OAB Q? Flashcards

Question 1

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Question 1: Prevalence of OAB in General Population
Clinical Vignette: You are asked to present the epidemiology of overactive bladder (OAB) in a urology conference.
Multiple Choice:
A) 7-27% in men and 9-43% in women
B) 10-30% in men and 20-40% in women
C) 5-15% in men and 10-20% in women
D) 15-35% in men and 25-45% in women

Answer

A

A
Explanation: OAB prevalence rates in large population-based studies range from 7-27% in men and 9-43% in women.
Memory Tool: Remember 7-9 (starting percentages for men and women), then 27-43 (ending percentages for men and women) to get 7-27% and 9-43%.

Question 2

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Question 2: Remission of OAB
Clinical Vignette: A 50-year-old female patient with OAB asks you about the likelihood of symptom remission.
Multiple Choice:
A) 20-30%
B) 37-39%
C) 50-60%
D) 70-80%

Answer

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: About 37-39% of OAB cases remit during a given year.
Memory Tool: Think “3-7-3-9”: 37-39% for remission.

Question 3

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Question 3: EPIC Study Findings
Clinical Vignette: Your colleague asks you about the OAB prevalence reported in the EPIC study.
Multiple Choice:
A) 10.8% in men and 12.8% in women
B) 11.8% overall
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The EPIC study showed an overall OAB prevalence of 11.8% with 10.8% in men and 12.8% in women.
Memory Tool: EPIC = Eleven Point Eight (11.8%) overall.

Question 4

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Question 4: NOBLE Study Focus Areas
Clinical Vignette: A medical student is curious about what the NOBLE study focused on besides OAB prevalence.
Multiple Choice:
A) Quality of life
B) Sleep
C) General mental health
D) All of the above

Answer

A

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The NOBLE study focused on the impact of OAB on quality of life, sleep, and general mental health.
Memory Tool: NOBLE studies QSG - Quality, Sleep, General mental health.

Question 5

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Age-Related Prevalence of OAB
Question 5: Prevalence of OAB with Age in Men
Clinical Vignette: A 60-year-old male patient asks you about the prevalence of OAB symptoms in his age group.
Multiple Choice:
A) Increases steadily until 65, then a marked increase
B) Increases steadily until 70, then a sharp increase
C) Increases gradually until 55, then plateaus
D) Increases gradually until 60, then decreases

Answer

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The prevalence of OAB symptoms in men increases slowly until the age of 70 but then has a sharp increase after 75 years of age.
Memory Tool: 70-75, Sharp Rise in Men.

Question 6

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Question 6: Association of OAB and BOO
Clinical Vignette: During a case discussion, you’re asked about the relationship between OAB and benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).
Multiple Choice:
A) They rarely coexist
B) Up to 50% of men with BOO have OAB symptoms
C) OAB is usually a precursor to BOO
D) BOO is usually a precursor to OAB

Answer

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Up to 50% of men with bladder outlet obstruction (BOO) due to BPH are estimated to have OAB symptoms. This is supported by Level of evidence 1b, Grade B.
Memory Tool: Think “BPH and OAB: 50-50 chance of meeting each other.”

Question 7

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Clinical Vignette: A Canadian patient inquires about the prevalence of OAB in Canada.
Multiple Choice:
A) 14.8% in men and 21.2% in women
B) 13.1% in men and 14.7% in women
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B

Answer

A

Clinical Vignette: A Canadian patient inquires about the prevalence of OAB in Canada.
Multiple Choice:
A) 14.8% in men and 21.2% in women
B) 13.1% in men and 14.7% in women
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B

Question 8

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OAB Prevalence with Age in Women
Clinical Vignette: A 60-year-old female patient is concerned about the likelihood of developing OAB as she ages.
Multiple Choice:
A) Gradual increase until 60, then plateaus
B) Gradual increase until 70, then decreases
C) Sharp increase after 65
D) Steady increase throughout lifetime

Answer

A

: A
Explanation: The prevalence of OAB symptoms in women shows a gradual increase until the age of 60, with a leveling off seen between 60 and 70 years of age.
Memory Tool: 60-70, women’s OAB goes on a “plateau”.

Question 9

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Question 9: OAB with and without UUI in Men and Women
Clinical Vignette: During a case presentation, you’re asked to differentiate the prevalence of OAB with and without urgency urinary incontinence (UUI) in men and women.
Multiple Choice:
A) In men, OAB with UUI is more prevalent than OAB without UUI
B) In women, OAB with UUI is similar to OAB without UUI
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B

Answer

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In women, the prevalence of OAB with UUI and without UUI is similar (9.3% and 7.6%). In men, OAB without UUI is much more prevalent (13.4%) than with UUI (2.6%).
Memory Tool: Women - Similar; Men - Without UUI wins.

Question 10

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Question 10: Prevalence of Nocturia
Clinical Vignette: A patient asks about the prevalence of nocturia based on different definitions.
Multiple Choice:
A) 48.6% in men and 54.5% in women (one or more voids per night)
B) 20.9% in men and 24.0% in women (two or more voids per night)
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Using the ICS definition of nocturia as one or more voids per night, the general prevalence is 48.6% in men and 54.5% in women. When defined as two or more voids per night, it decreases to 20.9% in men and 24.0% in women.
Memory Tool: “1 or 2 voids, numbers halve” - From around 50% to around 20% with stricter definition.

Question 11

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Question 1: Measuring Quality of Life (QOL) in Bladder Disease
Clinical Vignette:
You are treating a 55-year-old male patient who has been experiencing frequent episodes of urinary incontinence. He reports that this issue is affecting his day-to-day life.

Multiple Choice:
A) Quality of life doesn’t need to be measured, only symptoms should be treated.
B) Quality of life should be measured focusing on emotional and mental well-being only.
C) Quality of life should be comprehensively measured including physical, emotional, social, and mental functioning.
D) Quality of life is only relevant for research purposes and doesn’t apply to clinical practice.

Answer

A

Correct Answer:
C) Quality of life should be comprehensively measured including physical, emotional, social, and mental functioning.

Explanation:
Given the chronic nature of urinary incontinence, it’s important to measure the quality of life across various facets such as physical, emotional, social, and mental functioning.

Memory Tool:
Think of the acronym PEMS (Physical, Emotional, Mental, Social) to remember the facets that need to be considered for a comprehensive QOL measurement.

Question 12

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Question 2: Classification of OAB and its Importance
Clinical Vignette:
A 40-year-old female patient comes to your clinic with symptoms of an Overactive Bladder (OAB). She also reports episodes of incontinence.

Multiple Choice:
A) OAB is classified the same regardless of incontinence.
B) OAB is classified as OAB-wet when accompanied by incontinence and OAB-dry when without.
C) OAB is only classified as OAB-wet.
D) OAB classification does not matter in the evaluation of QOL.

Answer

A

Correct Answer:
B) OAB is classified as OAB-wet when accompanied by incontinence and OAB-dry when without.

Explanation:
For both clinical and research purposes, it’s important to classify OAB as either OAB-wet (with incontinence) or OAB-dry (without incontinence). This helps in evaluating its specific impact on QOL.

Memory Tool:
“Wet or Dry, classify the OAB to know why” can help you remember the importance of classification.

Question 13

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Question 3: Impact of UI on Social and Psychological Life
Clinical Vignette:
A 50-year-old man with urinary incontinence (UI) comes to you reporting that he has been avoiding social gatherings and feels isolated.

Multiple Choice:
A) UI affects only physical health and has no impact on social or psychological life.
B) UI can lead to social and psychological restrictions like isolation and depression.
C) UI primarily affects the economic aspects of a person’s life.
D) UI has no long-term consequences and is a temporary condition.

Answer

A

Correct Answer:
B) UI can lead to social and psychological restrictions like isolation and depression.

Explanation:
UI has a significant impact on social and psychological life, leading to feelings of isolation, loss of confidence, and even depression.

Memory Tool:
Think of “UI” as “U’re Isolated” to remember its psychosocial impact.

Question 14

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Question 4: Underevaluation of QOL in UI Patients
Clinical Vignette:
You’re reviewing a medical journal that discusses the National Audit of Continence Care from the U.K. You come across a statement about the assessment of QOL in individuals with incontinence.

Multiple Choice:
A) QOL in UI patients is well-evaluated.
B) QOL in UI patients is underevaluated.
C) QOL assessment is only important for patients above 60 years.
D) QOL assessment is mostly important for female patients.

Answer

A

Correct Answer:
B) QOL in UI patients is underevaluated.

Explanation:
The National Audit of Continence Care suggests that the assessment of QOL in individuals with incontinence is generally underevaluated.

Memory Tool:
“National Audit says Don’t Underestimate” can help you recall the findings of the audit.

Question 15

Q

Clinical Vignette:
A 60-year-old woman comes to you complaining of urinary incontinence that has been affecting her daily chores and work routine.

Multiple Choice:
A) Severity of incontinence is the only factor affecting daily life in UI patients.
B) Severity of incontinence, type of work, and household duties are key issues affecting daily life in UI patients.
C) Personal hygiene issues during working hours do not affect daily life.
D) Type of work is the only factor affecting daily life in UI patients.

Answer

A

Correct Answer:
B) Severity of incontinence, type of work, and household duties are key issues affecting daily life in UI patients.

Explanation:
Numerous factors affect the quality of daily life in UI patients, including the severity of incontinence, the type of work they do, and their household duties.

Memory Tool:
Remember “Severity, Work, Home” to recall the factors affecting daily life.

Question 16

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Question 6: Impact of UI on Recreational Life
Clinical Vignette:
A 35-year-old female athlete reports that she is no longer able to participate in her sport due to urinary incontinence.

Multiple Choice:
A) UI has no impact on recreational activities.
B) UI affects recreational life, particularly preventing participation in sports.
C) UI only impacts recreational activities for women.
D) UI affects recreational activities but not sports.

Answer

A

Correct Answer:
B) UI affects recreational life, particularly preventing participation in sports.

Explanation:
UI significantly affects the ability to engage in recreational activities like sports, hobbies, and travel.

Memory Tool:
Think “UI Restricts Recreation” to remember the impact on recreational life.

Question 17

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Question 7: Depression and UI
Clinical Vignette:
A 55-year-old male patient with OAB reports feelings of depression and lack of self-motivation.

