OB Questions Flashcards by Gabriella Santangelo

Which of the following Is not part of the biophysics profile
A. fetal swallowing
B. flexion Of the limb
C. amniotic fluid
D. fetal breathing

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Q
for the normal biophysical profile, the amniotic fluid pocket should measure:

a. greater than 4 cm in two perpendicular planes
b. at least 2 cm in two perpendicular planes
c. greater than 5 cm in two perpendicular planes
d. at least 3 cm in two perpendicular planes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is the term for the fetal presentation that is head down?

a. breech
b. crown
c. cephalic
d. vertical

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

fetal presentation is determined by identifying the fetal part that is closest to the:

a. placenta
b. external os of the cervix
c. maternal umbilicus
d. internal os of the cervix

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is defined as the area located posterior to the broad ligaments and adjacent to the uterus, which contains the ovaries and fallopian tubes?
A.adnexa
B. paraovarian
C. pouch of Douglas
D. space of retzius

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

all of the following may be visualized at the correct level of the head circumference except:
a. third ventricle
b. thalamus
c. cavum septum pellucidum
d. falx cerebelli

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

typically, with a miscarriage, the serum hCG value will be:

a. elevated
b. decreased
c. this laboratory finding is not helpful
d. unchanged

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Typically, with anencephaly, the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein value will be:

a. elevated
b. decreased
c. this laboratory finding is not helpful
d. unchanged

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Typically, with gastroschisis, the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein value will be:

a. elevated
b. decreased
c. this laboratory finding is not helpful
d. unchanged

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the quadruple screen includes an analysis of all of the following except:
a. hCG
b. alphaFetoprotein
c. Inhibin A
d. PAPP-A

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Q
The reduction in blood return to the maternal heart caused by the gravid uterus compressing the maternal inferior vena cava describes: a. Edwards syndrome
b. Pulmonary obstructive syndrome
c. Supine hypotensive syndrome
d. Recumbent hypotensive syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following would be the least likely indication for a first-trimester sonogram?
a. evaluate pelvic pain
b. define the cause of vaginal bleeding
c. gender identification
d. diagnosis of multiple gestations

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

all of the following would be an indication for a third-trimester sonogram except:
a. evaluate NT
b. evaluate fetal presentation
c. evaluate fetal growth
d. evaluate gestational age

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is described as the number of pregnancies in which the patient has given birth to a fetus at or beyond 20 weeks gestational age or an infant weighing more than 500g?
a. Gravidity
b. Parity
c. Primigravida
d. Primiparous

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The number of pregnancies is defined as
a. Gravidity
b. parity
c. primigravida
d. primiparous

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the TPAL designation, the “L” refers to:
a. Living children
b. Lethal anomalies
c. Live births
d. Lost pregnancies

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The second trimester typically refers to weeks:
a. 12 through 26
b. 13 through 26
c. 10 through 28
d. 26 through 42

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the clinical manifestations of supine hypotensive syndrome include all of the following except:
a. proteinuria
b. tachycardia
c. nausea
d. pallor

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Painless second trimester vaginal bleeding is most often associated with:
a. Placental abruption
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Miscarriage
d. Placenta previa

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

all of the following are observed during a biophysical profile except:
a. fetal tone
b. thoracic movement
c. fetal breathing
d. fetal circulation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Q
which of the following would not be decreased in the presence of Edwards syndrome?
a. estriol
b. hCG
c. alpha-Fetoprotein
d. All would be decreased

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

all of the following are produced by the placenta except:
a. alpha-Fetoprotein
b. hCG
c. PAPP-A
d. Inhibin A

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A myelomeningocele is associated with:
a. Down syndrome
b. Spina biﬁda
c. Edwards syndrome
d. Patau syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The anechoic space along the posterior aspect of the fetal neck is the:
a. Nuchal fold
b. Nuchal cord
c. Nuchal translucency
d. Rhombencephalon

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Q
The premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before the birth of the fetus describes:
a. Placenta previa
b. Placental abruption
c. Ectopic cordis
d. Subchorionic hamartoma

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Something that is idiopathic is said to be:
a. Caused by a functional abnormality
b. Related to fetal development
c. From an unknown cause
d. Found incidentally

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following forms of fetal presentation is the most common?
a. cephalic
b. complete breech
c. frank breech
d. transverse

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Biophysical profile scoring is conducted:
a. Until the fetus cooperates
b. For 10 minutes
c. For 45 minutes
d. For 30 minutes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the fetal presentation when the fetal buttocks are closest to the cervix referred to?
a. Footling breech
b. Frank breech
c. Complete breech
d. Transverse

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following would not typically produce an elevation in hCG?
a. down syndrome
b. anembryonic pregnancy
c. triploidy
d. molar pregnancy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the triple screen typically includes an analysis of:
a. hCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and estriol
b. fetal NT, alpha-fetoprotein, and inhibin A
c. hCG, alph-fetoprotein, and inhibin A
d. hCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and PAPP-A

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The dilation of the renal collecting system secondary to the obstruction of normal urine ﬂow deﬁnes:
a. Nephrocalcinosis
b. Hydronephrosis
c. Renal calculi
d. Urinary stasis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The physiologic ovarian cyst that develops after ovulation has occurred is the:
a. Theca internal cyst
b. Graaﬁan cyst
c. Corpus luteum cyst
d. Cystic teratoma

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The protein that is produced by the yolk sac, fetal gastrointestinal tract, and the fetal liver is:
a. Alpha-fetoprotein
b. Human chorionic gonadotropin
c. Pregnancy-associated plasma protein A
d. Inhibin A

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following best describes the optimal instance to take the femur length measurement?

C. when the long axis of the femoral shaft is perpendicular to sound beam

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Q
the abdominal circumference should include all of the following except:
a. the fetal stomach
b. the fetal thoracic spine
c. the umbilical vein
d. the kidneys

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following artifacts is produced when the sound beam is barely attenuated through a fluid or a fluid-containing structure?
a. reverberation artifact
b. comet tail artifact
c. posterior shadowing
d. posterior enhancement

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

hich of the following artifacts is caused by attenuation of the sound beam?
a. reverberation artifact
b. comet tail artifact
c. posterior shadowing
d. posterior enhanceme

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following would be least likely associated with an elevation in MSAFP?
a. anencephaly
b. turner syndrome
c. spina bifida
d. myelomeningocele

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following is also referred to as trisomy 13?
a. down syndrome
b. edwards syndrome
c. turner syndrome
d. patau syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what structure connects the embryo to the yolk sac?
vitelline duct
yolk stalk
amnion
chorionic stalk

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is the name of the dominant follicle prior to ovulation?
Graafian
corpus luteum
morula
corpus albicans

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

fertilization typically occurs within ______ after ovulation
40 hours
12 hours
24 hours
56 hours

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the most common site of fertilization is within the:
isthmus
fundus
cornu
ampulla

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

with a normal pregnancy, the first structure noted within the decidualized endometrium is the:
yolk sac
chorionic sac
amniotic cavity
embryo

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the structure created by the union of sperm and egg is:
blastocyst
zygote
morula
ampulla

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the trophoblastic cells produce
estrogen
progesterone
FSH
hCG

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

sonographically, a normal appearing 7-week IUP is identified. within the adnexa, an ovarian cystic structure with a thick, hyperechoic rim is also discovered. what does this ovarian mass most likely represent?
theca lutein cyst
corpus luteum cyst
corpus albicans
ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is the stage of the conceptus that implants within the decidualized endometrium?
blastocyst
morula
zygote
ovum

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

another name for the chorionic sac is the:
chorionic cavity
extraembryonic coelom
amniotic sac
gestational sac

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is often used to medically treat an ectopic pregnancy?
dilatation and curettage
dilatation and evacuation
open surgery
methotrexate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what structure lies within the extraembryonic coelom?
gestational sac
embryo
yolk sac
amnion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what hormone, produced by corpus luetum, maintains the thickened endometrium?
estrogen
progesterone
hCG
LH

