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Registry Review Class > OB/GYN Final > Flashcards

OB/GYN Final Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the ligament that extends from cornua of uterus to the ovary?
A

Ovarian Ligament

Pg. 298 Review Book

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2
Q
  1. What are the vessels found in the periphery of the uterus?
A

Arcuate arteries

Pg. 298 Review Book

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3
Q
  1. What are the muscles that abut the lateral walls of the bladder called?
A

Obturator internus

Pg. 297 Review book

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4
Q
  1. What is the adnexa?
A

The region including the fallopian tube and the ovary.

Pg. 296 Review Book

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5
Q
  1. A clover leaf cranium is associated with?
A

Thanatophoric Dysplasia type 2

Pg. 395 Review Book

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6
Q
  1. Which major abnormalities are related to gender (one for male and one for female)?
A

Posterior Urethral Valve Obstruction (Keyhole bladder)
-Male predominance
-Urine is unable to pass through the urethra.
-Results in the over distention of the urinary bladder
Pg. 393 Review Book

Turner's Syndrome 
-Female predominance 
-Chromosomal syndrome where there is a complete or partial absence of an X chromosome. 
-Occurs one in 2500-5000 live births
-Often fatal condition 
Pg. 214 ESP
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7
Q
  1. Blood vessels and nerves can be found within this ligament
A

Broad Ligament

Pg. 945 Hagen-Ansert

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8
Q
  1. What might we be seeing if the space between the placenta and the uterus is no longer visualized?
A

Placenta accreta

Quizlet

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9
Q
  1. What are the measurements we perform on a fetus? What are the parameters of each of these?
A

Biparietal Diameter (BPD)

  • Performed at the level of the thalamus, and cavum septum pellucidum
  • Calipers are placed outer edge to inner edge
  • First measurable between 10-12 weeks

Head Circumference (HC)

  • Measured at the same level as BPD
  • Should not include scalp echoes

Abdominal Circumference (AC)

  • Performed at the level of the stomach and left portal sinus and umbilical vein
  • Measurement is taken along skin line to include soft tissue and subcutaneous fat
  • Least reliable measurement after 25 weeks due to significant variations in size

Femur Length (FL)

  • Includes only ossified diaphysis and not the epiphyseal cartilage
  • If femur length falls more than 2 SD below the mean, skeletal dysplasia may be present and other long bones should be measured.

Pg. 174-175 ESP

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10
Q
  1. What is the best method for evaluating gestational age?
A

Crown Rump Length up to 12 weeks GA.

Biometry:
Femur length (accurate)
Then BPD (as accurate as FL) :most accurate after 12 weeks

Head circumference
Abdominal circumference : least reliable after 25 weeks
pg. 1151 Hagen-Ansert

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11
Q
  1. What might we mistake for bilateral, symmetrical masses in the adnexa? (Hint: muscle)
A

Piriformis muscles

pg. 969 Hagen-Ansert

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12
Q
  1. What is HIPPA?
A

Safeguarding everyone’s personal medical information.

Health Insurance Portability Accountability Act

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13
Q
  1. What are the components of a biophysical profile? (Be specific)
A

Fetal breathing movements
-Continuous episode of movement lasting at least 30 seconds within a 30 minute period

Gross Body Movement
-At least 3 discrete episodes of fetal body and/or limb movement over 30 minute period

Fetal Tone
-One episode of limb flexion/extension within a 30 minute period

Amniotic Fluid
-At least one pocket of amniotic fluid measuring 2 cm in vertical axis

Non-stress Test (NST)

  • Demonstration of reactive fetal heart rate, consisting of 2 episodes of acceleration >15 bpm for 15 seconds over 30 minute time frame
  • Not done by sonographer

Each of these will receive 2 points if they are visualized

Pg. 177 ESP

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14
Q
  1. What are the three phases of the endometrium?
A

1) Menstrual Phase:
- Days 1-5, functional layer undergoes necrosis from decrease in estrogen and progesterone levels.
- Endometrium:
- Early phase- Hypoechoic central line during menstruation (4-8mm)
- Late phase- Thin, discrete, hyperechoic line post-menstruation (2-3m)

