OB/GYN Flashcards

1
Q

Implantation of the fertilized egg occurs day ______ of the pregnancy

A

20-23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

_____ MSD should always demonstrate a fetal pole on TV U/S

A

> 16 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

_____ MSD should always demonstrate a fetal pole with TA U/S

A

> 25 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

With TV U/S, you should always see a gestational sac at _____ weeks

A

@ 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

With TV U/S, you should always see a yolk sac at ____ weeks

A

@ 5.5 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

With TV U/S, you should always see a heart at ____ weeks

A

@ 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

With TV US, a yolk sac should always be visualized in any gestational sac greater than _____ mm in size

A

8 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Using TA US, a yolk sac should always be identified in any gestational sac greater than ______ MSD

A

20 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If fertilization occurs, ______ will stop the regression of corpus luteum cyst so that it can produce progesterone to stimulate the decidual reaction

A

bhCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The number of yolk sacs can be used to determine the ______ of a multifetal pregnancy

A

Amniocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Regarding a twin pregnancy, if the zygote occurs BEFORE day 4 of gestation, this will result in ___/___ twins

A

Dichorionic/Diamniotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If the division of zygote occurs between day 4 & 8 of gestation, this will result in ___/___ twins

A

Monochorionic/Diamniotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If division of zygote occurs between day 8 & 13 of gestation, this will result in
___/___ twins

A

Monochromic/Monoamniotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If the division of the zygote is not complete by day 13, this will result in ____ twins

A

Conjoined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cardiac activity can first be identified in an embryo with a CRL of ____ @ 6 weeks gestation

A

5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A yolk sac greater than _____ usually indicates a blighted ovum or fetal abnormalities of the fetal pole is detected

A

6 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

______ & ______ produce progesterone

A

Corpus lute all cyst & placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The CSP is located ______ to the thalamus lobes

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where is the 3rd ventricle located?

A

Between the 2 thalamus loves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

________ refers to when the yolk sac persists into adulthood as a diverticulum in the ileum portion of bowel

A

Meckel’s Diverticulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Oxygenated blood flow path

A
  • umbilical vein
  • left portal vein (ductus venosus)
  • IVC
  • right atrium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The highest concentration of oxygenated blood in the heart is located in the _______

A

Right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The fetal stomach should be routinely visualized by week _____

A

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Up until 16 weeks, the ______ produce amniotic fluid until the baby takes over