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is the most common form of GTD?
complete molar pregnancy
partial molar pregnancy
invasive mole
choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

in the first trimester, normal hCG levels will:
double every 48 hours
triple every 24 hours
double every 24 hours
double every 12 hours

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

compared with a normal IUP, the ectopic pregnancy will have a:
high hCG
low hCG
markedly elevated hCG
high AFP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following locations for an ecoptic pregnancy would be least likely?
isthmus
ampulla
ovary
interstitial

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the first sonographically identifiable sign of pregnancy is the:
amnion
yolk sac
decidual reaction
chorionic cavity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the first structure noted within the gestational sac is the:
yolk sac
embryo
decidual reaction
chorionic sac

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

NT measures are typically obtained between:
1 and 5 weeks
5 and 8 weeks
8 and 11 weeks
11 and 14 weeks

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the normal gestational sac will grow:
2mm per day
3mm per day
1cm per day
1mm per day

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

during the 1st trimester US, you note a round, cystic structure within the fetal head. this most likely represents:
prosencephalon
mesencephalon
rhombencephalon
proencephalon

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the migration of the embryologic bowel into the base of the umbilical cord at 9 weeks is referred to as:
physiologic bowel herniation
pseudo-omphalocele
omphalocele
gastroschisis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

during a 12 week US, bilateral echogenic structures are noted within the lateral ventricles of the fetal cranium. these structures most likely represent:
cerebral tumors
cerebral hemorrhage
anencephalic remnants
choroid plexus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

he most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy is the:
uterine leiomyoma
dermoid cyst
theca luteum cyst
corpus luteum cyst

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

all of the following are associated with an abnormal NT except:
trisomy 21
trisomy 16
trisomy 18
Turner syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy?
estrogen
progesterone
FSH
hCG

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the most common cause of pelvic pain with pregnancy is:
ectopic pregnancy
heterotopic pregnancy
missed abortion
molar pregnanc

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the most common location of an ectopic pregnancy is the:
ovary
interstitial
cornual
ampullary

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

all of the following are contributing factors for an ectopic pregnancy except:
PID
assisted reproductive therapy
IUCD
advance paternal age

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

all of the following are clincial features of an ectopic pregnancy except:
pain
vaginal bleeding
shoulder pain
adnexal ring

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

in the early gestation, where is the secondary yolk sac located?
chorionic cavity
base of umbilical cord
embryonic cranium
amniotic cavity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

all of the following are sonographic findings consistent with ectopic pregnancy except:
decidual thickening
complex free fluid within the pelvis
bilateral, multiloculated ovarian cysts
complex adnexal mass separate from the ipsilateral ovary

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

all of the following are consistent with a complete hydatidiform mole except:
heterogenous mass within endometrium
bilateral theca lutein cysts
hyperemesis gravidarum
low hCG

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

malignant form of GTD is:
choriocarcinoma
hydatidiform mole
anembryonic
hydropic villi

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

an US exam was performed on a pregnancy patient who complained of vaginal bleeding. sonographically, a crescent-shaped anechoic area is noted adjacent to the gestational sac. the gestational sac contained a 6week single live IUP. what is the most likely definition?
ectopic pregnancy
molar pregnancy
subchorionic hemorrhage
anembryonic gestation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

all of the folliwng would be associated with lower-than-normal hCG levels except:
ectopic pregnancy
molar pregnancy
blighted ovum
spontaneous abortion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following are clinical findings consistent with a complete molar pregnancy except:
vaginal bleeding
HTN
uterine enlargement
small for dates

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following is most likely metastatic location for GTD?
rectum
pancreas
spleen
lungs

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

all of the following may be sonographic findings in the presence of an ectopic pregnancy except:
pseudogestational sac
corpus luteum cyst
adnexal ring
low beta-hCG

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

with what structure does the posterior fossa cyst associated with DWM (Dandy-Walker Malformation) communicate?
A. fourth ventricle
B. thirf ventricle
C. cerebellar vermis
D. cerebral aqueduct

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the choroid plexus cyst could be associated with an increased risk of:
A. trisomy 13
B.trisomy 4 \
C. Arnold - Chairs malformation
D. Trisomy 18

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

all of the following are sonographic findings of Arnold-Chiari II malformation except:
a. enlarged massa intermedia
b. hydrocephalus
c. obliteration of the cisterna magna
d. strawberry sign

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following is located on both sides of the midline?
a. interhemispheric fissures
b. third and fourth ventricles
c. lateral ventricles
d. third ventricle and cerebral aqueduct

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following will also typically be absent with agenesis of the corpus callosum?
a. cerebellar vermis
b. CSP
c. third ventricle
d. fourth ventricle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the double fold of dura mater that divides the cerebral hemispheres is the:
A. cerebellum
B. CSP
C. corpus callous
D. Falx cerebri

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the development of fluid-filled cleft within the cerebrum is consistent with:
A. holoprosencephaky
B.Lissencephaly
C. Schizencephaly
D. hydranencephaly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The anechoic midline brain structure located between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles is the:
A. CSP
B. CAVUM VERAGE
C. CORPUS CALLOSUM
D. FOURTH VENTRICLE

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the “sunburst” of the cerebral sulci is a sonographic finding of:
A. DWM
B. AGENESIS OF THE CORPUS CALLOSUM
C. COLPOCEPHALY
D. HYDRANCEPHALY

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

enlargement of the frontal horns and narrowing of the occipital horns is termed:
A. HOLOPROSENCEPHALY
B. DWM
C. COLPOCEPHALY
D. APERT SYNDROME

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the interthalamic adhesion (massa intermedia) passes through the:
A. THIRD VENTRICLE
B. FOURTH VENTRICLE
C. CISTERN MAGNA
D. CSP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The most severe form of holoprosencephaly is
A. LOBAR
B. ALOBAR
C. SEMILOBAR
D. LOBULAR

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following is a genetic disorder that includes craniosynostosis, midline facial hypoplasia, and syndactyly?
A. LOBAR HOLOPROSENCEPHALY
B. BECKWITH - WEIDERMAN SYNDROME
C. ARNOL CHARI 11 FORMATION
D. APERT SYNDROME

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the third ventricle is located:
a. anterior to the thalamus
b. anterior to the cerebellar vermis
c. between the two lobes of the thalamus
d. superior to the corpus callosum

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what chromosomal aberration is most often associated with holoprosencephaly?
A. ANOPTHALMIA
B. TRISMY 21
C. TRISOMY 13
D. TRISOMY 18

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

dangling choroid sign is associated with:
A. VENTRICUMEGALY
B. HYDRANCEPHALY
C. LISSENCEPHALY
D. MECKEL-GRUBER SYNDROME

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the third ventricle communicates with the fourth ventricle at the:
a. foramen of magendie
b. foramen of luschka
c. foramen of monro
d. aqueduct of sylvius

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the fourth ventricle is located:
a. posterior to the CSP
b. between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles
c. anterior to the cerebellar vermis
d. medial to the third ventricle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the structure located between the two lobes of the cerebellum is the:
a. cerebellar vermis
b. cerebellar tonsils
c. falx cerebri
d. corpus callosum

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

a normal shaped skull is termed:
a. dolichocephaly
b. brachycephaly
c. mesocephaly
d. scaphocephaly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the most accurate measurement for estimating gestational age is:
a. BPD
b. HC
c. transcerebellar measurement
d. lateral ventricle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the cisterna magna should not exceed _______ in the transcerebellar plane.
a. 4 mm
b. 2 mm
c. 8 mm
d. 10 mm

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

a strawberry-shaped skull is commonly associated with:
a. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 15
c. trisomy 18
d. trisomy 13