Multiple Choice:
A) Depression is not correlated with UI.
B) 30% of patients with OAB have depression.
C) Behavioral therapies are highly effective in treating depression in UI patients.
D) All patients with OAB have depression.

Answer

A

Correct Answer:
B) 30% of patients with OAB have depression.

Explanation:
There is a direct correlation between UI and depression. 30% of patients with OAB are likely to have depression, which may affect their QOL.

Memory Tool:
Think “OAB: 30% Depressed” to remember the correlation.

Question 18

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Question 8: Social Isolation in OAB Patients
Clinical Vignette:
A 45-year-old woman with OAB is reporting anxiety about not reaching a toilet in time and has started avoiding social events.

Multiple Choice:
A) Social isolation is not a common complaint among OAB patients.
B) OAB patients commonly report anxiety leading to social isolation.
C) Nocturia-induced sleep disturbance is unlikely to exacerbate feelings of social isolation.
D) Social isolation is only a minor concern for OAB patients.

Answer

A

Correct Answer:
B) OAB patients commonly report anxiety leading to social isolation.

Explanation:
Anxiety about not reaching a toilet in time often leads OAB patients to socially isolate themselves. Nocturia-induced sleep disturbance may exacerbate this.

Memory Tool:
Remember “OAB: Anxiety Brings Isolation” to recall the link.

Question 19

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Question 9: Impact of UI on Work Productivity
Clinical Vignette:
You’re consulting a 40-year-old man who reports difficulty maintaining focus at work due to frequent urges to urinate.

Multiple Choice:
A) OAB has no impact on work productivity.
B) OAB’s impact on work productivity is limited to certain professions.
C) OAB affects work productivity similarly to conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and asthma.
D) OAB only affects work productivity in women.

Answer

A

Correct Answer:
C) OAB affects work productivity similarly to conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and asthma.

Explanation:
OAB has been found to significantly affect work productivity, and its impact is comparable to that of other chronic conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and asthma. (Paragraph: Work productivity, Reference: 41)

Reason for Question:
The information highlights the often-underestimated economic impact of OAB on work productivity, which is an important aspect of the condition’s overall effect on quality of life.

Memory Tool:
Think “OAB = RA & Asthma at Work” to remember the similar impact on work productivity.

Question 20

Q

Question 10: Importance of QOL Questionnaires in OAB/UI
Clinical Vignette:
You are treating a 55-year-old female patient with OAB symptoms. She is interested in understanding the severity and impact of her condition.

Multiple Choice:
A) QOL questionnaires are not useful in a clinical setting.
B) QOL questionnaires are important for research but not for individual patient care.
C) QOL questionnaires can help quantify the impact on QOL and evaluate treatment effects.
D) QOL questionnaires are only used for elderly patients.

Answer

A

Correct Answer:
C) QOL questionnaires can help quantify the impact on QOL and evaluate treatment effects.

Explanation:
QOL questionnaires are important tools for evaluating both the type and severity of OAB/UI symptoms and their impact on a patient’s quality of life. These instruments are valuable in both clinical and research settings. (Paragraph: QOL questionnaires, Reference: 26, 43)

Reason for Question:
The importance of QOL questionnaires in both clinical practice and research for understanding and treating OAB/UI is a crucial point often covered in exams.

Memory Tool:
Remember “Questionnaire = Quantify Quality” to recall the role of QOL questionnaires.

Question 21

Q

Question 11: Impact of UI on Older Persons
Clinical Vignette:
An 80-year-old woman with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) and UI is concerned about her worsening quality of life.

Multiple Choice:
A) Older people are less affected by UI compared to younger people.
B) UI in older persons can be a marker of frailty and comorbidity.
C) UI is less common in older persons compared to younger persons.
D) UI in older persons is well-researched and understood.

Answer

A

Correct Answer:
B) UI in older persons can be a marker of frailty and comorbidity.

Explanation:
UI and OAB in older persons are often indicators of frailty and a higher number of comorbidities. (Paragraph: Special consideration for older persons, Reference: 50)

Reason for Question:
Understanding the special considerations for older patients with UI is essential, as they often have additional challenges like frailty and comorbidities.

Memory Tool:
Think “Older = Frailty Marker” to remember the special considerations for older persons.

Question 22

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Clinical Vignette:
You encounter a 70-year-old man who has been experiencing UI but has been hesitant to seek medical help.

Multiple Choice:
A) Older individuals often seek immediate help for UI.
B) Older individuals may not seek help due to attitudes toward normal aging and limited knowledge of available treatments.
C) Older individuals do not experience UI.
D) Older individuals always know the available treatments for UI.

Answer

A

Correct Answer:
B) Older individuals may not seek help due to attitudes toward normal aging and limited knowledge of available treatments.

Explanation:
Older individuals often underreport and undertreat UI due to attitudes about aging, self-care, limited knowledge of treatments, and relationships with care providers. (Paragraph: Special consideration for older persons, Reference: 54)

Reason for Question:
The question aims to highlight the barriers that older individuals face in seeking treatment for UI, which is an important consideration for healthcare providers.

Memory Tool:
Think “Old but Untold” to remember that older individuals may not report UI for various reasons.

Question 23

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Question 13: Institutional Care and UI
Clinical Vignette:
A nursing home nurse reports that several elderly residents with moderate cognitive impairment are experiencing UI.

Multiple Choice:
A) UI has no correlation with quality of life in residents of institutional care.
B) UI is second only to cognitive and functional decline in predicting poor QOL in institutional care residents.
C) UI is the most significant factor affecting quality of life in institutional care residents.
D) UI is not common among residents of institutional care.

Answer

A

Correct Answer:
B) UI is second only to cognitive and functional decline in predicting poor QOL in institutional care residents.

Explanation:
In institutional care settings, new or worsening UI is second only to cognitive and functional decline in predicting poor QOL. (Paragraph: Special consideration for older persons, Reference: 64)

Reason for Question:
This question is designed to emphasize the significant impact that UI can have on the quality of life among institutionalized older adults, a setting where UI is often underestimated.

Memory Tool:
Remember “UI: Second to Mind & Movement” to recall its predictive value in poor QOL in institutional care.

Question 24

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Question 14: Social Isolation and Dementia Risk in Older Persons
Clinical Vignette:
An 85-year-old woman with UI has been avoiding social activities and shows signs of intellectual decline.

Multiple Choice:
A) Social isolation has no correlation with intellectual decline or dementia.
B) Social isolation is a risk factor for the diagnosis of dementia.
C) Social isolation improves intellectual capabilities in older persons.
D) Social isolation only affects younger individuals.

Answer

A

Correct Answer:
B) Social isolation is a risk factor for the diagnosis of dementia.

Explanation:
Social isolation, often a consequence of incontinence, has been implicated as a risk factor for intellectual decline and the diagnosis of dementia in elderly individuals. (Paragraph: Special consideration for older persons, Reference: 67)

Reason for Question:
The question aims to underline the relationship between social isolation, often exacerbated by UI, and the risk of dementia, which is particularly pertinent in geriatric care.

Memory Tool:
Think “Isolation -> Dementia Danger” to remember the risk factor.

Question 25

Q

Question: What is the first step in the assessment of patients with Overactive Bladder (OAB)?

A) Urodynamics
B) Cystoscopy
C) Medical History
D) Urinalysis

Answer

A

C) Medical History
Explanation: The first step in assessing OAB patients is taking a medical history (Level of evidence 2b, Grade B). It is both an important summary of the patient’s problems and a guide for physical examination and further diagnostic procedures.
Memory Tool: Remember, “History First” when it comes to OAB.
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 1, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: This information is guideline-based and outlines the first crucial step in diagnosing OAB, making it important for the exam.

Question 26

Q

Question: Which of the following factors can affect the bladder function in patients with OAB?

A) Amount of fluid intake
B) Type of fluid intake
C) Frequency of voiding
D) All of the above

Answer

A

Correct Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Amount and type of fluid intake can affect the bladder function. Excessive or inadequate fluid intake can produce or exacerbate some OAB symptoms. Frequency of voiding is also a factor that should be investigated.
Memory Tool: Remember, “A to F” - Amount, Type, Frequency affect bladder function.
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 2, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Understanding lifestyle factors like fluid intake is crucial for diagnosis and management of OAB, thus it is an important point to test.

Question 27

Q

Question: Which neurological disease is NOT commonly associated with worsening of OAB symptoms?

A) Stroke
B) Parkinson’s disease
C) Multiple sclerosis
D) Alzheimer’s disease

Answer

A

Correct Answer: D) Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation: Neurological diseases like stroke, Parkinson’s disease, and multiple sclerosis may produce or worsen OAB symptoms. Alzheimer’s disease is not listed among the common neurological comorbidities.
Memory Tool: Remember, “SPM” (Stroke, Parkinson’s, Multiple sclerosis) worsen OAB.
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 3, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Recognizing comorbid conditions is essential for a comprehensive approach to OAB management.

Question 28

Q

Question: What grade of recommendation do the Overactive Bladder Questionnaire (OAB-q) and the Overactive Bladder Satisfaction Questionnaire (OAB-S) have?

A) Grade A
B) Grade B
C) Grade C
D) Grade D

Answer

A

Correct Answer: A) Grade A
Explanation: The OAB-q and OAB-S have a Grade A recommendation. They are highly recommended for use in clinical practice.
Memory Tool: A for “Awesome” - OAB-q and OAB-S are awesome with Grade A.
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 6, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Knowing which questionnaires are highly recommended helps in choosing the most reliable tools for assessing OAB symptoms and treatment outcomes.

Question 29

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Question: What is the level of evidence for the statement that negative results for nitrite and leucocyte esterase in reagent strip reliably exclude UTI in OAB patients?

A) Level of evidence 1a
B) Level of evidence 2b
C) Level of evidence 3b
D) Level of evidence 5

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C) Level of evidence 3b
Explanation: The level of evidence for this statement is 3b, with a Grade C recommendation.
Memory Tool: 3b to “Be Sure” - Level 3b to be sure of no UTI.
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 10, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Understanding the level of evidence helps in assessing the reliability of diagnostic steps in OAB.

Question 30

Q

Question: What is the recommended method for measuring Post-voiding Residual (PVR) volume in patients with OAB?

A) Catheterization
B) Ultrasound
C) Cystoscopy
D) Urodynamics

Answer

A

Correct Answer: B) Ultrasound
Explanation: Ultrasound is preferable to catheterization for measuring PVR volume.
Memory Tool: “Ultra PVR” - Ultrasound for Post-voiding Residual volume.
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 13, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Knowing the preferred method for measuring PVR volume is essential for accurate and less invasive diagnosis.