2) Proliferation Phase:
- Days 6-14, increasing estrogen levels regenerate the functional layer. Coincides with follicular phase of ovary.
- Endometrium:
- Early phase- days 6-9, thin echogenic endometrium (4-6mm)
- Late phase- days 10-14, triple line appearance (6-10mm), thick hypoechoic functional layer and hyperechoic basal layer “Three-line sign”

3) Secretory phase:
- Days 15-28, functional layer continues to thicken (reaching max thickness), progesterone level increase stimulates changes in endometrium. Prepares for possible implantation of fertilized ovum. In absence of fertilization, implantation, and hCG production, the cycle starts again.
- Endometrium: Functional layer appears hyperechoic, basal layer appears hypoechoic, may demonstrate posterior acoustic enhancement. Greatest thickness in this phase (7-14 or 14-16mm)

Pg. 317-319 Review book, & pg. 24-25 ESP

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15
Q
  1. When we draw AFP levels, they will vary according to what?
A

Gestational age

Quizlet

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16
Q
  1. What is a monochorionic/ monoamniotic pregnancy?
A

Zygote splits 10-14 days postfertilization

Two or more fetuses in a single gestational sac

No membrane

Pg. 404 Review Book

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17
Q
  1. What is a monochorionic/ diamniotic pregnancy?
A

Zygote splits 5-10 days after fertilization

Two or more individual gestational sacs with shared placenta

Three-layer membrane (moderately thick)

Pg. 404 Review Book

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18
Q
  1. What is a dichorionic/ diamniotic pregnancy?
A

Zygote splits within 3-5 days of fertilization.

Two or more individual gestational sacs and placentas

Thick membrane (4 layers)

Most common type of twins

Pg. 404 Review Book

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19
Q
  1. Symmetrical IUGR is?
A

Usually the result of a first trimester insult, such as chromosomal abnormality or infection.

Fetus is proportionately small throughout the pregnancy

Approximately 20-30% of all cases of IUGR are symmetric.

Pg. 1159 Hagen-Ansert

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20
Q
  1. Asymmetrical IUGR is?
A

Begins late in the second or third trimester and usually results from placental insufficiency.

Fetus usually shows head sparing at the expense of abdominal and soft tissue growth. (Normal head circumference and femur length, small abdominal circumference)

Maternal risk factors:

  • Hypertension (most common)
  • Poor nutrition
  • Alcohol and drug abuse

Pg. 1159 Hagen-Ansert
Pg. 380 Review Book

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21
Q
  1. What is twin to twin transfusion syndrome?
A

Exists when there is an arteriovenous shunt within the placenta.

The arterial blood of one twin is pumped into the venous system of the other twin

Donor Twin:
-IUGR
Oligohydramnios

Recipient Twin:

  • Large for dates
  • Polyhydramnios
  • Hydrops

Both twins are at risk of dying

Pg. 405 Review Book & Beth’s Exam Review PPT

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22
Q
  1. What is the role of the ductus arteriosus?
A

Communicating structure that carries oxygenated blood from the pulmonary artery to the descending aorta; closes after birth

Hagen-Ansert

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23
Q
  1. What is the role of the ductus venosus?
A

Vascular structure within the fetal liver that connects the umbilical vein to the IVC and allows oxygenated blood to bypass the liver and return directly to the heart.

Hagen-Ansert

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24
Q
  1. What is the rare benign ovarian neoplasm that post-menopausal women can sometimes have?
A

Thecoma

P 1024 Hagen

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25
Q
  1. Where would we specifically see hydranencephaly within the fetal brain?
A

anterior portion of the brain. (pretty much the whole brain is distroyed except the mid brain and cerebellum)
Pg. 1306 Hagen-Ansert

Cerebral cortex
Quizlet

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26
Q
  1. What is Dandy-Walker Malformation? What associations do we see with this?
A

A complete or partial absence of the cerebellar vermis, resulting in dilation of the fourth ventricle and enlargement of the posterior fossa.

80% of fetuses with this will have hydrocephalus.