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following would be the most likely fetal cranial findings with TORCH infections?
a. intracranial calcifications
b. cerebral atrophy
c. porencephaly
d. scaphocephaly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The band of tissue that allows communication between the right and left cerebral hemispheres is the:
a. falx cerebri
b. corpus callosum
c. cerebellar vermis
d. CSP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

a coverleaf-shaped skull is related to:
a. trisomy 18
b. meckel-gruber syndrome
c. thanatophoric dysplasia
d. beckwith-wiedemann syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

a lemon shaped skull is related to:
a. trisomy 2
b.. Arnold Chiari malformation II
c. trisomy 13
d. thanatophoric dysplasia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

all of the following are sonographic features of alobar holoprosencephaly except:
a. cyclopia
b. monoventricle
c. dorsal cyst
d. fused thalamus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what cerebral abnormality are atypical facial features most commonly associated with?
a. DWM
b. schizencephaly
c. lissencephaly
d. holoprosencephaly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

absence of the skull is:
a. hydranencephaly
b. schizencephaly
c. acrania
d. ventriculomegaly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what fetal suture is located within the frontal bone along the midline of the forehead?
a. squamosal suture
b. sagittal suture
c. lambdoidal suture
d. metopic suture

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the most common cause of hydrocephalus in utero is:
a. cerebral hemorrhage
b. holoprosencephaly
c. brain tumor
d. aqueductal stenosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the sonographic finding of a fluid filled cranium with absence of cerebral tissue is consistent with:
a. hydrocephalus
b. hydranencephaly
c. holoprosencephaly
d. schizencephaly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the lack of sulci within the fetal cerebrum is a reliable indicator of:
a. agenesis of the corpus callosum
b. lissencephaly
c. schizencephaly
d. porencephaly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

a cisterna magna that measure 15 mm and a normal appearing cerebellum is most likely:
a. arnold-chiari II malformation
b. schizencephaly
c. mega cisterna magna
d. DWM

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what cerebral malformation is as a result of agensis or hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis?
a. arnold-chirari II malformation
b. schizencephaly
c. mega cisterna magna
d. DWM

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following would not be normally located within the midline of the fetal brain?
a. CSP
b. lobes of the thalamus
c. third ventricle
d. falx cerebri

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the condition in which the frontal horns are small and the occipital horns are enlarged is referred to as:
a. ethmocephaly
b. hydrocephalus
c. colpocephaly
d. encephalitis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

following an intracranial hemorrhage, a cyst is noted within the cerebrum that communicates with the lateral ventricle. this is referred to as:
a. schizencephaly
b. lissencephaly
c. holoprosencephaly
d. porencephaly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following should not be included in the correct level for an HC measurement?
a. falx cerebri
b. fourth ventricle
c. thalamus
d. CSP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is the maternal dietary supplement that has been shown to significantly reduce the likelihood of the fetus suffering from a neural tube defect?
A. AFP
B. ESTRIOL
C.FOLATE
D. PREGANCY PROTEIN A

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Talipes equinovarus is associated with:
a) Clubfoot
b) Syndactyly
c) Rhizomelia
d) Rockerbottom feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The artifact seen posterior to solid structures such as fetal bone is referred to as:
a) Acoustic shadowing
b) Posterior enhancement
c) Reverberation artifact
d) Edge artifact

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Q
What is the anomaly of the spine in which there is absence of all or part of a vertebral body and posterior element?
a) Kyphosis
b) Scoliosis
c) Kyphoscoliosis
d) Hemivertebra

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The disorder associated with fetal amputation is:
a) Achondroplasia
b) Osteogenesis imperfecta
c) Thanatophoric dysplasia
d) Amniotic band syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The form of inheritance in which at least one parent has to be a carrier of an abnormal gene for it to be passed to the fetus is:
a) Autosomal recessive
b) Autosomal dominant
c) inherited dominant
d) Inherited recessive

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The condition associated with the absence of the sacrum and coccyx:
a) LBWC
b) Caudal regression syndrome
c) Thanatophoric dwarfism
d) Heterozygous achondroplasia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following are characteristics of spina bifida occulta except:
a) Closed defect
b) Elevated MSAFP
c) Sacral dimple
d) Hemangioma

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The abnormal lateral ventricle shape in which there is a small frontal horn and enlarged occipital horn is referred to as:
a) Cebocephaly
b) Banana sign
c) Colpocephaly
d) Cephalocele

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following are characteristics of spina bifida cystica except:
a) Banana sign
b) Lemon sign
c) Enlarged massa intermedia
d) Normal MSAFP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In VACTERL association, the letter “C” stands for:
a) Cerebellar
b) C-spine
c) Cranial
d) Cardiac

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following are associated with spina bifida except:
a) Splaying of the laminae
b) Enlarged posterior fossa
c) Lemon sign
d) Banana sign

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is referred to as:
a) Kyphosis
b) Scoliosis
c) Splaying
d) Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The lemon sign denotes:
a) An abnormal shape of the fetal skull
b) A normal shape of the cerebellum
c) An abnormal shape of the cerebellum
d) A normal shape of the fetal skull

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following are clinical or sonographic findings consistent with LBWC except:
a) Ventral wall defects
b) Decreased MSAFP
c) Marked scoliosis
d) Shortened umbilical cord

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A disorder that results in abnormal bone growth and dwarfism is:
a) Osteogenesis imperfecta
b) Achondroplasia
c) Radial ray defect
d) Caudal regression syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following would increase the likelihood of a fetus developing sirenomelia and caudal regression syndrome?
a) Previous cesarean section
b) Preexisting maternal diabetes
c) Previous ectopic pregnancy
d) Elevated human chorionic gonadotropin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The group of fetal head and brain abnormalities that often coexist with spina bifida is referred to as:
a) Dandy-Walker malformation
b) Budd-Chiari syndrome
c) Arnold-Chiari II malformation
d) Amniotic band syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In VACTERL association, the letter “L” stands for:
a) Limb
b) Lung
c) Liver
d) Larynx

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The most common nonlethal skeletal dysplasia is:
a) Achondrogenesis
b) Achondroplasia
c) Thanatophoric dysplasia
d) Osteogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Achondroplasia is associated with all of the following except:
a) Frontal bossing
b) Flattened nasal bridge
c) Trident hand
d) Absent mineralization of the skull

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What abnormality results in limitation of the fetal limbs as a result of joint contractures?
a) Acromegaly
b) Radial ray defect
c) Achondrogenesis
d) Arthrogryposis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The thalamic tissue located within the third ventricle of the brain that can become enlarged with Arnold-Chiari II malformation is the:
a) Corpus callosum
b) Cerebellar vermis
c) Cavum septum pellucidum
d) Massa intermedia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Rhizomelia denotes:
a) Long upper extremities
b) Shortening of an entire limb
c) Shortening of the proximal segment of a limb
d) Shortening of the distal segment of a limb

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Q
An absent sacrum and coccyx is referred to as:
a) Sirenomelia
b) Caudal regression syndrome
c) Achondroplasia
d) Radial ray defect

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Q
Absent long bones with the hands and feet arising from the shoulders and hips describes:
a) Micromelia
b) Mesomelia
c) Phocomelia
d) Arthrogryposis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following are characteristic sonographic findings of achondrogenesis except:
a) Micromelia
b) Absent mineralization of the pelvis
c) Multiple dislocated joints
d) Polyhydramnios

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Upon sonographic interrogation of a 28-week pregnancy, you note that when pressure is applied to the fetal skull, the skull can be easily distorted. This is sonographic evidence of:
a) Arnold-Chiari II malformation
b) Achondroplasia
c) Thanatophoric dysplasia
d) Osteogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A bell-shaped chest and multiple fetal fractures are indicative of:
a) Thanatophoric dysplasia
b) Caudal regression syndrome
c) Achondrogenesis
d) Osteogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following are signs of Arnold-Chiari II malformation except:
a) S-shaped spine
b) Banana sign
c) Lemon sign
d) Colpocephaly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following are associated with amniotic band syndrome except:
a) Amputation of fetal parts
b) Anencephaly
c) Facial clefting
d) Synechiae