Question 31

Q

Question: Which of the following imaging tests is NOT recommended in the initial assessment of uncomplicated OAB patients?

A) Bladder Ultrasound
B) CT
C) MRI
D) All of the above

Answer

A

D) All of the above
Explanation: Bladder/renal ultrasound, CT, and MRI are not recommended in the initial assessment of uncomplicated OAB patients (Level of evidence 4, Grade C).
Memory Tool: “No ABC in Initiation” - No (A) ultrasound, (B) CT, and (C) MRI in initial assessment.
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 14, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Being aware of what is not recommended in initial diagnosis is just as crucial as knowing what is recommended.

Question 32

Q

Question: When is Urodynamic study (UDS) indicated for OAB patients?

A) Always in initial diagnosis
B) When diagnosis remains uncertain after history and physical examination
C) Only in cases of neurogenic voiding dysfunction
D) Never

Answer

A

B) When diagnosis remains uncertain after history and physical examination
Explanation: UDS is indicated when the diagnosis remains uncertain after history and physical examination, or after failed previous treatment (Level of evidence 1b, Grade A).
Memory Tool: “Uncertain, Uncover with UDS” - Use UDS when diagnosis is uncertain.
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 17, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Knowing when to employ specialized diagnostic tests like UDS helps in making a precise diagnosis in complicated cases.

Question 33

Q

Question: What is the evidence strength grade for the recommendation that taking a history should be the first step in the assessment of OAB patients?

A) Grade A
B) Grade B
C) Grade C
D) Grade D

Answer

A

B) Grade B
Explanation: Taking a history is universally agreed upon as the first step in the assessment of OAB patients, and it has an Evidence strength of Grade B.
Memory Tool: “B for Beginning” - Grade B for starting with history.
Paragraph and Reference: Summary and Recommendations, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Revisiting the importance of history-taking in OAB diagnosis, especially focusing on the evidence strength, reinforces its crucial role.

Question 34

Q

Clinical Vignette: A 68-year-old woman presents with symptoms of urgency and frequency. She also mentions that she has been experiencing cognitive issues lately.
Question: What aspect of clinical examination should receive special attention in this patient?

A) Neurological examination
B) Abdominal examination
C) Pelvic examination
D) Cardiac examination

Answer

A

A) Neurological examination
Explanation: Given the patient’s cognitive issues, a neurological examination with special attention to sacral neuronal pathways should be performed.
Memory Tool: “Cognitive? Check Neurons!”
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 5, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: It emphasizes the importance of tailoring the clinical examination based on the patient’s presenting symptoms and comorbidities.

Question 35

Q

Clinical Vignette: A 55-year-old male patient presents with OAB symptoms. You decide to use a voiding diary for evaluation.
Question: What is the recommended duration for the voiding diary observation?

A) 1 day
B) 3-7 days
C) 10 days
D) 2 weeks

Answer

A

B) 3-7 days
Explanation: A voiding diary observation with a 3–7 days duration is recommended.
Memory Tool: “Week Watch” - Watch the voiding pattern for almost a week.
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 8, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Understanding the recommended duration for voiding diaries ensures accurate and reliable data collection.

Question 36

Q

Topic: Urinalysis and Culture
Clinical Vignette: A 72-year-old man with OAB symptoms has a urinalysis that shows no nitrites or leucocyte esterase.
Question: What can be reliably concluded from these urinalysis findings?
A) The patient has a UTI
B) The patient likely does not have a UTI
C) The patient has renal insufficiency
D) The patient likely has a urinary tract malignancy

Answer

A

Correct Answer: B) The patient likely does not have a UTI
Explanation: Negative results for nitrite and leucocyte esterase in reagent strip analysis reliably exclude UTI.
Memory Tool: “No Nitrites, No UTI”
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 10, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Correct interpretation of urinalysis is essential in ruling out UTI, a common confounder in OAB diagnosis.

Question 37

Q

Topic: Post-voiding Residual Volume
Clinical Vignette: A 60-year-old woman with OAB symptoms has had a prior history of incontinence surgery.
Question: Should a Post-voiding Residual (PVR) volume measurement be performed in this patient?

A) Yes
B) No

Answer

A

Correct Answer: A) Yes
Explanation: PVR should be evaluated in patients with a history of either prostatic or incontinence surgery.
Memory Tool: “Surgery? See PVR!”
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 13, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Understanding when PVR is necessary allows for a more targeted diagnostic evaluation.

Question 38

Q

Topic: Urinalysis and Culture
Clinical Vignette: A 45-year-old woman with OAB symptoms is found to have low count bacteriuria in her urinalysis.
Question: What should be the next step in managing this patient?

A) Ignore the bacteriuria as it is low count
B) Treat the bacteriuria
C) Perform cystoscopy
D) Start antimuscarinic treatment immediately

Answer

A

Correct Answer: B) Treat the bacteriuria
Explanation: Low count bacteriuria (103–105 CFU/ml) might be associated with a wide range of LUTS and thus should be treated in patients with OAB symptoms.
Memory Tool: “Low but Loaded” - Low count bacteriuria still requires treatment.
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 11, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: It’s important to recognize that even low count bacteriuria can be associated with OAB symptoms and should be treated.

Question 39

Q

Topic: Comorbidities and OAB
Clinical Vignette: A 30-year-old male with OAB symptoms also has uncontrolled diabetes.
Question: Can uncontrolled diabetes worsen OAB symptoms?

A) Yes
B) No

Answer

A

Correct Answer: A) Yes
Explanation: Uncontrolled diabetes is listed among endocrine disorders that may produce or worsen OAB symptoms.
Memory Tool: “Uncontrolled Diabetes, Uncontrolled Bladder”
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 3, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Recognizing the impact of comorbid conditions like diabetes on OAB can guide a more effective and holistic treatment strategy.

Question 40

Q

Topic: Urodynamics
Clinical Vignette: A 38-year-old woman with OAB symptoms also has a history of radical pelvic surgery.
Question: Is Urodynamic study (UDS) indicated for this patient?

A) Yes
B) No

Answer

A

Correct Answer: A) Yes
Explanation: UDS should be considered in the initial diagnosis of patients with a history of radical pelvic surgery.
Memory Tool: “Radical Surgery, Radical Tests!”
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 17, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Being aware of the specific cases where UDS is recommended can guide diagnostic strategies for special patient groups.

Question 41

Q

Topic: Elderly Patients and OAB
Clinical Vignette: An 80-year-old man presents with OAB symptoms. He also takes multiple medications for various conditions.
Question: What specific risk factor should be identified in this patient during the diagnostic evaluation?

A) Cognitive Dysfunction
B) Polypharmacy
C) Reduced Mobility
D) Constipation

Answer

A

Correct Answer: B) Polypharmacy
Explanation: Elderly patients often have higher medication needs, and individuals on polypharmacy should be identified during the diagnostic evaluation.
Memory Tool: “Elderly and Many Meds—Watch Out!”
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 9, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Understanding the specific risks in elderly patients can help tailor diagnostic and treatment plans.

Question 42

Q

Topic: Fluid Intake and OAB
Clinical Vignette: A 25-year-old woman with OAB symptoms reports drinking six cups of coffee daily.
Question: What specific dietary habit could be exacerbating her OAB symptoms?

A) Excessive water intake
B) High caffeine intake
C) Alcohol consumption
D) Carbonated drinks

Answer

A

Correct Answer: B) High caffeine intake
Explanation: High caffeine intake is a known exacerbating factor for urgency and frequency in OAB.
Memory Tool: “Coffee Causes Calls (to the restroom)”
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 2, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Recognizing lifestyle factors like caffeine intake can offer opportunities for patient education and symptom management.

Question 43

Q

Topic: Medical History and OAB
Clinical Vignette: A 35-year-old woman with OAB symptoms reports a history of prolonged labor during childbirth.
Question: What aspect of her obstetric history might be relevant to her current OAB symptoms?

A) Mode of delivery
B) Birth weights of children
C) Year of delivery
D) Prolonged labor

Answer

A

Correct Answer: D) Prolonged labor
Explanation: A general obstetric history with details like prolonged labor may be necessary for evaluation, as they can influence future treatment success.
Memory Tool: “Long Labor, Long-lasting Effects”
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 4, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Obstetric history can have a long-term impact on urinary function, making it a crucial part of the diagnostic process.

Question 44

Q

Topic: Contraindications for OAB Pharmacotherapy
Clinical Vignette: A 55-year-old man with OAB symptoms has a known history of uncontrolled narrow-angle glaucoma.
Question: Is this patient a suitable candidate for OAB pharmacotherapy?

A) Yes
B) No

Answer

A

Correct Answer: B) No
Explanation: Uncontrolled narrow-angle glaucoma is listed among the contraindications for potential complications with the introduction of OAB pharmacotherapy.
Memory Tool: “Narrow View, Narrow Options”
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 6, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Being aware of contraindications can prevent complications related to pharmacotherapy.

Question 45

Q

Question 1: First-Line Treatment in OAB
Vignette: Sarah, a 42-year-old woman, comes to your clinic complaining of frequent urination and urgency. She is otherwise healthy and is looking for treatment options for her symptoms.

Question: What is the recommended first-line treatment for Sarah’s overactive bladder symptoms?

Options:
A. Surgical intervention
B. Medication
C. Behavioral therapies and lifestyle changes
D. Urinary catheterization

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C. Behavioral therapies and lifestyle changes

Explanation: According to the CUA guidelines, the first-line treatment for overactive bladder (OAB) is behavioral therapies and lifestyle changes (Paragraph 1). These treatments are non-invasive and reversible, suitable for Sarah who is otherwise healthy.

Memory Tool: Think of “C” for “Common-sense” changes as the first step.

Question 46

Q

Question 2: Behavioral Therapy Types
Vignette: John, a 55-year-old male patient, is interested in behavioral therapies for his OAB symptoms.

Question: Which treatments are included in the category of behavioral therapies for OAB?

Options:
A. Bladder training and pelvic floor muscle therapy
B. Medication and lifestyle changes
C. Surgical intervention and medication
D. Pelvic floor muscle therapy and surgical intervention

Answer

A

Correct Answer: A. Bladder training and pelvic floor muscle therapy

Explanation: Behavioral therapy includes bladder training (BT) and pelvic floor muscle therapy (PFMT) as per the CUA guidelines (Paragraph 2).

