Obesity (Cornelius) Exam III

Question 1

Which of the following is the second leading cause of preventable deaths, only behind smoking?

A. Obesity
B. Diabetes
C. Cardiovascular disease
D. Cancer

Answer 1

A. Obesity

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Question 2

What percentage of Americans are considered overweight or obese?

A. 25%
B. 36%
C. 50%
D. 60%

Answer 2

B. 36%

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Question 3

Globally, how many people are classified as obese?

A. 1 billion
B. 100 million
C. 400 million
D. 800 million

Answer 3

C. 400 million

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Question 4

More than __________ people are overweight worldwide, with over __________ million cases and __________ deaths attributed to coronavirus.

A. 2 billion; 53.2; 1.2 million
B. 1.6 billion; 33.2; 999K
C. 1.2 million; 22.3; 500K
D. 1.3 billion; 47.3; 750K

Answer 4

B. 1.6 billion; 33.2; 999K

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Question 5

Obesity ranks as the __________ leading cause of preventable deaths, only behind __________.

A. First; cardiovascular disease
B. Third; alcohol consumption
C. Second; smoking

Answer 5

C. Second; smoking

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Question 6

Which factors influence obesity? (Select 4)

A. Metabolic and behavioral factors
B. Excessive exercise
C. Cultural factors
D. Hormones
E. Socioeconomic factors
F. Exposure to extreme heat/cold

Answer 6

A. Metabolic factors and behavioral factors,
C. Cultural factors,
D. Hormones,
E. Socioeconomic factors

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Question 7

The Body Mass Index (BMI) is calculated by dividing a patient’s __________ (in kg) by their __________ squared (in meters).

A. Weight; height
B. Height; weight
C. Weight; hip ratio
D. Age; waist circumference

Answer 7

A. Weight; height

Patient weight (kg)/ height2 in meters = kg/m2

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Question 8

Which of the following is true about the Body Mass Index (BMI)?

A. It is the most widely applied tool for assessing body weight.
B. It differentiates between overweight and overfat.
C. It takes into account waist circumference, waist-hip ratio, and age.
D. It measures body fat directly.

Answer 8

A. It is the most widely applied tool for assessing body weight.

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Question 9

Which factors are not considered in the calculation of Body Mass Index (BMI)? (Select 4)

A. Muscle mass
B. Waist circumference
C. Height and weight
D. Waist-hip ratio
E. Age

Answer 9

A. Muscle mass
B. Waist circumference
D. Waist-hip ratio
E. Age

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Question 10

BMI is the most widely applied tool to assess body weight, but it does not differentiate between __________ and __________.

A. Overweight; overfat
B. Waist circumference; height
C. Muscle mass; fat mass
D. Age; gender

Answer 10

A. Overweight; overfat

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Question 11

Android fat distribution is primarily characterized by which type of obesity?

A. Peripheral obesity
B. Central obesity
C. Lower body obesity
D. Diffuse obesity

Answer 11

B. Central obesity

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Question 12

Which of the following is characteristic of android (central) obesity?

A. Peripheral fat distribution
B. Decreased oxygen consumption
C. Associated with upper body fat
D. Not associated with cardiovascular disease

Answer 12

C. Associated with upper body (truncal) fat

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Question 13

Which of the following factors are associated with android obesity? (Select 2)

A. Increased oxygen consumption
B. Peripheral fat distribution
C. Higher cardiovascular disease risk
D. Less metabolically active

Answer 13

A. Increased oxygen consumption
C. Higher cardiovascular disease risk

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Question 14

Which of the following are characteristics of gynecoid (peripheral) obesity? (Select 3)

A. Upper body fat
B. Found in buttocks
C. Found in hips
D. Found in upper arms
E. Found in thighs

Answer 14

B. Found in buttocks
C. Found in hips
E. Found in thighs

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Question 15

Gynecoid obesity is also referred to as “__________” obesity and is considered _______ metabolically active.

A. central; more
B. peripheral; less
C. visceral; less
D. peripheral; more

Answer 15

B. peripheral; less

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Question 16

True or False

Gynecoid obesity is not associated with CV disease

Answer 16

True

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Question 17

What is a key cardiac change observed in obesity?

A. Decreased total blood volume
B. Increased total blood volume
C. Decreased cardiac output
D. Increased heart rate

Answer 17

B. Increased total blood volume

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Question 18

Total blood volume increases in obesity, but on a volume-to-weight ratio, it is lower at _______ mL/kg.

A. 50
B. 60
C. 40
D. 70

Answer 18

A. 50

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Question 19

What percentage of the total blood volume is distributed to __________ tissue in obesity?

A. Skeletal
B. Connective
C. Nervouse
D. Adipose

Answer 19

D. Adipose

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Question 20

In obesity, cardiac output increases by _______ mL/kg of excess body fat.

A. 5-10
B. 10-15
C. 20-30
D. 30-40

Answer 20

C. 20-30

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Question 21

Cardiac output increases in obesity due to:

A. Increased stroke volume and left ventricular dilation
B. Decreased stroke volume and right ventricular dilation
C. Increased heart rate and decreased oxygen consumption
D. Decreased stroke volume and right ventricular contraction

Answer 21

A. Increased stroke volume and left ventricular dilation

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Question 22

Cardiac dysrhythmias in obesity are commonly caused by fatty infiltrates in the _______ system and _______

A. Conduction; CAD
B. Vascular; PVD
C. Respiratory; ARDS
D. Lymphatic; CAD

Answer 22

A. Conduction; CAD

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Question 23

Which of the following are common cardiac dysrhythmias seen in obesity? (Select 3)

A. Low QRS voltage
B. Right axis deviation
C. Left ventricular hypertrophy
D. Left axis deviation
E. High QRS voltage

Answer 23

A. Low QRS voltage,
C. Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH), D. Left axis deviation

Cornelius - when you look at their EKG, just because of the distance between the monitoring side and the heart there’s a kind of a decrease in the QRS voltage or amplitude and then you may also notice that left axis deviation and then the LVH

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Question 24

Which factors are increased in the hematologic system of obesity, contributing to hypercoagulability?