Associated with ventriculomegaly and polyhydramnios

Can be a result of some autosomal recessive syndromes, maternal infection, diabetes, and exposure to alcohol and Coumadin

Pg. 131 ESP

Enlarged posterior fossa and absence of the cerebellar vermis

Quizlet answer

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27
Q
  1. In what phase of the endometrial cycle will the endometrium be the thinnest?
A

Late menstrual phase

Pg. 317 Review Book

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28
Q
  1. With the normal herniation of the fetal bowel into the umbilical cord, this will allow what to take place?
A

The midgut grows faster than the abdominal cavity due to the increased size of the liver and kidneys. umbilication hernia begins around 8th week and returns by 12 week.
Pg. 1324 Hagen-Ansert

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29
Q
  1. What is osteogenesis imperfecta?
A
  • Disorder of production, secretion or function of collagen leading to brittle bones, manifestations in teeth, skin and ligaments
  • Four types, type two is the most lethal
  • Type two: hypomineralization; significant bone shortening; narrow bell-shaped chest, multiple fractures of long bones, ribs, and spine; thin cranium

Pg. 395 Review Book

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30
Q
  1. Which fibroid location is more likely to cause heavy bleeding to occur?
A

Submucosal
it distorts the endometrium
Pg. 332 Review book

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31
Q
  1. What part of the heart lies closest to the chest wall?
A

Right ventricle

Pg. 1121 Hagen-Ansert

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32
Q
  1. A normal NT should not exceed what measurement?
A

3 mm

Pg. 357 Review Book

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33
Q
  1. What placental abnormality, if severe, leads to immediate delivery?
A

placenta abruption

Pg. 1234

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34
Q
  1. When would we perform a chorionic vilis sampling?
A

Performed between 10 to 12 gestational weeks. The results are available within 1 week.

Pg. 405 Review Book

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35
Q
  1. At how many weeks would we perform an amniocentesis?
A

Typically between 15 and 18 gestational weeks but can be performed as early as 12 weeks

Pg. 405 Review Book

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36
Q
  1. When is PUBS or cordocentesis performed?
A

After 18 weeks

Google

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37
Q
  1. If we see echogenic bowel in the second trimester, what might this mean?
A

Is associated with the increased risk for aneuploidy and neonatal childhood pathology.
Pg 1130 Hagen-Ansert

Down syndrome
Quizlet

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38
Q
  1. What is clinodactyly?
A

A bend in a digit towards another digit.
Google

Overlapping digits and clenched hands pg 1392-1393 Hagen

The inward curvature of digits
Quizlet

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39
Q
  1. What is the normal measurement of a post-menopausal endometrium?
A

Post-menopausal endometrium for a woman not on hormone replacement therapy: Less than 5 mm

On hormone replacement therapy: Up to 8 mm

Pg. 953 Hagen-Ansert

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40
Q
  1. If there is fluid in the endometrium, should we include it in our measurement?
A

NO!

Pg. 317 Review Book

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41
Q
  1. What is the abnormality that is associated with the enlargement of left ventricle?
A

Agenesis of the corpus callosum

pg. 1302 Hagen-Ansert

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42
Q
  1. If you do not see the fetal stomach, what is the abnormality this is associated with?
A 
*esophageal atresia or tracheoesophageal fistula
diaphragmatic hernia
facial cleft
central nervous system disorders
swallowing disorders
Pg. 1344 Box 62-2 Hagen-Ansert
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43
Q
  1. Where are the locations that an ectopic pregnancy can be located?
A

Adnexal:

  • Fallopian Tube: ampulla (most common), isthmus, interstitial, or fimbrae
  • Ovarian (rare)

Uterine:

  • When fertilized ovum implants anywhere other than in the endometrial cavity
  • Cornua, uterine scar, cervix

Cervical:

  • Rare- 1:16,000
  • Carry high risk for mortality and morbidity due to risk of hemorrhage

Abdominal:

  • Rare
  • Peritoneal cavity

Pg. 93 ESP

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44
Q
  1. The diameter of a yolk sac should not be any bigger than ____?
A

6 mm

Pg. 1069 Hagen-Ansert

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45
Q
  1. What are the different types of placenta previa that can occur?
A

Complete/ total previa
-Placenta completely covers the internal cervical os. Can be symmetric or asymmetric

Partial Previa
-Placenta partially covering internal cervical os

Marginal Previa
-Placenta is encroaching on, not crossing the os

Low Lying Placenta
-Placenta in lower uterine segment within 2 cm of internal os

Pg. 164 ESP

46
Q
  1. What is a dangling choroid associated with?
A

Ventriculomegaly…“the choroid plexus is shown to be ‘dangling’ in the dilated dependent lateral ventricle.”