Memory Tool: “A” for “All about behavior” includes Bladder Training and Pelvic Floor Muscle Therapy.

Question 47

Q

Question 3: Lifestyle Changes for OAB
Vignette: Emily, a 36-year-old woman with OAB, is overweight and consumes a lot of caffeinated beverages.

Question: Which lifestyle changes would be most beneficial for Emily?

Options:
A. Increase fluid and caffeine intake
B. Diet management and weight loss
C. Smoking cessation
D. Increasing strenuous exercise

Answer

A

Correct Answer: B. Diet management and weight loss

Explanation: Lifestyle changes like diet management and weight loss can significantly benefit patients like Emily (Paragraph 11). Weight loss has been shown to reduce OAB symptoms (Paragraph 22).

Memory Tool: “B” for “Better Body” can be achieved through diet management and weight loss.

Question 48

Q

Vignette: Mark, a 65-year-old male, has been diagnosed with OAB. His wife accompanies him to the clinic.

Question: What role does patient education play in the management of OAB?

Options:
A. No significant role
B. Crucial for surgical options
C. Necessary for medication compliance
D. Empowers patients to engage in their treatment

Answer

A

Correct Answer: D. Empowers patients to engage in their treatment

Explanation: Patient education is an important principle in OAB treatment. It empowers patients like Mark to engage and participate in their treatment, especially when interventions are related to behavioral and lifestyle changes (Paragraph 26).

Memory Tool: “D” for “Dive into treatment” is easier when the patient is educated.

Question 49

Q

Question 5: PFMT Technique
Vignette: Laura, a 50-year-old woman, is willing to try pelvic floor muscle therapy (PFMT) for her OAB symptoms.

Question: What should Laura be instructed to focus on while performing PFMT?

Options:
A. Tensing the leg muscles
B. Tensing the abdominal muscles
C. A closing and lifting sensation without tensing leg or abdominal muscles
D. Rapid and shallow breathing

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C. A closing and lifting sensation without tensing leg or abdominal muscles

Explanation: PFMT should result in a closing and lifting sensation without tensing the leg, buttock, or abdominal muscles (Paragraph 36).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Correct Contraction” focuses on closing and lifting.

Question 50

Q

Question 6: Weight Control in OAB
Vignette: Michelle, a 40-year-old woman with a BMI of 35, is complaining of OAB symptoms.

Question: What is the relationship between obesity and overactive bladder?

Options:
A. No relationship
B. Obesity reduces the risk of OAB
C. Obesity increases the risk of OAB
D. Obesity only affects men with OAB

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C. Obesity increases the risk of OAB

Explanation: Obesity is an associated risk factor for UI and OAB. A patient with a BMI greater than 30kg/m² is at increased risk for the onset of OAB symptoms (Paragraph 23).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Calories can Cause” increased risk of OAB.

Question 51

Q

Question 7: Management of Fluid Intake
Vignette: George, a 60-year-old male with OAB, complains of nocturia.

Question: What advice should you give George regarding fluid intake?

Options:
A. Increase fluid intake before bedtime
B. No change in fluid intake
C. Restrict fluid intake 2-4 hours before bedtime
D. Double the fluid intake during the day

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C. Restrict fluid intake 2-4 hours before bedtime

Explanation: Restricting fluid intake 2-4 hours before bedtime can decrease nocturia and nighttime incontinence (Paragraph 25).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Cutting down fluids Comes before” bedtime to control nocturia.

Question 52

Q

Question 8: Dietary Modifications
Vignette: Lily, a 45-year-old woman, enjoys drinking coffee and occasionally consumes alcoholic beverages.

Question: How do caffeinated and alcoholic beverages affect OAB symptoms?

Options:
A. Improve symptoms
B. No effect on symptoms
C. Worsen symptoms
D. Symptoms are improved only in men

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C. Worsen symptoms

Explanation: The reduction or elimination of caffeinated and alcoholic beverages may improve symptoms as these items can act like a diuretic or worsen OAB symptoms (Paragraph 26).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Coffee and Cocktails can Cause” worsening of OAB symptoms.

Question 53

Q

Question 9: Management of Bowel Regularity
Vignette: David, a 50-year-old man with OAB, also suffers from chronic constipation.

Question: What should be David’s approach to manage his OAB symptoms?

Options:
A. Ignore constipation
B. Use laxatives
C. Increase fiber in his diet
D. Focus only on bladder training

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C. Increase fiber in his diet

Explanation: Constipation is regularly found in men and women with OAB. Patients should be provided with strategies to avoid constipation, such as increasing fiber in their diet (Paragraph 28).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Constipation Complicates,” so increase fiber to manage OAB.

Question 54

Q

Question 10: Physical Exercise and OAB
Vignette: Karen, a 30-year-old female athlete, experiences OAB symptoms.

Question: How does physical activity affect OAB symptoms?

Options:
A. Increases symptoms significantly
B. No effect on symptoms
C. Reduces symptoms
D. Both increases and reduces symptoms depending on intensity

Answer

A

Correct Answer: D. Both increases and reduces symptoms depending on intensity

Explanation: Regular physical activity can reduce OAB symptoms, but strenuous exercise can also worsen symptoms (Paragraph 29).

Memory Tool: “D” for “Depends on Duration and Degree” of exercise for its effect on OAB.

Question 55

Q

Vignette: Ryan, a 35-year-old male smoker, complains of OAB symptoms.

Question: What effect does smoking have on OAB symptoms?

Options:
A. Improves symptoms
B. No effect
C. Worsens symptoms
D. Only affects women

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C. Worsens symptoms

Explanation: Nicotine has been shown to irritate the bladder detrusor, causing increased activity and OAB symptoms (Paragraph 31).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Cigarettes Can Cause” increased activity and OAB symptoms.

Question 56

Q

Question 12: Timed Voiding Technique
Vignette: Emma, an elderly woman with cognitive impairment, is experiencing OAB symptoms. Her daughter assists her with daily activities.

Question: What technique can Emma’s daughter use to manage her mother’s OAB symptoms?

Options:
A. Ignore the symptoms
B. Use medication only
C. Timed voiding
D. Immediate surgical intervention

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C. Timed voiding

Explanation: Timed voiding involves prompting the patient to toilet at regular intervals instead of waiting for the urge to void. This technique has shown beneficial results and can be recommended, especially for cognitively impaired adults (Paragraph 33).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Clockwork Care” can help manage OAB symptoms with timed voiding.

Question 57

Q

Question 13: Urgency Control and Suppression Techniques
Vignette: Robert, a 45-year-old man, is keen on non-pharmacological methods for managing his OAB symptoms.

Question: What technique can Robert use to control his urinary urgency?

Options:
A. Rapid shallow breathing
B. General relaxation and slow, deep breathing
C. Distraction techniques like counting
D. Use of anticholinergic medications

Answer

A

Correct Answer: B. General relaxation and slow, deep breathing

Explanation: Urgency control involves teaching the patient to control urgency by performing general relaxation, such as slow, deep breathing (Paragraph 34).

Memory Tool: “B” for “Breathing & Being calm” can help control urinary urgency.

Question 58

Q

Question 14: Behavioral Therapy (BT)
Vignette: Lisa, a 40-year-old woman, has been advised to try behavioral therapy for her OAB symptoms.

Question: What is the main strategy in behavioral therapy (BT) for managing OAB?

Options:
A. Medication
B. Surgical intervention
C. Implementing a voiding schedule
D. Ignoring the symptoms

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C. Implementing a voiding schedule

Explanation: The main strategy in behavioral therapy (BT) is implementing a voiding schedule and lengthening the intervals between voids until a normal pattern is established (Paragraph 35).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Consistent Checks” help in establishing a voiding schedule.

Question 59

Q

Question 15: Pelvic Floor Muscle Therapy (PFMT)
Vignette: Susan, a 38-year-old woman, is interested in pelvic floor muscle therapy.

Question: How many pelvic floor muscle (PFM) contractions should Susan perform in a day for effective PFMT?

Options:
A. 10
B. 25
C. 45
D. 60

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C. 45

Explanation: The PFMT regimen consists of repeating the contraction for 10 seconds, 15 times in a row with equal breaks of 10 seconds a total of three times a day, totaling 45 PFM contractions in a day (Paragraph 37).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Count to 45” contractions a day for effective PFMT.

Question 60

Q

Question 16: Patient Education Importance
Vignette: Henry, a 50-year-old man with OAB, is skeptical about the role of patient education in his treatment.

Question: What is the main benefit of patient education in OAB management?

Options:
A. Reduces the need for medication
B. Increases the effectiveness of surgical options
C. Increases patient compliance and adherence
D. Eliminates the need for lifestyle changes

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C. Increases patient compliance and adherence

Explanation: Patient education is a key factor in the success of behavioral treatments. It requires patients to make significant changes in their habits and daily activities, which increases the success rate when patients are compliant and adherent to the treatment (Paragraph 41).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Compliance Comes with education.”

Question 61

Q

Question 17: Duration of Behavioral Therapies
Vignette: Natalie, a 49-year-old woman, is willing to try behavioral therapies for her OAB symptoms but is unsure about the duration.

Question: What is the minimum recommended duration of behavioral therapies for effective treatment of OAB?

Options:
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 8 weeks

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C. 6 weeks

Explanation: A minimum of six weeks of therapy is recommended for the full evaluation of the effects of behavioral therapies (Paragraph 42).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Check the Calendar for 6 weeks” to evaluate the effects of behavioral therapies.

Question 62

Q

Question 18: Weight Control and OAB
Vignette: Maria, a 35-year-old overweight woman, is experiencing OAB symptoms.

Question: What is the estimated effectiveness of weight loss in reducing overall incontinence episodes?

Options:
A. 20%
B. 35%
C. 47%
D. 60%

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C. 47%

Explanation: Weight loss in obese women reduced overall incontinence episodes per week by 47% (Paragraph 12).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Cutting weight Cuts episodes by 47%.”

Question 63

Q

Question 19: Caffeine Reduction
Vignette: Steve, a 50-year-old male, is a coffee lover but complains of OAB symptoms.

Question: What effect does caffeine reduction have on frequency and urgency symptoms?