A. Fibrinogen, Factor VII, Factor VIII, von Willebrand
B. Platelets, Hemoglobin, Hematocrit, von Willebrand
C. Fibrinogen, Factor V, Platelets, Factor IX
D. Platelets, Factor II, von Willebrand, Factor IX

Answer 24

A. Fibrinogen, Factor VII, Factor VIII, von Willebrand

C - They tend to have an increased incidence of clotting disorders. So things like DVTs, PEs are a little bit more predominant and then you couple that with their decreased activity level.

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Question 25

True or False

When a obese person gets microclots they tend to have less symptoms due to accessory pathways created over time.

Answer 25

True

Corndog - …because of their decreased activity level, they tend to be less symptomatic than patients that are more active and have a large P/E.
They tend to have like a serial of events, not just like a one time.

A lot of times you’ll see that if they mobilize or experience some sort of life change that they’ll start showering little micro clots. As a result of that, they kind of build up a accessory pathway that lets them get through the event a little bit easier..

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Question 26

What is one of the main consequences of increased levels of **von Willebrand factor and factor VIII **in obesity?

A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Endothelial dysfunction
C. Increased oxygen carrying capacity
D. Anemia

Answer 26

B. Endothelial dysfunction

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Question 27

In obesity, gastric volume and acidity are increased, leading to delayed ________ and increased risk of aspiration pneumonitis.

A. Peristalsis
B. Gastric emptying
C. Intestinal absorption
D. Metabolism

Answer 27

B. Gastric emptying

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Question 28

What gastric volume and pH levels are risk factors for aspiration pneumonitis in obese patients?

A. Volume > 25 mL and pH > 2.5
B. Volume < 25 mL and pH > 2.5
C. Volume > 25 mL and pH < 2.5
D. Volume < 25 mL and pH < 2.5

Answer 28

C. Volume > 25 mL and pH < 2.5

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Question 29

Hepatic function and ________ are often altered in patients with obesity, affecting drug metabolism.

A. Renal function
B. Cardiac function
C. Endocrine function
D. Intragastric pressure

Answer 29

D. Intragastric pressure

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Question 30

Relaxation of the _______ and formation of a hiatal hernia are common complications in the GI system of obese patients.

A. Lower esophageal sphincter (LES)
B. Upper esophageal sphincter (UES)
C. Pyloric valve
D. Duodenal sphincter

Answer 30

A. Lower esophageal sphincter (LES)

C - ..because of the body habitus, you also tend to see that there’s an increase in the intragastric pressure, and as a result of that, that lower esophageal sphincter will relax a little bit and they tend to form a hiatal hernius.

You will also see that when patients go in for like sleeve gastrectomies or lap bands, that commonly they will have a hiatal hernia repair as well.

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Question 31

What is one of the renal effects of obesity that increases renal blood flow?

A. Glomerular hyperfiltration
B. Decreased renal blood flow
C. Increased natriuresis
D. Glomerular hypofiltration

Answer 31

A. Glomerular hyperfiltration

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Question 32

Which renal system mechanisms are typically impaired in obesity? (Select 2)

A. Glomerular filtration
B. Natriuresis
C. Renal tubular reabsorption
D. Renin-angiotensin activation

Answer 32

B. Natriuresis,
D. Renin-angiotensin activation

Brian G. Cornelius - they’ll have a little bit more increase in blood pressure.

So it’s kind of a constant battle for these folks regulating the miles of vasculature. Regulating their fluid status and the kind of pairing that with the decrease in activity.

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Question 33

Which of the following are consequences of increased SNS activity in obesity? (Select 3)

A. Insulin resistance
B. Enhanced pressor activity of norepinephrine
C. Sodium retention
D. Decreased angiotensin II activity
E. Sodium excretion

Answer 33

A. Insulin resistance
B. Enhanced pressor activity of norepinephrine and angiotensin II
C. Sodium retention

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Question 34

Which of the following are effects of thyroid hormone resistance in morbidly obese patients? (Select all that apply)

A. Increased metabolic rate
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Decreased sodium retention
D. Impaired glucose metabolism

Answer 34

B. Hypothyroidism,
D. Impaired glucose metabolism

C - Diabetes, POTs, chronic pain syndromes, those sorts of things tend to go hand in hand with a lot of these same patients.

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Question 35

What percentage of morbidly obese patients suffer from hypothyroidism due to thyroid hormone resistance?

A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%

Answer 35

B. 25%

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Question 36

Which of the following diseases are commonly associated with obesity? (Select 4)

A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Hypertension
D. COPD
E. Alzheimer’s disease
F. Rheumatoid Arthritis

Answer 36

A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus - “side effect”
B. Osteoarthritis - increased wear and tear on their joints as a result of the high body habitus.
C. Hypertension,
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

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Question 37

Which of the following diseases are commonly associated with obesity? (Select 4)

A. Obstructive sleep apnea
B. Asthma
C. Cardiovascular disease
D. Cancer
E. Renal failure
F. Hyperthyroidism

Answer 37

A. Obstructive sleep apnea - “side effect of obesity”
B. Asthma
C. Cardiovascular disease
D. Cancer

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Question 38

A diagnosis of metabolic syndrome requires at least ___ of the defining criteria to be present.

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Answer 38

B) 3

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Question 39

Which of the following are the most *common causes of metabolic syndrome as stated by Dr. Cornelius and starred * in the lecture slide? (Select 5)

A) Abdominal obesity
B) Decreased levels of HDL
C) Hypertriglyceridemia
D) Glucose intolerance
E) Hypertension
F) Prothrombotic state
G) Proinflammatory state

Answer 39

A) *Abdominal obesity
B) *Decreased levels of HDL
C) *Hypertriglyceridemia
D) *Glucose intolerance
E) *Hypertension

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Question 40

Which of the following are metabolic abnormalities associated with metabolic syndrome? (Select 3)

A) Abdominal Obesity
B) Increased HDL
C) Proinflammatory state
D) Hyportriglyceridemia
E) Prothrombotic state

Answer 40

A) Abdominal obesity
C) Proinflammatory state
E) Prothrombotic state

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Question 41

Which of the following is used to assess metabolic syndrome instead of BMI?

A) Waist circumference
B) Body fat percentage
C) BMI
D) Body water content

Answer 41

A) Waist circumference

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Question 42

Which gender is more likely to be affected by metabolic syndrome?

A) Women
B) Men
C) Both are equally likely
D) Gender is not a factor

Answer 42

B) Men

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Question 43

Metabolic syndrome is more prevalent in ________ compared to other groups.