A

Chorion, amnion & placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The vessels in the 3 vessels view
Pulmonary artery, aorta & SVC
26
Fetal heart chamber located most anterior
Right ventricle
27
How early can the fetal kidneys be identified?
12 weeks
28
The fetal bladder can be seen as early as ____?
10 weeks
29
Blood entering the fetus in the umbilical vein is divided between _______?
Ductus venosus & portal vein
30
The fetal umbilical arteries branch from the fetal ______
Internal iliac arteries
31
The normal corpus luteum cyst usually seems to regress by _________ & is often resolved by week 16
Week 14
32
_______ stimulates the cervix to produce mucous just prior to ovulation
Estrogen
33
The PROXIMAL femoral epiphyseal on US by week _______
35
34
The DISTAL femoral epiphyseal can be seen on US by week _____
33
35
At 26 weeks, the spinal cord tip can be seen at what level?
S1
36
Late in the 3rd trimester, the spinal cord tip can be seen at what level?
L3
37
The aqueduct of Sylvia’s connects the ?
3rd & 4th ventricles
38
What best describes the Doppler waveforms obtained from uterine artery of a gravid uterus ?
Low resistance, average velocity
39
I’m a normal pregnancy, the placenta should be equal to ?
Weeks of gestation + 10mm
40
Butt down with legs straight in front of abdomen
Frank breech
41
Butt down, legs folded, knees bent, ankles crossed
Complete breech
42
Feet down with baby feet on cervix
Footling breech
43
_____ refers to normal finding of sebum & epithelial cells that cause white free floating within amniotic fluid late in pregnancy
Vernix
44
Blood from the SVC & IVC enters the ?
Right atrium
45
The fetal kidneys begin producing fluid by week 12 & completely take over by week ____
16
46
Uterine wall layer composed of muscle & is involved in delivery
Myometrium
47
UT & CX displaced to the left
Levoposition
48
Cx is ML while uterine body is flexed to the left
Levoflexion
49
UT & CX displaced to the right
Dextroposition
50
CX is ML while uterine body is flexed to the right
Dextroflexion
51
AKA intramural part of Fallopian tube MOST DANGEROUS SPOT FOR ECTOPIC!!!!
Interstitial
52
Widest & longest portion of tube. Egg fertilization normally occurs here. Most ectopics occurs here
Ampulla
53
Part of tube that contains fimbria Trumpet shaped end opens up into pelvic peritoneal cavity
Infundibulum
54
Portion of the peritoneum connecting anterior ovary to posterior broad ligament
Broad ligament
55
Fibromuscular bands extending from interns to labia majora and helps maintain normal uterine position
Cardinal ligament
56
Free margin of broad ligament where Fallopian tubes travel
Mesosalpinx
57
Muscles of the greater pelvis
- rectus abdominus - transverse abdominus - psoas major - iliopsoas
58
______ is responsible for stimulating contraction of Fallopian tubes to propel egg toward uterine cavity
Estrogen
59
The suspensory ligament & broad ligament are composed of _____
Peritoneum
60
The ovary is normally found in the fossa of _____
Waldeyer
61
________ can sometimes be mistaken for the ovaries
Normal piriformis & iliopsoas muscles
62
If fertilization does not occur after ovulation, the corpus luteum becomes ?
Corpus albicans
63
Which hormone causes the endometrium to thicken during the proliferative phase?
Estrogen
64
______ produce progesterone & bhCG in early pregnancy. These cells develop into chorionic villi of placenta
Trophoblastic cells
65
Rigid structure that firmly holds the uterus in position in the pelvic cavity
Broad ligament
66
A surge of _____ causes ovulation
Luteinizing hormone
67
_______ of the brain produce hormones that influence the ovaries
Pituitary gland & hypothalamus
68
Oral contraceptives suppress the production of _______ to prevent follicular maturation
FSH
69
Doppler waveforms from a normal ovary
Low resistance, low velocity
70
Which pelvis muscles form the lateral pelvic walls
Obturator internus
71
Average size of a nulliparous uterus
8 x 5 x 3 cm
72
Normal ovary measurement
3 x 2 x 1 cm with a volume of 6-13 cc
73
? Refers to a woman who has had 5 or more infants who achieved 24 weeks or more
Grand multiparity
74
Woman who are grand multiparity have an increased risk for ?
- placenta previa or accreta - hemorrhage - uterine rupture - dysfunctional labor
75
______ muscles form the pelvis floor
Levator ani & coccygeus
76
Greater pelvis is AKA
False pelvis
77
Flat muscle extending laterally on both sides of vaginal cuff
Levator ani
78
Non-dominant follicles do no usually exceed ?
11 mm
79
Gonadatropin Releasing Hormone (GRH) is produced by the ?
Hypothalamus
80
A dominant follicle will usually reach a diameter of ______ just prior to ovulation
2.5 cm
81
? stimulates the endometrial proliferation in the secretory phase, after ovulation occurs.
Progesterone
82
Most commonly a unilateral finding of a hypoechoic mass in a postmenopausal woman. It is benign & produces estrogen
Granulosa cell tumor AKA theca cell tumor
83
Most common type of Müllerian duct anomaly
Separate uterus
84
U/S findings associated with ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
- ascites - pleural effusion - bilateral ovarian enlargement (>5 cm)
85
Adhesions of the endometrial lining due to uterine trauma
Asherman syndrome
86
Commons symptoms associated with Asherman Syndrome
- amenorrhea - hypomenorrhea - recurrent miscarriage - infertility
87
Rupture of a ________ can lead to bleeding from the uterine arteries that can be life threatening to the patient
Interstitial ectopic
88
another term used to describe the dermoid plug
Rokitansky nodule
89
Rokitansky nodule is often seen with what type of pelvic mass ?
Cystic teratoma
90
When the cephalon part of the neural tube fails to close, ___ occurs
Anencephaly
91
When the distal end of the neural tube fails to close, _____ occurs
Spina bifida
92
A blighted ovum is diagnosed when a mean GSD greater than ___ without a fetal pole is seen on TA & TV * an enlarged yolk sac is commonly present
TV- 16 mm TA- 25 mm
93
Pseudomyoxoma peritonei is a complication of which type of tumor?
Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
94
Normal endometrial thickness in the secretory phase
9-18 mm
95
An ectopic pregnancy will almost always been on the ?
Same side as the corpus luteum
96
Benign unillcular cysts usually do no exceed _____
5 cm
97
An embryo is most sensitive to teratogenic effects when ?
Between 3 & 8 weeks gestation
98
Absence of menarchy after age 15
Primary amenorrhea
99
_______ often forms due to mets, most commit from GI tract primary
Krukenberg tumor
100
Dot-dash pattern refers to sonographic appearance of ?
Dermoid mesh
101
Premenopausal woman are more susceptible to ?
Mucinous cystadenoma
102
Postmenopausal women are susceptible to ?
Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
103
_____ refers to air in the circulatory system of the fetal abdomen that occurs with fetal demise
Robert’s sign
104
Most common cause for postmenopausal bleeding
Endometrial atrophy
105
Most common NTD’s
Anencephaly & spina bifida
106
Most common GYN cancer
Endometrial carcinoma
107
Benign ovarian neoplasms that secrete estrogen
Thecomas & granulosa cell tumors
108
Most commonly occurring germ cell tumor of ovary
Benign cystic teratoma
109
Most common cause of pelvic congestion
Incompetent left ovarian vein
110
Bleeding more than 1 week, cramping, PROM, & cervical shortening are consistent with ?
Inevitable AB
111
Most common adnexal mass
Ovarian cyst
112
Metritis is often associated with ?
Leukocytosis
113
Flow in normal ovaries with a corpus luteum cyst will be low resistance with a RI value between ?
0.4 - 0.6
114
Most common in premenopausal females
- cystic teratoma - serous cystadenoma - mucinous cystadenoma - sertili-leyding cell tumor
115
Most common in postmenopausal women
- granulosa cell tumor (theca-lutein cell tumor) - thecoma - fibroma
116
Cystic mass between the wall of the abdomen and the anterior wall of the bladder is called _____
Urachal cyst
117
Anasarca is commonly seen with ?
Fetal hydrops
118
Which trisomies exhibit the defects associated with Pentalogy of Cantrell ?
13 & 18
119
When evaluating a fetus with IUGR, the umbilical artery will demonstrate which type of flow pattern ?
Minimal to absent diastolic flow
120
Defects caused by neuralation during fetal development include ?
- spina bifida - anencephaly - encephaloceles - myelomeningoceles
121
Most common fetal intracardiac mass seen appears as an echogenic mass
Rhabdomyoma
122
Maternal abnormality that can be caused by a large fibroid uterus
Hydronephrosis
123
What is present is the heart & stomach are seen on the same transverse view ?
A diaphragmatic hernia
124
_____ is an austosomal recessive disorder that is most common in Amish communities - mesomelia - short ribs - narrow thorax - polydactyl - ASD
Ellis van Crevald syndrome
125
A normal cerebellum vermis can be seen with ? | * not DWM
Megacisterna magna
126
Most common cause of hydrocephalus
Aqueductal stenosis
127
____ are facial anomalies caused by low fluid
Potter facies
128
Most severe form of TTTS
Acardia
129
AKA Edwards syndrome
Trisomy 18
130
Increase in peak systolic velocity of the middle cerebral artery of a fetal on serial exams often indicates ______
Fetal anemia
131
Most common characteristic of cleindocranial dysplasia is ?
Clavicular aplasia & hypoplasia
132
In patients with agenesis of the corpus callosum, the lateral central horns are displaced ______ & have a _______ appearance
Displaced laterally with a teardrop appearance
133
AKA Patau syndrome
Trisomy 13
134
Trisomy 13 is associated with ?
- IUGR - holoprosencephaly - microcephaly - ml facial clefting - ocular abnormalities - polydactyl - echogenic kidneys
135
Absence of nasal bone & a shortened ML pharynx of 5th digit are characteristics of ?
Trisomy 21
136
Increased resistance & decreased diastolic flow is indicative of a fetus with ?
IUGR
137
Shortening of most distal portion (hand,foot) of an extremity
Acromelia
138
Refers to smooth brain tissue with absence of sulcri & gyri indentations * best evaluated with MRI
Lissencephaly
139
______ causes a low platelet count & increased LFT’s
Preeclampsia
140
_____ is commonly associated with DORV
Hypoplastic left heart
141
_______ are related to single or multiple calcifications in the fetal liver * if these are ruled out then the prognosis is good
- intrauterine infection - meconium peritonitis - chromosomal abnormalities
142
___________ leads to an AV malformation in the brain. This causes an increased amount of flow within the venous system causing fluid accumulation, CHF, & hydrops.
Vein of Galen aneurysm
143
Skin webbing between fingers
Syndactyly
144
Arching of the 4th & 5th digits toward thumb
Clinidactyly
145
Most common causes of CSF production obstruction & ventriculomegaly
Aqueductal stenosis
146
Combination of ostium primum ASD & inlet VSD
AV canal defect
147
_________ is more accurate than the lemon sign in predicting spina bifida
Banana sign
148
The banana sign is seen with ____% of patients with spina bifida
99%
149
Findings of echogenic bowel, meconium peritonitis, meconium ileus, & absent gallbladder indicate the fetus most likely has ______
Cystic fibrosis
150
Blood within Fallopian tube
Hematosalpinx
151
Cyst that contains blood
Hemorrhagic cyst
152
Hormone produced by trophoblastic cells; may be used as a tumor marker in nongravid patients & males
hCG
153
Fluid in Fallopian tube
Hydrosalpinx
154
Excessive vomiting
Hyperemesis
155
Radiographic procedure that uses dye instilled into endometrial cavity & Fallopian tubes to check for abnormalities
Hysterosalpingography
156
Distal segment of tube
Infundibulum
157
Segment of tube that lies within uterine horn (curnu)
Interstitial
158
Segment of tube located between interstitial & ampulla
Isthmus
159
Malignant tumor that metastasizes. Most likely from GI tract
Krukenberg tumor
160
Destruction or breaking down
-lysis
161
Developing into cancer
Malignant degeneration
162
Ascites & pleural effusion in lresence of benign ovarian tumor
Meigs syndrome
163
Abnormally heavy & prolonged period
Menorrhagia
164
Germ cell layer of embryo that develops into circulatory system, muscles, reproductive system & other structures
Mesoderm
165
Pelvic pain at time of ovulation
Mittleschmerz
166
Creation of ovum
Oogenesis
167
Release of a mature egg from ovary
Ovulation
168
Small protrusion of tissue
Papillary projection
169
Contraction that moves in a wave-like pattern to propel a substance
Peristalsis
170
Intraperitoneal extension of mucin-secreting cells that result from the rupture it a malignant mucinous ovarian tumor or possibly a malignant tumor of appendix
Pseudomyoxoma peritonei
171
Pus within the Fallopian tube
Pyosalpinx
172
Oily substance secreted by sebaceous glands
Sebum
173
Malignant sex cord strongly ovarian neoplasm associated with virilization
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
174
Tumor marker elevated in presence of an ovarian dysgerminoma & other abdominal abnormalities
Serum lactate dehydrogenase
175
Ovarian tumors that arise from gonadal ridges
Sex cord stromal tumors
176
Ovarian cyst found with presence of elevated levels of hCG
Theca lutein cyst
177
Benign ovarian sex cord stromal tumor that produces estrogen in older woman
Thecoma
178
Indicator of torsed ovarian pedicle adjacent to ovary, appear as round mass with concentric hypoechoic & hyperechoic rings that demonstrate swirling color Doppler
“Whirlpool” sign
179
Malignant germ cell tumor of ovary
Yolk sac tumor
180
After the Graafian follicle has ruptured, its structure is converted into the _____
Corpus luteum
181
Finger-like extensions of tube
Fimbria
182
Hair-like projections within the tube
Cilia
183
Inner layer of the wall of the Fallopian tube
Mucosal layer
184
_______ if associated with the “whirlpool” sign
Ovarian torsion
185
Stage at which conceptus implants within the decidualized endometrium
Blastocyst
186
Ovarian mass associated with molar pregnancy & elevated hCG
Theca lutein cyst
187
Is a dysgerminoma benign or malignant?
Malignant
188
- usual adnexal location - asymptomatic - AKA chocolate cyst
Endometrioma
189
Adnexal pathology associated with Meigs syndrome, ascites, & hydrothorax is in conjunction with _________
Ovarian fibroma
190
Remaining structure of corpus luteum after its deterioration
Corpus albicans
191
Lack of muscle in the dome of diaphragm
Eventration of diaphragm
192
US findings associated with _________ - indistinct endomyometrial interface - focal & diffuse bulkiness of posterior uterine wall - focal cystic areas within myometrium - hetero uterine texture
Adenomyosis
193
Ovarian tumor accompanied with pelvic ascites usually suggests malignancy. An exception to this rule would be _____ ?
Ovarian fibroma
194
Which hormone maintains thickness of endometrium after ovulation?
Progesterone
195
Least severe form of holoprosencephaly
Lobar holoprosencephaly
196
“Smooth brain” Condition with little to no gyri or sulci within cerebral cortex