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The exaggerated distance between the first toe and the second toe is:
a) Trident toes
b) Sandal gap
c) Phocomelia
d) Mesomelia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Sirenomelia is commonly referred to as:
a) Radial ray defect
b) Rhizomelia
c) Mermaid syndrome
d) Rockerbottom feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Absence of the radius is referred to as:
a) Talipes equinovarus
b) Clubfoot
c) Radial ray defect
d) Phocomelia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

onographically, you visualize a mass extending from the distal spine of a fetus. This mass could be all of the following except:
a) SCT
b) Meningocele
c) Meningomyolocele
d) Phocomeningocele

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A cloverleaf skull and hydrocephalus is seen with:
a) Achondrogenesis
b) Osteogenesis imperfecta
c) Sirenomelia
d) Thanatophoric dysplasia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What term is defined as fusion of the digits?
a) Clinodactyly
b) Polydactyly
c) Syndactyly
d) Rhizodactyly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A protein produced by the yolk sac and fetal liver that is found in excess in the maternal circulation in the presence of a neural tube defect is:
a) Folate
b) hCG
c) Estriol
d) AFP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What condition is associated with bilateral renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, and fusion of the lower extremities?
a) SCT
b) Caudal displacement syndrome
c) Sirenomelia
d) Osteogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is true for the diagnosis of clubfoot?
a) The metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula
b) The metatarsals are perpendicular to the tibia and fibula
c) The carpals and metacarpals lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula
d) The tibia, fibula, and patella are perpendicular to the femur

what is the opening located right anteromedially within the diaphragm?
a. foramen of Bochdalek
b. foramen of Morgagni
c. foramen of Monro
d. foramen ovale

a group of anomalies characterized by a small or an absent right ventricle is:
a. turner syndrome
b. hypoplastic right heart syndrome
c. hypoplastic left heart syndrome
d. coarctation of the aorta

all of the following are sonographic signs of ebstein anomaly except:
a. enlarged right atrium
b. fetal hydrops
c. narrowing of the aortic arch
d. malpositioned tricuspid vale

what is an opening within the septum that separates the right and left ventricles?
a. endocardial cushion
b. tricuspid regeneration
c. VSD
d. ASD

an EIF is most often seen within the:
a. right atrium
b. left atrium
c. right ventricle
d. left ventricle

what is the term for underdevelopment of the lungs?
a. pulmonary atresia
b. pulmonary stenosis
c. pulmonary agenesis
d. pulmonary hypoplasia

an EIF would most likely be associated with:
a. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 13
c. trisomy 8
d. turner syndrome

Q
the most common fetal cardiac tumor is the:
a. rhabdomyoma
b. chordae tendineae
c. cardiomyoma
d. CAM

all of the following are sonographic features of pentalogy of cantrell except:
a. omphalocele
b. gastroschisis
c. cleft sternum
d. diaphragmatic defect

what is the fetal shunt that connects the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch?
a. foramen ovale
b. ductus arteriosis
c. ductus venosis
d. foramen of bochdalek

Q
the accumulation of fluid around the lung is termed:
a. ascites
b. extracorporeal effusion
c. peripleural fluid
d. pleural effusion

the normal heart will fill approximately _____ of the fetal chest
a. one half
b. one fourth
c. one fifth
d. one third

the condition in which the heart is located outside the chest wall is termed:
a. CAM
b. coarctation of the heart
c. cardiac sequestration
d. ectopic cordis

the most common form of diaphragmatic hernia is the:
a. foramen of margagni
b. foramen of magendie
c. foramen of luschka
d. foramen of bochdalek

the moderator band is located within the:
a. right atrium
b. left atrium
c. right ventricle
d. left ventricle

the most common cause of cardiac malposition is:
a. diaphragmatic hernia
b. omphalocele
c. gastroschisis
d. pulmonary hypoplasia

A separate mass of nonfunctioning fetal lung tissue is referred to as:
a. pulmonary adenomatoid malformation
b. pulmonary sequestration
c. CAM
d. bat wing sign

the most common sonographic appearance of pulmonary sequestration is a(n):
a. dilated pulmonary artery and hypoechoic chest mass
b. pleural effusion and ipsilateral hiatal hernia
c. triangular, echogenic mass within the chest
d. anechoic mass within the chest

the embryonic heart begins as:
a. two tubes
b. four tubes
c. eight tubes
d. one tube

tetralogy of fallot consists of all of the following except:
a. overriding aortic root
b. VSD
c. pulmonary stenosis
d. left ventricular hypertrophy

Eventration of the diaphragm is best described as:
a. a lack of muscle in the dome of the diaphragm
b. a defect in the anterior lateral wall of the diaphragm
c. a defect in the posterolateral wall of the diaphragm
d. congenital absence of the diaphragm

the visualization of the fetal stomach within the fetal chest is most indicative of
a. pulmonary sequestration
b. diaphragmatic hernia
c. turner syndrome
d. CAM

the sonographic “bat-wing” sign is indicative of:
a. pericardial effusion
b. pulmonary atresia
c. pleural effusion
d. endocardial cushion defect

the mitral valve is located:
a. between the right atrium and the left atrium
b. between the right ventricle and the right atrium
c. between the left ventricle and the left atrium
d. between the left atrium and the aorta

Which statement is true concerning fetal outflow tracts?
a. the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned posterior to the aorta and should be visualized passing under it
b. the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned anterior to the aorta and should be visualized crossing over it
c. the right ventricular outflow tract leads to the aorta
d. the left ventricular outflow tract leads to the pulmonary artery

fetal lung maturity can be assessed using the:
a. LS ratio
b. systolic to diastolic ratio
c. estriol to alpha-fetoprotein ratio
d. lung size formula

hich of the following are fetal rhabdomyomas associated with?
a. tracheoesophageal fistulas
b. tuberous sclerosis
c. eventration of the diaphragm
d. tuberculosis

which of the following is considered to be the most common cardiac defect?
a. hypoplastic right heart syndrome
b. transposition of the great vessels
c. hypoplastic left heart syndrome
d. VSD

what is the normal opening in the lower middle third of the atrial septum?
a. foramen of magendie
b. foramen of monro
c. foramen ovale
d. ductus arteriosus

what structure shunts blood into the IVC from the umbilical vein?
a. ductus venosus
b. ductus arteriosus
c. foramen ovale
d. foramen of lushka

which of the following is not a true statement about the normal fetal heart?
a. the ventricular septum should be uninterrupted and of equal thickened of the left ventricular wall
b. there is a normal opening within the atrial septum
c. between the right ventricle and the right atrium, one should visualize the tricuspid valve
d. the mitral valve is positioned closer to the cardiac apex than the tricuspid valve

The blood returning form the lungs through the pulmonary veins enters into the:
a. right atrium
b. left atrium
c. right ventricle
d. left ventricle

which of the following is a true statement about the fetal heart?
a. the apex of the heart will be angled to the right of the midline
b. the apex of the heart is the portion closest to the spine
c. the normal fetal heart will fill approx 2/3 of the fetal chest
d. the chamber closest to the fetal spine is the left atrium

The fetal heart is fully formed by:
A. 2 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. 8 weeks
d. 10 weeks

a coexisting pericardial effusion and a pleural effusion is consistent with the diagnosis of

fetal hydros C

which of the following best describes transposition of the great vessels?
a. the aorta arises from the left ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from the right ventricle
b. the aortic arises from the right ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle
c. the aortic arch is narrowed and positioned anterior to the pulmonary vein
d. the presence of an omphalocele and ectopic cordis

Hepatomegaly would least likely be associated with:
a. beckwith-wiedemann syndrome
b. fetal anemia
c. intrauterine anemia
d. gastroschisis

normally, physiologic bowel herniation resolves by:
a. 8 weeks
b. 10 weeks
c. 24 weeks
d. 12 weeks

which of the following is most often associated with duodenal atresia?
a. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 13
d. triploidy