A) African Americans and Pacific Islanders
B) Hispanics and South Asians
C) Caucasians and Non-Hispanic
D) Hispanics and African Americans

Answer 43

B) Hispanics and South Asians

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Question 44

Metabolic syndrome may result from the chronic use of which of the following medications? (Select 4)

A) Corticosteroids
B) Antidepressants
C) Antipsychotics
D) Antibiotics
E) Protease inhibitors
F) Antifungals

Answer 44

A) Corticosteroids,
B) Antidepressants,
C) Antipsychotics,
E) Protease inhibitors

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Question 45

Metabolic syndrome increases the risk of which of the following conditions?

A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Alzheimer’s disease
C) Psoriasis
D) Autism

Answer 45

A) Cardiovascular disease.

C - He keeps mentioning POTS - so here is a definition from the Google -
POTS: Signs and Symptoms
Postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (POTS) is a chronic condition that causes an abnormally rapid heart rate when standing up or sitting up.

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Question 46

Metabolic syndrome increases the risk of which of the following diseases? (Select 3)

A) Gastrointesinal disease
B) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
C) Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease
D) Multiple sclerosis
E) Polycystic ovary syndrome

Answer 46

B) Type 2 diabetes mellitus,
C) Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease,
E) Polycystic ovary syndrome

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Question 47

______% of metabolic syndrome cases are resolved with bariatric surgery or weight loss goals.

A) 60%
B) 75%
C) 98%
D) 50%

Answer 47

C) 98%

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Question 48

Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA) is characterized by which of the following?

A) Complete cessation of breathing lasting less than 5 seconds
B) Complete cessation of breathing
C) Reduction in airflow by 50%
D) Cessation of breathing only during exercise

Answer 48

B) Complete cessation of breathing

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Question 49

Which of the following are characteristics of Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA)? (Select 3)

A) Complete cessation of snoring
B) Lasting 10 seconds or more
C) Occurs more than 5 times per hour of sleep
D) Decreases oxygen saturation by 10%
E) Decreases oxygen saturation by 4%

Answer 49

B) Lasting 10 seconds or more,
C) Occurs more than 5 times per hour of sleep, E) Decreases oxygen saturation by 4%

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Question 50

Which of the following criteria is associated with hypopnea?

A) Reduction in airflow by 50% or more lasting 15 seconds
B) Reduction in airflow by 30% or more lasting 20 seconds
C) Reduction in airflow by 50% or more lasting 10 seconds or more
D) Reduction in airflow by 10% or more lasting 10 seconds or less

Answer 50

C) Reduction in airflow by 50% or more lasting 10 seconds or more

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Question 51

Which of the following are characteristics of hypopnea? (Select 2)

A) Reduction in airflow by 50% or less
B) Lasting less than 5 seconds
C) Occurs more than 15 times per hour of sleep
D) Decreases oxygen saturation by 4%
E) Reduction in oxygen levels by 20%

Answer 51

C) Occurs more than 15 times per hour of sleep,
D) Decreases oxygen saturation by 4%

C - Same kind of duration, same decrease in SPO2, but they’re having an actual airflow reduction.
So as far as like testing a lot of times, these patients will not only have monitoring for oxygen saturation, but they’ll also do spirometry while they’re testing them.

Slide 14

Question 52

What is another term for the sleep study used to diagnose OSAHS?

A) Echocardiogram
B) Polysomnography
C) Electroencephalogram
D) Spirometry

Answer 52

B) Polysomnography

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Question 53

The apnea/hypopnea index (AHI) classifies severe OSAHS as how many events per hour?

A) 5-15 events per hour
B) 15-30 events per hour
C) >30 events per hour
D) 20-25 events per hour

Answer 53

C) >30 events per hour

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Question 54

The apnea/hypopnea index (AHI) classifies moderate OSAHS as having ______ events per hour.

A) 5-10
B) 15-30
C) 25-40
D) 10-20

Answer 54

B) 15-30

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Question 55

The apnea/hypopnea index (AHI) classifies mild OSAHS as how many events per hour?

A) 5-15 events per hour
B) 15-30 events per hour
C) >30 events per hour
D) 20-25 events per hour

Answer 55

A) 5-15 events per hour

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Question 56

Which of the following are included in the treatment strategies for moderate/severe OSAHS? (Select 2)

A) CPAP
B) Cognitive therapy
C) Use of diuretics
D) Weight loss
E) Sleep medication

Answer 56

B) CPAP,
D) Weight loss

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Question 57

Which of the following conditions are NOT at increased risk for moderate/severe OSAHS?

A) Systemic hypertension
B) Cognitive impairment
C) Renal failure
D) LVH (Left ventricular hypertrophy)
E) Cardiac dysrhythmias

Answer 57

C) Renal failure

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Question 58

Obesity hypoventilation syndrome is also known as:

A) Pickwickian syndrome
B) Sleep apnea syndrome
C) Cor pulmonale syndrome
D) Metabolic syndrome

Answer 58

A) Pickwickian syndrome

C - used to be known as Pickwick syndrome, and I guess that wasn’t nice and people didn’t like having a term. So we started calling it OHS instead.

Slide 16

Question 59

Obesity hypoventilation syndrome is characterized by which of the following? (Select 2)

A) Pica disorder
B) Results from untreated long-term OSA
C) Results in hyperventilation
D) 5-10% of morbidly obese
E) Diagnosed with BMI < 30 kg/m²
F) 3-8% of morbidly obese

Answer 59

B) Results from untreated long-term OSA
D) 5-10% of morbidly obese

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Question 60

Which of the following are conditions that obesity hypoventilation syndrome can result in? (Select 2)

A) Cor pulmonale
B) Pulmonary hypertension
C) Systemic hypotension
D) Cardiac arrhythmias
E) Congestive heart failure

Answer 60

A) Cor pulmonale - Pulmonary heart disease, also known as cor pulmonale, is the enlargement and failure of the right ventricle of the heart as a response to increased vascular resistance or high blood pressure in the lungs

B) Pulmonary hypertension

Slide 16

Question 61

The diagnosis of obesity hypoventilation syndrome includes which of the following characteristics? (Select 2)

A) BMI > 30 kg/m²
B) Chronic cough
C) Awake hypercapnia
D) Dyspnea on exertion
E) BMI < 35 kg/m²
F) Pulmonary edema

Answer 61

A) BMI > 30 kg/m²,
C) Awake hypercapnia

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Question 62

Which of the following are known effects of Phentermine? (Select 4)

A) Decreased appetite
B) Hypertension
C) Palpitations
D) Fecal incontinence
E) Dependence and abuse
F) Regulate lipid metabolism

Answer 62

A) Decreased appetite
B) Hypertension
C) Palpitations, and Tachycardia
E) Dependence and abuse potential

Slide 17

Question 63

Phentermine, a sympathomimetic drug, is FDA approved for ______.