Lissencephaly
197
Hemorrhage located within ventricles of the brain
Intraventricular hemorrhage
198
Hemorrhage within cranium
Intracranial hemorrhage
199
Mass of tissues located within 3rd ventricle within the ML of brain - connects 2 loves of thalamus (massa intermedia)
Interthalmic adhesion
200
Groove within the ML of brain that divides the 2 cerebral hemispheres
Interhemispheric fissure
201
Shortage or decreased oxygen in blood
Hypoxia
202
Things associated with nonimmune hydrops
- anasarca - ascites - polyhydramnios - pleural effusion
203
Reduced distance between orbits
Hypotelorism
204
Incomplete growth of a structure or organ
Hypoplasia
205
Abnormal accumulation of fluid in atleast 2 cavities
Hydrops
206
Dilation of ventricular system caused by increased volume of CSF, resulting in increased intraventricular pressure
Hydrocephalus
207
Fatal condition in which the entire cerebrum is replaced by a large sac containing CSF
Hydranencephaly
208
Group of brain abnormalities consisting of various degrees of fusion of lateral ventricles & associated fetal anomalies
Holoprosencephaly
209
Folds in cerebral cortex
Gyri
210
Largest part of choroid
Glomus
211
Classic clinical triad of an EUP
- pain - vaginal bleeding - palpable adnexal mass
212
Most common location for an EUP
Ampulla portion of tube
213
Compression maneuver is used to ?
- compress fat - determine tissue response - elicit tissue response - displace bowel
214
Are cystadenoma painless?
Yes
215
In Sag on TV, the bladder will fill which corner?
Left upper
216
_________ is associated with..... - chorioadenoma destruens - molar pregnancy - multiple gestational - fertility assistance
Hypermemesis gravidarium
217
Body position for a TV exam | Child birth position
Lithotomy
218
Best way to relieve supine hypotension syndrome
Rolling only left side
219
If you should suspect pelvic ascites, you should also check _____ ?
Morrison’s pouch
220
A patient taking birth control pills greater than 5 years is at an increased risk for developing ____ ?
Hepatic adenoma
221
Androblastomas (ex: sertoli-leydig) cause _____ ?
Hirsutism
222
Androgenic tumors are AKA
Androblastomas
223
Amdrogenic tumors do what ?
- secrete testosterone | - cause masculinization
224
Dr’s office based exam to see direct visualization of cx
Colposcopy
225
Most common site for extrauterine adnexal mass
Ovary
226
A teratoma contains fissures from _____
- ectoderm - endoderm - mesoderm
227
A benign & estrogenic tumor describes ?
Granulosa cell tumor
228
Stein-leventhal syndrome is characterized by _____
- obesity - hirsutism - infertility
229
If a suspicious adnexal mass is seen, you would scan _____
Lymph nodes
230
DES was prescribed to women from 1940’s to 1060’s to ______ Later banned in 1971
Inhibit spontaneous AB
231
What is a krukenberg tumor? Aka Carcinoma muccocellulare
Mets tumor from GI tract
232
_______ is true for diagnosis of club foot
Metatarsals & toes like in the same plane as tibia & fibula
233
Condition associated with bilateral agenesis oligohydramnios & fusion of lower extremities
Sirenomelia
234
Fusion of digits
Syndactyly
235
Clover leaf skull & hydrocephalus is seen with ______ ?
Thanatophoric dysplasia
236
On US, if you see a mass extending from the distal spine, this could possibly be _____ ?
- sacrococcygeal teratoma - teratoma - myelomeningocele
237
Absence of radius
Radial day defect
238
Sirenomelia is commonly called _____?
Mermaid syndrome
239
Associated with amniotic band syndrome
- amputation - anencephaly - facial clefting
240
Signs of Arnold Chiara II malformation
- banana & lemon sign | - colpocephaly
241
Bell shaped chest & multiple fetal fractures are indicative of ______
Osteogenesis imperfect
242
If you not when pressure is applied to skull that it can be easily be distorted, this is evidence of ______
Osteogenesis imperfecta
243
Characteristic US findings of achrondrogensis
- Micromelia - absent mineralization of pelvis - polyhydramnios
244
Absent long bones, with hands & feet arising from shoulders & hips
Phocomelia
245
Absent sacrum & coccyx
Caudal regression syndrome
246
Rhizomelia denotes ?
Shortening of PROXIMAL segment of limb
247
Thalamus tissue located within the 3rd ventricle of brain that can become enlarged with Chiari II
Massa intermedia
248
Limitation of limbs as a result is joint contractures
Arythrogryposis
249
Achondroplasia is associated with ?
- frontal bossing - flattened nasal bone - trident hand
250
Most common non lethal skeletal dysplasia
Achondroplasia
251
In VACTERL, “L” stands for ?
Limb
252
Group of fetal head & brain abnormalities that often coexist with spina bifida
Arnold Chiari II malformation
253
______ could increase the likelihood of fetus developing sirenomelia & caudal regression syndrome
Pre-existing maternal diabetes
254
Disorder resulting in abnormal bone growth & dwarfism
Achondroplasia
255
Clinical or US findings associated with LBWC
- ventral walll defect - marked scoliosis - shortened umbilical cord
256
Group of nuclei within brain that function in several ways, including information processing & emotional response
Basal ganglia
257
Most common benign tumor of uterus
Leiomyoma
258
Bicornuate uterus is a congenital malformation resulting from incomplete fusion of ______
Müllerian ducts
259
Typical ovarian flow is said to be high resistance during which phases?
- early follicular | - late luteal
260
Ovarian flow is said to be low resistance during which phases?
- late follicular | - early luteal
261
Most common benign ovarian tumor
Ovarian cystic teratoma | Dermoid cyst
262
AKA trisomy 13
Patau syndrome
263
Most accurate method to determine gestational age
CRL
264
Trophoblasts of blastocysts become ?
Chorion
265
______ can be associated with low hCG levels
- wrong dates - embryonic demise - missed AB
266
Foramen ovale permits blood to pass from the ______ to the ______
From right atrium to left atrium
267
Where is the yolk sac located?
Between the amnion & chorion
268
Dominant hormone in the luteal phase
Progesterone
269
The Michael fold shouldn’t exceed _____ in a normal pregnancy prior to 21 weeks
6 mm
270
Least accurate measurement for determining gestation age
AC
271
Ratio of BPD to OFD determines ?
Cephalic Index
272
Days 6-13 are in which ovarian phase ?
Follicular
273
Lateral ventricle atrial width is abnormal if it measures greater than ____
10 mm
274
Cisterna magna shouldn’t measure greater than ___
1 cm
275
Hormone primarily responsible for ovulation
LH
276
Inner cell mass of blastocyst develops into ?
- embryonic disc - amnion - yolk sac
277
Yolk sac actually seen with US
Secondary yolk sac
278
Embryo seen without FHT
Missed AB
279
A fetus coexisting with a hydatiform mole
Partial mole
280
AKA hypogastric artery
Internal iliac artery
281
Optimal period to see fetal heart
18-24 weeks
282
Chorioamniotic separation is normal until _____
16 weeks
283
A pt who has never had a period
Primary amenorrhea
284
If a mucinous ovarian malignancy ruptures, it could lead to ____
Pseudomyoxoma peritonei
285
Cystic mass between fetal anterior abdominal wall & bladder most likely represents
Urachal cyst
286
When is BPD most accurate?
12-33 weeks
287
US findings with esophageal atresia
- absent stomach - polyhydramnios - IUGR
288
Ovarian cyst that forms as a result of failure of Graafian follicle to ovulate
Follicular cyst
289
Disease associated with abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic cells during pregnancy - molar pregnancy
Gestational trophoblastic disease
290
Dominant follicle prior to ovulation
Graafian follicle
291
With low AFP, you should check for _____
Trisomy 21
292
After delivery
Puerperium
293
Hypotelorism & nose with a single nostril
Cebocephaly
294
Round skull shape
Brachycephaly
295
Growth disorder syndrome associated with enlargement of several organs including the skull, tongue & liver
Beck with-wiedemann syndrome
296
Fetal weight greater than 90th percentile it 4500 g
Macrosomnia
297
How often does anencephaly occur ?
Approximately 1 in 1000 live births
298
Twin Reversed Arterial Perfusion results in ?
Acardiac twin
299
How often does acardiac twins occur ?
1 in 30,000
300
Fetal blood transfusion is rarely successful before _____
18 weeks
301
_____ is packed into the umbilical vein during intrauterine blood transfusion
Red blood cells
302
Twins conjoined at anterior abdominal wall
Omphalopagus
303
Approximately 20% of fetuses with trisomy 21 are found in women whose _____ level is low ?
MSAFP
304
Symmetric IUGR May be associated with what Doppler finding ?
Low resistance middle cerebral artery
305
Most complications with twins relate to ?
Chorionicity
306
Amniocity refers to ?
of amniotic sacs
307
Chorionicity refers to ?
of placentas
308
_____ is a complication that can occur when 1 twin dies in utero & shares a placenta with surviving twin
Twin Embolization Syndrome (TES)
309
How often does TTTS occur in monochorionic twins?
15-30%
310
During pregnancy, tenderness over kidneys could suggest ____
Pyelonephritis
311
Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is known to increase a patients risk for ?
- preterm labor - ectopics - uterus malformations - cervical cancer
312
Dermoid cysts contain tissue originating from ?
- endoderm - ectoderm - mesoderm
313
In origin, most adnexal masses are ?
Cystic & ovarian
314
Characteristics of spina bifida
- banana/lemon sign - enlarged massa intermedia - closed defect - sacral dimple - hemangioma
315
Ovarian cancer can cause ______ which is thickening on anterior abdomen wall with ascites
“Omental cake”
316
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome consists of _______
RUQ pain & PID
317
Cells that produce hCG
Trophoblastic cells
318
Form of acrania in which entire cerebrum is located outside of skull
Exencephaly
319
Lining of ventricles within brain
Ependyma
320
Elongated, barrow head shape AKA scaphocephaly
Dolicocephaly
321
Spectrum of posterior fossa abnormalities that involve cystic dilation of cisterna magna & 4th ventricle
Dandy-walker complex
322
Fusion of orbits
Cyclopia
323
Premature closure of cranial sutures with subsequent fusion of cranial bones
Craniosynostosis
324
Thick white band of white matter that provides communication between right & left halves of brain
Corpus callosum
325
Abnormal lateral ventricle shape where there is a small frontal horn & enlarged occipital horn
Colpocephaly
326
Paired structures located anterior to cerebral aqueduct
Cerebral peduncles
327
Duct that connects 3rd & 4th ventricle | AKA aqueduct of Sylvius
Cerebral aqueduct
328
Estrogen producing ovarian tumor
Thecoma
329
If a it presents with elevated serum AFP, what is likely?
Yolk sac tumor
330
Ovarian cyst that appears with gestational trophoblastic disease
Theca lutein cyst
331
Most common malignancy of ovary
Serous cystadenocarcinoma
332
Short & narrow segment of tube, distal to interstitial segment
Isthmus
333
Modular structure located along the falx cerebri that reabsorb CSF into the venous system
Arachnoid granulations
334
Abnormal lateral curvature of spine
Scoliosis
335
Benign cysts within brain that don’t communicate with ventricular system
Arachnoid cyst
336
Abnormal narrowing of cerebral aqueduct
Aqueductal stenosis
337
Cerebral aqueduct is AKA
Aqueduct of Sylvius
338
Opening in a structure
Aperture
339
Genetic disorder that includes craniosynostosis, ML facial hypoplasia, & cerebral hemispheres
Alert syndrome
340
Absence of eyes
Anophthalmia
341
Most severe form of holoprosencephaly
Alobar
342
Coverings of brain & spinal cord
Meninges
343
In VACTERL, “C” stands for ?
Cardiac
344
Enlarged cisterna magna, measuring greater than 10 mm
Mega cisterna magna
345
Subdivision within middle of lip
Median cleft lip
346
Fetal syndrome associated with - microcephaly - occipital encephalocele - polydactyl - PCKD
Meckel-Gruber syndrome
347
Enlarged HC
Microcephaly
348
Doppler waveforms in a 2nd trimester from artery supplying trophoblastic tissue will demonstrate _____
High amplitude, low resistance
349
If a pelvic mass during pregnancy requires surgery, the best time would be _____
16-20 weeks
350
Dilation of bladder & posterior urethra
“Keyhole” sign
351
Tumor ectopic endometrial tissue
Endomatrioma
352
Ovarian mass associated with virilization
Sertoli-leydig cell tumor
353
With ________ ovarian tumor is Meigs syndrome most likely associated with
Fibroma
354
Which could most likely be confused with a pedunculated fibroid tumor because of its solid appearing structure
Fibroma
355
Most common benign ovarian tumor
Cystic teratoma
356
Ovarian cysts most often bilateral, associated with markedly elevated levels of hCG
Theca lutein cysts
357
Cystic mass commonly noted with pregnancy
Corpus luteum
358
US appearance of an ovarian dermoid tumor in which only the anterior element of mass can be seen ?
Tip of iceberg sign
359
Dominant ovarian follicle prior to ovulation
Graafian follicle
360
Correct formula for calculating ovarian volume
L x W x H x 0.5233
361
Normal ovarian flow is said to be ?
High resistance during cycle Low resistance @ time of ovulation
362
What predisposed condition could increase the risk for suffering from ovarian torsion ?
Ovarian mass
363
Malignant ovarian tumor with a GI origin
Krukenberg tumor
364
Malignant ovarian mass associated with pseudomyoxoma peritonei is _______
Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
365
All of these adnexal masses may appear on US similar to a uterine leiomyoma
- thecoma - fibroma - granulosa cell tumor
366
Ovarian tumor associated with serum lactate dehydrogenase
Dysgerminoma
367
Protein produced by developing placenta
- hCG - estriol - PAPP-A
368
Fusion of thalami & monoventricle are consistent with _____
Trisomy 13
369
Widened pelvic angles & duodenal atresia are most consistent with US markets for ?
Down syndrome
370
Another name for most common chromosomal abnormality
Triploidy
371
Macroglossia is often associated with ?
Trisomy 21
372
Nonimmune hydrops & ovarian dysgenesis are found in fetuses affected by ?
Turner syndrome
373
Bilateral choroid plexus cysts, micrognathia, & rocket hottim feet are US findings of a 27 weekend with omphalocele. This is most consistent with ?
Trisomy 18
374
Absent nasal bones & increased nuchal fold are consistent with ?
Trisomy 21
375
Structural abnormality that results from abnormal development
Malformation
376
Condition in which the heart is located partially or completely outside chest
Ectopic cordis
377
Malformation it malpositioning of tricuspid valve that causes multiple heart defects
Ebstein anomaly
378
Fetal shunt that connects the umbilical vein to IVC
Ductus venosus
379
Fetal shunt that connects pulmonary artery to aortic arch
Ductus arteriosus
380
Genetic disorder characterized by absent or hypoplastic thymus, which ultimately leads to impairment of immune system & succeptibility to infection, as well as cognitive disorders, congenital heart defects, palate defects, & hormonal abnormalities
Digeorge syndrome
381
Normal HR @ 6 weeks
100-110 bpm
382
_______ are stimulated by estrogen & can experience rapid growth during pregnancy
Fibroids
383
Most common fetal presentation
Cephalic
384
Fetal presentation when babies butt is closest to cx
Frank Breech
385
Dilation of renal collecting system secondary to obstruction of normal urine flow
Hydronephrosis
386
Ovarian cyst that develops after ovulation
Corpus luteum cyst
387
Narrowing of aortic arch
Coarction of aorta
388
Tendons within the heart that attach to the tricuspid valve in right ventricle & mitral valve in left ventricle to their respective papillary muscle
Chordae tendinae
389
Herbiation of abdomen contents into chest cavity because of an opening in left posterilateral portion of diaphragm
Bochladek hernia
390
US appearance of fetal unilateral pleural effusion
Bat wing sign
391
Artifact produced when beam of barely attenuated thru fluid containing structure
Posterior shadowing
392
Endometriomas are AKA
Chocolate cyst
393
Krukenberg Timor’s tend to have a _______ appearance
Moth- eaten
394
_______ is the most common malignant tumor germ cell tumor of ovarynnovarian equivalent to testicular seminoma
Dysgerminoma
395
Tumor marker for yolk sac tumor
AFP
396
Ovarian torsion typically occurs on which side ?
Right
397
Longest, most torturous segment of tube. Significant part of tube because of its location of fertilization & area where ectopic pregnancies often embed
Ampulla
398
Abnormal development of central portion of heart AKA endocardium cushion defect
Atrioventricular defect
399
Most common fetal anomaly detected by US
Hydronephrosis
400
Splaying if laminae would show ____
V- shaped spine
401
Abnormal heart shift, NTDs, compression of lungs, failure of diaphragm to form properly, pulmonary hypoplasia, would all suggest ?
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
402
Caudal regression syndrome is associated with ?
- sirenomelia - diabetes - lumbosacral dysplasia
403
You can best distinguish between omphalocele & gastroschidis by seeing _____
Cord insert
404
What would cause dangling choroid sign?
Hydrocephalus
405
Clinidactyly refers to ?
Permanent curvature of a digit
406
Thickened nuchal fold would suggest ?
Trisomy 21
407
Double outlet right ventricle is almost always associated with ?
VSD
408
Syndrome associated with an entire extra set of chromosomes
Triploidy
409
- moderate posterior position of frontal bone | - abnormal shaped mandible
Micrognathia
410
Strawberry head shape is associated with ?
Trisomy 18
411
Head shape associated with thanatophoric dysplasia
Cloverleaf
412
Flat nose profile, duodenal atresia, mild ventriculomegaly, & echogenic bowel would all suggest ?
Trisomy 21
413
Holoprosencephaly is often associated with ?
Trisomy 13
414
Appearance of a femur fracture can be a result of ?
Osteogenesis imperfecta
415
Talipes is AKA
Clubfoot
416
Double bubble sign refers to ?
Dilated duodenum next to the stomach
417
Where do ‘VACTERL’ problems arise from ?
Embryonic mesoderm
418
What does VACTERL stand for ?
``` Vertebral defects Anal atresia Cardiac defects Tracheoesophageal fistula Renal abnormalities Limb abnormalities ```
419
Most common NTD that is ALWAYS lethal
Anencephaly
420
Cystic hygroma is often associated with ?
Turner syndrome
421
Congenital absence of bilateral kidneys & sever oligohydramnios suggests ?
Classic Potter sequence
422
_____ is characterized by bilateral clefts in cerebellum & has a poor prognosis
Hydranencephaly
423
Doppler waveforms obtained from an artery supplying an intracranial AVM may exhibit _____
Low pulsatility index
424
Enzyme found within blood that can be used to monitor renal function. Can also be used as a tumor marker for some ovarian tumors
Lactate dehydrogenase
425
Painful or difficult urination
Dysuria
426
Painful sex
Dyspareunia
427
Difficult or painful periods
Dysmenorrhea
428
Birth defect in which external genitalia appear neither male or female
Ambiguous genetalia
429
Typically with anencephaly, MSAFP levels will be ?
Elevated
430
Typically with gastroschisis, MSAFP levels will be ?
Elevated
431
In TPAL, the L refers to ?
Live births
432
Clinical signs of hypotensive syndrome include ?
- tachycardia - nausea - pallor
433
Painless 2nd trimester bleeding is mostly associated with ?
Placenta previa
434
What would be decreased with presence of Edwards syndrome ?
- estriol - hCG - AFP
435
Things produced by placenta
- hCG - Papp-a - inhibin a
436
Myelomeningocele is associated with ?
Spina bifida
437
Most common mass associated with pregnancy
Corpus luteum
438
NT is optimally measured between 11 & 13 weeks & 6 days, when CRL measures between ?
45-84 mm
439
Vitelline duct is AKA ?
Omphomesentric duct 1 vein, 1 artery
440
By adding 30 to MSD, you get an estimate for ?
Gestational age in days
441
Normal hCG levels double every ____ in 1st trimester
48 hours
442
What are hCG levels like with a complete molar pregnancy
Noticeably increased
443
HCG level with twins will be ?
Increased
444
HCG level with a miscarriage
Decreased
445
HCG level with a blighted ovum
Decreased
446
HCG level with an ectopic
Decreased
447
A gestational sac should usually be seen between ____ & ____ mIu per ml with TV US
1000 & 2000
448
In the 1st trimester, _____ maintains the corpus luteum of ovary so it can continue to produce progesterone
HCG
449
Most dependent recess in the body
Pouch of Douglas
450
Ovarian mass that does not secrete hormones
Theca lutein cyst
451
Fetal lung maturity can be detected via amniocentesis by presence of ?
Phoephatidyl-glycerol
452
Elevated serum estrogen levels clinically can be associated with ?
- thickened endometrium - ovarian mass - multiple follicles
453
Most common location for a encephalocele
Occipital
454
Presence of asymmetric encephalocele raises suspicion for ?
Limb body wall complex
455
Failure of fusion of Müllerian ducts can lead to ?
- bicornuate uterus - uterus didelphys - arcuate uterus
456
Ligaments that attach to ovary to lateral pelvic wall & transits ovarian vessels
Infundibulopelvic ligament
457
Best scan plane to see spina bifida
Transverse
458
True knots in the umbilical cord are most likely seen with ?
Monoamniotic twins
459
Most dangerous location for an ectopic
Cornual
460
Skeletal anomalies are suspected when long bones measure more than _____ below mean
1 SD
461
Hormone responsible for proliferation of endometrium
Estrogen
462
Recipient twin with TTTS often exhibits ?
Hydrops
463
US visualization of separating membrane is evidence of ____
Diamniotic gestation
464
Tricuspid valve inserts _____ to the mitral valve
Inferior
465
Non-functioning mass of lung tissue with its own blood supply from the aorta
Pulmonary sequestration
466
Most common congenital heart defect
VSD
467
Pelvic muscle routinely seen with US
Levator ani
468
Most common cause of hydrocephalus I’m utero
Aqueductal stenosis
469
Structure created by union of sperm & egg
Zygote
470
With holoprosencephaly, | there will be a ____- shapes monoventricle, & the lobes of the ______ may be fused & _____ in appearance
- horseshoe - thalamus - echogenic
471
Trisomy 13 is present in 50-70% of fetuses diagnosed with ?
Holoprosencephaly
472
If cerebellar vermis is absent & 4th ventricle is enlarged, then what is suspected?
Dandy Walker malformation
473
A normal IUP is seen, as well as a cystic structure with thick & hyperechoic rim
Corpus luteum cyst
474
With agenesis of corpus callosum, the sulci tend to have more of a perpendicular or radial arrangement & often appear to have a ______ pattern
“Spoke wheel”
475
Associated with development of fluid filled clefts within the cerebrum
Schizencephaly
476
Choroid plexus cysts often regress, although there is a slight association with ?
Trisomy 18
477
US appearance of anencephaly
- ‘frog like’ face - bulging eyes - absent cranial vault
478
Typical complaints of a woman with adenomyosis
- dysmenorrhea - dyspareunia - menometrorrhagia
479
Surgical removal of a fibroid
Myomectomy
480
Clinical findings associated with leiomyoma
- infertility - palpable mass - menorrhagia
481
Uterine position in which the corpus tilts forward & comes in contact with cx
Antelflexion
482
Most common uterine anomaly
Septate uterus
483
Outer layer of endometrium
Basal layer
484
Extracorpeal approaches to US
- transthoracic - transvesicular - TA - transperineal
485
Most likely cause if bilateral, enlarged, echogenic kidneys & oligohydramnios
ARPKD
486
Failure of kidneys to form
Renal agenesis
487
Most likely associated with polyhydramnios
Duodenal atresia
488
Most common type of colon atresia
Anorectal atresia
489
Associated with duodenal atresia
- trisomy 21 - esophageal atresia - VACTERL
490
Omphalocele can contain ?
- liver - ascites - colon
491
Things often associated with omphalocele
- multiple chromosomal abnormalities - elevated MSAFP - periumbilical mass
492
Fetal stool is ?
Meconium
493
Demise of a twin can lead to development of neurologic complication in living twin as a result of ?
Twin embolization syndrome
494
Least common form of twins
Monochorionic/Monoamniotic
495
Acardiac twinning results from ?
Abnormal links between placenta vessels
496
Possible complications associated with twins ?
- preterm delivery - maternal anemia - preeclampsia
497
Most common form of monozygotic twins
Monochorionic/Diamniotic
498
Fraternal twins result from ?
Dizygotic twinning
499
The abnormal twin in acardiac twinning is called ?
Parasitic twin
500
What can occur as a result of dizygotic twinning?
Dichorionic/Diamniotic twins
501
Shunting if blood from 1 twin to the other
TTTS
502
Treatment that separates abnormal placental vascular connections between twins suffering from TTTS
Endoscopic-guided laser photocoagulation
503
Demise of a twin during the 2nd & 3rd trimester can lead to ?
TES
504
Monozygotic twins results from ?
A single zygote that splits
505
A triangular extension of placenta @ base of a membrane is indicative of ?
Dichorionic/Diamniotic twins
506
Presence of 2 separate amniotic sacs
Diamniotic
507
Factors that could increase likelihood of multiples
- maternal age > 40 | - maternal family history of twins
508
Outer membrane of gestation
Chorion
509
Twins resulting from 2 separate ova
Dizygotic
510
What would a newborn most likely suffer from born prior to 32 weeks as result of twin complication ?
Pulmonary hypoplasia
511
US signs of a Di/Di twins
- twin peak sign - lambda sign - delta sign
512
IUGR is defined as ?
Fetus < 10th percentile
513
US findings associated with intrauterine infection
- calcs around ventricles | - ventriculomegaly
514
Appearance of collapsed overriding of cranial bones associated with fetal demise
Spaulding sign
515
Duels sign is AKA
Halo sign
516
Condition that includes genitourinary anomalies, heart defects, ear/eye problems & growth restriction
CHARGE
517
Acetylcholinesterase (ACHE) is specific for ?
Spina bifida
518
Abnormal nuchal fold thicken is greater than _____
5-6 mm
519
How is cvs sample usually taken ?
Transcervically
520
A method of collecting a sample of placental tissue to perform karyotype mapping in order to determine chromosomal & genetic disorders
CVS
521
Where is the CVS sample usually taken ?
Chorion frondosum
522
______ is associated with elevated MSAFP
- maternal renal abnormality - fetal demise - multiple gestation - abdomen wall defects
523
______ is associated with decreased MSAFP
- hydatidiform mole - underestimation if gestational age - fetal death - Down syndrome
524
@ what level is nuchal fold thickness measured ?
@ level of cerebellum
525
@ what gestational ago is nuchal fold thickness measured
15-20 weeks
526
True hermaphrodites have both ?
Female & male gonadal tissue
527
If a pt presents externally as a female but chromosome analysis reveals 46XY chromosome
Testicular ferminization
528
Major component of prenatal genetic testing include ?
- amniocentesis - CVS - anatomy scan
529
Hormone that maintains corpus luteum during pregnancy
hCG
530
Common cause of DUB
PCOS
531
Structure noted within Graafian follicle containing developing ovum is ?
Cumulus oophorus
532
Which structure remains after corpus luteum has regressed ?
Corpus albicans
533
Hormone of pituitary gland that stimulates follicular development of ovary
FSH
534
Structure that produces hormones that directly acts upon the endometrium to produce varying thickness & US appearances
Ovary
535
1st phase of ovarian cycle
Follicular
536
Hormone produced by hypothalamus that controls release of hormones for memstration by anterior pituitary gland
GnRH
537
Hormone that surges at ovulation
LH
538
1st phase of endometrial cycle
Proliferative
539
Hormone released by ovary during proliferative phase stimulates endometrial thickening
Estrogen
540
Periovulatory phase is AKA
Late proliferative
541
Corpus luteum primarily releases ?
Progesterone
542
Intermenstrual bleeding
Metrorrhagia
543
Ectopic endometrial tissue within uterus that leads to AUB
Adenomyosis
544
Arteries within functional layer of endometrium theatre altered by hormones of ovary & are shed with cycle
Spiral arteries
545
During which phase of endometrial cycle would yield 3 line sign
Late proliferative
546
2nd phase of endometrial cycle
Secretory phase
547
Which hormone is produced by ovary during 2nd half of cycle ?
Progesterone
548
Luteinizing hormone (LH) is produced by the ?
Anterior pituitary gland
549
1st period
Menarche
550
Measurement of endometrium during early proliferative phase ranges from ?
4-8 mm
551
2nd phase of ovarian cycle
Luteal phase
552
2 hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland that impact your cycle
LH & FSH
553
Cancer that originates in glandular tissue
Adenocarcinoma
554
Irregular bands of tissue
Adhesions
555
Syndrome characterized by endometrial adhesions that typically occur as a result of scar formation after some type of uterine surgery
Asherman Syndrome
556
Menopause is AKA
Climacteric
557
Procedure where cx is dilated & uterine cavity is scraped with curette
D&C
558
Hormone released by ovary that initiates the proliferation & thickening of endo
Estrogen
559
Blood accumulation within the uterine cavity
Hematometra
560
Endoscopy is uterine cavity
Hysteroscopy
561
Having gave birth to no kids
Nulliparity
562
Shaped like a polyp
Polyploid
563
Adhesions
Synechiae
564
Opening located in left posteriolateral portion of diaphragm
Foramne of Bochdalek
565
FSH is produced by the ?
Anterior pituitary gland
566
When the ovary is in the luteal phase, which phase is the endometrium in ?
Secretory
567
A change in period bleeding associated with lesions within uterus relate to ?
AUB
568
Painful & difficult period
Dysmenorrhea
569
Temporary endocrine gland that results from the rupture of Graafian follicle
Corpus luteum
570
Hormones responsible for gallstone formation in pregnancy
Estrogen & progesterone
571
Functional bowel disorder within fetus caused by absence of intestinal nerves
Hirschsprung disease
572
Structure that contains the developing oocyte