Hagen-pg 1098

47
Q
  1. If there is a defect in the lymphatic system, this may cause what?
A

Cystic hygroma

pg. 1284 Hagen-Ansert

48
Q
  1. What does the hormone estradiol do?
A

Lab value that determines when the ovary is ready to ovulate

Quizlet

49
Q
  1. Estrogen is responsible for what?
A

Promotes formation of female secondary sex characteristics, accelerated growth in height and metabolism, reduces muscle mass, stimulates endometrial growth and proliferation, and increases uterine growth.

Registry book page 316

50
Q
  1. What does follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) do?
A

Hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland that stimulates the growth and maturation of graafian follicle’s and the ovary.

51
Q
  1. What is the role of luteinizing hormone?
A

Triggers ovulation and initiates the conversion of the residual follicle into a corpus luteum.

Registry book page 316

52
Q
  1. What does progesterone do?
A

Prepares the endometrium for possible implantation or starting the next menstruation cycle. Helps maintain early pregnancy.

Registry book page 316

53
Q
  1. What is an encephalocele?
A

Protrusion of the brain through a cranial Fissure typically located in the occipital region

54
Q
  1. What might mimic anencephaly?
A

Acrania

Quizlet

55
Q
  1. What is the most common neural tube defect?
A

Anencephaly

Registry Review book

56
Q
  1. What is holoprosencephaly associated with?
A

Range of abnormalities resulting from abnormal cleavage of the prosencephalon.

Different types:
Alobar: most severe
Semi lobar: intermediate
Lobar: mildest

Associations:

Patau syndrome, Meckel-Gruber syndrome, Aicardi’s syndrome, Fryns syndrome and hydroletalus syndrome.

Teratogens such as: alcohol, phenytoin, retinopathy acid, maternal diabetes, and congenital infection.

Radiation exposure and in rare instances oral contraceptives and aspirin during the 1st trimester.

Pg 1299-1301 Hagen

57
Q
  1. What are different cranial defects that we may see?
A

Encephalocele

Quizlet

58
Q
  1. What does the thickness of the placenta tell us?
A

Placentomegaly > 4 cm thick
It can indicate maternal and fetal disorders, maternal diabetes, or Rh incompatibility

Small placenta could indicate IUGR, infection, or aneuploidy
pg. 1229 Hagen-Ansert

59
Q
  1. Abnormalities that are associated with diabetic mothers include___?
A
  • Caudal regression syndrome
  • Neural tube defects
  • Cardiovascular malformations
  • Genitourinary anomalies
  • Single umbilical artery
  • Gastrointestinal anomalies
  • Skeletal anomalies
  • IUGR or macrosomia

Pg. 200 ESP

60
Q
  1. Which abnormality is most frequently associated with cystic hygroma?
A

Turner’s Syndrome?
Hagen-pg 1098

Chromosomal abnormalities
Quizlet

61
Q
  1. With ventriculomegaly, which portion of the ventricle fills up first?
A

Occipital horn dilates first

Review book pg 389

62
Q
  1. What is trophoblastic disease?
A

Also known as molar pregnancy

Condition in which trophoblastic tissue overtakes the pregnancy and propagates throughout the uterine cavity

May be partial or complete, and may be benign or malignant

Pg. 1235-1236 Hagen-Ansert

Theca lutein cysts are typically seen

Quizlet and pg. 1009 Hagen-Ansert

63
Q
  1. What is endometriosis?
A
  • Functioning endometrial tissue is present outside the uterus.
  • This ectopic tissue can be found almost anywhere in the pelvis (ovary, fallopian tube, broad lig, external surface of uterus, scattered over perimetrium, cul-de-sac, and even the bladder)
  • This tissue cyclically bleeds and proliferates. Can be diffuse (more common) or localized (endometrioma)
  • Endometrioma= chocolate cyst, benign, contains blood, seen in reproductive years, can be multiple