A) Indefinite use
B) Only 3 months
C) Use with Fenfluramine
D) 1-year use

Answer 63

B) Only 3 months

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Question 64

Phentermine is no longer combined with Fenfluramine (commonly known as “Fen Fen”) due to which of the following reasons? (Select 2)

A) Increased risk of liver failure
B) Higher incidence of gastrointestinal discomfort
C) Valvular symptoms
D) Severe allergic reactions
E) Risk of sudden death

Answer 64

C) Valvular symptoms
E) Risk of sudden death

Slide 17

Question 65

Orlistat works by:

A) Suppressing appetite
B) Reducing cravings for sugar
C) Stimulating the pancreas
D) Blocking absorption of dietary fat

Answer 65

D) Blocking absorption of dietary fat

Slide 17

Question 66

Which of the following are side effects of Orlistat? (Select 3)

A) Liquid stool
B) Constipation
C) Fecal urgency
D) Flatulence
E) Nausea

Answer 66

A) Liquid stool,
C) Fecal urgency,
D) Flatulence

Question 67

Orlistat can lead to fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies with chronic use, including possible ______ deficiency.

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin D
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin C

Answer 67

C) Vitamin K

Prolonged PT and clotting disorders

Slide 17

Question 68

Matching

Match the OTC herbal with the bodily effects

Answer 68

Pancreatic lipase inhibitors → C. caffeine, green tea

Appetite suppressors → D. ginseng, ephedra, sunflower oil

Energy stimulants → A. acai berry

Regulate lipid metabolism → B. soybean, fish oil, oolong tea

Slide 17

Question 69

GLP-1 receptor agonists are primarily approved by the FDA for which of the following conditions? Select 2

A) Hypertension
B) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
C) Cardiovascular risk reduction
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Osteoarthritis

Answer 69

B) Type 2 diabetes mellitus and cardiovascular risk reduction

Slide 18

Question 70

Which of the following are true regarding the use of GLP-1 receptor agonists?
(Select 3)
A) They are also used for weight loss
B) They should be taken on the day of a surgical procedure
C) Recommended to hold these either the day before or day of the procedure
D) For weekly dosing, the dose should be held for a week before a procedure
E) Recommended to hold these either three days before or day of the procedure

Answer 70

A) They are also used for weight loss
C) For daily dosing, recommended to hold these drugs either the day before or day of the procedure
D) For weekly dosing, the dose should be held for a week before a procedure

Slide 18

Question 71

Matching

Match the Generic Drug with the Trade name for Glucagon-like Peptide-1 Receptor Agonists (GLP-1)

Answer 71

Dulaglutide → D. Trulicity
Exenatide (IR) → A. Byetta
Liraglutide → B. Victoza
Semaglutide → E. Ozempic, Wegovy
Semaglutide (Oral) → C. Rybelsus

Slide 19

Question 72

Matching

Match the GLP-1 with the Gastric Emptying/Half-life

Answer 72

Dulaglutide (Trulicity) → B
Exenatide (IR) (Byetta) → C
Liraglutide (Victoza) → A
Semaglutide (Ozempic, Wegovy) → D
Semaglutide (Oral) (Rybelsus) → E

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Question 73

What should be considered if GLP-1 agonists prescribed for diabetes management are held for longer than the dosing schedule? A. No additional actions are necessary
B. Increase the dosage of GLP-1 agonists after the procedure
C. Consult an endocrinologist for bridging antidiabetic therapy
D. Switch to an alternative medication

Answer 73

C. Consult an endocrinologist for bridging antidiabetic therapy

Slide 20

Question 74

What should be considered if a patient on GLP-1 agonists presents with gastrointestinal symptoms such as severe nausea, vomiting, or abdominal bloating on the day of the procedure? (Select 2)

A. Proceed with the procedure
B. Delay the elective procedure
C. Increase the dosage of GLP-1 agonist
D. Assess the risk of regurgitation
E. Follow standard fasting guidelines

Answer 74

B. Delay the elective procedure
D. Assess the risk of regurgitation and *pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents *

Slide 21

Question 75

What precautions should be considered if a patient did not hold GLP-1 agonists as advised? (Select 3)

A. Evaluate gastric volume by ultrasound
B. Treat the patient as having a ‘full stomach’
C. Proceed with the procedure without any precautions
D. Delay the procedure if the stomach is full
E. Delay procedure for 8 hours to allow for digestion

Answer 75

A. Evaluate gastric volume by ultrasound,
B. Treat the patient as having a ‘full stomach’ - pepcid, bicitra
D. Delay the procedure if the stomach is full

Slide 21

Question 76

If no evidence suggests an optimal duration of fasting for patients on GLP-1 agonists, what guideline should be followed?

A. Standard GLP-1 fasting guidelines
B. Current ASA fasting guidelines
C. No fasting is required
D. Current AANA fasting guidelines

Answer 76

B. Current ASA fasting guidelines

Slide 21

Question 77

True or False

After doing a gastric ultrasounds on patients that are high risk for aspiration, whether it’s because they’re taking GLP ones or something else is going on, you should put in a NG tube to help decompress the stomach and continue with surgery.

Answer 77

FALSE

C - …some places that they recommend putting in a gastric tube beforehand. The problem?
…you’re kind of creating a portal for things to come out through the lower esophageal sphincter. So there at increased risk of aspiration and you may have been the one that just created the conduit for that to happen

Slide 22

Question 78

Preoperative evaluation focuses on evidence of which of the following conditions? (Select 3)

A. Hypertension
B. Diabetes
C. Heart failure
D. Hyperventilation syndrome
E. Renal insufficiency

Answer 78

A. Hypertension, - Baseline BP?
B. Diabetes, - Diabetes controlled?
C. Heart failure - Insidious! Echo or functional limitations?

