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OB one-liners Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common presentation of a uterine rupture?

A

Change in FHR tracing

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2
Q

What is the most common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Uterine atony

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3
Q

What is the pathognomonic congenital malformation associated with diabetes mellitus?

A

Sacral agenesis

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4
Q

What cervical ripening agent is absolutely contraindicated in a patient attempting a trial of labor after cesarean delivery?

A

Prostaglandin

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5
Q

A placenta accreta is a result of a deficiency of which histologic layer?

A

Nitabuch’s or basalis

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6
Q

What is the sonographic finding that confirms dichorionic/diamniotic pregnancy?

A

Twin peak sign

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7
Q

What is the most common placentation for identical twins?

A

Monochorionic-diamniotic

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8
Q

When shoulder dystocia is encountered, what initial maneuver is likely to be successful?

A

McRoberts and suprapubic pressure

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9
Q

Which forceps would be helpful in a vaginal breech delivery?

A

Pipers forceps

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10
Q

Which fetal presentation would require a vertical incision with cesarean section?

A

Transverse back down

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11
Q

Which congenital infection is pathognomonic for blueberry muffin rash?

A

Rubella

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12
Q

Which tocolytic is contraindicated in Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Magnesium sulfate

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13
Q

Which uterotonic should be avoided in women with hypertension?

A

Methergine

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14
Q

Which face presentation can be delivered vaginally?

A

Mentum anterior

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15
Q

What is the thrombophilia with the highest risk for blood clots?

A

Anti-thrombin III deficiency

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16
Q

What is the most common change in fetal heart rate associated with narcotic use?

A

Decrease in number of fetal heart rate accelerations

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17
Q

At what gestational age does the fetus start to produce thyroid hormone?

A

12 weeks

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18
Q

Which test for fetal lung maturity is not affected by blood or meconium contamination?

A

Phosphatidylglycerol

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19
Q

What is the most common maternal viral infection transmitted transplacentally to the fetus?

A

CMV

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20
Q

Which imaging study is the most useful in evaluation of placenta percreta?

A

MRI

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21
Q

What is the major laboratory finding that differentiates acute fatty liver of pregnancy and HELLP syndrome?

A

Hypoglycemia

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22
Q

What is the most common cause of fetal demise after 28 weeks gestation?

A

Unexplained

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23
Q

Which lab test is the most sensitive indicator of DIC?

A

Fibrinogen

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24
Q

What is the best test to screen for hemoglobinopathies?


A

Hemoglobin electrophoresis

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25
What are the 3 antibodies to be tested for in antiphospholipid antibody syndrome?
Lupus anticoagulant, Anti-cardiolipin Ab IgM/IgG, Anti-beta-2-glycoprotein Ab IgM/IgG
26
Which umbilical vessel most accurately reflects fetal status?
Umbilical artery 

27
What is the classic ultrasound findings with duodenal atresia?
Double bubble sign
28
What is the most common nutritional deficiency associated with anencephaly?
Folic acid deficiency
29
What is the most common maternal cause of polyhydramnios?
Diabetes
30
What is the classic cranial defect in neural tube deficiencies?
Arnold Chiara malformation II
31
What is the best diagnostic test for neural tube defects?
Amniocentesis for amniotic fluid AFP and acetylcholinesterase
32
Which allergy is a contraindication to the influenza vaccine?
Egg allergy
33
Which primary maternal viral infection is associated with an 80% vertical transmission rate in the 3rd trimester?
CMV
34
Perimortem cesarean delivery is usually performed if cardiopulmonary resuscitation is not successful within what time frame?
4 minutes
35
What is the most common fetal cardiac rhythm abnormality?
Premature atrial contractions
36
What diagnosis during pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of cerebral palsy in infants who weigh 2500 g or more at birth?
Chorioamnionitis
37
What is the mechanism of cocaine that accounts for resultant hypertension?
Sympathomimetic vasoconstriction
38
What is the risk of placenta accreta with placenta previa and 4 or more cesarean deliveries?
70%
39
Which medication has been shown to decrease the risk of recurrent spontaneous preterm birth in a women with prior preterm birth?
17 alpha hydroxyprogesterone caproate
40
In women with HIV, which therapy reduces transmission rates intrapartum to <10%?
Zidovudine
41
Which pelvic shape is associated with persistent transverse positions?
Platypoid
42
What is the most common organism associated with mastitis?
S. Aureus
43
What are the criteria for surgical management of a vulvar hematoma?
Greater than 5 cm or expanding
44
First trimester exposure to ACE inhibitors has been associated with what fetal defects?
Cardiac malformations

45
Warfarin therapy in the first trimester is associated with what fetal defects?
Nasal bone hypolasia and ophthalmologic abnormalities
46
Anti-epileptic medications, especially valproic acid, have been associated with what defects?
Neural tube defects
47
The safest route for second-trimester termination is what?
D&E
48
What is the treatment of choice for syphilis?
Penicillin
49
Which procedure significantly reduces the rate of persistent variable decelerations?
Amnioinfusion
50
What is the most common cause of respiratory failure in pregnancy?
RDS
51
What is the most common cause of ARDS in pregnancy?
Sepsis 