Hepatomegaly would be seen in conjunction with:
a. down syndrome
b. edwards syndrome
c. beckwith-wiedemann syndrome
d. hirschsprung disease

pentalogy of cantrell includes all of the following findings except:
a. cardiovascular malformations
b. diaphragmatic malformations
c. omphalocele
d. gastroschisis

an excessive amount of amniotic fluid is termed:
a. polyhydramnios
b. oligohydramnios
c. esophageal atresia
d. amniotic fluid index

the most common abnormality of the fetal liver is:
a. gallstones
b. hepatocellular lymphadenopathy
c. cirrhosis
d. hepatomegaly

congenital maldevelopment of the proximal portion of the small intestine is termed:
a. VACTERL association
b. esophageal atresia
c. duodenal atresia
d. jejunal atresia

a functional bowel disorder within the fetus that is caused by the absence of intestinal nerves is found in:
a. gastroschisis
b. beckwith-wiedemann syndrome
c. omphalocele
d. Hirschsprung disease

which of the following is associated with echogenic bowel?
a. fetal anemia
b. cystic fibrosis
c. radial ray syndrome
d. portal hypertension

what chromosomal anomaly is associated with echogenic bowel?
a. trisomy 18
b. trisomy 13
c. trisomy 21
d. triploidy

the herniation of the bowel into the base of the umbilical cord before 12 weeks is termed:
a. gastroschisis
b. omphalocele
c. hernia umbilicus
d. physiologic herniation

all of the following are associated with omphalocele except:
a. trisomy 18
b. pentalogy of cantrell
c. intrauterine growth restriction
d. hirschsprung disease

The fetal stomach should be visualized by:
a. 8 weeks
b. 14 weeks
c. 20 weeks
d. 18 weeks

all of the following are associated with esophageal atresia except:
a. down syndrome
b VACTERAL association
c. edwards syndrome
d. oligohydramnios

an abnormal connection between the esophagus and trachea is termed:
a. esophageal-duodenal herniation
b. double bubble sign
c. esophageal atresia
d. tracheoesophageal fistula

In what location does gastroschisis occur more often?
a. left lateral of the cord insertion
b. right lateral to the cord insertion
c. just superior to the fetal bladder
d. base of the umbilical cord

the congenital absence of part of the esophagus is termed:
a. duodenal atresia
b. VACTERAL association
c. down syndrome
d. esophageal atresia

the “double bubble” sign is indicative of:
a. esophageal atresia
b. duodenal atresia
c. hydrocephalus
d. anorectal atresia

all of the following are associated with gastroschisis except:
a. normal cord insertion
b. multiple chromosomal abnormalities
c. elevated MSAFP
d. periumbilical mass

Which of the following laboratory values would be significant in the detection of an abdominal wall defect?
a. MSAFP
b. human chorionic gonadotropin
c. maternal serum amylase
d. estradiol

what is an inherited disorder in which mucus secreting organs such as the lungs, pancreas, and other digestive organs produce thick and sticky secretions instead of normal secretions?
a. hirschsprung disease
b. cystic fibrosis
c. multiple sclerosis
d. turner syndorme

what organ(s) produces amniotic fluid after 12 weeks?
a. fetal liver and the spleen
b. fetal intestines and lungs
c. fetal intestines and the liver
d. fetal kidneys

an omphalocele is associated with all of the following except:
a. pentalogy of cantrell
b. trisomy 18
c. patau syndrome
d. meconium aspiration syndrome

duodenal atresia and esophageal atresia are associated with:
a. oligohydramnios
b. polyhydramnios
c. normal amniotoic fluid index
d. anhydramnios

the fetal guT develops at the end of the fifth menstrual week and can be divided onto all of the following except:
a. midgut
b. foregut
c. centralgut
d. hindgut

Intrauterine growth restriction is defined as:
a. a small-for-dates fetus
b. a fetus that falls below the 10th percentile for gestational age
c. a fetus that is immunocompromised and has decreased umbilical cord doppler ratios for gestational age
d. a fetus that fall below the fifth percentile for gestational age

which of the following best describes a choledochal cyst?
a. it is the cystic dilatation of the common bile duct
b. it is the herniation of the abdominal contents into the umbilical cord
c. it is the congenital absence of the cystic duct
d. it is the inflammation of the biliary tree caused by extrinsic obstruction

Fetal stool is termed
A. place
B. Meconium
C. Laguna
D. Lanugo

All of the following are associated with omphalocele except :
a. normal cord insertion
b. multiple chromosomal abnormalities
c. elevated MSAFP
d. periumbilical mass

An omphalocele may contain:
A. fetal liver
B. ascites
C. fetal colon
D. all above

the congenital maldevelopment of the rectum and absence of anal opening is termed:
a. jejunal atresia
b. intussusception
c. anorectal atresia
d. duodenal atresia

all of the following are associated with duodenal atresia except:
a. trisomy 21
b. esophageal atresia
c. VACTERAL association
d. turner syndrome

Which of the following would be least likely associated with an elevated MSAFP
A. Pentagoly of Cantrell
B. anorectal atresia
C. Gastrochsis
D. Omphalocele

Which of the following is considered to be the most common type of colonic atresia?
A. duodenal atresia
B. jejunal atresia
C. anorectal atresia
D. intussuusception

Fecal meconium typically consits of all of the following except
A. skin
B. hair
C. bile
D. blood

Which of the following would be most likely associated with an excessive amount of amniotic fluid?
A. duodenal atresia
B. hepatomegaly
C. bilateral renal genesis
D. physiologic bowel herniation

Which of the following would be most likely associated with oligohydramnios
A. duodenal atresia
B. hepatomegaly
C. bilateral renal agenesis
D. physiologic bowel herniation

The majority of amniotic fluid is composed of
A. fetal blood
B. fetal serous fluid
C. maternal serious fluid
D. fetal urine

All of the following are sonographic findings of esophageal atresia except
A. absent stomach
B. polyhydramnios
C. macrosomia
D. IUGR

Dring an 18 week sonogram, multiple cysts of varying sizes are noted within the renal fossa of a male fetus. the other kidney appears to be normal. which of the following would be an associated finding?
a. megacystis
b. ovarian dysgenesis
c. hypospadias
d. normal amniotic fluid leveL

the most common malignant adrenal pediatric tumor is the:
a. nephromblastoma
b. pheochromocytoma
c. hepatoblastoma
d. neuroblastoma

the “keyhole” sign would be seen in all of the following situations except:
a. urethral atresia
b. prune belly syndrome
c. autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease
d. posterior urethral valves

what is the most common fetal abnormality noted during an obstetric sonogram?
a. anencephaly
b. spina bifida
c. cleft lip
d. hydronephrosis

the “lying down” adrenal sign would be seen in all of the following situations except:
a. unilateral renal agenesis
b. bilateral renal agenesis
c. potter syndrome
d. pyelectesis

the birth defect in which the sex of the fetus cannot be determined defines:
a. renal agenesis
b. ovarian dysgenesis
c. clitorimegaly
d. ambiguous genitalia

what measurement should the renal pelvis not exceed prior to 20 weeks gestation?
a. 2 mm
b. 10 mm
c. 7 mm
d. 1.2 cm

cloacal exstrophy is associated with all of the following except:
a. omphalocele
b. spina bifida
c. encephalocele
d. imperforate anus

the renal cystic disease that results in the development of cysts late in adulthood is:
a. multicystic dysplastic renal disease
b. autosomal dominant renal disease
c. autosomal recessive polycystic disease
d. obstructive cystic dysplasia