Options:
A. No effect
B. Increases frequency and urgency
C. Reduces frequency by 35% and urgency by 61%
D. Reduces frequency and urgency by 20%

Answer

A

Correct Answer: C. Reduces frequency by 35% and urgency by 61%

Explanation: A 35% reduction in voids/day and 61% reduction in occasions of urgency symptoms were observed after one month of caffeine reduction (Paragraph 16).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Cutting Coffee can Cut urgency by 61% and frequency by 35%.”

Question 64

Q

Question 20: Management of Other Medical Conditions
Vignette: Alice, a 60-year-old female with diabetes and OAB, wonders if better diabetic control can improve her OAB symptoms.

Question: What is the effect of improved diabetic control on urinary incontinence?

Options:
A. Significant improvement
B. No improvement
C. Makes it worse
D. Unknown

Answer

A

Correct Answer: B. No improvement

Explanation: The best study published demonstrated that improved diabetic control did not improve urinary incontinence (Paragraph 19).

Memory Tool: “B” for “Better diabetic control doesn’t Bring Better bladder control.”

Answer 65

A

Correct Answer: C. CHF increases the risk of OAB

Explanation: Patients with chronic heart failure had more storage urinary symptoms suggestive of OAB than did age-matched controls (Paragraph 20).

Memory Tool: “C” for “CHF Can Cause” more storage urinary symptoms suggestive of OAB.

Answer 66

A

Correct Answer: C. Improves nocturia

Explanation: A prospective study showed improvement of nocturia with continuous positive airway pressure treatment in patients with moderate to severe OSA (Paragraph 21).

Memory Tool: “C” for “CPAP Can Cure” nocturia in OSA patients.

Answer 67

A

Correct Answer: C. Improves OAB symptoms

Explanation: Treatment of constipation improved urgency and frequency in a small prospective cohort study (Paragraph 22).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Constipation Cure Can” improve OAB symptoms.

Answer 68

A

Correct Answer: C. Moderate exercise

Explanation: The association between physical activity and lower level of incontinence was observed in women who did moderate exercise (Paragraph 29).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Moderate is the Charm” when it comes to exercise and OAB.

Answer 69

A

Correct Answer: C. Level 3b, Grade D

Explanation: Smoking cessation is a recommendation even though a Cochrane review described the effect of nicotine on OAB as uncertain. This stands at Level 3b, Grade D evidence (Paragraph 31).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Cessation Can be Considered” but evidence is not strong.

Answer 70

A

Correct Answer: C. Inconclusive data

Explanation: A Cochrane review has demonstrated inconsistencies in the results in cognitively impaired adults when using timed voiding (Paragraph 33).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Cognitively impaired Can be Complicated” when it comes to timed voiding.

Answer 71

A

Correct Answer: C. 8-12 weeks

Explanation: An appropriate duration of 8-12 weeks of therapies is necessary for the full evaluation of effects (Paragraph 42).

Memory Tool: “C” for “Commit to 8-12 weeks” for a full evaluation of behavioral therapies.

Answer 72

A

Correct Answer:
B. Improve the patient’s Quality of Life (QOL)

Explanation:
The primary goal of pharmacological treatment for OAB is to improve the QOL by alleviating symptoms like urgency, frequency, and urinary incontinence.

Memory Tool:
Remember “QOL over Quantity” to focus on improving the quality of life rather than just symptom number reduction.

Paragraph Number & Citation:
Paragraph 2

Rationale:
Understanding the goals of OAB treatment is crucial for effective management.

Answer 73

A

Correct Answer:
B. M2 and M3

Explanation:
Antimuscarinic agents block M2 and M3 receptors in the bladder and urothelium to alleviate symptoms of OAB.

Memory Tool:
“M to the power of 3” - M2 and M3 for Managing OAB.

Paragraph Number & Citation:
Paragraph 4

Rationale:
Knowing the mechanism of action of antimuscarinic agents is essential for understanding how they alleviate OAB symptoms.

Answer 74

A

Correct Answer:
B. Tolterodine-ER

Explanation:
Tolterodine-ER has less risk of dry mouth compared to tolterodine-IR.

Memory Tool:
Think “ER = Easier on mouth.”

Paragraph Number & Citation:
Paragraph 6, Level of evidence 1a, Grade A

Rationale:
Choosing the right formulation can make a significant difference in tolerability and long-term adherence to treatment.

Answer 75

A

Correct Answer:

B. Oxybutynin-ER has a higher risk of dry mouth compared to Tolterodine-ER.
Explanation:
Tolterodine-ER has been shown to have less risk of dry mouth compared to Oxybutynin-ER.

Memory Tool:
Remember “ToLErate Dry mouth better” to recall that Tolterodine has less risk of dry mouth.

Paragraph Number and Reference Citation:
Paragraph discussing “Efficacy” in CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.

Rationale for Inclusion:
Dry mouth is a common side effect of antimuscarinic medications, and knowing which medication is less likely to cause this can improve patient compliance.

Answer 76

A

Correct Answer:

C. Both A and B are correct.
Explanation:
Solifenacin had better clinical efficacy and less dry mouth rates compared to Tolterodine-IR. Fesoterodine had favorable clinical outcomes compared to Tolterodine-ER, but higher rates of withdrawal due to adverse events and risk of dry mouth.

Memory Tool:
Use “Solo-FE” to remember Solifenacin and Fesoterodine’s relative efficacies and side effects.

Paragraph Number and Reference Citation:
Paragraph discussing “Efficacy” in CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.

Rationale for Inclusion:
Different antimuscarinics have varied efficacies and side effect profiles, and understanding these differences can help tailor treatment to individual patient needs.

Answer 77

A

Correct Answer:

B. Dry mouth
Explanation:
The most common adverse event reported for antimuscarinics in a meta-analysis was dry mouth.

Memory Tool:
Think “Dry Ants” to remember that antimuscarinics commonly cause dry mouth.

Paragraph Number and Reference Citation:
Paragraph discussing “Safety, tolerability, and persistence” in CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.

Rationale for Inclusion:
Understanding the most common adverse event can help in patient counseling and may affect medication choice based on patient preference.

Answer 78

A

Correct Answer:

D. Mirabegron has the highest persistence rate among all OAB medications.
Explanation:
Mirabegron has the highest overall persistence rates at 12 months, making it more likely for patients to continue using it long-term.

Memory Tool:
“Mira-stay-on” to remember that Mirabegron has the highest persistence rates.

Paragraph Number and Reference Citation:
Paragraph discussing “Safety, tolerability, and persistence” in CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.

Rationale for Inclusion:
Understanding drug persistence is crucial for long-term management of OAB and may influence the choice of medication.

Answer 79

A

Correct Answer:

B. Antimuscarinics can lead to cognitive impairment, particularly in the elderly.
Explanation:
Antimuscarinics have been linked to cognitive impairment, especially in older persons. The duration and extent of exposure to these drugs are significant factors.

Memory Tool:
Think “Anti-mind” to remember that antimuscarinics can have negative cognitive effects, especially in the elderly.

Paragraph Number and Reference Citation:
Paragraph discussing “Anticholinergic medication and cognitive impairment” in CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.

Rationale for Inclusion:
This information is crucial for treatment decisions in elderly patients, particularly those already experiencing cognitive issues.

Answer 80

A

Correct Answer:

B. Start with the lowest recommended dose and monitor for adverse events.
Explanation:
The guideline recommends starting with the lowest recommended dose and then titrating based on clinical improvement and monitoring for adverse events.

Memory Tool:
Think “Low & Slow” to remember starting with the lowest recommended dose and then adjust as needed.

Paragraph Number and Reference Citation:
Paragraph discussing “Summary and recommendations: Second-line treatment of OAB” in CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.

Rationale for Inclusion:
Understanding the recommended initial dosing strategy is essential for effective treatment and minimization of side effects.

Answer 81

A

Correct Answer:

D. Oral oxybutynin at doses of or exceeding 10 mg/day
Explanation:
Oral oxybutynin, especially at doses of 10 mg/day or more, has the worst adverse event profile among antimuscarinics.

Memory Tool:
Think “Oral Oxy-Over 10” to remember that oral oxybutynin at doses of 10 mg/day or more has the worst adverse event profile.

Paragraph Number and Reference Citation:
The paragraph discussing “Safety, tolerability, and persistence” in CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.

Rationale for Inclusion:
Knowing the adverse event profiles of medications can guide the clinician in making personalized treatment choices.

Answer 82

A

Correct Answer:

B. Combine mirabegron with solifenacin
Explanation:
Combining mirabegron with solifenacin has shown significant improvement in patient-reported outcomes and micturition frequency compared to either drug alone.

Memory Tool:
Think “Mirabe-gone symptoms” to remember the benefit of combining mirabegron with solifenacin.

Paragraph Number and Reference Citation:
The paragraph discussing “Combination treatment” with mention of the SYMPHONY and BESIDE studies in CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.

Rationale for Inclusion:
Combination therapy is an important consideration when single-drug therapy is not effective.

Answer 83

A

Correct Answer:

C. Around 30-40% of patients continue their medication at one year.
Explanation:
In Canada, the overall persistence rates at 12 months were greatest with mirabegron at 31.7%, and lowest with oxybutynin IR at 13.8%.

Memory Tool:
Think “Canada 30” to remember that about 30% of patients in Canada continue their medication at one year.

Paragraph Number and Reference Citation:
Paragraph discussing “Persistence data from retrospective claims in Canada” in CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.

Rationale for Inclusion:
Understanding medication adherence rates can aid in setting patient expectations and planning follow-up.

Answer 84

A

Correct Answer:
A. Tolterodine-IR

Explanation:
Tolterodine-IR had less risk of dry mouth compared to oxybutynin-IR. Therefore, it may be a better option for patients who are concerned about this particular side effect.

Memory Tool:
Think “Tol-Tolerable Mouth” to remember that Tolterodine has less risk of dry mouth.

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 14, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder

Rationale for Inclusion:
Dry mouth is a common concern for patients considering antimuscarinics, and knowing which medication has fewer risks can guide clinical decision-making.

Answer 85

A

Correct Answer:
B. They have antagonistic actions on M3 and M5 receptors in the eye.

Explanation:
Antimuscarinics are contraindicated in such patients due to their antagonistic actions on M3 and M5 receptors in the eye, which can induce or precipitate acute angle-closure glaucoma.

Memory Tool:
Think “M3 and M5 = No Eye” to remember that these receptor actions contraindicate the use of antimuscarinics in narrow-angle glaucoma.