Pg. 1012 Hagen-Ansert & Beth’s PPT

64
Q
  1. What is hydrosalpinx?
A

Obstructed tube filled with serous fluid. Occurs secondary to PID, endometriosis, or postoperative adhesions.
Signs of low grade fever, asymptomatic to pelvic fullness or discomfort.
Hagen-pg 1030

65
Q
  1. How often do heterotopic pregnancies occur?
A

1 in 100….and 1 in 10,000 with an intrauterine multiple gestation
Hagen-pg 1045

66
Q
  1. Triploidy is_____?
A

Result of a complete extra set of chromosomes, which often occurs as a result of an ova being fertilized by two sperm.

Sonographic features:

  • Heart defects
  • Renal anomalies
  • Omphalocele
  • Cranial and facial defects
  • Hydatidiform placental degeneration

Pg. 1203 & 1196 Hagen-Ansert

67
Q
  1. Know the structures with in the heart
A
  • Left atrium is the chamber closet to the spine
  • Apex of the heart points 45 degrees to the left anterior chest wall
  • Right and left ventricles
  • Flap of foramen ovale opens into left atrium
  • Prominent moderator bands seen in apex of right ventricle
  • Valves separate both atria from ventricles
  • LVOT:origin of aorta arising from left ventricle
  • RVOT: Pulmonary trunk arises from right ventricle
  • Aortic arch (candy cane): head and neck vessels seen arising from this
  • Ductal arch (hockey stick): arises more anterior in heart

Pg. 110-111 ESP

68
Q
  1. If a young girl has precocious puberty, what might be the cause of this?
A

Excessive exogenous synthesis of gonadal steroids (by the adrenal gland, tumors, or cysts).
Hagen-pg 729

Mass in hypothalamus, gonads, or adrenal glands
Quizlet

69
Q
  1. What is a paraovarian cyst?
A

Located adjacent to but not attached to the ovary.

Can range in size from 1.5-19cm.

May have septations and blood and can potentially cause torsion if large in size

Beth’s ppt.

70
Q
  1. What is the most common gynecologic malignancy in the USA?
A

Endometrial carcinoma

pg. 997 Hagen-Ansert

71
Q
  1. What might it mean if we see cystic structures in the choroid plexus?
A

Usually isolated finding and will resolve by 22-26 weeks
Could be associated with trisomy 18 or trisomy 21 (less common)
pg. 1304 Hagen-Ansert

72
Q
  1. What is Meig’s Syndrome?
A

Fibroma is present, Benign tumor of the ovary associated with ascites and pleural effusion

Hagen 1024/ glossary

73
Q
  1. What is the maternal side of the placenta called?
A

Basal plate

pg. 1221 Hagen-Ansert

74
Q
  1. What is the fetal side of the placenta called?
A

Chorionic plate

pg. 1221 Hagen-Ansert

75
Q
  1. What is the purpose for doing a cephalic index?
A

It evaluates head shape, such as dolichocephaly and brachycephaly
pg. 1150 Hagen-Ansert

76
Q
  1. Normal lung development of a fetus is dependent on what?
A

Exchange of amniotic fluid within the lungs

Quizlet

77
Q
  1. What do we call ovulatory pain?
A

Mittleschmerz

Pg. 23 ESP

78
Q
  1. What are the features of Trisomy 21?
A
  • Nuchal thickness (=/>6 mm)
  • Heart defects
  • Duodenal atresia
  • Brachycephaly
  • Hyperechoic cardiac focus
  • Macroglossia
  • Echogenic bowel
  • Sandal toe deformity
  • Shortened femurs
  • Clinodactyly
  • Low-set ears
  • Mild ventriculomegaly
  • Microngathia
  • Absent nasal bone
  • Clenched hands
  • Talipes

Pg. 1196 Hagen-Ansert
Pg. 402 Review Book
Beth’s ppt.