Slide 23

Question 79

Preoperative evaluation for patient that are obese should include which of the following?

A. Hyperventilation syndrome
B. Hypoventilation syndrome
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Pneumonia

Answer 79

B. Hypoventilation syndrome

C - if you’re not sure how well they’re breathing, they look like they’re little suspect.
I would certainly consider getting bedside spirometry.
Probably not to the point of getting like FEV or anything a detailed pulmonary function test, but just see what sort of volumes they can get and a lot of time.

Slide 24

Question 80

CPAP usage of more than _______ cm H₂O suggests difficult mask ventilation during anesthesia.

A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12

Answer 80

C. 10

Slide 24

Question 81

Which of the following is an important factor to consider during preoperative evaluation regarding surgical history?

a) Food allergies
b) Past and current weight comparison
c) Family medical history
d) Immunization record

Answer 81

b) Past and current weight comparison

Corn: They may not be in kind of the same body habitus that they used to be.You’ll see that this is somebody that used to have weighed several 100 lbs.
And now they’re a lot smaller than that, but they may still have some of the ill effects they did before. So just be cautious

Slide 25

Question 82

PreOp Eval

Evaluating previous ________ can help anticipate challenges in managing the airway during surgery.

a) Surgical sites
b) Blood transfusions
c) Intubations
d) Medication doses

Answer 82

c) Intubations

Other things to think about if you’re able to pull previously anesthesia records, how difficult were they to intubate in the past? You may see that even though they were really large or are really large, that they’re not necessarily difficult intubation

Slide 25

Question 83

PreOp Eval

True or False:
The need for ICU admission is a factor that should be explored during the preoperative evaluation of surgical history

Answer 83

True

Cornelius: Other things that come into play is this somebody that’s going to need to go to the Critical Care unit afterwards because of these underlying complications is a result of that. You may consider pushing them either to a hospital or to more of a tertiary care center. So probably not somebody you want to do in a surgery center.

Slide 25

Question 84

PreOp Eval

Which of the following is a common difficulty faced in patients with overlying tissue or poor vein visibility?

a) Airway management
b) Vascular access
c) Pain management
d) Postoperative monitoring

Answer 84

b) Vascular access
Cornelius: Access can be a struggle in these patients. Fortunately, you know, now we can use the ultrasound for vascular access because it’s not so much that they have bad vent.

Slide 25

Question 85

PreOp Eval

Evaluating past ________ can provide insights into potential risks and complications for the upcoming surgery.

a) Laboratory results
b) Surgical outcomes
c) Family history
d) Insurance policies

Answer 85

b) Surgical outcomes

Cornelius: So just think about things like that from a surgery standpoint.
They may be OK, but sometimes the surgeons don’t think about the anesthesia side of things. They have poor wound healing. They tend to get infected. They get PEs. They’re not out of bed very quickly. So you need to kind of evaluate. Is this really what should be done for this patient

Slide 25

Question 86

Which of the following preoperative medications are typically considered for obese patients? (Select 4 that apply)

a) Continuation of antihypertensives
b) Continuation of insulin
c) Continuation of oral hypoglycemics
d) Administration of antibiotics
e) Discontinuation of all home medications

Answer 86

continue home meds
a) Continuation of antihypertensives
b) Continuation of insulin
c) Continuation of oral hypoglycemics

d) Administration of antibiotics usually indicated

Slide 26

Question 87

Which of the following types of prophylaxis are typically indicated preoperatively? (Select 2 that apply)

a) DVT prophylaxis
b) Pain prophylaxis
c) Aspiration prophylaxis
d) Fluid prophylaxis
e) Infection prophylaxis

Answer 87

a) DVT prophylaxis
c) Aspiration prophylaxis

Slide 26

Question 88

Intraoperative care

Which of the following are airway abnormalities commonly associated with impaired physiology? (Select 4 that apply)

a) Decreased vital capacity
b) Increased inspiratory capacity
c) Decreased expiratory reserve volume
d) Increased functional residual capacity
e) Low lung compliance
f) Rapid desaturation

Answer 88

a) Decreased vital capacity

↓ Inspiratory capacity

c) Decreased expiratory reserve volume

↓ Functional residual capacity

e) Low lung compliance

f) Rapid desaturation

Slide 27

Question 89

Intraoperative care

______ is close to or within tidal breathing, especially when the patient is supine or recumbent.

a) Vital capacity
b) Functional residual capacity
c) Closing capacity
d) Expiratory reserve volume

Answer 89

c) Closing capacity

Slide 27

Question 90

What can possibly lead to renal failure when a morbidly obese patient is placed in the supine position?

a) Compression of the lungs
b) Decreased venous return
c) Rhabdomyolysis of the gluteal muscles
d) Dehydration

Answer 90

c) Rhabdomyolysis of the gluteal muscles

Slide 30

Question 91

Intraoperative care

True or False:

During intraoperative care, the choice of anesthetic technique should be planned.

Answer 91

True
Cornelius: but just be very cautious with these patients. They tend to wake up very slowly. No matter what your anesthetic technique is.So if you’re able to do this under regional order axial, that may be a better option for you. Other things to think about as far as like agent selection, something that doesn’t stick around quite as long.

Slide 29

Question 92

Which of the following are potential complications associated with the supine position during surgery? (Select all that apply)

a) Ventilatory impairment
b) Compression of the inferior vena cava (IVC) and Aorta (Ao)
c) Rhabdomyolysis on gluteal muscles
d) Increased risk of axillary nerve compression

Answer 92

a) Ventilatory impairment
b) Compression of the inferior vena cava (IVC) and Aorta (Ao)
c) Rhabdomyolysis on gluteal muscles

Slide 30

Question 93

Which of the following are potential complications associated with the prone position during surgery? (Select all that apply)

a) Excessive pressure from cushioning pads
b) Skin breakdown
c) Tissue necrosis
d) Increased risk of infections

Answer 93

a) Excessive pressure from cushioning pads
b) Skin breakdown
c) Tissue necrosis
d) Increased risk of infections

Slide 30

Question 94

Which of the following are potential complications associated with the lateral decubitus position during surgery? (Select 2 that apply)

a) Dependent hip pressure ulcers
b) Difficulty placing axillary rolls
c) Compression of the aorta and inferior vena cava
d) Respiratory compromise due to lung compression
e) Venous pooling in the lower extremities

Answer 94

a) Dependent hip pressure ulcers
b) Difficulty placing axillary rolls

Slide 30

Question 95

True or False

Lateral Decubitus positioning is favored over prone.