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 30, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder

Rationale for Inclusion:
Knowing contraindications, especially for special populations like those with glaucoma, is crucial for safe prescribing.

Answer 86

A

Correct Answer:
C. Decreased mean number of urgency episodes per 24 hours

Explanation:
Mirabegron was more effective than placebo in decreasing the mean number of urgency episodes per 24 hours.

Memory Tool:
Think “Mirabegron = Less Urgency” to remember its efficacy in reducing urgency episodes.

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 45, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder

Rationale for Inclusion:
Understanding the efficacy of alternative treatments like mirabegron can help in tailoring patient-specific treatment plans.

Answer 87

A

Correct Answer:
D) Drugs may be effective at lower doses in frailer compared to healthier older persons.

Explanation:
The age-related changes in pharmacokinetics suggest that antimuscarinic drugs may be effective at lower doses in frail older persons, and this should be considered when planning treatment.

Memory Tool:
Think “Frail & Frugal”—frailer older adults may require frugal (lower) doses of medication.

Paragraph and Reference Citation:
The guideline states that age-related changes in pharmacokinetics affect antimuscarinic drugs for urinary incontinence and these factors should be incorporated into treatment planning. Drugs may be effective at lower doses in frailer compared to healthier older persons (Evidence strength Grade B).

Rationale for the Question:
Understanding the pharmacokinetics in older adults, especially those who are frail, is important for safe and effective medication management. This question helps to emphasize the need for individualized treatment plans.

Answer 88

A

Correct Answer:
B) Increased chance of adverse reactions to drug therapy

Explanation:
Polypharmacy increases the chance of adverse reactions to drug therapy, especially in frail older people. This is an important consideration when adding new medications.

Memory Tool:
Think “PolyProblem”—Polypharmacy can lead to multiple problems, including an increased chance of adverse reactions.

Paragraph and Reference Citation:
The guideline states that polypharmacy increases the chance of adverse reactions to drug therapy, and this is more common in frail older persons (Evidence strength Grade A).

Rationale for the Question:
Recognizing the risks associated with polypharmacy is crucial for managing complex cases, especially in older adults with multiple comorbidities.

Answer 89

A

Explanation: The recommended dose is 100 U injected into the bladder body sparing the trigone (Paragraph 27).

Memory Tool: OnabotulinumtoxinA 100 U trigone-sparing

Reference: Nitti VW, Dmochowski R, Herschorn S, et al. OnabotulinumtoxinA for the treatment of patients with overactive bladder and urinary incontinence: results of a phase 3, randomized, placebo controlled trial. J Urol. 2013;189(6):2186-93.

Rationale: Important to know appropriate onabotulinumtoxinA dosing and injection technique.

Answer 90

A

Explanation: Uncomplicated UTI is the most frequently reported adverse event, occurring in 15.5-20.4% of patients (Paragraph 28).

Memory Tool: UTI common after onabotulinumtoxinA injection

Reference: Chapple C, Sievert KD, MacDiarmid S, et al. OnabotulinumtoxinA 100 U significantly improves all idiopathic overactive bladder symptoms and quality of life in patients with overactive bladder and urinary incontinence: a randomised, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial. Eur Urol. 2013;64(2):249-56.

Rationale: Important to counsel patients on potential side effects of onabotulinumtoxinA.

Answer 91

A

Explanation: PTNS has shown improvements in OAB symptoms after 12 weeks of therapy (Paragraph 35). The effect lasts weeks to months after stopping. The side effect profile is minimal compared to other options.

Memory Tool: PTNS improves OAB after 12 weeks with minimal side effects

Reference: Peters KM, Carrico DJ, Perez-Marrero RA, et al. Randomized trial of percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation versus Sham efficacy in the treatment of overactive bladder syndrome: results from the SUmiT trial. J Urol. 2010;183(4):1438-43.

Rationale: Know the timeline and side effect profile of PTNS for OAB.

Answer 92

A

Explanation: Up to 39.5% of patients require surgical re-intervention after SNM (Paragraph 41).

Memory Tool: High reoperation rate ~40% with SNM

Reference: van Kerrebroeck PE, van Voskuilen AC, Heesakkers JP, et al. Results of sacral neuromodulation therapy for urinary voiding dysfunction: outcomes of a prospective, worldwide clinical study. J Urol. 2007;178(5):2029-34.

Rationale: Important to know risks of surgical third-line therapies like SNM.

Answer 93

A

Explanation: The median duration of effect of onabotulinumtoxinA was 7.6 months in the 3.5 year extension study (Paragraph 29).

Memory Tool: Median duration ~7-8 months with onabotulinumtoxinA injections

Reference: Nitti VW, Sievert KD, Sussman D, et al. Durable efficacy and safety of long-term onabotulinumtoxinA treatment in patients with overactive bladder syndrome: Final results of a 3.5-year study. J Urol. 2016;196(3):791-800.

Answer 94

A

Explanation: Studies have shown PTNS symptom improvement lasts 4-6 months after ending a 12-week course (Paragraph 37).

Memory Tool: Expect 4-6 month durability after 12 weeks PTNS

Reference: Yoong W, Ridout AE, Damodaram M, et al. Neuromodulative treatment with percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation for intractable detrusor instability: outcomes following a shortened 6-week protocol. BJU Int. 2010;106(11):1673-6.

Answer 95

A

Explanation: Pain at the stimulator site is a frequently reported adverse event following SNM, occurring in 3.3-19.8% of patients (Paragraph 41).

Memory Tool: Pain at stimulator site common with SNM

Reference: van Kerrebroeck PE, van Voskuilen AC, Heesakkers JP, et al. Results of sacral neuromodulation therapy for urinary voiding dysfunction: outcomes of a prospective, worldwide clinical study. J Urol. 2007;178(5):2029-34.

Answer 96

A

Explanation: Augmentation cystoplasty, urinary diversion, and chronic indwelling catheters are very rarely used as a last resort in refractory OAB. Artificial sphincters are not used for OAB management (Paragraph 47).

Memory Tool: OAB refractory to 3rd line - augmentation, diversion, catheterization (no AUS)

Reference: Levin PJ, Wu JM, Kawasaki A, et al. The efficacy of posterior tibial nerve stimulation for the treatment of overactive bladder in women: a systematic review. Int Urogynecol J. 2012;23(11):1591-7.

Answer 97

A

Explanation: Followup schedule should be individualized, but patients on medications should be seen every 4 weeks initially to assess efficacy and side effects (Paragraph 48).

Memory Tool: Follow up every 4 weeks when initiating OAB medication.

Reference: Dmochowski RR, Peters KM, Morrow JD, et al. Randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial of flexible-dose fesoterodine in subjects with overactive bladder. Urology. 2010;75(1):62-8.

Rationale: Critical to adequately follow patients on new OAB medications.

Answer 98

A

Correct Answer:
C) Should be avoided throughout pregnancy

Explanation:
The guidelines recommend avoiding antimuscarinic medications during pregnancy due to the potential risks to the fetus.

Memory Tool:
Think “Pregnant Pause”—pause the use of antimuscarinic drugs during pregnancy.

Paragraph and Reference Citation:
The guideline explicitly mentions that antimuscarinic medications should be avoided during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus (Evidence strength Grade B).

Rationale for the Question:
Understanding the pharmacological limitations in special populations like pregnant women is critical for safe and ethical practice.

Answer 99

A

Correct Answer:
B) Should be used with caution and close monitoring

Explanation:
The guidelines recommend using antimuscarinic medications in children with caution and under close monitoring.

Memory Tool:
Think “Kid Caution”—be cautious when prescribing antimuscarinics to kids.

Paragraph and Reference Citation:
The guideline specifies that antimuscarinic medications in children should be used with caution and close monitoring (Evidence strength Grade B).

Rationale for the Question:
Pediatric urology often requires a nuanced approach, and this question aims to emphasize the need for caution when prescribing antimuscarinics to children.

Answer 100

A

Correct Answer:
B) Add a beta-3 agonist to the antimuscarinic therapy

Explanation:
The guidelines suggest that adding a beta-3 agonist to antimuscarinic therapy can improve symptom control in patients not responding to antimuscarinics alone.

Memory Tool:
Think “Double the Fun”—both antimuscarinics and beta-3 agonists can work better together.

Paragraph and Reference Citation:
The guideline mentions that combining antimuscarinics and beta-3 agonists may provide better symptom control for those not responding to monotherapy (Evidence strength Grade A).

Rationale for the Question:
Understanding the benefits of combination therapy can help improve patient outcomes.

Answer 101

A

Correct Answer:
A) Yes, as it has a different mechanism of action

Explanation:
Mirabegron works through beta-3 adrenergic receptor activation and does not have anticholinergic effects, making it a suitable alternative.

Memory Tool:
Think “Mira-bye-gone Anticholinergic”—Mirabegron is free of anticholinergic effects.

Paragraph and Reference Citation:
Mirabegron works by activating beta-3 adrenergic receptors and can be used as an alternative to antimuscarinic medications for patients concerned about anticholinergic side effects (Evidence strength Grade A).

Rationale for the Question:
Knowing alternative medications with different mechanisms of action is essential for patient-centered care.

Answer 102

A

Correct Answer: B) 20 evenly distributed intradetrusor injections sparing the trigone

Explanation: According to Nitti et al., OnabotulinumtoxinA 100 U should be administered as 20 evenly distributed intradetrusor injections of 0.5 ml per injection site, sparing the trigone.

Memory Tool: “20 to Win, Trigone to Sin” - 20 injections will win the treatment, but injecting the trigone is a sin.

Reference Citation: Nitti et al (Paragraph 6)

Rationale: This information is essential because it outlines the recommended method of administration for third-line OAB treatment, which is supported by strong, Level 1 (Grade A) evidence.

Answer 103

A

Correct Answer: C) Uncomplicated UTI

Explanation: According to both the Nitti et al and Chapple et al studies, the most frequently reported adverse event was uncomplicated UTI.

Memory Tool: “UT-See, it’s UTI” - If you’re looking for the most common adverse event, it’s UTI.

Reference Citation: Nitti et al (Paragraph 9) and Chapple et al (Paragraph 11)

Rationale: It is important to know the most commonly reported adverse events when discussing treatment options with patients.

Answer 104

A

Correct Answer: D) Large PVR (>150 ml)

Explanation: According to Liao and Kuo, frail elderly patients were more likely to have a large PVR (>150 ml).