52
Which pelvic shape is associated with increased incidence of occiput posterior presentations?
Anthropoid
53
What is the most common fetal nerve injury from shoulder dystocia?
C5-6 nerve roots, Erb Palsy
54
What is the most common fetal injury from vacuum assisted deliveries?
Scalp laceration
55
What is the most important determinant for successful vacuum assisted delivery?
Proper cup placement
56
Which fetal chromosomal abnormality is associated with rocker bottom feet?
Trisomy 18
57
Which chromosomal abnormalities are associated with low levels of maternal serum alpha fetoprotein?
Trisomy 21, trisomy 18, trisomy 13
58
Tay-Sachs disease is more common in which population?
Ashkenazi Jew
59
What is the presence of 2 or more cell lines in one individual derived from the same zygote?
Mosaic
60
What is the presence of 2 or more cell lines in the same individual derived from different zygotes?
Chimera
61
What results when there is failure of Meiosis II to occur?
Triploidy
62
What results when there is nondisjunction in Meiosis II?
Trisomy
63
What results when there is nondisjunction in mitosis?
Mosaic
64
What is the most common placental tumor?
Chorioangioma
65
What is the most common tumor that metastasizes to the placenta?
Melanoma
66
Where are oxytocin and ADH produced?
Posterior pituitary gland
67
What can be used to reverse the effects of heparin?
Protamine sulfate
68
When taking heparin, how long should you wait before spinal anesthesia to decrease risks of bleeding?
4 hours 

69
When taking prophylactic LMWH, how long should you wait before spinal anesthesia to decrease the risk of bleeding?
12 hours
70
When taking therapeutic LMWH, how long should you wait before spinal anesthesia to decrease the risk of bleeding?
24 hours
71
Which syndrome is associated with acute necrosis of the pituitary gland due to postpartum hemorrhage and shock?
Sheehan’s syndrome
72
What is the most likely diagnosis when an infant is born with ambiguous genitalia?
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)
73
Which organism can infect pregnant with by contact with infected cat feces?
Toxoplasmosis
74
Which organism is associated with fetal cataracts, cardiac defects, and deafness if exposure prenatally? 

Rubella
75
Which organism is associated with microcephaly, intra-cerebral calcifications and hepatosplenomegaly if exposure prenatally?
CMV
76
Which organism is an important cause of neonatal sepsis and meningitis?
Group B streptococcus
77
Which antibiotic is associated with hypoplasia and staining of fetal teeth?
Tetracycline

78
Which antibiotic is associated with kernicterus of the newborn?
Sulfonamides
79
What is the ultrasound sign associated with Arnold Chiari Malformation?
Banana sign
80
What is the classic cranial ultrasound sign associated with spina bifida?
Lemon sign
81
Which dermatoses of pregnancy is associated with IUGR and stillbirth?
Herpes gestationis
82
During a properly performed mediolateral episiotomy, what muscle is transected?
Bulbocavernosus
83
What is the critical titer in isoimmunization monitoring?
1:16
84
Which placental condition is most likely to be fatal?
Vasa previa
85
What is the most common infectious etiology for fetal anemia?
Parvovirus
86
How long does it take oxytocin to reach steady state levels in the plasma?
40 minutes
87
What is the most serious fetal complication from vacuum assisted delivery?
Subgaleal hematoma
88
What is the most likely cancer to be diagnosed in pregnancy?
Breast cancer
89
What is the most common compilation associated with monochorionic/monoamniotic twins?
Cord entanglement
90
What is the most lethal effect of oligohydramnios on the developing fetus?
Pulmonary hypoplasia
91
What is the best test to be performed postpartum for type 2 diabetes?
2 hour glucose tolerance test (75g)
92
What is the best diagnostic test of pulmonary embolism in pregnancy?
Spiral CT scan
93
Which muscle is most likely to be injured during childbirth?
Pubococcygeus
94
What is the most common anomaly associated with lithium use in pregnancy?
Ebstein’s anomaly
95
Which thrombophilia cannot be reliably tested during pregnancy?
Protein S
96
What is the radiation exposure level that has been associated with an increase in fetal anomalies?
5 rad
97
One dose for 300 mcg anti-D immune globulin can prevent RhD alloimmunization after exposure to how much Rh-D positive blood?
30 mL
98
What maternal condition is important to avoid when managing a paraplegic patient in labor?
Autonomic hyper-reflexia dystrophy
99
What is the antibiotic of choice in treatment of GBS in a patient who as a rash with penicillin?
Cefazolin
100
Which of the following is recommended in women with high risk of pre-eclampsia and should be initiated between 12-18 weeks gestation and continued until delivery?
Low dose Aspirin 81 mg/day

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