79
Q
  1. What is a molar pregnancy?
A

Also known as gestational trophoblastic disease; abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic cells in the first trimester

Snowstorm/ grapevine appearance

80
Q
  1. When you have an abnormality with one defective gene, what is this called?
A

Autosomal Dominant

81
Q
  1. What is a lemon-shaped head associated with?
A

Spina Bifida
Hagen-Ansert

Myelomeningocele
Quizlet

82
Q
  1. At how many weeks can we see the distal femoral epiphysis?
A

32 weeks

pg. 1152 Hagen-Ansert

83
Q
  1. How do we measure the cerebellum and cisterna magna? What are the specifics of this?
A

Cisterna Magna: Normally 5-6mm but can be between 3-11mm…
Measured in view of the posterior fossa…enlargement may indicate a cyst such as Dandy-Walker malformation.

Cerebellum:

Hagen-pg 1113

84
Q
  1. What is the normal positioning of the heart?
A

Lies midline in the chest, with the apex pointing toward the left side at a 45 degree angle.

Pg. 371 Review Book

85
Q
  1. What is the most common type of twinning?
A

Dichorionic/ Diamniotic

Pg. 404 Review Book

86
Q
  1. What is the most common type of dwarfism?
A

Achondroplasia…
2.53 of every 100,000 births. Occurs from spontaneous mutation.
Hagen-pg 1383

87
Q
  1. What is the overlapping of cranial sutures called?
A

Spaulding sign
Hagen pg 1180 & glossary

Craniosynotosis

Pg. 1273 Hagen-Ansert

88
Q
  1. What is the most severe form of holoprosencephaly?
A

Alobar holoprosencephaly

pg. 1300 Hagen-Ansert

89
Q
  1. Omphalocele
A

A midline defect of the abdominal wall which results in the herniation of bowel or a combination or the liver and bowel into the base of the umbilical cord.

It is covered by a membrane that consists of amnion and peritoneum.

Associated with cardiac defects and chromosomal anomalies (especially trisomies 13 and 18).

Pg. 1326 Hagen-Ansert

90
Q
  1. Gastroschisis
A

Periumbilical defect that nearly always is located to the right of the umbilicus.

An opening in the layers of the abdominal wall with herniation of the bowel, infrequently, the stomach ans genitourinary organs.

Defects are small (2-4 cm) and are located to the normal cord insertion.

Pg. 1330 Hagen-Ansert

91
Q
  1. TORCH
A 
Toxoplasmosis 
Other transplacental infections
Rubella 
Cytomegalovirus 
Herpes virus type 2
92
Q
  1. Potter’s Syndrome
A

Bilateral renal agenesis.

Characterized by:

  • Renal agenesis
  • Pulmonary hypoplasia
  • Abnormal facies ( flat nose, recessed chin, abnormal ears, and wide-set eyes)
  • Malformed hands and feet

Four types:

1) ARPKD
2) Renal agensis, multicystic kidneys, renal dysplasia
3) ADPKD
4) Renal dysplasia, obstructive kidney disease

Beth’s ppt.

93
Q
  1. Transposition of the great vessels
A

Aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary arteries arise from the left ventricle.

Normal four-chamber heart view

Two great vessels do not crisscross but arise parallel from the base of the heart

Pg. 392 Review Book

94
Q
  1. What is a diaphragmatic hernia?
A

Diaphragm fails to close allowing herniation of the abdominal cavity. The stomach or liver can be located in the thorax.

Sonographic findings:

  • Inability to visualize normal diaphragm
  • Mediastinal shift
  • Usually unilateral, with the left side being more common
  • Small abdominal circumference
  • Polyhyramnios

Associated with cardiac, renal, chromosomal, and CNS anomalies

Pg. 392 Review Book

95
Q
  1. What is hydranencephaly?
A

Destruction of the cerebral hemispheres by occlusion of the internal carotid arteries. Brain parenchyma is destroyed and replaced by cerebrospinal fluid. 1 in 10,000 births.
May be associated with polyhydramnios.
Hagen-pg 1306

96
Q
  1. What is Posterior Urethral Valve Obstruction (PUV)?
A

An obstruction that is produced by an abnormal congenital membrane within the posterior urethra which causes the inability to pass urine through the urethra.

Occurs in only males.

Results in the overdistention of the urinary bladder.