Answer 95

TRUE

Cornelius: If we have a choice, there’s lots of times we can do cases in multiple different positions. So as opposed to turning somebody prone, we may put them in like a lateral decubitis or even like a sloppy lateral position, and then to help us out a little bit with the pulmonary issues.

Slide 30

Question 96

Which of the following are potential complications associated with the lithotomy position during surgery? (Select 3 that apply)

a) Regular stirrups may not support the patient’s weight
b) Increased risk of nerve injury
c) Tissue compression
d) Compartment syndrome
e) Airway compromise

Answer 96

a) Regular stirrups may not support the patient’s weight
c) Tissue compression
d) Compartment syndrome

Slide 30

Question 97

What is a potential issue that can occur when the bed used during surgery is too large?

a) The patient may be uncomfortable during the procedure
b) It becomes almost impossible for the surgeon to access the patient
c) The anesthetic gases may not circulate properly
d) The surgical instruments may be out of reach

Answer 97

b) It becomes almost impossible for the surgeon to access the patient

Slide 31

Question 98

What are the potential positioning problems in this scenario? (Select 4 that apply)

a) Inadequate padding over the hips
b) Poorly secured Velcro strap
c) Arm potentially sinking into the bed, risking nerve injury
d) Overuse of pink foam on the upper arm
e) Inadequate support for the body, leading to sliding
f) Perfect positioning without any issues

Answer 98

a) Inadequate padding over the hips
b) Poorly secured Velcro strap
c) Arm potentially sinking into the bed, risking nerve injury
e) Inadequate support for the body, leading to sliding

Slide 31

Question 99

What are the potential positioning problems and issues in this scenario? (Select 4 that apply)

a) Securing the patient with Koban rather than solid straps
b) Poor leg positioning leading to imbalance on the table
c) Risk of pressure injuries under the breasts
d) Use of friction locks and buckles
e) Concern for calf pressure during the surgery
f) Perfect positioning with no issues present

Answer 99

a) Securing the patient with Koban rather than solid straps
b) Poor leg positioning leading to imbalance on the table
c) Risk of pressure injuries under the breasts
e) Concern for calf pressure during the surgery

Slide 32

Question 100

What are the potential positioning problems and risks associated with the patient prone on the Jackson frame in this scenario? (Select 3 that apply)

a) Pads are not properly positioned under the patient
b) The patient is at risk of sliding through the table
c) Risk of pressure ulcers due to poor distribution of body weight on the pads
d) The pads provide perfect support for the patient’s body habitus
e) The Jackson frame is always safe for patients without any modifications

Answer 100

a) Pads are not properly positioned under the patient
b) The patient is at risk of sliding through the table
c) Risk of pressure ulcers due to poor distribution of body weight on the pads

Slide 33

Question 101

What are the potential positioning problems and risks in this scenario involving a large patient on a fracture table? (Select 3 that apply)

a) Knees are poorly supported
b) Inappropriate use of equipment to hold the feet
c) Risk of pressure injuries due to wrinkles in draw sheets
d) Proper positioning with no concerns
e) Patient’s head is not adequately supported

Answer 101

a) Knees are poorly supported
b) Inappropriate use of equipment to hold the feet
c) Risk of pressure injuries due to wrinkles in draw sheets
It could also be as simple as something like your EKG leads

Slide 34

Question 102

What should you do if you observe awkward or uncomfortable positioning that seems unusual or potentially harmful to the patient?

a) Ignore the situation as it is likely normal and accepted
b) Express your concerns to the CRNA or another experienced team member
c) Immediately remove the patient from the positioning device
d) Wait for the attending physician to notice the problem

Answer 102

b) Express your concerns to the CRNA or another experienced team member

Cornelius: So it may be normal.
It may also be that everybody else in the room is thinking the same thing you are. They’ve just kind of gotten away with it and made it OK for so long. Try and figure out what you can

Slide 34

Question 103

Airway:Assessment and intubation

In which of the following areas is increased adipose tissue NOT typically deposited in obese patients, contributing to airway obstruction?

a) Uvula
b) Tonsils
c) Tongue
d) Soft palate
e) Aryepiglottic folds
f) Lateral pharyngeal walls

Answer 103

d) Soft palate

Slide 35

Question 104

In morbidly obese patients, what change occurs in the oropharynx that can affect airway management?

a) The oropharynx changes into a circular shape
b) The oropharynx changes into an ellipse
c) The oropharynx becomes smaller and more triangular
d) The oropharynx remains unchanged

Answer 104

b) The oropharynx changes into an ellipse

Short transverse/long AP axis

Slide 35

Question 105

There is an inverse relationship between the degree of __ and the __.

a) Obesity; pharyngeal area
b) Exercise; lung capacity
c) Obesity; cardiac output
d) Age; blood pressure

Answer 105

a) Obesity; pharyngeal area

Inverse relationship between degree of obesity and pharyngeal area.

Slide 35

Question 106

Which of the following is NOT necessarily an independent predictor of difficult intubation?

a) Large teeth
b) Limited neck mobility
c) Small mouth opening
d) BMI

Answer 106

d) BMI

Cornelius: BMI in itself may not be the only predictor, but it’s definitely something to consider.But look at your physical assessment of these patients.

