Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

OBGYN Shelf Prep > OB > Flashcards

OB Flashcards

1
Q

Which diagnosis? “Copper penny” lesions on hands/soles

A

Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which diagnosis? “Strawberry Cervicitis”

A

Trichomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DEXA scan indicated at age __.

A

65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Most common form of inherited mental retardation

A

Fragile X Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which defects? Valproic acid (4)

A

NTDs, cardiac defects, limb defects, facial clefts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which defects? Androgens

A

Virilization of females (labial fusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which defects? Fetal hydantoin syndrome (6)

A

IUGR, microcephaly, facial defects, digital hypoplasia, developmental delay, hirsutism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which defects? Methotrexate (2)

A

skeletal defects, limb defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which defects? Retinoid acid (2)

A

NTDs, facial defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which defects? ACEIs/ARBs (5)

A

Skull defects, limb defects, renal dysgenesis/failure, oligohydramnios, pulmonary hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

NSAIDs should not be used after ___WGA

A

32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which defects? Alcohol (4)

A

IUGR, microcephaly, midface hypoplasia, CNS damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which defects? Cocaine (2)

A

Risk of placental abruption, hypo perfusion in utero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Down Syndrome Quad Screen

A

High hCG, high Inhibin A, low estriol, low AFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PAPP-A is ___ in all trisomies

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Trisomy 18 Quad Screen

A

Low hCG, low estriol, low AFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

___ WGA when fundal height is at level of umbilicus

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

AMA = age over ___ at delivery

A

35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Complications of gonococcal infection during pregnancy (2)

A

Preterm labor, neonatal blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Complications of chlamydia infection during pregnancy (2)

A

Neonatal blindness, pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Components of biophysical profile (5)

A

NST, fetal movement, fetal tone, fetal breathing, AFI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Indication for umbilical artery doppler velocity

A

IUGR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Arrest of Active Phase

A

4 hours with no cervical change (6 hours if inadequate contractions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Indications for GBS prophylaxis in GBS-unknown case (3)

A

Rupture membranes 18 hours, fever during labor, Preterm labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Recurrent late decelerations are suggestive of _____.

A

Fetal acidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which diagnosis? Fetal tachycardia with minimal variability followed by pale, lethargic neonatal with fever

A

Chorioamnionitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Complications of chorioamnionitis (3)

A

Preterm delivery, encephalopathy, cerebral palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most common cause of postpartum fever

A

Endometritis (polymicrobial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which diagnosis? severe discomfort/pain, burning pain in breasts during feeding, nipples pink/shiny/peeling

A

Candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which diagnosis? Non-erythematous fluctuant mass

A

galactocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Lactation reduces maternal risk for ____ (6)

A

endometrial/breast/ovarian cancers, osteoporosis, diabetes, weight retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Contraindications to lactation

A

Infant classic galactosemia; Maternal HIV, HSV, TB, or specific substance/medication (ab)use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

____ abortion: vaginal spotting during the first half of pregnancy – cannot determine viability of pregnancy

A

threatened

34
Q

____ abortion: abortion less than 20 weeks with cramping contractions, cervical dilation, and no passage of tissue

A

inevitable

35
Q

____ abortion: abortion less than 20 weeks with cramping contractions, passage of tissue, and continued cervical dilation

A

Incomplete

36
Q

____ abortion: abortion less than 20 weeks with cramping contractions that resolve, accompanied by passage of tissue and cervical dilation during the cramping

37
Q

Management for completed abortion

A

Follow hCG levels until negative

38
Q

Management of septic abortion (3)

A

Maintain BP, Abx, D&C (4 hours after abx)

39
Q

When to deliver: Pre-gestational DM

40
Q

Complications of syphilis for fetus/neonate (7)

A

hepatomegaly, rhinitis, skin lesions, keratitis, Hutchinson teeth, Saber shins, deafness

41
Q

Complications of HSV for fetus/neonate (3)

A

skin infection, eye infection, encephalitis

42
Q

Complications of Hepatitis C for fetus/neonate (3)

A

preterm delivery, cholestasis of pregnancy, GDM

43
Q

Complications of Parvovirus B19 for fetus/neonate (2)

A

Fetal anemia, hydrops

44
Q

Complications of CMV for fetus/neonate (6)

A

Microcephaly, periventricular calcifications, deafness, chorioretinitis/blindness, seizures, pneumonia

45
Q

Complications of Rubella for fetus/neonate (4)

A

Cataracts, deafness, cardiac defects, thrombocytopenia purpura

46
Q

Complications of Toxoplasmosis for fetus/neonate?