Sonographic features:

  • Dilated bladder
  • Dilated posterior urethra (“keyhole” sign)
  • Hydroureter
  • Hydronephrosis
  • Oligohydramnios

Pg. 393 Review Book

97
Q
  1. What is the most common urinary obstruction?
A

Ureteropelvic Junction Obstruction (UPJ)

Pg. 393 Review Book

98
Q
  1. What can lead to pulmonary hypoplasia?
A

Prolonged oligohydramnios or secondary to small thoracic cavity. Also if there is kidney agenesis, masses in the thoracic, or diaphragmatic hernia.
Pg 1314 Hegan-Ansert

99
Q
  1. Turner’s Syndrome
A 
It is the most common karyotype abnormality. 
Female only. 
Marked by absence of X or Y chromosome. 
1 in every 2500 live births.
May include oligohydramnios.
Usually spontaneously abort.
Hagen-pg 1204
100
Q
  1. What is rhizomelia?
A

Shortening of the proximal bones. Femur or humerus

Pg 1382 Hagen-Ansert

101
Q
  1. What is mesomelia?
A

Shortening of the meddle segments. Radius/ulna, tib/fib

Pg. 1382 Hagen-Ansert

102
Q
  1. What is micromelia?
A

Shortening of all bones

Pg 1382 Hagen-Ansert

103
Q
  1. Edward’s Syndrome
A

Also known as Trisomy 18 and is the second most common chromosomal trisomy (3 in 10,000 live births).

Demonstrates an extra chromosome 18.

Poor prognosis, 95% spontaneously abort, female prevalence.

Sonographic features:

  • Heart defects
  • Choroid plexus cysts
  • Clenched hands (80% of cases)
  • Micrognathia
  • Clubbed or rocker bottom feet
  • Renal anomalies
  • Cleft lip and palate
  • Omphalocele
  • Enlargement of cisterna magna
  • Microcephaly
  • Small placenta
  • Two-vessel cord
  • IUGR

Pg. 401 Review Book

104
Q
  1. Patau’s Syndrome
A

Also known as Trisomy 13 and occurs in 1 in 5000 births.

Result of an extra chromosome 13, poor prognosis.

Sonographic features:

  • Holoprosencepahly
  • Heart defects
  • Cleft lip and palate
  • Omphalocele
  • Polydactyly
  • Talipes
  • Echogenic chordae tendineae
  • Renal anomalies
  • Meningomyelocele
  • Micrognathia

Pg. 1196 Hagen-Ansert and Beth’s review ppt.

Fused thalamic cerebri is associated with Patau
Quizlet

105
Q
  1. VACTERL
A 
VACTERL syndrome: 
Vertebral anomalies 
Anal anomalies
Cardiac anomalies 
Tracheoesophageal Anomalies
Renal anomalies 
Limb Anomalies
106
Q
  1. What is the most common form of conjoined twins?
A

Thoracopagus-fusion at the chest and involves the heart.

-quizlet

107
Q
  1. Know about the placenta
A

Major role of the placenta is to permit the exchange of oxygenated maternal blood with deoxygenated fetal blood.
Hagen-pg 1139

Also, nutrition, excretion of waste products, protection, storage and hormonal production.
Hagen-pg 1222

108
Q
  1. What are common complications of a pregnancy of multiples?
A 
Preeclampsia 
3rd tri bleeding
Prolapsed cord
Premature delivery 
pg. 1182
109
Q
  1. What is Tetrology of Fallot?
A

Most common form of cyanotic heart disease in infants and children. Severity of disease varies with the pulmonary stenosis.
Pg 845 Hagen-Ansert

110
Q

KNOW IMAGES FROM BETH’S PPT (20 pictures)

A

~

111
Q

Possible case study:
A menarche patient presents with a hx of dysmenorrhea and UT tenderness. The myometrium appears inhomogenous on US. Based on hx what might this represent?

A

Adenomyosis

Quizlet

112
Q

Possible case study:

A 30 year old pt with normal menses has US on 10th day in her cycle. The endometrium should look like ____.

A

Thick, hypoechoic functional layer and hyperechoic basal layer
Quizlet

Registry Review Class (6 decks)

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