OB chapter 53&53 Flashcards

1
Q

Caudal regression syndrome is found in patients with what?

A

Diabetes
also diabetes can cause macrosomic, shoulder dystocia at birth(over4500g) or brachial plexus nerve injuries from birth.
poly may be present
PROM

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2
Q

What term defines the apperance of over lapping skull bones that indicates fetal death?

A

spaldings sign

others signs of fetal demise:
absent heartbeat, or movement, an exaggerated curvature of the fetal spine, or gas in the fetal abdomen

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3
Q

Sonographic findings of fetal hydrops:

A

Scalp edema, pleural and pericardial effusions, ascites
If hydrops the result of cardiac tachyarrhythmia, HR of 200 to 240 bpm is common

If diaphragmatic hernia present, bowel visible in chest cavity

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4
Q

If hydrops are caused by tachycardia what would the fetal heart rate be?

A

200-240 BPM

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5
Q

Increased incident of what because the mother is a patient of size?

A

Maternal obesity associated with increased incidence of neural tube defects

More obese women start pregnancy with chronic hypertension 
 also at risk for:
Severe eclampsia 
Multiple births 
Urinary tract infections
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6
Q

What is Caudal regression syndrome?

A

lack of development of the caudal spine and cord is seen almost exclusively in diabetic individuals

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7
Q

skeletal and central nervous system defect that occur with diabetic mothers include all except the following…..

A

includes:
caudal regression syndrome,
Neural tube defects EXCLUDING anencephaly
anencephaly with or without herniation of neural elements
microcephaly

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8
Q

When is labor considered premature?

A
Before 37 weeks.
15-20% of pregnancies
premies greater risk for:
respiratory syndrome, intracranial hemorrahage, bowel immaturity, and feeding problems
Potential etiologies of preterm labor
Premature rupture of membranes
Intrauterine infection
Bleeding
Fetal anomalies
Polyhydramnios
Multiple pregnancy
Growth restriction
Maternal illness (diabetes or hypertension)
Incompetent cervix
Uterine abnormalities
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9
Q

Rare anomaly occurring in monochorionic twins where one twin doesn’t have an upper chest or heart?

A

Acardiac Anomaly
unique to twin gestations
Proposed that this occurs due to artery to artery connection in placenta that leads to perfusion of abnormal twin via co-twin

Reversed direction of blood flow in abnormal twin alters hemodynamic properties needed for normal cardiac formation.

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10
Q

Which one of the following about twin to twin transfusion is true……

A

one cause of poly-oli!!
TTS exists when there is arteriovenous shunt within placenta

Arterial blood of one twin is pumped into venous system of other twin

Donor twin becomes anemic and growth restricted

one Twin has less blood flow through kidneys, urinates less, develops oligohydramnios

other:
Recipient twin gets too much blood flow
Twin may be normal or large in size
Fetus has excess blood flow through kidneys and urinates too much, leading to polyhydramnios
Twin may even go into heart failure and become hydropic

both twins at risk of dying
Smaller one because its nutritional and oxygen rich blood supply is severely restricted
Larger one because of heart failure

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11
Q

Poly-oli is?

A

“stuck twin” characterized by a diamniotic pregnancy with polyhydramnios in one sac and severe oligo and a smaller twin in the other sac
usually manifests by 16-26 weeks(know!)
may result from fetal anomality in one sac causing poly= pressing other or could be caused by TTS
Treatments for stuck twin syndrome include:
Serial amniocentesis
Selective feticide
Umbilical cord ligation of one twin
Laser occlusion of anastomosing placental vessels

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12
Q

When does the conjoined twins happen after conception?

A

Occur from incomplete division of embryo after 13 days from conception

Five types of conjoined twins
Thoracopagus (joined at thorax) 
Omphalopagus (joined at anterior wall) 
Craniopagus (joined at cranium; syncephalus is conjoined twins with one head) 
Pygopagus (joined at ischial region) 
Ischiopagus (attached at buttocks)
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13
Q

Diamnioic and Dichorionic pregnancies demonstrates what sonographic findings?

A

2 amnions 2 chorions (can be from monozygotic twins that seperated 0-4 days postconception or can be dizygotic twins with means they are separtately fertilized egg and have its each of everything)

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14
Q

If the division of one ferilized egg (monozygotic) happens 4-8 days after Fertilization what happens?

A

there will be one chorion and two amniotic sacs (monochorionic,diamniotic)

chorionic = # of placentas
0-4 ( dichorionic,diamnioic)
4-8 ( monochorionic,diamniotic)
after 8 days (monochorionic,monoamniotic)
after 13 days conjoined twins possible
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15
Q

Predictors of the discordance of the growth of twins?