A

Hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications, chorioretinitis/blindness

47
Q

Most common perinatal infection worldwide

48
Q

Complications of Bacterial Vaginosis for fetus/neonate

A

Preterm labor

49
Q

Which diagnosis? Sudden dyspnea/hypoxia, hypotension (cardiogenic shock, coagulopathy (DIC); progresses to cardiac failure

A

Amniotic fluid embolism

50
Q

Thyroid medication C/I in 1st trimester

A

Methimazole (fetal scalp defects, aplasia)

51
Q

Thyroid medication with higher risk of hepatotoxicity

52
Q

Which diagnosis? Yellow or yellow-brown solid ovarian mass consisting of large cells that may cause fetal virilization; typically regress after pregnancy

53
Q

Which diagnosis? Intensely pruritic disease with erythematous patches and development of vesicles and bullae; more prominent on limbs than trunk

A

Herpes gestationis

54
Q

Which diagnosis? Severe pruritis typically more on extremities than trunk, including involvement of palms/soles

55
Q

When to deliver: Chronic HTN

56
Q

When to deliver: Gestational HTN

A

Term (37 WGA)

57
Q

Pre-eclampsia diagnostic criteria: Plt

A

Less than 100

58
Q

Pre-eclampsia diagnostic criteria: Proteinuria per day

A

Greater than 300mg

59
Q

Pre-eclampsia diagnostic criteria: Urine prot/cr ratio

A

Greater than 0.3

60
Q

Pre-eclampsia diagnostic criteria: LFTs

61
Q

Pre-eclampsia diagnostic criteria: Renal insufficiency

A

Cr greater than 1.1

62
Q

Pre-eclampsia diagnostic criteria: Alternative severe clinical features (3)

A

Pulmonary edema, visual disturbances, cerebral disturbances

63
Q

C/I to expectant management for pre-eclampsia (7)

A

Oliguria, non-reassuring FHT, eclampsia, visual disturbances, thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes, ability to control BP

64
Q

Pre-eclampsia delivery before 34 WGA

A

Mag sulfate, corticosteroids, delivery in 48 hours

65
Q

Pre-eclampsia delivery after 34 WGA

A

Mag sulfate and deliver

66
Q

Which diagnosis? Malaise, anorexia, nausea, persistent vomiting, epigastric/RUQ late in pregnancy

67
Q

Diagnostic procedure for fetal anemia

A

Middle cerebral artery peak systolic flow

68
Q

Definition of Prolonged latent phase

A

14 hours (multips) / 20 hours (nullips)

69
Q

When to Deliver: placenta accreta

70
Q

Preterm Labor Management (4)

A

Tocolytics, Steroids (before 34WGA), Ampicillin (GBS prophylaxis), Magnesium sulfate (before 32WGA)

71
Q

Intra-amniotic infections demonstrate ____ IL-6 and ___ glucose.

A

increased; decreased

72
Q

Magnesium sulfate should be given for deliveries prior to ___ WGA.

73
Q

Greatest risk factor for endometritis

74
Q

Endometritis: fever most common on post-op day __

75
Q

C-Section surgical site infection: fever most common on post-op day __

76
Q

Which diagnosis? postpartum fevers refractory to abx

A

Septic Pelvic Thrombophlebitis (Tx w/anticoagulation)

77
Q

Most common cause of fever on 1st postpartum day

78
Q

When to deliver: post-term if cervix is favorable

A

Induction at 41 WGA

79
Q

Umbilical artery doppler showing increased systolic to diastolic ratio is suggestive of ____

80
Q

When to deliver: IUGR with reverse end-diastolic flow

A

Before 32 WGA

81
Q

______: maternal thighs sharply flexed against maternal abdomen, which straightens the sacrum with the lumbar spine and rotates the pubic symphysis anteriorly

A

McRoberts Maneuver

OBGYN Shelf Prep (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions