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OB/GYN > OBGYN > Flashcards

OBGYN Flashcards

1
Q

placental abruption risk factors:

A

uncontrolled HTN, trauma, cocaine, smoking, preE, prior hx abruption, high parity, rapid decompression

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2
Q

placenta previa risk factors:

A

AMA, high parity, prior c/s, smoking

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3
Q

folic acid dose in low risk preg

A

400 mcg

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4
Q

folic acid dose in high risk preg

A

4000 mcg

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5
Q

start of 2nd trimester

A

14 wks

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6
Q

start of 3rd trimester

A

28 wks

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7
Q

age of HPV vaccine administration

A

9-26 yrs

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8
Q

hCG level w/1st heartbeat on TVUS

A

1500-2000 mIU/mL

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9
Q

1 most common non-skin cancer in women

A

breast

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10
Q

2 most common non-skin cancer in women

A

lung

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11
Q

3 most common non-skin cancer in women

A

colon

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12
Q

top 3 maternal mortalities

A

PP hemorrhage, thromboembolism, HTNsive disease

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13
Q

top 3 GYN cancers in women

A
  1. endometrial, 2. ovarian, 3. cervical
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14
Q

4 PCOS criteria

A

an/oligo-ovulation, lab/clinical evidence of hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovaries on U/S

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15
Q

tests to r/o endocrine disease before labeling PCOS:

A

free testosterone, DHEAS, 17-OH P, TSH, prolactin

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16
Q

age for colonoscopy screening

A

50, then q10 yrs

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17
Q

paps start at age:

A

21 yrs

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18
Q

pap/HPV co-tests start:

A

30

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19
Q

emesis vitamin tx:

A

B6

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20
Q

GDM screening at what wks?

A

26-28 wks

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21
Q

rhogam administered when?

A

28 wks and within 72 hrs of delivery

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22
Q

rhogam administered to avoid what in mom?

A

anti-D isoimmunization

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23
Q

rhogam administered to avoid what in fetus?

A

erythroblastosis fetalis

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24
Q

GBS test done when?

A

35-37 wks

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25
Q

quad/triple screen looks for what diseases?

A

down’s, patau’s, edward’s syndrome, NTD’s

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26
Q

quad screen when?

A

15-21 wks

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27
Q

first screen for nuchal translucency when?

A

11-13 wks

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28
Q

most common STD

A

chlamydia

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29
Q

PP depression sx

A

apathy towards baby, thoughts of hurting baby/self, can’t function in daily activities, sadness/crying

30
Q

BV criteria

A

clue cells on micro, homogenous white d/c, +whiff test, pH > 4.5

31
Q

2 tx for most common STD

A

azithromycin if preg, doxycycline

32
Q

BV tx

A

metronidazole, clindamycin

33
Q

LARC (long-acting, reversible contraception)

A

Mirena and Paragard IUD, nexplanon implant

34
Q

top 2 causes of infertility

A

PCOS, turner’s syndrome (premature ovarian failure)

35
Q

most reliable method for fetal viability (lowest false neg rate)

A

CST

36
Q

C/S indications

A

placenta previa, vasa previa, prior classic c/s, malpresentation, failure to progress, shoulder dystocia, active herpes infection, breech, nonreassuring FHTs

37
Q

age for determining “gestational” HTN

A

> 20 wks

38
Q

1 killer in women

A

cardiovascular disease

39
Q

GDM screening test dose

A

50g

40
Q

GDM dx test

A

100 g GTT

41
Q

MTX contraindications

A

viable pregnancy, breastfeeding, ruptured ectopic, hemodynamically unstable, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, active renal/hepatic disease, active PUD

42
Q

criteria for severe preE

A

systolic >= 160, diastolic >=110, cerebral/visual problems, PE or cyanosis, epigastric/RUQ pain, elevated LFTs, thrombocytopenia, oliguria <500mL/24 hrs, IUGR

43
Q

contraception to avoid w/migraines that have aura:

A

combo OCPs

44
Q

most common thrombophilic disease

A

factor V leiden

45
Q

4 risk factors for endometrial cancer

A

PCOS, obesity, diabetes, unopposed estrogen tx, nulliparity, early menses/late menopause

46
Q

2 mastitis tx

A

dicloxacillin, clindamycin

47
Q

protein cutoff for mild preE

A

300 mg/24 hrs

48
Q

protein cutoff for severe preE

A

5000 mg/24 hrs

49
Q

ectopic preg risk factors

A

prior ectopic preg, PID or hx STI’s, tubal scarring from surg/TB, ART, smoking, IUD, septate uterus

50
Q

preE risk factors

A

1st preg, multifetal gestation, prior preE, c. HTN, preGDM, vascular/CT disease, obesity, AMA, african

52
Q

HELLP

A

hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low PLTs

53
Q

GBS tx

A

PCN

54
Q

GBS tx if allergic to 1st line

A

Cefazolin (Ancef) w/low anaphylaxis risk, do sensitivities for Erythro and Clinda if high risk anaphylaxis, Vancomycin if resistant

55
Q

GA for cardiac activity on TVUS

A

5-6 wks

56
Q

gonorrhea tx

A

ceftriaxone, cefixime, ciprofloxacin

57
Q

syphilis tx

A

benzathine PCN G

58
Q

syphilis tx if allergic to 1st line

A

desensitize and still give benzathine PCN G

59
Q

GDM complications for mother

A

preE, bacterial infections, C/S, polyhydramnios, birth injury

60
Q

progestin w/inc. risk VTE

A

medroxyprogesterone acetate

61
Q

contraception for hypertensive patient

A

anything but combo drugs, so depo provera/progestin-only minipill/paragard IUD

62
Q

endometritis sx

A

fever, pelvic pain, vag d/c or bleeding, abd swelling, constipation, malaise

63
Q

GDM complications for baby

A

hyperinsulinemia–> macrosomia–> shoulder dystocia–> birth injury, perinatal death, preterm delivery, hypoglycemia/calcemia

64
Q

breast cancer risk assessment uses what model?

A

gail model

65
Q

PMDD tx

A

SSRI, calcium, aerobic exercise

66
Q

mammograms start at what age?

A

40

67
Q

combination HRT is FDA aproved for what?

A

menopausal sx

68
Q

combination HRT risks

A

blood clot, stroke, breast CA, CV disease

69
Q

tx for CIN2 or CIN3

A

LEEP

70
Q

viable fetus, vag bleeding/cramping, closed cervix

A

threatened abortion

71
Q

non-viable fetus, closed cervix

A

missed abortion

72
Q

viable fetus, open cervix

A

inevitable abortion

OB/GYN (3 decks)

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