective tissue and few or no follicles (streak gonads), while the external genitalia, vagina, uterus, and Fallopian tubes are anatomically normal but fail to function when estrogen-induced maturity should occur.
Older adolescents and adults with Turner syndrome often experience issues related to puberty, fertility, and short stature.
Adrenarche, the beginning of pubic hair growth, may occur, but it does not indicate that puberty will progress normally.
Breast development is usually absent when ovarian failure occurs before puberty, but pubic hair growth can be normal in some cases.
Approximately 30% of girls with Turner syndrome have some spontaneous pubertal development, but the condition should be suspected in individuals with primary or secondary amenorrhea and in adult women with unexplained infertility, particularly those with short stature. 🧬🩸🩺👧

259
Q

What are fibrocystic breast changes, and how are they managed?

A

Fibrocystic breast changes are characterized by heterogeneous breast tissue, consisting of glands, stroma, and ducts, leading to nonfocal chest pain in women. [Heterogeneous breast tissue 📊, Glands, stroma, ducts, Nonfocal chest pain 💔]
Breast tissue proliferation in fibrocystic changes varies with hormonal fluctuations, such as estrogen and progesterone, during the menstrual cycle. [Hormonal fluctuations 🔄, Estrogen, Progesterone]
Pre-menopausal and reproductive-age women often experience diffusely nodular breasts and breast pain, typically premenstrual in nature. [Nodular breasts 🤰, Premenstrual breast pain 💢]
Management involves reassurance, and symptomatic relief options include nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and/or oral contraceptives. [Reassurance 🤝, NSAIDs 💊, Oral contraceptives 🌡️]

260
Q

What is considered abnormal fetal bradycardia in terms of heart rate?

A

Fetal bradycardia is considered abnormal when it’s <100 bpm for more than five minutes or <80 bpm for more than three minutes. 🩺👶💓

261
Q

What should be done when an abnormal fetal heart rate pattern is detected?

A

Immediate management includes identifying any reversible cause and taking appropriate actions such as maternal repositioning, correcting maternal hypotension, rehydration with intravenous fluids, cessation of oxytocin, tocolysis for excessive uterine activity, and initiating or maintaining continuous cardiotocography (CTG). 🩺👩‍⚕️🚼

262
Q

When should pregnant women be tested for rubella, and what’s considered immune?

A

All pregnant women need rubella serological testing (IgM/IgG), regardless of history.
Immunity = IgG ≥10 IU/ml.
After exposure to rubella, the next best step for a pregnant woman is rubella serology testing, with one exception - if the IgG level is equal to or greater than 10 IU/ml during the current pregnancy, the patient can be reassured without further testing. 🩺🤰🧪🔍

IgG testing at the first prenatal visit.
IgG ≥10 IU/ml = minimal reinfection risk.
If IgG ≤15, administer post-delivery vaccination. 🩺🤰🧪💉

263
Q

What is the recommended approach after maternal rubella infection during pregnancy, and when should antenatal testing be performed

A

After maternal infection confirmation, antenatal testing should occur at least 6 weeks post-infection, preferably after the 20th week of gestation.
If maternal infection happens in the first trimester, it’s associated with a high risk of fetal infection and anomalies, making termination of pregnancy a recommended option.
Testing should include Rubella PCR, rubella culture, and fetal IgM following chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, or cordocentesis. 🩺🤰🦠🔬

264
Q

What are the recommended cervical screening guidelines for individuals with a cervix?

A

HPV test with partial genotyping every 5 years. 💡
Commence screening at age 25. 💡
Exit test between 70 and 74 years old. 💡
HPV test at any age for cervical cancer symptoms, even with regular screening. 💡

265
Q

How does the Cervical Screening Test differ from the Pap test, and what does it detect?

A

Cervical Screening Test replaces the Pap test. 💡
It detects HPV infection, a common cause of most cervical cancers. 💡
It can identify various HPV types, including high-risk HPV 16 and 18. 💡

266
Q

What’s the approach for patients with symptoms suggesting cervical cancer, and what’s involved in diagnostic testing?

A

Symptomatic patients need diagnostic testing, not screening. 💡
Diagnostic testing includes a co-test and gynecological assessment. 💡
The co-test checks for HPV and liquid-based cytology in a single sample, simultaneously. 💡

267
Q

What are the recommended steps for managing persistent breech presentation?

A

If breech persists after 36-37 weeks, try external cephalic version (ECV). 🔄
ECV can be attempted from 36 weeks for nulliparous women and 37 weeks for multiparous women. ⏳
If ECV fails, consider elective caesarean section or vaginal delivery (if no contraindication) after 38.5 weeks. 📅

268
Q

What changes occur in the coagulation system during pregnancy, leading to a hypercoagulable state?

A

Pregnancy leads to a hypercoagulable state. 🤰
This results from decreased anticoagulation (proteins C and S) and increased pro-coagulation (factor V and VII) activity. 🩸💉

269
Q

What is the general management approach for pregnant patients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A

Pregnant patients with DVT are typically treated with therapeutic doses of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) for 6 months for DVT above the knee and 3 months for DVT below the knee. 🤰💉
Prophylactic LMWH is administered until delivery, and anticoagulation is continued for an additional 6 weeks postpartum. Warfarin may be used after delivery. 🩺📆
LMWH should be switched to unfractionated heparin four weeks before the due date if neuraxial anesthesia is planned to reduce the risk of spinal hematoma. 🚼🩹

270
Q

What considerations should be given to the type of progesterone in contraceptives for specific patient needs?

A

For patients experiencing bothersome fluid retention and weight gain as side effects of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs), preparations containing drospirenone (Yaz®, Yasmin®) may be suitable. Drospirenone has anti-mineralocorticoid activity, reducing fluid retention and possibly leading to slight weight loss. 🚫💧🏋️‍♀
If a patient is suspected to have polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), a contraceptive containing cyproterone acetate is preferable. 🧬💊

271
Q

What criteria should candidates meet for fetal fibronectin (fFN) testing to predict the chance of preterm labor, and what does the absence of fFN in cervical secretions indicate?

A

Candidates for fetal fibronectin (fFN) testing should meet the following criteria:
Intact fetal membranes 🚼
Cervical dilation less than 3 cm 📏
Gestational age between 22+0d and 34+6d weeks 🗓️
The absence of fetal fibronectin (fFN) in cervical secretions is a very useful negative predictor of imminent birth (negative predictive value for birth within 7 days 97-98%). This means that with a negative test, preterm labor is unlikely, but a positive test does not guarantee that preterm labor will occur 📊📉

272
Q

In which situations is cervical length screening required for predicting preterm labor, and how often should it be done between 14-24 weeks gestation?

A

Cervical length screening is required at least twice between 14-24 weeks gestation in the following situations to predict preterm labor:
Prior preterm birth less than 34 weeks gestation 🤰
Previous cervical cone biopsy 🩺
Women with suspected cervical incompetency 📏
Multiple pregnancies 🍼

273
Q

At what gestational age is fetal fibronectin (fFN) testing not useful for predicting preterm labor?

A

fFN is not useful for the prediction of preterm labor if performed earlier than 22 weeks of gestation 📆

274
Q

When to perform colposcopy on HPV screening?

A
  • HPV non 16 or 19:
    repeat
275
Q
A