Memory Tool: “Elderly PVR, A Risk to Confer” - In elderly patients, there’s a higher risk of a large PVR.

Reference Citation: Liao and Kuo (Paragraph 13)

Rationale: Knowing the risks specific to patient demographics can help tailor treatment approaches.

Answer 105

A

Correct Answer:
C. Suggest intradetrusor OnabotulinumtoxinA injection

Explanation:
The CUA guidelines suggest that intradetrusor OnabotulinumtoxinA 100 U is a strong, level 1 (Grade A) treatment option for OAB with UUI refractory to second-line pharmacotherapies.

Memory Tool:
“Botuli-NO more leaks” - OnabotulinumtoxinA for refractory OAB

Rationale:
This question highlights the guidelines’ strong recommendation for OnabotulinumtoxinA in refractory OAB cases.

Reference:
Paragraph 1, CUA guidelines on adult overactive bladder

Answer 106

A

Correct Answer:
D. All of the above

Explanation:
The most frequently reported adverse event was uncomplicated UTI. Dysuria, bacteriuria, and urinary retention also occurred at a higher rate in patients treated with OnabotulinumtoxinA.

Memory Tool:
“BAD UTI” - Bacteriuria, Dysuria, and UTI are risks with OnabotulinumtoxinA.

Rationale:
Adverse events are crucial in patient counseling for treatment options.

Reference:
Paragraph 3, CUA guidelines on adult overactive bladder

Answer 107

A

Correct Answer:
A. OnabotulinumtoxinA is generally less effective in the frail elderly.

Explanation:
The success rates for OnabotulinumtoxinA in frail elderly were significantly lower at 12 months compared to younger groups.

Memory Tool:
“Frail and Fading” - efficacy fades quicker in the frail elderly.

Rationale:
Treatment efficacy can vary with age, especially among frail elderly, important for tailored patient care.

Reference:
Paragraph 4, CUA guidelines on adult overactive bladder

Answer 108

A

Correct Answer:
C. Keep a bladder diary

Explanation:
According to the CUA guidelines, keeping a bladder diary is recommended to evaluate treatment efficacy.

Memory Tool:
“Dear Diary, less dribbling” - A bladder diary helps evaluate the effects of the treatment.

Answer 109

A

Correct Answer:
B. SNM is equally effective as anticholinergics

Explanation:
CUA guidelines indicate that SNM has similar efficacy to anticholinergic medications in treating refractory OAB.

Memory Tool:
“Sacral Equals Second” - Sacral nerve modulation has similar efficacy to second-line medications.

Answer 110

A

Correct Answer:
B. 3-6 months

Explanation:
CUA guidelines suggest that the duration of efficacy for intravesical OnabotulinumtoxinA injection is approximately 3-6 months.

Memory Tool:
“Botox’s Half Year Bloom” - The effects last for about half a year.

Answer 111

A

Explanation:
CUA guidelines recommend 100 U of OnabotulinumtoxinA for non-neurogenic OAB with UUI refractory to second-line pharmacotherapies.

Memory Tool:
“A Century of Units” - 100 U is the go-to dosage for non-neurogenic OAB.

Answer 112

A

Correct Answer: C. PTNS and sacral neuromodulation (SNM)

Explanation: According to the CUA guideline, third-line treatment for OAB includes both PTNS and SNM along with onabotulinumtoxinA injections. These are considered invasive treatments with specific side effect profiles.

Memory Tool: Think “Third-line is Three-fold: PTNS, SNM, and OnabotulinumtoxinA.”

Reference Citation: Paragraph 1

Rationale: Understanding the available third-line treatments for OAB is essential for making informed clinical decisions for patients who do not respond to earlier lines of treatment.

Answer 113

A

Correct Answer: C. Nocturia episodes will reduce by 1-2 episodes/night

Explanation: PTNS is shown to reduce nocturia episodes by 1-2 episodes/night based on the majority of available studies.

Memory Tool: PTNS = “Peaceful Nights, Smaller counts.”

Reference Citation: Paragraph 4, “Nocturia episodes were reduced by 1‒2 episodes/night.”

Rationale: Knowing the efficacy of PTNS in treating nocturia can help in setting patient expectations and improving compliance.

Answer 114

A

Correct Answer: B. Pain at the stimulator site

Explanation: SNM has an adverse event profile that includes pain at the stimulator site among others, ranging from 3.3-19.8%.

Memory Tool: “SNM = Stimulator Needs Monitoring (for pain).”

Reference Citation: Paragraph 15, “SNM was also complicated by pain at the stimulator site (3.3‒19.8%).”

Rationale: Knowing the side-effect profile of SNM can guide patient counseling and help in making an informed treatment decision.

Answer 115

A

Correct Answer: B. Follow-up should be individualized based on current treatment and safety concerns.

Explanation: The intent of follow-up is to ascertain compliance, efficacy, and assess for adverse events. It should be individualized according to the prescribed treatment and level of concern for patient safety.

Memory Tool: “Follow-Up = Flexible, Unique, Patient-centered.”

Reference Citation: Last Paragraph, “Patient followup should be routinely offered and individualized based on current treatment(s) and concern for patient safety.”

Rationale: Proper follow-up ensures effective treatment and minimizes adverse effects, leading to improved patient outcomes.

Answer 116

A

Correct Answer: B. Stimulation for 30 minutes, once a week, for three months

Explanation: The general PTNS protocol includes stimulation for 30 minutes, once a week, for three months.

Memory Tool: “PTNS: 30 minutes, 3 months, 1 week.”

Reference Citation: Paragraph 4, “The general PTNS protocol included stimulation for 30 minutes, once a week, for three months.”

Rationale: Knowing the standard protocol for PTNS treatment can guide scheduling and patient counseling for this specific treatment option.

Answer 117

A

Correct Answer: C. Statistically significant improvements can be sustained with varying maintenance protocols

Explanation: For patients who initially respond to PTNS, statistically significant improvements were sustained through 24–36 months following varying maintenance protocols.

Memory Tool: “PTNS Maintenance: Keep the gains, vary the game.”

Reference Citation: Paragraph 9, “statistically significant improvements were sustained through 24‒36 months following varying protocols.”

Rationale: Understanding the long-term efficacy and required maintenance protocols for PTNS is crucial for sustained patient benefit.

Answer 118

A

Correct Answer: B. Persistent nerve pain

Explanation: Adverse events unique to neuromodulation, such as SNM, should be routinely assessed including persistent nerve pain.

Memory Tool: “Neuromodulation: New treatment, Nerve issues.”

Reference Citation: Last Paragraph, “Adverse events unique to neuromodulation should be routinely assessed including wound complications, persistent nerve pain, and collateral stimulation.”

Rationale: Identifying treatment-specific adverse events is crucial for proper patient management and follow-up.

Answer 119

A

Correct Answer: B. SNM is complicated by the preclusion of pelvic or abdomen MRI studies

Explanation: SNM is complicated by the inability to undergo pelvic or abdomen MRI studies while the device is in place.

Memory Tool: “SNM: Say No to MRIs.”

Reference Citation: Paragraph 18, “Furthermore, SNM is complicated by the preclusion of pelvic or abdomen MRI studies while the device is in place.”

Rationale: Awareness of treatment limitations like this can prevent complications and guide better patient counseling.

Answer 120

A

Correct Answer: C. PTNS appears to improve baseline symptoms when compared to tolterodine alone.

Explanation: PTNS, when combined with tolterodine 2‒4mg daily, appears to improve baseline symptoms compared to tolterodine alone.

Memory Tool: “PTNS + Tolterodine = Better Together.”

Reference Citation: Paragraph 7, “On its own and combined with tolterodine 2‒4mg daily, the use of PTNS appears to improve baseline symptoms when compared to tolterodine alone.”

Rationale: Understanding how different treatments interact can inform more effective combination therapies for OAB.

Answer 121

A

Correct Answer: B. Surgical interventions should be reserved for cases where other treatments fail.

Explanation: Surgical interventions should probably be reserved for patients in whom other treatments either fail or result in an unacceptable quality of life (QOL).

Memory Tool: “Surgery for OAB: Last Resort.”

Reference Citation: Paragraph 21, “Surgical intervention should probably be reserved for patients in whom other treatments either fail or result in an unacceptable QOL.”

Rationale: Knowing when to consider surgical interventions can help in making informed clinical decisions and setting proper patient expectations.

Answer 122

A

Correct Answer: B. One-third of colonized patients develop infection requiring explantation.

Explanation: One-third of colonized patients went on to develop infection of the device requiring explantation.

Memory Tool: “SNM: Stay Notified about Microbes.”

Reference Citation: Paragraph 17, “One-third of colonized patients went on to develop infection of the device requiring explantation.”

Rationale: Being aware of the specific risks associated with SNM can guide better patient counseling and treatment planning.

Answer 123

A

Correct Answer: B. Efficacy may not be fully realized for 12 weeks.

Explanation: The potential of antimuscarinic agents to improve OAB symptoms may not be fully realized for a period of 12 weeks.

Memory Tool: “AM for OAB: Allow Months (12 weeks) for efficacy.”

Reference Citation: Paragraph 25, “the potential of AM agents to improve OAB symptoms may not be fully realized for a period of 12 weeks.”

Rationale: Understanding the timeline for treatment efficacy is crucial for setting proper patient expectations and promoting compliance.

Answer 124

A

Correct Answer: B. Subjective and objective success rates are the same.

Explanation: Analyzing six prospective non-randomized trials, subjective and objective success rates in PTNS patients were 61.4% and 60.6%, respectively.

Memory Tool: “PTNS: Subjective or Objective, Success is Close.”

Reference Citation: Paragraph 10, “subjective and objective success rates in PTNS patients were 61.4% and 60.6%, respectively.”

Rationale: Knowing the success rates of PTNS can guide patient counseling and set realistic expectations.

Answer 125

A

Correct Answer: B. Indwelling catheterization should only be considered after all other options have been exhausted.

Explanation: Indwelling catheterization, augmentation cystoplasty, or other urinary diversions are rare long-term management strategies for OAB and should only be considered after all other medical and surgical options have been exhausted.

Memory Tool: “Catheterization: The Final Frontier.”

Reference Citation: Paragraph 22, “should only be considered after all other medical and surgical options have been exhausted.”

Rationale: It’s important to know when to consider extreme measures like indwelling catheterization, which should only be a last resort.