A

A differnce in setimated fetal weight of mote than 20% a diff in BPD of 6mm a diff in AC of 20mm and a diff in femur lenght of 5 mm

stuck twin, poli-oli, twin to twin transfussion
Fetal surveillance increased when growth discordance, oligohydramnios, or polyhydramnios discovered

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16
Q

Most frequent cause of nonimmune hydrops?

A

Cardiovascular lesions often most frequent causes of NIH

Congestive heart failure may result from functional cardiac problems, as well as from structural anomalies

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17
Q

advantages to chorionic villi sampling?

A
is dorected biopsu of the placnta or chorionic villi ( chorion frondosum, becomes placenta
10-14wks is the window
advantages: it is performed early 
results are available within 1 week
earlier results= more options
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18
Q

cordocentesis is more commonly used for which one of the following procedures?

A

for guidance for transfusions to treat fetal isoimmunizaton

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19
Q

amniocentesis may be used for all the following except:

why preform?

A

between 15-20weeks
can be used for:
relieve poly, predict Rh isoimmunization, to document fetal lung maturity and fetal chromosomes analysis.
History of balance rearrangement in parent or previous child with chromosomal abnormality
History of unexplained abnormal AFP level or abnormal triple screen
Fetus with congenital anormalty

advanced maternal age

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20
Q

twins that are from 2 separately fertilized ovum are what kind?

A

dizygotic twins(faternal)= always results in diamniotic, dichorionic

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21
Q

sonographic findings that may suggest a choronsomal anomoly include:

A

Abnormal fluid collection behind fetal neck strongly associated with aneuploidy

NT reported as late first trimester finding identified between 10 and 14 weeks of gestation
8:28

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22
Q

Tri 21 findings:

A

downs- most common
1.21 in 1000
advanced maternal age

quad:Biochemical screening in trisomy 21 fetuses reveals high hCG levels and decreased AFP and estriol levels

sono:
Nuchal thickness 
Hygroma
Heart defects 
Duodenal atresia
Shortened femurs 
Mild pyelectasis
Mild ventriculomegaly
Echogenic bowel
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23
Q

Tri 18 findings:

A

Known as Edwards’ syndrome

Second most common chromosomal trisomy

Occurs in 3 of 10,000 live births

quad:
May suggest trisomy 18 when hCG, AFP, and estriol levels are all decreased

sono:
Heart defects
Choroid plexus cysts
Clenched hands
Micrognathia
Talipes
Renal anomalies
Cleft lip and palate
Omphalocele
CDH
Cerebellar hypoplasia

Fetus with trisomy 18 will often spontaneously abort

Infants profoundly retarded

Considered lethal anomaly, with 90% of infants dying within first year of life

24
Q

Tri 13 findings:

A

Trisomy 13, known as Patau’s syndrome, occurs in 1 in 5000 – 20,000 births

Result of extra chromosome 13

Extremely severe anomaly consists of multiple anomalies; many involve brain

sono:
Holoprosencephaly 
Heart defects 
Cleft lip and palate 
Omphalocele 
Polydactyly 
Talipes 
Echogenic chordae tendineae
Renal anomalies 
Meningomyelocele 
Micrognathia 

Prognosis for trisomy 13 extremely poor, with 80% of infants dying within first month
Considered lethal anomaly
Survivors profoundly retarded, with multiple deficits and problems