Cumulus oophorus
573
Normal cisterna magna width
2-10 mm
574
Fertilization typically occurs within ____ after ovulation
12 hours
575
Stage of conceptus that implants within decidulized endometrium
Blastocyst
576
Often used to medicinally treat an ectopic
Methotrexate
577
Which structure lies within extraembryonic coelom
Yolk sac
578
Most common form of GTD
Complete molar pregnancy
579
1st identifiable US sign of pregnancy
Decidual reaction
580
1st structure notes within gestational sac
Yolk sac
581
Normal gestational sac will grow ?
1 mm per day
582
Associated with an abnormal nuchal translucency
- trisomy 18 & 21 | - Turner syndrome
583
Contributing factors of an ectopic
- PID - assisted reproductive therapy - IUD
584
In early gestation, where is the secondary yolk sac located?
Chorionic cavity
585
Findings consistent with complete hydatiform mole
- hetero mass in endometrium - bilateral theca lutein cyst - hyperemesis gravidarium
586
Most likely Mets location from GTD
Lungs
587
Maternal contribution to placenta
Decidua basaslis
588
Level of hCG beyond ____ is consistently visible
Discriminatory zone
589
Normal US appearance of decidua capsaularis & decidua parietalsis, seperated by anechoic fluid filled uterine cavity
Double decidual sign (double sac)
590
Doppler assessment of middle cerebral artery can evaluate the fetus for ?
Hypoxia
591
Measurement that should be carefully visualized with IUGR
AC
592
An abnormal cord insert into membranes beyond placental edge
Velamentous insertion
593
? can be associated with polyhydramnios
- omphalocele - gastroschisis - esophageal atresia
594
Fetal TORCH is frequently associated with ?
Intracranial calcs
595
Normal umbilical cord insert point isn’t the placenta is ?
Central
596
A velamentous cord insert is associated with ?
Vasa previa
597
Increased S/D ratio is associated with ?
- IUGR - placental insufficiency - mortality
598
Benign ovarian mass that’s composed of 3 germ call layers
Cystic teratoma
599
Small benign ovarian tumors
Brenner tumors
600
Androblastoma is AKA
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
601
Recesses of the vagina
Fornices
602
Area where Fallopian tube connects to uterus
Cornua
603
Leiomyosarcoma is a ?
Malignant fibroid
604
What can be associated with a thick placenta
- fetal infections - RH isoimmunization - multiple gestations
605
What can be associated with a thin placenta ?
- preeclampsia - IUGR - long standing diabetes
606
Fetal contribution of placenta
Chorion frondosum
607
A succenturiate lobe of placenta refers to a ?
Accessory lobe
608
Mothers with pregestational diabetes have an increased risk of a fetus with ?
NTD’s
609
With RH isoimminization, the maternal antibodies cross the placenta & destroy the fetal ?
Reb blood cells
610
Maternal contribution to placenta
Decidua basalis
611
Nonimmune hydrops is associated with ?
- pleural effusion - Turner syndrome - fetal infections
612
Associated with erythroblastosis fetalis & RH isoimmunization
Immune hydrops
613
Most common renal anomaly
Duplex collecting system
614
Obstruction @ UVJ would lead to dilation of ?
Ureter & renal collecting system
615
Type of renal cystic disease associated with adult liver & pancreatic cysts
ADPKD
616
Most common fetal renal tumor
Mesoblastic nephroma
617
? would be associated with oligohydramnios
- bilateral MCKD - bilateral renal agenesis - ARPKD
618
Prune belly syndrome is caused by ?
Enlarged bladder
619
Dilation of renal pelvis is called ?
Pyelactasis
620
Obstruction @ level of UPJ would lead to dilation of ?
Renal pelvis/calices
621
OEIS complex is also called ?
Cloacal extrophy
622
Components of prune nelly syndrome
- megacystitis - undescended testicles - dilated bladder/urethra
623
Is numerous non communicating anechoic masses are noted within the left renal fossa of fetus @ 20 weeks, what’s the most likely etiology?
MCKD
624
AKA pelvicaliectasis
Hydronephrosis
625
‘Lying down’ adrenal sign describes US findings of ?
Renal agenesis
626
Condition associated with absence of sacrum & coccyx
LBWC
627
A fetus with ______ will have a clover leaf skull with frontal bossing & hydrocephalus
Thanatophoric dysplasia
628
Brittle bone disease
Osteogenesis imperfecta
629
Most common non lethal skeletal dysplasia
Heterozygous achondroplasia
630
Kyphosis is an abnormal _______ curvature of spine
Posterior
631
Each fetal vertebrae consists of 3 ossification centers that are ?
1 centrum - 2 neural processes
632
Wide septum between middle & ring finger
Trident hand
633
Most common LETHAL skeletal dysplasia - cloverleaf skull - frontal bossing - hydrocephalus
Thanatophoric dysplasia
634
Closed spinal lesions completely covered by skin & can be difficult to see with US AKA closed spina bifida
Spina bifida occulta
635
Most common form of spina bifida - open lesions typically not covered by skin & mass that protrudes from skin AKA open spina bifida
Spina bifida aperta
636
Abnormal lateral curvature of spine
Scoliosis
637
Opening in skin over distal spine
Sacral dimple
638
Nondevelopment of sacrum AKA caudal regression
Sacralagenesis
639
Embyologix formation that results from the fusion of 2 folded ends of neural plate
Neural tube
640
Mass that results from open spine bifida that contains spinal cord only
Myelocele
641
Mass that results from open spina bifida that contains the spinal cord & meningocele
Myelomeningocele
642
Her ovation of cranial or spinal meninges because of an open cranial or spinal defect; contains CSF but no nerve tissue
Meningocele
643
Group of disorders with US findings including short or absent umbilical cord, ventral wall defect, craniofacial defects & scoliosis
Limb-body wall complex
644
Most often found in a fetus with spina bifida
Lemon sign
645
Abnormal posterior curvature of spine
Kyphosis
646
Combination of both scoliosis & kyphosis
Kyphoscoliosis
647
Fatal form of achondroplasia
Homozygous achondroplasia
648
Most common nonlethal skeletal dysplasia characterized by rhizomelia
Heterozygous achondroplasia
649
Angling if frontal bones that produces an unusually prominent forehead
Frontal bossing
650
Form of acrania in which the entire cerebellum is located outside of skull
Exencephaly
651
Abnormal lateral ventricle shape there is a small frontal horn & enlarged occipital horn
Colpocephaly
652
Abnormal shape of cranium caused by premature fusion of disturbed in which frontal bossing occurs
Cloverleaf skull
653
Brain structure responsible for motor output, sensory perception, & equilibrium
Cerebellum
654
Protrusion of intracranial contents thru defect in skull
Cephalocele
655
Bones of cranium & spine
Axial
656
Rare, nonlethal condition resulting in an abnormal development of bones & cartilage
Achondrogenesis
657
Choroid plexus is responsible for producing
CSF
658
US features of holoprosencephaly
- proboscis with cyclopia - fused thalami - monoventricle
659
Condition with no nose & proboscis separating 2 close set orbits
Ethmocephaly
660
Small mandible
Micrognathia
661
Nuchal fold thickness in 2nd trimester shouldn’t exceed ?
6 mm
662
@ what level is nuchal fold measurement
CSP
663
Abnormal division of lip
Cleft lip
664
Growth disorder syndrome associated with organ, skull & tongue enlargement
Beckwith-Widemann Syndrome
665
Group of abnormalities associated with entrapment of fetal parts & fetal amputation
Amniotic band syndrome
666
Measurement between lateral sides of orbits
Binocular diameter
667
Facial abnormalities when discovered, should prompt the tech to analyze the brain for signs of ?
Holoprosencephaly
668
Micrognathia is a condition associated with ?
Trisomy 18
669
Turner syndrome is AKA
Monosomy X
670
Optimal scan plane to visualize micrognathia
Sagittal
671
There is a direct link between microtia & ?
Down syndrome
672
The fetal lip typically closes by ?
8 weeks
673
Most frequently encountered chromosomal abnormality associated with holoprosencephaly
Trisomy 13
674
Isolated enlargement of fetal thyroid
Fetal goiter
675
Nuchal fold thickness is considered abnormal if it measures greater than ?
6 mm
676
Macroglossia is often associated with ?
Beckwith-Wiedemann & Down syndrome
677
Most common cause of hypotelorism
Holoprosencephaly
678
Most common cause of hypertelorism
Anterior cephalocele
679
Whenever any form of holoprosencephaly is suspected, a thorough ________ evaluation should be performed?
Facial
680
Abnormality where 1 sex chromosome is absent AKA monosomy X
Turner syndrome
681
Measurement from medial to lateral side of eye
Ocular diameter
682
Small ears
Microtia
683
Small mandible & recesses chin
Micrognathia
684
Benign congenital neck cyst found most often near angle of mandible
Brachial cleft cyst
685
Condition with small frontal horns & enlarged occipital horns
Colpocephaly
686
Lack of sulci within fetal cerebrum is a reliable indicator of ?
Lissencephaly
687
US finding of a fluid filled cranium with absence of cerebral tissue is consistent with ?
Hydranencephaly
688
Fetal suture located within frontal bone along ML of forehead
Metopic suture
689
Lemon shaped skull is associated with ?
Arnold Chiari II malformation
690
Cloverleaf skull shape is associated with ?
Thanatophoric dysplasia
691
Band of tissue that allows communication between right & left cerebral hemispheres
Corpus callosum
692
Associated with a strawberry shaped skull ?
Trisomy 18
693
Most accurate measurement for estimating gestational age
HC
694
Normal shaped skull
Mesocephaly
695
Strict located between 2 loves of cerebellum
Cerebellar vermis
696
Dangling choroid sign is associated with ?
Ventriculomegaly
697
Chromosomal aberration associated with holoprosencephaly
Trisomy 13
698
Genetic disorder that includes craniosynostosis, ml facial hypoplasia, & syndactyly
Apert Syndrome
699
Development of fluid filled cleft within cerebrum is consistent with ?
Schizencephaly
700
Typically absent with agenesis of corpus callosum
CSP
701
What structure does the posterior fossa cyst associated with Dandy Walker malformation communicate ?
4th ventricle
702
Vein of Galen aneurysm is associated with ?
CHF
703
Resistance pattern of the MCA should be greater than that of the umbilical artery, should be compared to when ______ is suspected
Fetal shunting
704
Most common intracranial tumor found in utero
Teratoma
705
Omphalocele is associated with ?
- pentalogy of Cantrell - trisomy 18 - Patau syndrome
706
Inherited disorder in which secreting organs such as lungs, pancreas, & other digestive organs that produce thick & sticky secretions instead of normal secretions
Cystic fibrosis
707
Lab value significant in detection of abdomen wall defects
MSAFP
708
Associated with gastroschisis
- normal cord insert - elevated MSAFP - periumbilical mass
709
Congenital absence of part of esophagus
Esophageal atresia
710
Where does gastroschisis occur?
Lateral on right side of cord insert
711
Abnormal connection between esophagus & trachea
Tracheoesophageal fistula
712
Associated with esophageal atresia
- trisomy 21 - VACTERL - Edwards syndrome
713
Fetal stomach should be visualized by week ?
14
714
Associated with omphalocele
- trisomy 18 - pentalogy of cantrell - IUGR
715
Congenital maldevelopment or absence of duodenum
Duodenal atresia
716
Cystic dilation of CBD
Choledochal cyst
717
Sorta arising from right ventricle, pulmonary artery that arises from the left ventricle is describing ?
Transposition of great vessels
718
With polyhydramnios, you should evaluate for ?
Duodenal/esophageal atresia
719
Group of anomalies that include omphalocele, ectopic cordis, cleft sternum, anterior diaphragmatic defect, & pericardial defects
Pentalogy of Cantrell
720
Congenital malformation of proximal part of small intestine
Duodenal atresia
721
Hepatomegaly can be seen in conjunction with ?
Beckeith-wiedemann Syndrome
722
? is most often associated with duodenal atresia
Trisomy 21
723
Normally, physiologic bowel herniation resolves by ?
12 weeks
724
Most common congenital infection
Cytomegalovirus
725
Normally, S/D ratio will ______ with advancing gestation
Decrease
726
Fetuses with 2VC have an approximately _______% chance of having additional abnormalities
20%
727
Thickness of placenta shouldn’t exceed ?
4 cm
728
What is it called when the shoulder of the baby can’t fit thru the birth canal during labor
Shoulder dystocia
729
Vertical groove between upper lip & nasal septum
Philtrum
730
First 28 days of life
Neonatal period
731
Rare disorder in which mother suffers from edema & fluid build up similar to her hydronic baby
Mirror syndrome
732
Total blood loss - to bleed out
Exsanguination
733
Condition in which there’s an incompatibility between fetal & maternal red blood cells
Erythroblastosis fetalis
734
If only 1 yolk sac is seen with 2 fetuses, it’s indicative of ?
Monoamniotic gestation
735
Most common form of monozygotic twins
Monochorionic/Diamniotic
736
Most common form of twins
Dizygotic (fraternal)
737
Twins attached @ chest
Thoracopagus
738
In the us, are monozygotic or dizygotic twins more common?
Dizygotic
739
Double fold of dura mater located at ml
Falx cerebri
740
Development of red blood cells
Hemstopoiesis
741
Appearance of small gestational sac in uterine cavity surrounded by thick, echogenic endometrium
Intradecidual sign
742
L x W x H of gestational sac diveded by 3
Mean sac diameter
743
What kind of twins are more common among Africans?
Dizygotic
744
Cord entanglement is often seen in what kind of pregnancy?
Monochorionic/Monoaniotic
745
Twins conjoined back to back in sacral region
Pyopagus
746
Twins conjoined @ the abdomen
Omphalopagus
747
Having 1 placenta & 1 amniotic sac
Mono/mono
748
Having 1 placenta & 2 amniotic sacs
Monochorionic/Diamniotic
749
2 ova that are fertilized by 2 sperm
Dizygotic
750
Twins with 2 placentas & 2 amniotic sacs
Di/Di
751
Lambda sign is ?
Delta sign
752
Twins conjoined @ cranium
Craniopagus
753
_____ disease is fatal if bilateral
MCKD
754
_______ is the most likely cause if enlarged, echogenic kidneys in utero
ARPKD
755
Most worrisome consequence associated with oligohydramnios
Pulmonary hypoplasia
756
How often does the fetal bladder usually fill & empty
30 - 45 minutes
757
______ is located between the apex of the bladder & umbilicus
Urachus
758
Failure of kidneys to develop
Renal agenesis
759
Syndrome that’s a consequence of abdominal wall musculature being stretched by enlarged bladder
Prue belly syndrome
760
Fusion of orbits & holoprosencephaly are associated with ?
Patau syndrome
761
Maternal serum screening of a mom of a fetus with trisomy 18 will show ?
- decreased AFP, hCG & estriol
762
Monosomy X is ?
Turner syndrome
763
Cleft lip, hypotelorism, & micropthalmia are all features of ?
Trisomy 13
764
Strawberry shaped skull is associated with ?
Edwards syndrome
765
Earliest invasive fetal karyotyping technique that can be performed is ?
CVS
766
With what procedure is placental tissue obtained?
CVS
767
Molar pregnancy, omphalocele & low set eyes are found most often with ?
Triploidy
768
Sex chromosome anomaly
45,X or Turner syndrome
769
Brachycephaly is often associated with ?
Down syndrome
770
Theca lutein cysts would most likely be linked with ?
- molar pregnancy | - triploidy
771
Rounded head shape
Brachycephaly
772
Low afp & estriol and elevated hCG is consistent with ?
Down syndrome
773
Normal diploid cells have ____ chromosomes
46
774
With Turner syndrome, what chromosome is missing ?
Paternal sex chromosome
775
Often a particular molar pregnancy is found with a triploidy fetus resulting in ?
- elevated hCG | - bilateral theca lutein cysts
776
Common findings associated wit trisomy 13
- holoprosencephaly | - abnormal facies
777
Characteristics of trisomy 18
- strawberry shaped skull - choroid plexus cysts - micrognathia - rockerbottom feet - omphalocele - clenched fists
778
For PUBS, a needle is placed into maternal abdomen & into the _____
Umbilical vein
779
When is an amniocentesis usually performed ?
15-20 weeks
780
If at the anatomy scan, FL is the only things that measured small, you’d suspect ?
Skeletal dysplasia
781
With IUGR, is reversed diastolic flow good ?
NO
782
Normal RI in umbilical artery with IUGR
< 0.8
783
What is nagele’s rule ?
EDD = LMP - 3 months + 7 days
784
Micrognathia is seen especially with ?
Trisomy 18
785
What is the ventricle like with alobar holoprosencephaly ?
Monoventricle
786
What is absent with lobar holoprosencephaly?
CSP & Olfactory tracts
787
Fetal skin shouldn’t be greater than ?
5 mm
788
Omphaloceles containing bowel have a greater risk of ?
Associated chromosomal abnormalities
789
Most common tumor of female pelvis
Leimyoma
790
Anytime you see a uterine anomaly, you should look at the _____
Kidneys
791
Hormonal IUD
- mirena | - progestasert
792
Nonhormonal iuds
- copper coated - Paragard - copper T
793
Describe secretory phase
8-16 mm Day 15-28
794
Describe endometrium during early proliferative phase
Hypoechoic 4-8 mm
795
During menses, what does the endometrium look like ?
Thin, 1-4 mm
796
Is high or low resistance vital to ovaries?
Low
797
In follicular phase, the ovarian arteries will have ______ flow
Low velocity, high resistance
798
Fetal syndrome associated with microcephaly, occipital encephalocele, polydactyly, & polycystic kidneys
Meckel-Gruber Syndrome
799
What causes a bladder outlet obstruction?
Posterior urethral valve
800
Most common cause of hydronephrosis & most common form of fetal renal obstruction
UPJ obstruction
801
Renal pelvis shouldn’t exceed ____ prior to 20 weeks
7 mm
802
Way in which gene is inherited, both parents must be carriers
Autosomal recessive
803
Disorder inherited by fetus, atleast 1 parent is a carrier
Autosomal dominant
804
Membrane present during early embryonic development that contribute to bladder formation & development
Allantois
805
Cyst found within umbilical cord
Allantoic cyst
806
Does omphalocele or gastroschisis have a BETTER outcome?
Gastroschisis
807
Most common fetal liver abnormality
Hepatomegaly
808
_____ will most often lead to visualization of dilated fetal rectum
Anotectal atresia
809
Herniation if abdominal contents thru a right sided periumbilical abdomen wall defect
Gastroschisis
810
Fetal heart is fully formed by week ?
10 weeks
811
Blood returning from the lungs thru the pulmonary veins enters into ?
Left atrium
812
Normal opening in the lower third of atrial septum
Foramen ovale
813
Most common heart defect
VSD
814
Rhabdomyomas are associated with ?
Tuberous sclerosis
815
Fetal lung maturity can be assessed by using ?
LS ratio
816
_______ should be positioned anterior to sorta & should be seen crossing over it
Pulmonary artery
817
Where is the mitral valve located ?
Between left ventricle & left atrium
818
‘Bag wing’ sign is indicative of ?
Pleural effusion
819
Lack of muscle in dome of diaphragm is called ?
Eventration of diaphragm
820
Where is the tricuspid valve located ?
Between right ventricle & right atrium
821
Separate mass of nonfunctional lung tissue
Pulmonary sequestration
822
Most common cause of cardiac malposition
Diaphragmatic hernia
823
The moderator band is located within the ?
Right ventricle
824
Most common form of diaphragmatic hernia
Foramen of Bockdalek
825
Fetal shunt that connects pulmonary artery to aortic arch
Ductus arteriosis
826
Most common fetal cardiac tumor
Rhabdomyoma
827
echogenic focus within heart can be associated with ?
Trisomy 21
828
Echogenic cardiac focus is often seen within ?
Left ventricle
829
Opening within the septum that desperate the right & left ventricle
VSD
830
When does the trilaminar embryonic disc form ?
During gastrulation
831
TTTS is specific to what kind of twins?
Monochorionic/Monozygotic
832
Twin growth is similar to Singleton growth until about ?
30 weeks
833
Twins resulting from fertilization of 1 single ovum
Monozygotic
834
A molar pregnancy that’s considered invasive but doesn’t metastasize
Chorioadenoma destruens
835
Normal CI
74 - 83 %
836
A CI of 61% suggests ?
Dolicocephaly
837
Cephalad means ?
Towards the top of the head
838
Cerebellar measurements can be used to estimate gestational age but lose accuracy after ?
20 weeks
839
Benign vascular tumor of placenta
Chorioangioma
840
When the umbilical cord inserts at edge of placenta
Battledore/marginal
841
Cephalic is AKA
Vertex
842
Malformation or malpositioning of tricuspid valve results in ?
Ebstein anomaly
843
Blood from the right ventricle can flow they the ductus arteriosis & into the _____
Descending aorta
844
Blood is shunted directly into the IVC via a small branch of umbilical vein called ____
Ductus venosus
845
Heart chamber closest to fetal spine
Left atrium
846
The embryonic heart begins as _____ then turns into ______
Starts as 2 tubes Turns into 4 chambers
847
Anomaly in which the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle & aorta arises from the right ventricle
Transposition of great vessels
848
Stage of conceptus that implants within decidualized endometrium
Blastocyst
849
Most malignant form of gestational trophobladtic disease with possible mets to liver, lungs & vagina
Choriocarcinoma
850
Breast cancer treatment drug that may alter US appearance of endometrium
Tamoxifen
851
Most common cause if postmenopausal bleeding
Endometrial atrophy
852
Most common for of endometrial carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
853
Colpocephaly is commonly associated with ?
Agenesis of corpus callosum
854
Multiple echogenic foci located in fetal, liver, bowel & peritoneum accompanied by polyhydramnios & fetal ascites most likely indicates ?
Meconium peritonitis
855
? is associated with multiple small calculations in the fetal brain & liver as well as mild ventriculomegaly
Cytomegalovirus infection
856
An abnormally short fetal neck with fixed posterior flexion
Iniencephaly
857
In the us, are monozygotic or dizygotic twins more common?
Dizygotic
858
Double fold of dura mater located at ml
Falx cerebri
859
Development of red blood cells
Hemstopoiesis
860
Appearance of small gestational sac in uterine cavity surrounded by thick, echogenic endometrium
Intradecidual sign
861
L x W x H of gestational sac diveded by 3
Mean sac diameter
862
What kind of twins are more common among Africans?
Dizygotic
863
Cord entanglement is often seen in what kind of pregnancy?
Monochorionic/Monoaniotic
864
Twins conjoined back to back in sacral region
Pyopagus
865
Twins conjoined @ the abdomen
Omphalopagus
866
Having 1 placenta & 1 amniotic sac
Mono/mono
867
Having 1 placenta & 2 amniotic sacs
Monochorionic/Diamniotic
868
2 ova that are fertilized by 2 sperm
Dizygotic
869
Twins with 2 placentas & 2 amniotic sacs
Di/Di
870
Lambda sign is ?
Delta sign
871
Twins conjoined @ cranium
Craniopagus
872
_____ disease is fatal if bilateral
MCKD
873
_______ is the most likely cause if enlarged, echogenic kidneys in utero
ARPKD
874
Most worrisome consequence associated with oligohydramnios
Pulmonary hypoplasia
875
How often does the fetal bladder usually fill & empty
30 - 45 minutes
876
______ is located between the apex of the bladder & umbilicus
Urachus
877
Failure of kidneys to develop
Renal agenesis
878
Syndrome that’s a consequence of abdominal wall musculature being stretched by enlarged bladder
Prue belly syndrome
879
Fusion of orbits & holoprosencephaly are associated with ?
Patau syndrome
880
Maternal serum screening of a mom of a fetus with trisomy 18 will show ?
- decreased AFP, hCG & estriol
881
Monosomy X is ?
Turner syndrome
882
Cleft lip, hypotelorism, & micropthalmia are all features of ?
Trisomy 13
883
Strawberry shaped skull is associated with ?
Edwards syndrome
884
Earliest invasive fetal karyotyping technique that can be performed is ?
CVS
885
With what procedure is placental tissue obtained?
CVS
886
Molar pregnancy, omphalocele & low set eyes are found most often with ?
Triploidy
887
Sex chromosome anomaly
45,X or Turner syndrome
888
Brachycephaly is often associated with ?
Down syndrome
889
Theca lutein cysts would most likely be linked with ?
- molar pregnancy | - triploidy
890
Rounded head shape
Brachycephaly
891
Low afp & estriol and elevated hCG is consistent with ?
Down syndrome
892
Normal diploid cells have ____ chromosomes
46
893
With Turner syndrome, what chromosome is missing ?
Paternal sex chromosome
894
Often a particular molar pregnancy is found with a triploidy fetus resulting in ?
- elevated hCG | - bilateral theca lutein cysts
895
Common findings associated wit trisomy 13
- holoprosencephaly | - abnormal facies
896
Characteristics of trisomy 18
- strawberry shaped skull - choroid plexus cysts - micrognathia - rockerbottom feet - omphalocele - clenched fists
897
For PUBS, a needle is placed into maternal abdomen & into the _____
Umbilical vein
898
When is an amniocentesis usually performed ?
15-20 weeks
899
If at the anatomy scan, FL is the only things that measured small, you’d suspect ?
Skeletal dysplasia
900
With IUGR, is reversed diastolic flow good ?
NO
901
Normal RI in umbilical artery with IUGR
< 0.8
902
What is nagele’s rule ?
EDD = LMP - 3 months + 7 days
903
Micrognathia is seen especially with ?
Trisomy 18
904
What is the ventricle like with alobar holoprosencephaly ?
Monoventricle
905
What is absent with lobar holoprosencephaly?
CSP & Olfactory tracts
906
Fetal skin shouldn’t be greater than ?
5 mm
907
Omphaloceles containing bowel have a greater risk of ?
Associated chromosomal abnormalities
908
Most common tumor of female pelvis
Leimyoma
909
Anytime you see a uterine anomaly, you should look at the _____
Kidneys
910
Hormonal IUD
- mirena | - progestasert
911
Nonhormonal iuds
- copper coated - Paragard - copper T
912
Describe secretory phase
8-16 mm Day 15-28
913
Describe endometrium during early proliferative phase
Hypoechoic 4-8 mm
914
During menses, what does the endometrium look like ?
Thin, 1-4 mm
915
Is high or low resistance vital to ovaries?
Low
916
In follicular phase, the ovarian arteries will have ______ flow
Low velocity, high resistance
917
Fetal syndrome associated with microcephaly, occipital encephalocele, polydactyly, & polycystic kidneys
Meckel-Gruber Syndrome
918
What causes a bladder outlet obstruction?
Posterior urethral valve
919
Most common cause of hydronephrosis & most common form of fetal renal obstruction
UPJ obstruction
920
Renal pelvis shouldn’t exceed ____ prior to 20 weeks
7 mm
921
Way in which gene is inherited, both parents must be carriers
Autosomal recessive
922
Disorder inherited by fetus, atleast 1 parent is a carrier
Autosomal dominant
923
Membrane present during early embryonic development that contribute to bladder formation & development
Allantois
924
Cyst found within umbilical cord
Allantoic cyst
925
Does omphalocele or gastroschisis have a BETTER outcome?
Gastroschisis
926
Most common fetal liver abnormality
Hepatomegaly
927
_____ will most often lead to visualization of dilated fetal rectum
Anotectal atresia
928
Herniation if abdominal contents thru a right sided periumbilical abdomen wall defect
Gastroschisis
929
Fetal heart is fully formed by week ?
10 weeks
930
Blood returning from the lungs thru the pulmonary veins enters into ?
Left atrium
931
Normal opening in the lower third of atrial septum
Foramen ovale
932
Most common heart defect
VSD
933
Rhabdomyomas are associated with ?
Tuberous sclerosis
934
Fetal lung maturity can be assessed by using ?
LS ratio
935
_______ should be positioned anterior to sorta & should be seen crossing over it
Pulmonary artery
936
Where is the mitral valve located ?
Between left ventricle & left atrium
937
‘Bag wing’ sign is indicative of ?
Pleural effusion
938
Lack of muscle in dome of diaphragm is called ?
Eventration of diaphragm
939
Where is the tricuspid valve located ?
Between right ventricle & right atrium
940
Separate mass of nonfunctional lung tissue
Pulmonary sequestration
941
Most common cause of cardiac malposition
Diaphragmatic hernia
942
The moderator band is located within the ?
Right ventricle
943
Most common form of diaphragmatic hernia
Foramen of Bockdalek
944
Fetal shunt that connects pulmonary artery to aortic arch
Ductus arteriosis
945
Most common fetal cardiac tumor
Rhabdomyoma
946
echogenic focus within heart can be associated with ?
Trisomy 21
947
Echogenic cardiac focus is often seen within ?
Left ventricle
948
Opening within the septum that desperate the right & left ventricle
VSD
949
When does the trilaminar embryonic disc form ?
During gastrulation
950
TTTS is specific to what kind of twins?
Monochorionic/Monozygotic
951
Twin growth is similar to Singleton growth until about ?
30 weeks
952
Twins resulting from fertilization of 1 single ovum
Monozygotic
953
A molar pregnancy that’s considered invasive but doesn’t metastasize
Chorioadenoma destruens
954
Normal CI
74 - 83 %
955
A CI of 61% suggests ?
Dolicocephaly
956
Cephalad means ?
Towards the top of the head
957
Cerebellar measurements can be used to estimate gestational age but lose accuracy after ?
20 weeks
958
Benign vascular tumor of placenta
Chorioangioma
959
When the umbilical cord inserts at edge of placenta
Battledore/marginal
960
Cephalic is AKA
Vertex
961
Malformation or malpositioning of tricuspid valve results in ?
Ebstein anomaly
962
Blood from the right ventricle can flow they the ductus arteriosis & into the _____
Descending aorta
963
Blood is shunted directly into the IVC via a small branch of umbilical vein called ____
Ductus venosus
964
Heart chamber closest to fetal spine
Left atrium
965
The embryonic heart begins as _____ then turns into ______
Starts as 2 tubes Turns into 4 chambers
966
Anomaly in which the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle & aorta arises from the right ventricle
Transposition of great vessels
967
Stage of conceptus that implants within decidualized endometrium
Blastocyst
968
Most malignant form of gestational trophobladtic disease with possible mets to liver, lungs & vagina
Choriocarcinoma
969
Breast cancer treatment drug that may alter US appearance of endometrium
Tamoxifen
970