WHAT is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in the neonate and the most common form of fetal renal obstruction?
a. UVJ obstruction
b. UPJ obstruction
c. vesicoureteral reflux
d. urethral atresia

bladder exstrophy describes:
a. absence of the cloaca
b. protrusion of the bladder
c. external position of the bladder
d. enlargement of the bladder

which of the following would result in compensatory hypertrophy?
a. unilateral renal agenesis
b. bilateral renal agenesis
c. pelvic kidney
d. horseshoe kidneys

which of the following would cause a bladder outlet obstruction?
a. posterior urethral valves
b. fetal ovarian cyst
c. pelviectasis
d. pelvocaliectasos

which of the following is associated with enlarged echogenic kidneys and microscopic renal cysts?
a. MCDK disease
b. obstructive cystic dysplasia
c. hydronephrotic syndrome
d. ARPKD

the “lying down” adrenal sign describes the sonographic findings of:
a. enlarged bladder and urethra
b. renal agenesis
c. MCDK disease
d. posterior urethral valves

the “I” in OEIS complex stands for:
a. imperforate anus
b. ilial dysfunction
c. irregular bladder enlargement
d. iniencephaly

another name for pelvocaliectasis is:
a. caliectasis
b. hydrocele
c. hydronephrosis
d. pyonephrosis

which of the following best describes hypospadias?
a. OEIS complex in the presence of a hydrocele
b. the chronic obstruction of the renal pelvis and urethra
c. the underdevelopment of the scrotum in the presence of a hydrocele
d. an abnormal ventral curvature of the penis

the “keyhole” sign describes the sonographic findings of a(n):
a. enlarged bladder and dilated urethra
b. bilateral renal agenesis
c. unilateral renal agenesis
d. dilation of the renal pelvis and proximal ureter

what is the term for enlargement of the urinary bladder?
a. posterior urethral valves
b. urethral atresia
c. prune belly syndrome
d. megacystis

Numerous noncommunicating anechoic masses are noted within the left renal fossa of a fetus at 20 weeks gestation. What is the most likely etiology of these masses?
a. ARPKD
b. ADPKD
c. MCDK disease
d. hydronephrosis

fluid surrounding the fetal testicle is referred to as:
a. hydroureter
b. hydronephrosis
c. hydrocele
d. hydroscrotum

fusion of the lower poles of the kidneys describes:
a. renal agenesis
b. horseshoe kidneys
c. moiety
d. meckel-gruber syndrome

the syndrome associated with an occipital cephalocele, cystic renal disease, and polydactly is:
a. meckel-gruber syndrome
b. potter syndrome
c. VACTERL association
d. sirenomelia syndrome

which of the following is not a component of prune belly syndrome?
a. megacystis
b. undescended testis
c. dilated urinary bladder and urethra
d. abdominal muscle hypertrophy

OEIS complex is also referred to as:
a. bladder exstrophy
b. omphalocele
c. potter syndrome
d. cloacal exstroph

obstruction at the level of the UPJ would lead to dilation of the:
a. renal pelvis and bladder
b. bladder and ureter
c. ureter and renal pelvis
d. renal pelvis and calices

the most common location of an ectopic kidney is within the:
a. lower abdomen
b. pelvis
c. chest
d. contralateral quadrant

pyeeectasis refers to:
a. enlargement of the urinary bladder, ureter, and renal calices
b. dilation of the ureter
c. dilation of the renal pelvis
d. enlargement of the ureter

prune belly syndrome is caused by:
a. an enlarged bladder
b. unilateral renal agenesis
c. bilateral renal agenesis
d. hypospadias

all of the following would be associated with oligohydramnios except:
a. bilateral MCDK disease
b. unilateral renal agenesis
c. bilateral renal agenesis
d. ARPKD

what is the most common fetal renal tumor?
a. neuroblastoma
b. nephroblastoma
c. mesoblastic nephroma
d. wilms tumor

The type of renal cystic disease associated with adult liver and pancreatic cysts is:
a. MCDK
b. ARPKD
c. ADPKD
d. VATER

having more than the normal number of digits:
a. polydactyly
b. clinodactyly
c. multidigitopia
d. sirenomelia

cryPtorchidism describes:
a. bilateral pelvic kidneys
b. urethral atresia
c. undescended testicles
d. ovarian dysgenesis

an obstruction at the ureterovesicular junction would lead to dilation of the:
a. bladder and urethra
b. bladder, urethra, and ureters
c. bladder, urethra, ureters, and renal collecting system
d. ureter and renal collecting system

Before 9 weeks, the fetal kidneys are located within the:
a. renal fossae
b. pelvis
c. chest
d. umbilical cord

which of the following is the most common renal anomaly?
a. horseshoe kidneys
b. pelvic kidneys
c. renal agenesis
d. duplex collecting system

failure of the kidneys to form is called:
a. hydronephrosis
b. renal dysplasia
c. renal agenesis
d. renal ectopia

which of the following would be the most likely cause of bilateral, enlarged echogenic fetal kidneys and oligohydramnios?
a. ARPKD
b. MCKD
c. renal cystic dysplasia
d. ADPKD

normal diploid cells have:
a. 46 chromosomes
b. 23 chromosomes
c. 21 chromosomes
d. 69 chromosomes

a 38 year old pregnant woman presents to the sonography department for an obstetrical sonogram with abnormal maternal serum screening. her alpha-fetoprotein and estriol are low, whereas her hCG is elevated. these laboratory findings are most consistent with:
a. edwards syndrome
b. patau syndrome
c. triploidy
d. down syndrome

The triple screen typically includes:
a. alpha-fetoprotein, estriol, and hCG
b. alpha-fetoprotein, amniotic fluid index, and hCG
c. alpha-fetoprotein, estriol, and PAPP-A
d. PAPP-A, inhibin A, and hCG

another name for patau syndrome is:
a. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 16
c. trisomy 18
d. trisomy 13

Rounded head shape is referred to as:
A. Dolichocephaly
B. Brachycephaly
C. Cebocephaly
D. Craniosynostosi

Q
theca lutein cyst would most likely be linked with a molar pregnancy and:
a. down syndrome
b. intrauterine growth restriction
c. triploidy
d. monosomy X

with which of the following syndromes is brachycephaly associated most often?
a. edwards syndrome
b. patau syndrome
c. down syndroms
d. turner syndrome

advanced maternal age is considered to be:
a. > 25 years of ahe
b. > 30 years of age
c. > 35 years of age
d. > 32 years of age

which of the following is a sex chromosome anomaly?
a. edwards syndrome
b. trisomy 13
c. down syndrome
d. 45,X

a molar pregnancy, omphalocele, and a small, low set ears are found most often with:
a. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 13
d. triploidy

with what procedure is placental tissue obtained?
a. amniocentesis
b. cordocentesis
c. CVS
d. trophoblastic resection techniqu

The bending of the fifth digit toward the fourth digit is called:
A. Syndactyly
B. clinodactyly
C. polydactyly
D. Stabodactylyq

webbing of the neck and short stature is found in infertile female patients with a history of:
a. trisomy 21
b. triploidy
c. trisomy 13
d. turner syndrome

pelvocalicectasis refers to:
a. dilation of the renal pelvis and calices
b. enlargement of the fetal pelvis
c. ectopic location of the kidney within the pelvis
d. dilation of the ureter within the pelvis

the earliest invasive fetal karyotyping technique that can be performed is ?
a) amniocentesis
b) cordocentesis
c) CVS
d) PUBS

A strawberry shaped skull is associated with ?
a) edwards
b) turners
c) downs
d) pataus

Cleft lip, hypoteleroism, and micropthalmia are all sonographic features of ?
a) trisomy 21
b) trisomy 13
c) trisomy 18
d) turner syndrome

Monosomy X refers to ?
a) edwards
b) pataus
c) downs
d) turners

What are the finger like projections of gestational tissue that attach to the decidualized endometrium?
a) decidua capsularis
b) decidua vera
c) chorionic villi
d) placental substance

A 22 week fetus with clinodactyly an echogenic intracardiac focus and hyperechoic bowel is noted during a screening obstetrical sonogram. These findings are most consistent with ?
a) trisomy 21
b) trisomy 13
c) trisomy 18
d) monosomy X

The term small eyes is ?
a) micropthalmia
b) micrognathia
c) microcephaly
d) microglossia

The maternal serum screening of a mother with a fetus with trisomy 18 will reveal ?
a) decreased hCG, elevated afp, and normal estriol
b) increased hCG, AFP and estriol
c) increased AFP, increased hCG, and decreased estriol
d) decreased hCG AFP adn estriol

Fusion of the orbits and holoprosencephaly are associated with ?
a) edwards syndrome
b) turner syndrome
c) down syndrome
d) patau syndrome

A structural abnormality that results from an abnormal development describes?
a) syndrome
b) chromosomal deviation
c) malformation
d) congenital misrepresentation

Absent nasal bones and an increased nuchal fold measurement are most consistent with the sonographic markers for ?
a) trisomy 21
b) trisomy 13
c) triploidy
d) trisomy 18

A large space between the first and second toes is termed?
a) polydactyly
b) clubfoot
c) ulnaration
d) sandal gap

Bilateral choroid plexus cyst micrognathai and rocker bottom feet are sono finds of a 27 week fetus with an omphalocele, these findings are most consistent with ?
a) trisomy 21
b) trisomy 13
c) trisomy 18
d) triploidy

Nonimmune hydrops and ovarian dysgenesis are found in fetuses affected by ?
a) trisomy 21
b) trisomy 13
c) trisomy 18
d) turners syndrome

What is macroglossia most often associated with ?
a) trisomy 21
b) trisomy 18
c) trisomy 13
d) triploidy

A fetus with a karyotype revealing it has 69 chromosomes and sonographic findings of webbed fingers and IUGR most likely has?
a) trisomy 21
b) trisomy 18
c) triploidy
d) turner syndrome

What is another name for the most common chromosomal abnormality?
a) edwards
b) triploidy
c) downs
d) turners

Widened pelvic angles and duodenal atresia are most consistent with the sono markers for ?
a) triploidy
b) patau
c) downs
d) edwards

Sonograhically you identify a fetus with fusion of the thalami and a monoventricle. Which chromosomal abnormality would be most likely ?
a) trisomy 8
b) trisomy 21
c) trisomy 18
d) trisomy 13

Which protein is not produced by the developing placenta ?
a) AFP
b) hCG
c) estriol
d) PAPPA

Which of the following lab findings would not be consistent with trisomy 21?
a) high AFP
b) low estriol
c) high hCG
d) low PAPPA

Cyclopia would most likely be associated with ?
a) trisomy 8
b) trisomy 21
c) triomy 18
d) trisomy 13

Webbed fingers or toes are termed?
a) clinodactyly
b) syndactyly
c) polydactyly
d) whren syndrome

Which of the following is a sex chromosome anomaly associated with hypogonadism and subnormal intelligence in males?
a) downs
b) edwards
c) klinefelters
d) turners

Which of the following is not consistent with the diagnosis of nonimmune hydrops?
a) hypoplastic mandible
b) pleural effusion
c) ascites
d) subcutaneous edema

Echogenic small bowel is most often associated with ?
a) downs
b) edwards
c) pataus
d) turners

which of the following is not a sonographic sign of a dichorionic diamniotic gestation?
a. twin peak sign
b. lambda sign
c. delta sign
d. T sign

twins that have the threat of being conjoined are:
a. monochorionic monoamniotic
b. monochorionic diamniotic
c. dizygotic
d. dichorionic diamniotic

which of the following would be a newborn most likely suffer from if he or she were born prior to 32 weeks as a result of multiple gestation complications?
a. ascites
b. pulmonary hypoplasia
c. amnionitis
d. preeclampsia

the inner membrane surrounding the fetus is referred to as the:
a. placenta
b. chorion
c. amnion
d. yolk sac

twins that result from the fertilization of two separate ova are called:
a. diamniotic
b. dizygotic
c. monozygotic
d. monochorionic

what condition is pregnant-induced maternal high blood pressure and excess protein in the urine after 20 weeks’ gestation?
a. gestational diabetes
b. preeclampsia
c. porencephaly
d. maternal mirror syndrome

he outer membrane of the gestation is referred to as the:
a. placenta
b. chorion
c. amnion
d. yolk sac

which of the following would not increase the likelihood of multiple gestations?
a. gestational diabetes
b. maternal age > 40 yrs
c. maternal history of twins
d. ART

twins whose bodies are connected at some point are said to be:
a. fraternal
b. conjoined
c. identical
d. stuck

the term that indicates the presence of two separate amniotic sacs is:
a. dichorionic
b. bichorionic
c. monoamniotic
d. diamniotic

Twins having two placentas and one amniotic sac are referred to as:
a. monochorionic diamniotic
b. monoamniotic dichorionic
c dichorionic monoamniotic
d. this does not occur

what is it called when a twin fetus, suffering from TTTS, experiences severe oligohydramnios and becomes closely adhered to the uterine wall?
a. acardiac monster
b. vanishing twin
c. acardiac twin
d. stuck twin

which term relates the number of amniotic sacs?
a. chorionicity
b. placentation
c. amnionicity
d. embryology

twins have one placenta and one amniotic sac are referred to as:
a. dichorionic monoamniotic
b. dichorionic diamniotic
c. monochorionic diamniotic
d. monochorionic monoamniotic

which term relates the number of placentas?
a. chronionicity
b. zygocity
c. amnionicity
d. cleavage

identical twins result from:
a. monozygotic twinning
b. dizygotic twinning
c. heterotopic pregnancies
d. monochorionic pregnancies

the sonographic examination of twins reveals a triangular extension of the placenta at the base of the membrane. this finding is indicative of:
a. monochorionic monoamniotic twins
b. monochorionic diamniotic twins
c. dichorionic diamniotic twins
d. monochorionic diamniotic twins

asymmetry in fetal weight between twins is indicative of:
a. discordant growth
b. preeclampsia
c. dichorionic diamniotic twinning
d. intrauterine infections

twins having two placentas and two amniotic sacs are referred to as:
a. monochorionic diamniotic
b. biamniotic dichorionic
c. dichorionic diamniotic
d. dichorionic biamniotic

typically, the first sonographic manifestation of TTTS is:
a. oligohydramnios
b. polyhydramnios
c. dichorionic twinning
d. discordant fetal growth

conjoined twins that are attached at the abdomen are referred to as:
a. omphalopagus
b. thoracopagus
c. ileopagus
d. craniopagus

monozygotic twins result from:
a. a single zygote that splits
b. two zygotes that are fertilized by the same sperm
c. two morulla
d. a single zygote that is fertilized by two sperm

the demise of a twin during the second or third trimester can lead to:
a. TTTS
b. twin embolization syndrome
c. twin peak sign
d. acardiac twinning

Q
the term that indicates the presence of two separate placentas is:
a. dichorionic
b. bichorionic
c. monoamniotic
d. diamniotic

what is a treatment that separates abnormal placental vascular connections between twins that are suffering from TTTS?
a. cleavage-laser resection treatment
b. endoscopic-guided laser photocoagulation
c. endemic translocation of the placental vessels
d. circumvallate resection of shared placental vasculature

the shunting of blood from one twin to the other is termed:
a. TTTS
b. twin embolization syndrome
c. twin peak sign
d. conjoined twins

factors that increase the likelihood of having multiple gestations include all of the following except:
a. advanced maternal age
b. ovulation induction drugs
c. poor nutritional state
d. maternal predisposition for twins

TRAP syndrome may also be referred to as:
a. TTRS
b. vanishing twin syndrome
c. twin embolization syndrome
d. acardiac twinning

which of the following can occur as a result of dizygotic twinning?
a. monochorionic diamniotic twins
b. monochorionic monoamniotic twins
c. dichorionic diamniotic twins
d. all of the above

the abnormal twin in acardiac twinning is also referred to as the:
a. pump twin
b. parasitic twin
c. stuck twin
d. vanishing twin

the twin that will appear larger in TTTS is the:
a. donor
b. recipient
c. both will be the same
d. both will be demised

fraternal twins result from:
a. monozygotic twinning
b. dizygotic twinning
c. heterotopic pregnancies
d. monochorionic pregnancies

What is the term for conjoined twins attached at the sacral region?
a. sacralpagus
b. omphalopagus
c. pyopagus
d. thoracopagus

which of the following can occur as a result of monozygotic twinning?
a. monochorionic diamniotic twins
b. monochorionic monoamniotic twins
c. dichorionic diamniotic twins
d. all of the above

the most common for of monozygotic twins is:
a. monochorionic diamniotic
b. dichorionic monoamniotic
c. monochorionic monoamniotic
d. none of the above

all of the following complications are associated with multiple gestations except:
a. preterm delivery
b. high birth weight
c. maternal anemia
d. maternal preeclampsia

acardiac twinning results from:
a. poor maternal nutrition
b. dizygotic gestations
c. abnormal links between the placental vessels
d. twin embolization syndrome

ovulation induction drugs not only increase the likelihood of multiple gestations, but also increase the likelihood of:
a. maternal diabetes
b. ovarian prolapse
c. heterotopic pregnancies
d. choriocarcinoma

which form of monozygotic twinning is least common?
a. monochorionic diamniotic
b. monochorionic monoamniotic
c. dichorionic diamniotic
d. dichorionic biamniotic

the demise of a twin can lead to the development of neurologic complications in the living twin as a result of:
a. twin embolization syndrome
b. TTTS
c. TRAP syndrome
d. dichorionicity

nonimmune hydrops is associated with all of the following except:
a. RH isoimmunization
b. pleural effusion
c. turner syndrome
d. fetal infections

the maternal contribution to the placenta is the:
a. chorionic vera
b. decidua vera
c. decidua basalis
d. chorion frondosum

the placenta releases _________ to maintain the corpus luteum
a. human chorionic gonadotropin
b. follicle-stimulating hormone
c. luteinizing hormone
d. gonadotropin-stimulating hormone

An anechoic mass is noted within the umbilical cord
during a routine sonographic examination. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
a. Hemangioma
b. Vasa previa
c. Chorioangioma
d. Allantoic cyst

with Rh isoimmunization, the maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the fetal:
a. spleen
b. RBCs
c. liver
d. WBCs

mothers with pregestational diabetes, as opposed to gestational diabetes, have an increased risk of a fetus with:
a. neural tube defects
b. proteinuria
c. TORCH
d. diethylstilbestrol

a succenturiate of the placenta refers to a:
a. bilobed placental lobe
b. circumvallate placental lobe
c. accessory lobe
d. circummarginate placental lobe

Pools of maternal blood noted within the placental
substance are referred to as:
a. Accessory lobes
b. Decidual casts
c. Chorioangiomas
d. Maternal lakes

the fetal contribution of the placenta is the:
a. chorionic vera
b. decidua casts
c. decidua basalis
d. chorion frondosum

hich of the following would be least likely associated with immune hydrops?
a. fetal hepatomegaly
b. fetal splenomegaly
c. anasarca
d. leiomyoma

the placenta is considered too thick when it measures:
a. >4mm
b. >4cm
c. >8mm
d. >3.5cm

all of the following are associated with a thin placenta except:
a. preeclampsia
b. IUGR
c. fetal hydrops
d. long-standing diabetes

what would be most likely confused for a uterine leiomyoma?
a. placental infarct
b. chorioangioma
c. myometrial contraction
d. placenta previa

when the placenta completely covers the internal os, it is referred to as:
a. low-lying previa
b. marginal previa
c. partial previa
d. total previa

Q
one of the most common causes of painless vaginal bleeding in the second and third trimesters is:
a. spontaneous abortion
b. abruptio placentae
c. placenta previa
d. placenta accrete

all of the following are associated with a thick placenta except:
a. fetal infections
b. Rh isoimmunization
c. placental insufficiency
d. multiple gestations

placenta accrete denotes:
a. the abnormal attachment of the placenta to the myometrium
b. the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall
c. the invasion of the placenta into the myometrium
d. the condition of having the fetal vessels rest over the internal os

doppler sonography reveals vascular structures coursing over the internal os of the cervix. this findings is indicative of:
a. vasa previa
b. placenta previa
c. placenta increta
d. abruptio placenta

all of the following are clinical features of placental abruption except:
a. vaginal bleeding
b. uterine tenderness
c. abdominal pain
d. funneling of the cervix

penetration of the placenta beyond the uterine wall would be referred to as:
a. placenta accrete
b. placenta increta
c. placenta previa
d. placenta percreta

Q
all of the following are associated with oligohydramnios except:
a. bilateral renal agenesis
b. infantile polycystic kidney disease
c. premature rupture of membranes
d. duodenal atresia

he most common placental tumor is the:
a. choriocarcinoma
b. maternal lake
c. chorioangioma
d. allantoic cyst

pregnancy-induced maternal high blood pressure and excess protein in the urine after 20 weeks gestation is termed:
a. preeclampsia
b. gestational diabetes
c. eclampsia
d. gestational trophoblastic disease

the normal umbilical cord has:
a. one vein and one artery
b. two veins and two arteries
c. two veins and one artery
d. two arteries and one vein

insertion of the umbilical cord at the edge of the placenta is referred to as:
a. velamentous cord insertion
b. partial cord insertion
c. marginal cord insertion
d. nuchal cord insertion

increased S/D ratio is associated with all of the following except:
a. IUGR
b. placental insufficiency
c. allantoic cysts
d. perinatal mortality

Q
a velamentous cord insertion is associated with which of the following?
a. placenta increta
b. placental abruption
c. vasa previa
d. circumvallate placenta

the normal umbilical cord insertion point into the placenta is:
a. central
b. superior margin
c. inferior margin
d. laternal margin

normally, the S/D ratio:
a. increases with advancing gestation
b. decreases with advancing gestation
c. reverses occasionally during a normal pregnancy
d. has an absent diastolic component

Fetal TORCH is frequently associated with:
a. maternal hypertension
b. twin-twin transfusion
c. intracranial calcifications
d. renal cystic disease

Evidence of polyhydramnios should warrant a careful investigation of the fetal:
a. genitourinary system
b. gastrointestinal system
c. extremities
d. cerebrovascular system

IUGR is evident when the EFW is:
a. above the 90th percentile
b. below the 90th percentile
c. above the 10th percentile
d. below the 10th percentile

Q
the cervix should measure at least _____ in length
a. 4 cm
b. 5 cm
c. 3 cm
d. 8 mm

the abnormal insertion of the umbilical cord into the membranes beyond the placental edge is termed:
a. placenta previa
b. placental abruption
c. marginal insertion
d. velamentous insertion

the measurement that should be carefully scrutinized in cases of IUGR is the:
a. AC
b. femur length
c. biparietal diameter
d. head circumference

Doppler assessment of the middle cerebral artery:
a. helps to determine whether fetal anorexia is occurring
b. is valuable in diagnosing the extent of ventriculomegly
c. can evaluate the fetus for hypoxia
d. is important to determine whether TORCH complications are present

mother will gestational diabetes run the risk of having fetuses that are considered:
a. nutritionally deficient
b. acromegalic
c. microsomic
d. macrosomic

which of the following is described as the situation in which the placental edge extends into the lower uterine segment but ends more than 2 cm away from the internal os?
a. low lying placenta
b. marginal previa
c. partial previa
d. total previa

which of the following would increase the likelihood of developing placenta previa?
a. vaginal bleeding
b. previous cesarean section
c. corpus albicans
d. chorioangioma

Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

OB Questions Flashcards

Brainscape's Knowledge Genome^TM