25
Triploidy findings:
Result of complete extra set of chromosomes Often occurs as result of ova being fertilized by two sperm Estimated to occur in approximately 1% of conceptions; most fetuses will spontaneously abort in first trimester ``` Only 1 in 5000 will continue to 16 to 20 weeks of gestation sono: Hydatidiform placental degeneration Heart defects Renal anomalies Omphalocele Cranial defects Facial defects ``` Mosaic form of triploidy may be compatible with survival; infants affected with mental retardation
26
Turner’s Syndrome findings:
Turner’s syndrome (45 X) is genetic abnormality marked by absence of X or Y chromosome Not associated with advanced maternal age Occurs in 1 of every 2500 live births Patients may present with elevated MSAFP when cystic hygroma present ``` sono: Cystic hygroma Heart defect Hydrops Renal ab Short femurs??? Prognosis especially grave when fetus presents with large cystic hygroma and edema or hydrops Female infants who survive will have immature sexual development, amenorrhea, short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus (abnormal elbow angle), shield chest with widely spaced nipples ``` May have poor hearing Hormone replacement necessary for sexual development Usually have normal intelligence
27
What fetal structures is AFP found in?
is produced by yolk sac in early gestation and later by fetal liver AFP found in fetal spine, GI tract, liver, kidneys
28
High levels of AFP indicate what?
Neural tube defects, such as anencephaly and open spina bifida, common reasons for high AFP levels ``` , omphalocele and gastroschisis Bladder or cloacal exstrophy Ectopia cordis Limb–body wall complex Amniotic band syndrome ``` twin pregnancy In multiple gestations with death of co-twin (fetus papyraceous) or one acardiac twin, AFP may be higher than normal ``` Annular pancreas Esophageal atresia Duodenal atresia Placental lesions heart failure Severely sensitized fetuses with Rh isoimmunization ``` Liver disease in mother or fetus may cause high AFP levels ``` Rare causes of elevated AFP Hepatitis Maternal herpes virus and resultant fetal liver necrosis Skin lesions Hepatocellular carcinoma Fetal liver tumors (hamartomas ```
29
the Quad screen evaluates all of the following markers:
AFP Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) Unconjugated estriol dimeric inhibin A, improving sensitivity in detecting Down fetuses
30
abnormality in the number of chromosomes:
Aneuploidy is abnormality of number of chromosomes Chromosomal abnormalities found in 1 of every 180 live births
31
early noninvasive means of assessing the risk of aneuploidy:
NT
32
thickened NT, cardiac abn, short femur and pyelectasis?
down tri 21
33
sono findings of choroid plexus cysts, cranial anomalies, facial abnormalites, and rockerbottom feet?
tri 18 (edwards) ?
34
Holoprosencephaly and probosis is most likely to be found in a fetal with what?
Trisomy 13 (patau's)
35
Secondary to pregnancy induces hypertention, a coma, sezures, in a patient during the second and third tri represents what?
Eclampsia represents occurrence of seizures or coma in preeclamptic patient
36
Large cystic hygroma, hydrops, coarctation(split) of the aorta, seen in a fetus with what?
Turner's syndrome
37
Pregnancy-Associated Plasma Protein A, what do they do during the pregnancy?
First trimester serum marker used to detect anomalies PAPP-A is glycoprotein derived from trophoblastic tissue that is diffused into maternal circulation Levels increase in maternal serum throughout pregnancy PAPP-A levels found to be decreased in pregnancies affected by aneuploidy
38
AFP is produced early in gestation by which one of the following structures?
major protein in fetal serum; is produced by yolk sac in early gestation and later by fetal liver MSAFP levels increase with advancing gestational age and peak from 15 to 18 weeks of gestation AFAFP decreases with fetal age
39
common reason for elevated MSAFP?
incorrect dates
40
most common aneploidy condition is?
Tri 21 downs
41
Optimal collection site for an amniocentesis:
Away from fetus Away from central portion of placenta Away from umbilical cord Near maternal midline to avoid maternal uterine vessels
42
MSAFP levels increase with age and peak at what age of gestation?
15 to 18
43
Free beta-hCG can be assessed for what during the first trimester?
Can be assessed in maternal serum in first trimester to evaluate for increased risk of Down syndrome
44
After amniocentesis the sonographer should demonstrate and document what?
fetal cardiac activity and if placenta has ben travesed the sited should be monitored for bleeding
45
continuous monitoring with ultrasound is invaluable in cases of what?
oligo, anterior placental position and premature rupture of membranes
46
Fetal death when the fetus is too large to reabsorb is called what?
Fetus papyraceous | fetus is markedly flattened from loss of fluid and most of the soft tissue.
47
Low AFP levels have been found in what?
Tri 21! Biochemical screening in trisomy 21 fetuses reveals high hCG levels and decreased AFP and estriol levels May suggest trisomy 18 when hCG, AFP, and estriol levels are all decreased
48
picture of chromo called what?
karyotype 46 choro 22 pair + 1 pair of sex
49
abnormal NT, increases fetal risk for all of the following:
NT measurement should be compared with gestational age or CRL to determine risk for aneuploidy and combined with maternal age and first trimester serum screenin ``` Increased NT associated with increased incidence of structural defects Cardiac Diaphragmatic Renal Abdominal wall anomalies ``` Spontaneous miscarriage Perinatal death
50
know whats ass with turners
see other card
51
what included in a first tri serum screening?
PAPP-A and free beta hCG
52
conjoined twins
Occur from incomplete division of embryo after 13 days from conception ``` Five types of conjoined twins Thoracopagus (joined at thorax) Omphalopagus (joined at anterior wall) Craniopagus (joined at cranium; syncephalus is conjoined twins with one head) Pygopagus (joined at ischial region) Ischiopagus (attached at buttocks ```
53
autosomal dominant disorder
caused by a single defective gene usually from 1 parent 50% chance each preg will have the condition
54
autosomal recessive
caused by a pair of defective genes one from each parent each preg has a 25% chance of fetus having disorder
55
mulifactorial genetic condition
abnormal event that arises bc of the interaction of one or more genes and environmental factors- anencephaly
56
mosaicism gene mutation
occurance of a gene mutation or chromosomal abnormality in a portion of an individuals cells. diff to predict types of problems