Most common cause if postmenopausal bleeding
Endometrial atrophy
971
Most common for of endometrial carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
972
Colpocephaly is commonly associated with ?
Agenesis of corpus callosum
973
A clover leaf skull is commonly associated with which skeletal dysplasia ?
Thanatophoric dysplasia
974
Why is potter syndrome always lethal?
Bilateral renal agenesis & pulmonary hypoplasia
975
If S/D ratio is greater than ______, IUGR is suspected
3
976
The fetal structures within an omphalocele are protected by a membrane composed of ?
Amnion & peritoneum
977
_______ occurs secondary to ectopic when fetus is too large to be absorbed. Also protects mom from infection * calcified fetus
Lithopedion
978
Mom feeling the baby move is called ?
Quickening
979
Too long & too narrow head shape
Dolicocephaly
980
Epiphyseal centers won’t be identified in US until after ?
30 weeks
981
Calculating EDD by adding 9 months + 7 days to LMP is according to ?
Naegele’s rule
982
CI is used to calculate ?
Head shape
983
Formula used to calculate CI
BFD/OFD x 100
984
Fetal lung maturity is best determined by ?
Amniocentesis
985
A placenta with 2 equally sized lobes connected by vessels
Bipartite placenta
986
A ring shaped placenta that attaches circumferentially to myometrium is called ?
Annular
987
Accessory lobe placenta
Succenturiate
988
What is likely to occur if placental implantation occurs close to a large fibroid ?
Placental abruption
989
A pt with possible placenta previa who is actively bleeding should be scanned how ?
Perineally
990
Normal angle of fetal heart
45 degrees to left of ML
991
RVOT & LVOT show ?
Pulmonary artery & ascending aorta
992
What provides important prognostic info about fetal renal functional ?
AFI @ 15 weeks
993
Right ventricle can be identified by ?
Moderator band in lower part of ventricle
994
If fluid filled stomach isn’t seen in LUQ, you should suspect ?
Esophageal atresia
995
Lab tests used to evaluate for NTDs of Downs
- quad screen -MSAFP - CVS _ amnioncentesis
996
Fetal presentation refers to ?
Part of fetus expected to be delivered first
997
Is the ulna or radius longer proximally?
Ulna
998
Normal fetal renal growth
1 mm per week
999
Distal femoral epiphysis is demonstrated sonographically @ ?
33-35 weeks
1000
How is thoracic circumference measured ?
In true trans @ level of the heart
1001
The great vessels form the ?
RVOT & LVOT
1002
Approximately what percent of blood flows through the Forman ovale into the left atrium?
40%
1003
Which view best demonstrates the diaphragm
Coronal
1004
Echogenic foci in left ventricle is likely seen @ the level of ?
Chordae tendinae papillary muscle
1005
Most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction
Posterior urethral valves
1006
Bladder of a male fetus is sometimes enlarged because of ?
Posterior urethra valves
1007
Fetal kidneys begin development as ?
Pronephroi
1008
Fetal kidneys are fully developed by _____ - after metanephroi have descended into abdomen
Week 11
1009
When do fetal kidneys begin to develop?
Beginning of week 6
1010
Process in which 3 germ cell layers are formed is called ?
Gastrulation
1011
When does trilaminar embryonic disc form?
During gastrulation
1012
If a patient is 10 weeks & presents with pregnancy induced HTN, you suspect?
Hydatiform mole
1013
What 2 procedure are used to treat an incompetent cervix?
- McDonald procedure | - shirodkar cerclage
1014
Approximately when does normal embryonic midgut herniation occur ?
8 weeks
1015
Normal yolk sac diameter
2-6 mm
1016
At what gestational age is 1/2 of endometrial canal occupied ?
8 weeks
1017
Area located between arachnoid membrane & pia meter
Subarachnoid space
1018
Dolicocephaly is AKA
Scaphocephaly
1019
Normal CI
76-90%
1020
Intracranial findings in spina bifida are secondary to ?
Arnold Chiari
1021
Hormone responsible for final maturation of follicle & for ovulation is ?
LH
1022
Most common pelvic mass encountered during pregnancy
Corpus luteum
1023
A dilated fetal bladder with “keyhole” sign in male fetus is indicative of ?
PUV obstruction
1024
Which stage of endometriosis involves ovaries
3
1025
Most common fetal thoracic abnormality
Pleural effusion
1026
If ore-implantation blastocyst splits during 1st week of gestation, it results in a ?
Dichorionic/Monoamniotic
1027
Failure of forebrain to divide results in ?
Holoprosencephaly
1028
_______ is non-lethal long bone dysplasia
Type I osteogenesis imperfecta
1029
An ovarian sexcord stromal tumor found in Maddie aged women
Fibroma
1030
Painful sex
Dyspareunia
1031
Most severe form of holoprosencephaly
Alobar
1032
What’re the 3 forms of holoprosencephaly
- alobar - lobar - semilobar
1033
Failed development of baby forebrain, cyclopia, fused thalami & proboscis are all associated with ____
Holoprosencephaly
1034
Anasaraca, TTTS, umbilical vein thrombosis $ RH isoimmunization are all indications of _____
Fetal hydrops
1035
_______ is connected to the IVC which is connected to the right atrium
Ductus venosus
1036
In which vessels could blood flow he reversed in setting of tricuspid regurgitation ?
Ductus venosus
1037
______ describes when an entire limb is shortened
Micromelia
1038
Shortening of only the distal part of limb
Mesomelia
1039
Rhizomelia is an abnormal shortening of which long bone ?
Humerus
1040
Types of histopqthologic intracranial tumors
- oligodendroglioma - sarcoma - glioblastoma - craniopharyngioma
1041
Potter sequence is associated with ?
Oligohydramnios
1042
An atrial septal defect in fetal heart may be difficult to diagnose because of the ?
Forman ovale
1043
______ happens when the lateral embryonic mesoderm has failed to migrate medically to fuse in ML
Ectopic cordis
1044
A congenital chest anomaly in which all or part of heart is located outside thoracic cavity
Ectopia cordis
1045
Primary characteristics of Ebstein anomaly
Tricuspid valve is displaced inferiorly in right ventricle
1046
Fetal pleural effusion is AKA
Hydrothorax
1047
Another name for ASD
Endocardial cushion defect
1048
_______ results from premature closure of coronal & lamboidal sutures
Cloverleaf skull
1049
Cloverleaf skull is AKA
Kleeblattschadel
1050
A skull shaped like a cloverleaf is mostly associated with ?
Thanatophoric dwarfism
1051
Fetal skin edema is ?
Anasarca
1052
_____ refers to bilateral renal agenesis
Classic potter sequence
1053
Which umbilical cord anomaly is likely to cause death ?
Cord stricture (thrombus)
1054
Maternal blood test that includes an analysis of hCG, afp, estriol & inhibin A
Quadruple screen
1055
Protein produced by placenta
Pregnancy associated plasma protein A
1056
Superior portion of cervix closest to isthmus
Internal os
1057
Medical interventions that could be used to remove retained products of conception
- D&C - D&E - labor induction
1058
Ligament that housed the vasculature of uterus
Cardinal ligament
1059
Pelvic bones, if seen, will appear ?
Hyperechoic
1060
Bladder, uterus & ovaries are all located within ?
True pelvis
1061
The peripheral arteries of the uterus are ?
Arcuate arteries
1062
Uterine artery branches off the ?
Internal iliac
1063
Long axis of uterus deviating left of ML
Levoverted uterus
1064
Malignant manifestation of leiomyoma
Leiomyosarcoma
1065
Benign, smooth muscle tumor or uterus
Leiomyoma
1066
Fibroid located within myometrium
Intramural fibroid
1067
Fibroid located within uterine cavity
Intracavitary fibroid
1068
Surgical repair of uterine septum in a septate uterus using hysteroscopy
Hysteroscopic uterine septoplasty
1069
Occlusion or imperforation of vagina
Vaginal atresia
1070
Complete duplication of uterus, cervix & vagina
Uterus didelphys
1071
Vaginal anomaly where the hymen has no opening, resulting in obstruction of vagina
Imperforate hymen
1072
The ovary is supplied blood by the ?
Ovarian & uterine artery
1073
Paired embryonic ducts that develop into female urogenital tract
Müllerian duct
1074
Procedure used to block blood supply to a leiomyoma
Uterine artery embolization
1075
First 4 weeks after birth is considered?
Neonatal
1076
Late proliferative phase is also called ?
Periovulatory phase
1077
The ovary produces ______, which influences the endometrium
Estrogen & progesterone
1078
The hypothalamus releases _____, which influences the anterior pituitary gland
GnRH
1079
Cells of follicles that produce estrogen
Theca internal cells
1080
Coiled arteries that supply blood to the functional layer of endometrium
Spiral arteries
1081
2nd phase of endometrial cycle
Secretory phase
1082
1st phase of endometrial cycle
Proliferative phase
1083
2nd phase of ovarian cycle
Luteal phase
1084
1st phase of ovarian cycle
Follicular
1085
Leukocytosis would most likely be associated with ?
PID
1086
What Doppler artifact occurs when the sampling rate isn’t high enough to display Doppler shift frequency ?
Aliasing
1087
Which artifact could be noted coming down from air or gas within the endometrium in a patient with endometritis
Ring-down
1088
Malignant ovarian tumors that may leak mucinous material
Pseudomyoxoma peritonei
1089
Which lab test would be most useful to evaluate a patient with suspected internal hemorrhage?
Hematocrit
1090
Which lab test may be used as a tumor marker for an ovarian dysgerminoma?
Lactate dehydrogenase
1091
The “S” in STAR criteria stands for ?
Smooth walls
1092
A decrease in hematocrit indicates ?
Bleeding
1093
of kids carried to term
Para
1094
of pregnancies
Gravida
1095
A simple cyst can be described as ? | STAR
- Smooth walls - good thru Transmission - Anechoic - Round
1096
A breast cancer drug that inhibits effects of estrogen in breast
Tamoxifen
1097
US frequency returning to the probe theatre generated by shifts in phase & frequency within tissue itself
Harmonic
1098
The purpose of using spatio temporal imaging correlation (STIC)
Increase image quality
1099
A fused thalamus is identified with which abnormalities?
Alobar & semilobar holoprosencephaly
1100
If the liver is herniated into the thoracic cavity, fetal survival rate is significantly ?
Reduced
1101
Pentalogy of Cantrell consists of?
- sternum defect - diaphragmatic defect - omphalocele - intracardiac anomalies - ectopia cordis
1102
Oligohydramnios is often associated with ?
Pulmonary hypoplasia
1103
Most common cause of pleural effusion is ?
Chylothorax
1104
Foreshortening of all portions of the limb
Micromelia
1105
Foreshortening of proximal long bone
Rhizomelia
1106
Foreshortened distal limbs
Mesomelia
1107
Most common anomaly of umbilical cord
Single umbilical artery
1108
If you see hypoplastic left heart in a female fetus, what fetal syndrome should be suspected ?
Turner syndrome
1109
Most common type of conjoined twin
Thoracopagus
1110
Most common cause of death in lethal skeletal dysplasia
Pulmonary hypoplasia
1111
Choroid plexus cysts are associated with which trisomy ?
18
1112
What should be closely evaluated with Eagle Barrett Syndrome ? AKA prune bell syndrome
Kidneys & bladder
1113
Rounded head with cephalic index > 85%
Brachycephaly
1114
Micrognathia is seen with ?
Polyhydramnios
1115
Absence of hands
Acheira
1116
Absence of foot or feet
Apodia
1117
Absence of hands and feet
Acheiropodia
1118
Most commonly reported intrauterine infection
Cytomegalovirus
1119
Trisomy 21 is commonly seen with which heart defect?
AVSD
1120
What Doppler information is necessary to calculate pulsatity index ?
Peak systolic velocity & end diastolic velocity
1121
If a molar pregnancy is expected, which blood work would you pay attention to?
BhCG
1122
Lithium isebfuting pregnancy is commonly associated with which heart anomaly?
Ebstein anomaly
1123
If you were scanning for a neuroblastoma, what would you scan?
Adrenals
1124
Postmenopausal ovaries shouldn’t exceed ?
2 cm or 8 cc
1125
The neural tube closes by week ?
6
1126
If the spine is at 12 o’clock & the stomach is at 3 o’clock then the fetus is ?
Vertex
1127
If the spine is at 12 o’clock & the stomach is at 9 o’clock then the fetus is ?
Breech
1128
IRP levels for transabdominal ultrasound ____ is the minimum bhCG for identifying an intrauterine pregnancy
4000
1129
Shortening of thigh & upper arm bones
Rhizomelia
1130
Best time to visualize an endometrial polyp
Just after menses in early proliferative phase when the endometrium is thinnest
1131
Best way to measure FL
When the femur is closest to face of probe & beam is perpendicular to length of femur
1132
The uterine artery is best visualized with PW Doppler & level of ?
Cervix
1133
If arhinia is present, the fetus should be evaluated for which anomaly?
Proboscis
1134
Which ratio is useful in diagnosing skeletal dysplasia ?
Femur/Foot
1135
Where should placental thickness be measured ?
@ cord insert site
1136
Which fetal karyotyping procedure will provide the quickest results?
Percuteaneous umbilical blood sampling. {PUBS}
1137
What is performed to obtain a sample of trophoblastic tissue (chorion frondosum) for karyotyping ?
Chorionic Villus sampling {CVS}
1138
How to calculate gestational age in days
CRL + 42
1139
Organogenesis refers to development of the organs of the body and is completed by week ____
8
1140
Cardiac activity can be seen is an embryo with a CRL of ____
5 mm @ 6 weeks
1141
Embryo development stages
Zygote - cleavage - morula - blastocyst
1142
Which hormone is responsible for symptoms of early pregnancy such as N&V ?
Progesterone
1143
Outer lips or flaps of skin covering vaginal opening
Major labia
1144
Inner lips or flaps of skin covering vaginal opening, smaller than labia major
Minor labia
1145
Imaginary line connecting superior sacrum to symphysis pubis
Lines terminalis
1146
Fatty prominence covering the symphysis pubis
Mons pubis
1147
Highly innervated area that lies below the junction of labia majora
Clitoris
1148
If the spine is at 12 o’clock & the stomach is at 3 o’clock then the fetus is ?
Vertex
1149
If the spine is at 12 o’clock & the stomach is at 9 o’clock then the fetus is ?
Breech
1150
IRP levels for transabdominal ultrasound ____ is the minimum bhCG for identifying an intrauterine pregnancy
4000
1151
Shortening of thigh & upper arm bones
Rhizomelia
1152
Best time to visualize an endometrial polyp
Just after menses in early proliferative phase when the endometrium is thinnest
1153
Best way to measure FL
When the femur is closest to face of probe & beam is perpendicular to length of femur
1154
The uterine artery is best visualized with PW Doppler & level of ?
Cervix
1155
If arhinia is present, the fetus should be evaluated for which anomaly?
Proboscis
1156
Which ratio is useful in diagnosing skeletal dysplasia ?
Femur/Foot
1157
Where should placental thickness be measured ?
@ cord insert site
1158
Which fetal karyotyping procedure will provide the quickest results?
Percuteaneous umbilical blood sampling. {PUBS}
1159
What is performed to obtain a sample of trophoblastic tissue (chorion frondosum) for karyotyping ?
Chorionic Villus sampling {CVS}
1160
How to calculate gestational age in days
CRL + 42
1161