Slide 36

Question 107

Which of the following are predictors of difficult intubation? (Select 4 that apply)

a) Small mouth opening
b) Large/protuberant teeth
c) Limited neck mobility
d) Retrognathia
e) Low BMI

Answer 107

a) Small mouth opening
b) Large/protuberant teeth
c) Limited neck mobility
d) Retrognathia

Slide 36

Question 108

What is a common issue encountered when positioning obese patients for intubation in the supine position?

a) They are usually comfortable without additional support
b) They may have difficulty breathing, requiring additional positioning support under the head
c) They breathe better in the supine position compared to the seated position
d) The Troop pillow is always sufficient for all patients

Answer 108

b) They may have difficulty breathing, requiring additional positioning support under the head

Slide 37

Question 109

Which of the following positions is commonly used to optimize intubation, particularly in obese patients?

a) Trendelenburg position
b) Ramped position
c) Supine position
d) Lithotomy position

Answer 109

b) Ramped position

Slide 37

Question 110

What axes should be aligned to optimize visualization during intubation?

a) Oral axis, tracheal axis, and esophageal axis
b) Oral axis, pharyngeal axis, and laryngeal axis
c) Pharyngeal axis, spinal axis, and abdominal axis
d) Laryngeal axis, nasal axis, and tracheal axis

Answer 110

b) Oral axis, pharyngeal axis, and laryngeal axis

Cornelius: the big thing to take away from this is you don’t need to just lift up their head. But in these patients, a lot of times because of that extra body habitus, you’re also going to have to sit up their shoulders and then their head, and it may be a multi step process.

Slide 38

Question 111

What factors were studied in relation to intubation success during simulated endotracheal intubation in the ramped position?

a) Patient weight and age
b) Bed angle and height
c) Airway pressure and oxygen saturation
d) Anesthesia depth and medication dosage

Answer 111

b) Bed angle and height

Cornelius: if you set up the head of the bed, you can improve your intubation success pretty drastically

Slide 39

Question 112

What is the most important respiratory intervention that can be done for the obese patient prior to intubation?

a) Increase tidal volume
b) Preoxygenate
c) Perform a chest X-ray
d) Administer sedatives

Answer 112

b) Preoxygenate

Slide 40

Question 113

Match the following patient types with the time it takes to desaturate to 90% during intubation:

Normal BMI
Morbidly obese BMI

a) Less than 3 minutes
b) 6 minutes

Answer 113

Normal BMI - (b) 6 minutes

Morbidly obese BMI - (a) Less than 3 minutes

Slide 40

Question 114

Which of the following are effective positions for lung recruitment in an obese patient during surgery? (Select 2 that apply)

a) 30° Reverse Trendelenburg
b) 25-30° head up
c) Supine position
d) Prone position
e) 10° head down Trendelenburg

Answer 114

a) 30° Reverse Trendelenburg

b) 25-30° head up

Slide 41

Question 115

What measures should be take for alveolar What measures should be taken for alveolar recruitment to prevent atelectasis and desaturation in the obese patient? (Select 4 that apply)

a) CPAP 10 cmH₂O during preoxygenation
b) Positioning
c) Recruiting maneuvers followed by PEEP 10 cmH₂O
d) Mechanical ventilation after induction
e) Supine positioning without further adjustments
to prevent atelectasis and desaturation in the obese patient?

Answer 115

a) CPAP 10 cmH₂O during preoxygenation

b) Positioning

c) Recruiting maneuvers followed by PEEP 10 cmH₂O

d) Mechanical ventilation after induction

Slide 41

Question 116

What is an important initial step when managing obese patients prior to intubation?

a) Administer sedatives
b) Perform a bronchoscopy
c) Place a pulse oximeter to obtain a baseline oxygen saturation
d) Begin mechanical ventilation immediately

Answer 116

c) Place a pulse oximeter to obtain a baseline oxygen saturation

Cornelius: What I’ll do with these patients is as soon as I roll into the room, I put a pulse ox on him. If I didn’t have one in preOp so I can get a baseline set because lots of times they’re preOp saturation is not going to be normal… It’s going to be low, so that way you kind of know what you’re working with to start off with

Slide 40

Question 117

Is obesity alone a predictor of aspiration in fasting, non-diabetic patients?

a) Yes, obesity alone is a strong predictor of aspiration risk
b) No, gastric volume and pH are the same
c) Only in patients with a BMI over 50
d) Obesity alone always increases gastric acidity

Answer 117

b) No, gastric volume and pH are the same

Slide 42

Question 118

Which of the following are used as prophylaxis in patients with identifiable risk factors for aspiration? (Select 4 that apply)

a) Histamine receptor agonists
b) Proton pump inhibitors
c) Rapid sequence intubation (RSI)
d) Awake fiberoptic intubation
e) Supraglottic airway devices

Answer 118

a) Histamine receptor agonists
b) Proton pump inhibitors
c) Rapid sequence intubation (RSI)
d) Awake fiberoptic intubation

Slide 42

Question 119

True or False

Rapid sequence intubation (RSI) is used only for aspiration concerns, not ventilation concerns.

Answer 119

FALSE

RSI for aspiration concerns or ventilation concerns

Cornelius: if you’re ever in doubt, go ahead and secure that airway quickly. Whether it’s because you don’t think you’ll be able to ventilate them or you don’t think that you’ll be able to intubate them very easily.

Slide 42

Question 120

Regional anesthesia is especially effective in obese patients, particularly for __ and __ anesthesia, based on obstetrical experience.

a) General; local
b) Spinal; epidural
c) Peripheral nerve; local
d) Conscious sedation; epidural

Answer 120

b) Spinal; epidural

Slide 43

Question 121

Which of the following are advantages of regional anesthesia in obese patients? (Select 4 that apply)

a) Less airway manipulation
b) Decreased chance of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)
d) Larger doses needed for spinal anesthesia
e) Fewer cardiopulmonary depressants
f) Better postoperative pain control (at least initially)

Answer 121

a) Less airway manipulation
b) Decreased chance of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)
e) Fewer cardiopulmonary depressants
f) Better postoperative pain control (at least initially)

Slide 43

Question 122

Which of the following is NOT a reason why regional anesthesia is technically difficult in obese patients?

a) Longer needles are needed
b) Different ultrasound probes are required
c) Smaller doses are used for epidurals due to cephalad spread
d) Higher rates of block success are common
e) Higher rates of hypotension occur after blocks due to IVC/Ao compression

Answer 122

d) Higher rates of block success are common

Higher rates of block failure

Slide 43

Question 123

Proper size cuff is important. The blood pressure will be falsely elevated if the cuff is too ______, and the bladder should circle at least ______ of the arm’s circumference.

a) small; 50%
b) large; 80%
c) small; 75%
d) large; 60%

Answer 123

c) small; 75%

• Falsely elevated if the cuff is too small
• Bladders should circle at least 75% of the circumference

Slide 44

Question 124

matching

Answer 124

Needs stem from comorbidities (often occurring with obesity)

1. Pulmonary HTN - d) Pulmonary artery catheter or TEE
2. Difficult IV access - ma) Central line placement
3. High risk of DVT and PE - b) IVC filter
4. Difficult non-invasive BP - c) Arterial line
5. Need to monitor ventilation/ABGs - e) Arterial line

Slide 44

Question 125

True or False

No particular anesthetic plan is favored for obese patients undergoing surgery.