Organogenesis refers to development of the organs of the body and is completed by week ____
8
1162
Cardiac activity can be seen is an embryo with a CRL of ____
5 mm @ 6 weeks
1163
Embryo development stages
Zygote - cleavage - morula - blastocyst
1164
Which hormone is responsible for symptoms of early pregnancy such as N&V ?
Progesterone
1165
Outer lips or flaps of skin covering vaginal opening
Major labia
1166
Inner lips or flaps of skin covering vaginal opening, smaller than labia major
Minor labia
1167
Imaginary line connecting superior sacrum to symphysis pubis
Lines terminalis
1168
Fatty prominence covering the symphysis pubis
Mons pubis
1169
Highly innervated area that lies below the junction of labia majora
Clitoris
1170
The connecting vessel from the main pulmonary trunk to the descending aorta found in fetal circulation
Ductus arteriosus
1171
Cardia chmaber closest to chest wall
Right ventricle
1172
Opening in base of skull where spinal cord exits
Foramen magnum
1173
Mass that results from spina bifida that contains spinal cord & meninges
Myelomeningocele
1174
Condition in which a cyst caused by intraparenchymal hemorrhage, communicated with lateral ventricles
Porencephaly
1175
Innermost layer of meninges
Pia meter
1176
Functional part of an organ
Parenchyma
1177
Obstruction of CSF from a source WITHIN ventricular system
Noncommunicating hydrocephalus
1178
Obstruction of CSF from a source OUTSIDE of ventricular system
Communicating hydrocephalus
1179
Early embryonic structure that develops into central nervous system
Neural plate
1180
Mass that results from spina bifida that contains spinal cord & meninges
Myelomeningocele
1181
Having 1 large ventricle
Monoventricle
1182
Having a small head
Microcephaly
1183
Normal head shape
Mesocephalic
1184
Herniation of cranial or spinal meninges because of an open spinal or cranial defect
Meningocele
1185
Covering of brain & spinal cord
Meninges
1186
Where is the ethmoid bone located?
Anterior - between orbits
1187
Premature fusion of sutures
Craniosynostosis
1188
AVM that occurs within fetal brain & is often associated with CHF
Vein of Galen aneurysm
1189
Which trisomy is often associated with holoprosencephaly?
Trisomy 13
1190
Which trisomy is workany Syndrome 2?
8
1191
Fetus with 3 of every chromosome
Triploidy
1192
What does TORCH stand for?
``` T - toxoplasmosis O - Other R - rubella C - cytomegalovirus H - herpes simplex ```
1193
Most common lethal skeletal dysplasia characterized by cloverleaf skull with frontal bossing & hydrocephalus
Thanatophoric dysplasia
1194
Brain structure that allows communication between senses
Thalamus
1195
Flexible connective tissue that lies between cranial bones
Sutures
1196
Typically with miscarriage, serum hCG levels will be ?
Decreased
1197
What does DRIP stand for?
D - demise R - renal anomalies I - IUGR P - PROM
1198
Women 40+ have a higher chance of having which kind of twins ?
Dizygotic
1199
Cyclopia is often associated with which trisomy?
Trisomy 13
1200
Which percent of monozygotic twins will be monoamniotic ?
1-2%
1201
Which percentage of dizygotic twins are dichorionic ?
100%
1202
Which kind of twins of specific to TTTS?
Monozygotic
1203
Which ratio is most sensitive to evaluate for asymmetric IUGR?
FL/AC
1204
Fetal bradycardia is a HR less than ?
100 bpm
1205
Orbital distance measurement would be most helpful for ?
Holoprosencephaly
1206
Longest bone in forearm
Ulna
1207
Rhogam is administered to mother during pregnancy to prevent ?
Eryhtroblastosis fetalis
1208
Fallopian tubes extend from the ____ of the uterus
Cornua
1209
Right ovarian vein drains into ?
IVC
1210
Left ovarian vein drains into ?
Left renal vein
1211
Skeletal anomaly associated with in-utero fractures
Osteogenesis imperfecta type II
1212
Lack of ultrasound seeing cerebral hemispheres & cranium is diagnostic of ?
Anencephaly
1213
Meigs syndrome includes ?
- ovarian fibroma - ascites - pleural effusion
1214
Functional cysts found in presence of elevated hCG levels
Theca lutein cysts
1215
Amenorrhea, hirsutism, & obesity are clinical features of ?
Stein-leventhal Syndrome
1216
PCOS is AKA
Stein-leventhal Syndrome
1217
Permanent form of birth control seen as an echogenic, linear, structures within the lumen of bilateral ischemic portions of tubes
Essure devices
1218
T shaped iud
Mirena
1219
Most severe form of spina bifida
Spina aperta
1220
Encephaloceles are usually found in which region?
Occipital
1221
__________ - associated with trisomy 13 - cleft defects of face - absent corpus callosum - usually fatal
Alobar holoprosencephaly
1222
______ is characterized by large monoventricle with fused thalami
Alobar holoprosencephaly
1223
Least severe form of holoprosencephaly
Lobar
1224
Bioeffect that results from compression and rarefaction of medium as an acoustic wave travels through
Cavitation
1225
Only Doppler ultrasound morality that lermits the quantification of flow states with angle correction velocity measurement
Pulsed-wave spectral Doppler
1226
Spectral Doppler measurement that provides best indicator of diastolic runoff into distal vascular bed
Pulsatility index
1227
Best for demonstrating bony structures when in 3D
Maximum-intensity projections
1228
Equally spaced, bright lenient echoes resulting from repeated reflections from speculation type interfaces
Reverberations
1229
Math expression of Doppler effect
Fa = Fr - F1
1230
Low frequency is associated with ?
Better special resolution
1231
High frequency is associated with ?
Less penetration
1232
Indicator of potential for thermal bio effects, or heating of tissue
Thermal index (TI)
1233
Method of quantifying the potential for ultrasonic healing of human tissue is ?
Thermal index
1234
Early diastolic flow reduction is describing ?
Diastolic notch
1235
Ultrasound travels fastest thru ?
Bone
1236
What does mechanical index (MI) measure ?
Negative acoustic pressure present in medium
1237
Simplest & least technologically complicated method of displaying blood flow info
Continuous wave Doppler
1238
Parameters of flow Doppler uses
- absence - pulsatility - presence - direction
1239
2 most common uses of 3D imaging
- cardiology | - obgyn
1240
Formula for RI
PSV - EDV divides by PSV
1241
_____ is calculated for quantitive assessment of pelvic organs
RI
1242
Doppler info is obtained from analyzing & displaying
Rayleigh backscatter
1243
Soft tissue of fetal face Are well displayed using ?
Surface rendering
1244
Spectral Doppler control that adjusts the number of heartbeats displayed on screen
Sweep speed
1245
How to measure uterus
Aerosol surface of fundus to external os
1246
- look @ anatomy with oligohydramnios - test for PROM - shunt placement for bladder outlet These would all be reasons to do a ____
Amniofusion
1247
____ is when saline is introduced to uterine cavity
Amniofusion
1248
Protein produced by yolk sac, gi tract, liver & can also be produced by some malignant tumors
AFP
1249
Pseudoprecocious puberty has been linked to?
Ovarian, adrenal & liver tumors
1250
True precocious puberty is associated with ______ or can be ideopathic?
Intracranial tumors
1251
Largest part of uterus
Corpus
1252
One of the most common mulleriN duct anomalies
Septate uterus
1253
What could cause a newborn baby girls endometrium to be thickened?
Baby’s endometrium is being stimulated by moms hormones
1254
Arteries that directly supply blood to functional layer of endometrium
Spiral arteries
1255
The right ovarian artery branches off the ____
Aorta
1256
Pelvic muscle group located between coccyx & pubis
Levator ani muscles
1257
Pelvic muscles appear ?
Hypoechoic
1258
Which vessels supply blood to the deepest layers of myometrium
Radial arteries
1259
The true pelvis is delineated from the false pelvis by the ____
Linea terminalis
1260
Innominate bones of the pelvis
- ischium - ilium - pubic bones
1261
Anterior cul de sac is aka
Vesicouterine pouch
1262
The uterine arteries supply blood to the ?
- Fallopian tubes - uterus - ovaries
1263
Both the straight & the spiral arteries are branches of ?
Radial artery
1264
What structure within the pelvis lies posterior to the bladder & anterior to the rectum
Uterus
1265
Uterine radial arteries that supply blood to the basal layer of endometrium
Straight arteries
1266
Tiny, coiled arteries that supply blood to the functional layer of endometrium
Spiral arteries
1267
What all is tested in a triple screen ?
- hCG - afp - estriol
1268
Peptide hormone secreted by placenta
Inhibin A
1269
Estrogenic hormone produced by placenta
Estriol
1270
Which mass is considered androgenic?
Arrhenoblastoma
1271
With Doppler, most malignant ovarian tumors that yield flow signals are ?
Low impedance
1272
Postmenopausal endometrium shouldn’t measure more than ? With hormones ?
5 mm 8 mm with hormones
1273
_____ is when eggs are fertilized in a Petri dish & introduced to Fallopian tube
ZIFT
1274
Lab value compared to ultrasound to see when ovary is ready to ovulate
Estradiol
1275
Hormone in females that stimulates cervical mucus production
Estrogen
1276
Hormone used to trigger ovulation
HCG
1277
Which ovarian tumor would cause preprecocious puberty
Granulosa cell tumor
1278
Most likely cause of hematometra
Imperforate hymen
1279
Most common cause of gonadal dysplasia
Turner syndrome
1280
Female pseudohemaphtoditism is most often caused by?
Adrenal hyperplasia
1281
Fertilization usually occurs how many hours after ovulation?
24-36 hours
1282
For TV, 2nd IS should be greater than it equal to ?
1000
1283
For TV, FIRP should be greater than it equal to ?
2000
1284
How does the 2nd internal standard for bhCG compare to the 1st FIRP ?
2nd is 1/2 of FIRP
1285
Ovulation usually occurs when a follicle reaches ?
2.5 cm
1286
The ureter & iliac vessels located posterior to the ?
Ovaries
1287
Muscles most frequently mistaken for enlarged ovaries
Piriformis
1288
Where are iliac vessels located to the ovaries
Lateral
1289
Doppler waveforms of uterine artery
High velocity, high resistance
1290
Floor of the pelvis is formed by the ?
Levator ani muscles
1291
Normal cervical length in a nulliparous patient?
2-3 cm
1292
Another word for the serosa layer of the uterus
Perimetrium
1293
Using the 2md standard for bhCG levels should allow you to see a normal iup transabdominally at ?
1800
1294
Hypogastric artery is aka
Internal iliac artery
1295
Excessive & prolonged bleeding at irregular intervals
Menometrorrhagia
1296
You should be able to see a normal gestational sac transabdominally when 1st IRP (FIRP) level for bhCG is equal to or greater than ?
3600 mIu/ml
1297
Fertilization usually occurs in the ?
Ampulla
1298
Levator ani muscles are seen in transverse at the same level as the ?
Vagina
1299
What area should be looked at on Doppler on uterine artery?
Lateral to cervix near internal os
1300
During ovulation, a dominant follicle can grow at a rate of ?
2-3 mm per day
1301
Hormone responsible for pms & early pregnancy
Progesterone
1302
FSH is produced by the ?
Pituitary gland
1303
Endometrial proliferation is stimulated by ?
Estrogen
1304
Biochemical measurement used to assess risk for chromosomal defects
Pappa-preg associated plasma protein
1305
Right after the ovum is fertilized? It’s a ___
Zygote
1306
Satisfactory TV probe cleansers
- cidex - transeptic - sporiciden - bleach
1307
When should peristalsis of fetal bowel usually be seen ?
Late in 2nd trimester
1308
At what point does AFI stop riding and plateaus then declines until birth
Approximately 33 weeks
1309
Lateral bone of forearm if in anatomical position
Radius
1310
Most anterior heart chamber
Right ventricle
1311
Most posterior heart chamber
Left atrium
1312
Normal direction of flow through the foramen ovale
Right atrium to left atrium
1313
Fetal testicle normally descend into the scrotum between ____ & ____ weeks
26-34
1314
Most common type of twins
Dizygotic
1315
< 2 mm thick membrane between 2 fetuses indicates _____ twins ?
Monochorionic
1316
What is the choroid plexus responsible for ?
Production of CSF
1317
If a normal cranium isn’t identified by the end of week _____, cranial anomalies should be suspected
15th week
1318
The post parturition period usually last how long?
6-8 weeks
1319
The corpus callosum is completely formed by week ____
18
1320
Ratio of kidney diameter to abdominal diameter should stay between _____ for the entire pregnancy
0.23-0.27
1321
Which 2 muscles form the pelvic diaphragm?
Levator ani & coccygeus
1322
LH is produced by the ?
Pituitary gland
1323
Which early embryonic structures produce progesterone?
Trophoblastic cells
1324
Most common occurring germ cell tumor
Benign cystic teratoma
1325
Most common complication of a germ cell tumor of ovary
Torsion
1326
Which ovarian tumor contains both epithelial and stromal components
Cystadenofibroma
1327
Preeclampsia is the first trimester is most commonly associated with ?
Molar pregnancy
1328
The formation of bilateral solid ovarian neoplasms is highly suspicious for ?
Krukenberg tumors
1329
What cardiac defect is most common in Ellis van Creveld syndrome?
ASD
1330
Which pedal anomaly is commonly associated with trisomy 13 & 18 ?
Rocker bottom foot
1331
Absence of hands
Acheira
1332
Absence of foot or feet
Apodia
1333
Absence of hands & feet
Acheiropodia
1334
Colpocephaly is commonly associated with ?
Agenesis of corpus callosum
1335
Esophageal atresia is a significant indication of which trisomy?
18
1336
AV canal defect is the combination of ?
Ostium primum ASD and inlet VSD
1337
An asymmetric facial cleft is commonly caused by ?
Amniotic band sequence
1338
Obstruction of the ica that leads to cerebral tissue destruction is referring to ?
Hydranencephaly
1339
Most common abnormality if umbilical cord
Single artery
1340
Which renal disorder is fatal soon after birth?
Autosomal recessive PCKD
1341
Most common type of conjoined twins
Thoracopagus
1342
Which skeletal anomaly usually occurs as an isolated finding?
Talipes equinovarus
1343
A mother presents with a history of heterozygous achondroplasia. The father doesn’t share this characteristic. What is the chance that their fetus will have the same skeletal dysplasia?
50%
1344
Chiari II malformation is strongly associated with ?
Open spina bifida
1345
What is the placenta like with triploidy?
> 4 cm thickness
1346
Meninges & brain tissue herniation thru a bony defect in the calvarium
Encephalocele
1347
Absent CSP & septo-optic dysplasia and common findings seen with ?
Holoprosencephaly & schizencephaly
1348
A cystic hygrometer contains?
Lymphatic fluid
1349
Which trisomy is associated with choroid plexus cysts?
18
1350
Which type of osteogenesis imperfecta has the poorest prognosis?
Type 2
1351
Hirschsprung disease would most likely be associated with ?
Multiple dilated loops of bowel
1352
Pedal anomaly associated with spina bifida
Talipes (clubfoot)
1353
A fetus with male genetalia & ovaries
46 xx
1354
A fetus with female genetalia & testes
46 xy
1355
A trident hand is commonly seen with which skeletal anomaly?
Heterozygous achondroplasia