Answer 125

True

Slide 45

Question 126

What problems can arise in obese OSA patients as a result of sedative use? (Select 2 that apply)

a) Decreased pharyngeal musculature
b) Increased airway patency
c) Decreased airway patency
d) Improved lung function

Answer 126

a) Decreased pharyngeal musculature
c) Decreased airway patency

Slide 45

Question 127

Which drug classes have exaggerated responses in obese patients, particularly those with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)? (Select 3 that apply)

a) Opioids
b) Benzodiazepines
c) Propofol
d) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
e) Antihistamines

Answer 127

a) Opioids
b) Benzodiazepines
c) Propofol

Slide 45

Question 128

Which opioids are preferred in obese patients with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?

a) Morphine and Hydromorphone
b) Remifentanil and Fentanyl
c) Meperidine and Codeine
d) Methadone and Oxycodone

Answer 128

b) Remifentanil and Fentanyl

Short-acting Opioids

Slide 45

Question 129

___ is not a favored volatile in obese patients due to their greater O₂ demand.

a) Desflurane
b) Sevoflurane
c) Nitrous
d) Isoflurane

Answer 129

c) Nitrous
(N₂O)

Cornelius: I would just continue with just 100% oxygen and give them a little bit longer to wake up

Slide 45

Question 130

What drug class, in general, will diminish the ventilatory response to CO₂?

a) Opioids
b) Volatile anesthetic agents (VAAs)
c) Benzodiazepines
d) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

Answer 130

b) Volatile anesthetic agents (VAAs)

Cornelius: As far as our volatile agents go, a lot of times it’s preferred over something like propofol just because you have control over the situation….They will hold on to the volatile agents longer than a normal patient would but you can get rid of them faster. There are also agents out there like Desflurane that are kind of targeted for these patients.

Slide 45

Question 131

The initial dosing of drugs in obese patients should be based on which factor?

a) Cardiac output
b) Lipid solubility
c) Blood pressure
d) Muscle mass

Answer 131

b) Lipid solubility of the drug

Slide 46

Question 132

Which common anesthetic drugs are dosed based on Ideal Body Weight (IBW)? (Select all that apply)

a) Vecuronium
b) Propofol
c) Remifentanil
d) Rocuronium
e) Midazolam

Answer 132

a) Vecuronium
b) Propofol
c) Remifentanil
d) Rocuronium

Memory Trick: ” Very Proportioned Remaining Rock is Ideal”

Slide 46

Question 133

Which common anesthetic drugs are dosed based on Total Body Weight (TBW)? (Select all that apply)

a) Midazolam
b) Succinylcholine
c) Fentanyl
d) Cisatracurium
e) Sufentanil
f) Rocuronium

Answer 133

a) Midazolam
b) Succinylcholine
c) Fentanyl
d) Cisatracurium
e) Sufentanil

Memory Trick: “Total Body Weight Might Sux For Cis Sufferers”

Slide 46

Question 134

Which volatile anesthetic is likely favored in obese patients due to its lower tissue solubility?
a) Isoflurane
b) Sevoflurane
c) Desflurane
d) Halothane

Answer 134

c) Desflurane

Slide 46

Question 135

Which of the following are considerations for proper use of an OR table when managing an obese patient? (Select 3 that apply)

a) Ensure the OR table is weight appropriate
b) Utilize safety straps
c) Use a bean bag with a sheet
d) Use doubled arm boards or mayo stands
e) Consider not using sleds

Answer 135

a) Ensure the OR table is weight appropriate

b) Utilize safety straps

Use a bean bag with NO sheet

Use doubled arm boards NOT mayo stands

e) Consider not using sleds
Corn: They tend to not fit, so they’re putting pressure on their body tissueThe other thing is they’re not gonna keep that patient’s arm from falling off.

Slide 47-48

Question 136

IV fluid requirements are ___ than what’s predicted in order to prevent acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in the obese patient.

a) Lower
b) Greater
c) The same
d) Slightly lower

Answer 136

b) Greater

Slide 48

Question 137

When managing obese patients in the OR, __ is critical to prevent hypothermia due to their increased body surface area.

a) Thermal management
b) Blood pressure monitoring
c) IV access
d) Airway management

Answer 137

a) Thermal management

Slide 47

Question 138

A lot of times these patients are a good choice for ______.

a) invasive pulmonary monitoring
b) non-invasive cardiac monitoring
c) MRI-based monitoring
d) manual blood pressure monitoring

Answer 138

b) non-invasive cardiac monitoring

Slide 48

Question 139

Which of the following are recommended postoperative management strategies in obese patients? (Select 4 that apply)

a) Sit up postoperatively
b) Fully reverse neuromuscular blockade
c) Use only opioid-based pain management
d) Use pressure support mode during emergence
e) Continue home levels of CPAP
f) Avoid non-opioid sparing options

Answer 139

a) Sit up postoperatively

b) Fully reverse neuromuscular blockade
* Sugammadex
* Dosed on IBW or TBW

d) Use pressure support mode during emergence
* Once spontaneously breathing

e) Continue home levels of CPAP

use non-opioid sparing options

Slide 49

Question 140

Which of the following are examples of non-opioid or opioid-sparing medications recommended for postoperative management in obese patients? (Select 4 that apply)

a) Tramadol
b) Fentanyl
c) Dexmedetomidine
d) Ketamine
e) Clonidine
f) Morphine

Answer 140

a) Tramadol
Corn:try and avoid things that won’t cause excessive sedation, and certainly things that won’t affect my pulmonary status.So consider giving them a long acting agent up front.

Corn: As far as the OR, give these patients…
c) Dexmedetomidine

d) Ketamine

e) Clonidine

Slide 49

Question 141

True or False

In postoperative management, it is important to consider when and where cases are done to ensure appropriate care for obese patients.

Answer 141

True

Cornelius: you’ll see that a lot of off locations can be problematic for these types of cases, so you may want to bring them to kind of your anesthesia happy place and do it in the OR.

Slide 49