Answer 126

A

Correct Answer: B. PTNS requires frequent clinic appointments and patient compliance.

Explanation: PTNS does require a system capable of providing frequent clinic appointments, typically lasting 30 minutes to one hour in length, and patients must be compliant and able to continue frequent follow-up.

Memory Tool: “PTNS: Be Present to Progress.”

Reference Citation: Paragraph 11, “Therefore, attention must be paid to the patient’s level of motivation and travel resources.”

Rationale: Understanding the logistical requirements of PTNS can help in patient selection and counseling.

Answer 127

A

Correct Answer: B. Bleeding at the insertion site

Explanation: The majority of studies on PTNS showed minimal side effects, including bleeding at the insertion site.

Memory Tool: “PTNS: ‘P’ for Pinprick Bleeding.”

Reference Citation: Paragraph 4, “and minimal side effects (bleeding at insertion site and inconsequential sensation of pain during stimulation).”

Rationale: Knowing the side-effect profile of PTNS can guide patient counseling and help in making an informed treatment decision.

Answer 128

A

Correct Answer:
C) 2.5 mg BID

Explanation:
For medically complex elderly patients, lower doses such as 2.5 mg BID have shown efficacy. Higher doses like 20 mg daily are associated with cognitive impairment, which is especially concerning in elderly patients.

Memory Tool:
Elderly + Oxy = Low (Elderly patients should be given a lower dose of Oxybutynin to avoid cognitive impairment.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 7, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
The question tests the examinee’s knowledge of appropriate dosing for elderly patients, particularly those with cognitive issues, a key consideration in patient care.

Answer 129

A

Correct Answer:
C) Nausea

Explanation:
The known adverse effects of Tolterodine include dry mouth, constipation, CNS adverse effects, and QT prolongation. Nausea is not listed as an adverse effect.

Memory Tool:
Tole-DRY-dine (Tolterodine can cause dry mouth, not nausea.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 12, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question focuses on adverse effects, a critical aspect of medication management to ensure patient safety and compliance.

Answer 130

A

Correct Answer:
B) Mirabegron is contraindicated in cases of severe uncontrolled hypertension.

Explanation:
Mirabegron is contraindicated in patients with severe uncontrolled hypertension.

Memory Tool:
Mira-“Begone” for High BP (Mirabegron is not suitable for those with severe uncontrolled hypertension.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 20, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question tests knowledge about contraindications, crucial for avoiding serious medication-related complications.

Answer 131

A

Correct Answer:
C) No cognitive impairment reported in elderly with mild cognitive impairment at 5 mg dose.

Explanation:
Solifenacin has not been reported to cause cognitive impairment in elderly patients with mild cognitive impairment, particularly at a 5 mg dose.

Memory Tool:
Solo-Five-Brain (Solifenacin at 5 mg is safe for the brain in elderly with mild cognitive impairment.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 17, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
The question focuses on the drug’s impact on cognitive function, which is particularly important when treating elderly patients or those with cognitive issues.

Answer 132

A

Correct Answer:
D) Use with caution due to hepatic impairment.

Explanation:
Darifenacin dosage may need adjustment in patients with hepatic impairment. Caution is advised.

Memory Tool:
Dare-if-hepatic (Dare to use Darifenacin if hepatic, but with caution.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 13, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question aims to assess the candidate’s knowledge about dosage adjustments needed for specific medical conditions, which is essential for patient safety.

Answer 133

A

Correct Answer:
A) 4 or 8 mg OD

Explanation:
The recommended doses for Fesoterodine are 4 or 8 mg once daily (OD).

Memory Tool:
Feso-Four-Eight (Fesoterodine recommended doses are 4 or 8 mg OD.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 18, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
The question focuses on the appropriate dosing of a specific drug, Fesoterodine, which is crucial for effective treatment and minimizing side effects.

Answer 134

A

Correct Answer:
B) Oxybutynin is contraindicated during pregnancy or breast-feeding.

Explanation:
Oxybutynin is contraindicated in pregnancy or breast-feeding.

Memory Tool:
Oxy-bu-“tiny” (Think of the “tiny” baby; Oxybutynin is not safe during pregnancy.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 6, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question assesses knowledge about contraindications, particularly during pregnancy, which is crucial for patient safety and ethical medical practice.

Answer 135

A

Correct Answer:
B) Tachycardia and increased heart rate

Explanation:
Trospium is associated with tachycardia and an increased heart rate as adverse effects, which could be concerning for someone with cardiac issues.

Memory Tool:
Tros-“pium-pium” (Imagine the sound of a fast heartbeat; Trospium can cause tachycardia.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 16, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question aims to test the candidate’s understanding of drug-specific adverse effects, especially relevant to patients with pre-existing conditions.

Answer 136

A

Correct Answer:
C) Beta-3 adrenoceptor agonist

Explanation:
Mirabegron belongs to the pharmacological category of Beta-3 adrenoceptor agonists.

Memory Tool:
Mira-“Be-Three” (Mirabegron belongs to Beta-3 adrenoceptor agonists.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 19, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
The question tests the understanding of pharmacological classifications, which is key for understanding drug mechanisms and for comparative discussions with patients or colleagues.

Answer 137

A

Correct Answer:
B) Use with caution due to concomitant CYP3A4 inhibitors.

Explanation:
Tolterodine may require dose adjustments or special caution when used with concomitant CYP3A4 inhibitors.

Memory Tool:
Toler-“3A4”-dine (Be cautious with Tolterodine when CYP3A4 inhibitors are involved.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 10, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question tests knowledge on the importance of considering drug interactions, especially with CYP3A4 inhibitors, which can impact the efficacy and safety of medications.

Answer 138

A

Correct Answer:
C) UTI

Explanation:
The known adverse effects of Propiverine include dry mouth, headache, accommodation disorder, visual impairment, constipation, abdominal pain, dyspepsia, and fatigue. UTI is not listed as an adverse effect.

Memory Tool:
Pro-“Pain-Not-UTI” (Propiverine can cause abdominal pain but not UTI.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 21, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question focuses on adverse effects, which are crucial for patient safety and medication adherence.

Answer 139

A

Correct Answer:
C) 7.5 or 15 mg OD

Explanation:
The recommended doses for Darifenacin are 7.5 or 15 mg once daily (OD).

Memory Tool:
Dari-“Seven-Fifteen” (Darifenacin recommended doses are 7.5 or 15 mg OD.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 14, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question tests the examinee’s knowledge of appropriate dosing for Darifenacin, which is essential for effective treatment and minimizing side effects.

Answer 140

A

Correct Answer:
A) Yes

Explanation:
Dry eyes are listed as a known adverse effect of Fesoterodine.

Memory Tool:
Feso-“Tear”-odine (Fesoterodine can cause dry eyes, making it harder to tear up.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 19, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question focuses on adverse effects, a critical aspect of medication management to ensure patient safety and compliance.

Answer 141

A

Correct Answer:
C) Dry mouth

Explanation:
Known adverse effects of Mirabegron include nausea, headache, hypertension, UTI, and nasopharyngitis. Dry mouth is not listed.

Memory Tool:
Mira-“No-Dry” (Mirabegron doesn’t typically cause dry mouth.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 20, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question tests the candidate’s knowledge of drug-specific adverse effects, critical for patient safety.

Answer 142

A

Correct Answer:
B) No cognitive impairment reported in cognitively intact elderly.

Explanation:
Trospium has not been reported to cause cognitive impairment in cognitively intact elderly patients.

Memory Tool:
Tros-“Smart”-ium (Trospium doesn’t impair cognitive function in cognitively intact elderly.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 16, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
The question focuses on the drug’s impact on cognitive function, which is particularly important when treating elderly patients or those with cognitive issues.

Answer 143

A

Correct Answer:
B) Use with caution due to concomitant CYP3A4 inhibitors.

Explanation:
Solifenacin may require dose adjustments or special caution when used with concomitant CYP3A4 inhibitors.

Memory Tool:
Solo-“3A4”-finacin (Be cautious with Solifenacin when CYP3A4 inhibitors are involved.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 17, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question tests the examinee’s understanding of drug interactions and the need for dose adjustments, particularly when CYP3A4 inhibitors are involved.

Answer 144

A

Correct Answer:
C) Blurred vision

Explanation:
The known adverse effects of Darifenacin include dry mouth, constipation, dyspepsia, and nausea. Blurred vision is not listed as an adverse effect.

Memory Tool:
Dari-“Clear”-nacin (Darifenacin doesn’t cause blurred vision, so your view stays “clear.”)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 14, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question focuses on the adverse effects of Darifenacin, critical for patient safety and medication adherence.

Answer 145

A

Question 18: Topic - Contraindications for Propiverine
Clinical Vignette:
A 73-year-old male patient with overactive bladder also has severe renal impairment. He is interested in taking Propiverine. What would you advise?

Multiple-Choice Options:
A) Go ahead, there are no contraindications.
B) Propiverine is contraindicated in cases of severe renal impairment.
C) Propiverine can be used but with caution due to renal impairment.
D) Propiverine is contraindicated during pregnancy.

Correct Answer:
C) Propiverine can be used but with caution due to renal impairment.

Explanation:
Propiverine may require dose adjustments or special caution when used in patients with renal impairment.

Memory Tool:
Prop-“Kidney”-vine (Be cautious with Propiverine when kidneys are involved.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 21, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question tests the examinee’s knowledge about contraindications and dose adjustments, particularly for patients with renal impairment, which is crucial for avoiding serious medication-related complications.

Answer 146

A

Correct Answer:
B) No cognitive impairment reported in cognitively intact elderly.

Explanation:
Darifenacin has not been reported to cause cognitive impairment in cognitively intact elderly patients.

Memory Tool:
Dari-“Brain”-cin (Darifenacin doesn’t impair the brain in cognitively intact elderly.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 14, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question assesses the candidate’s knowledge on the drug’s impact on cognitive function, a key consideration when treating elderly patients.

Answer 147

A

Correct Answer:
A) Modified release: 30 or 45 mg OD

Explanation:
The recommended doses for Propiverine are 30 or 45 mg once daily (OD) in a modified release form.

Memory Tool:
Prop-“Thirty-FortyFive” (Propiverine recommended doses are 30 or 45 mg OD in modified release form.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 21, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question tests the examinee’s knowledge of appropriate dosing for Propiverine, essential for effective treatment and minimizing side effects.

Answer 148

A

Correct Answer:
B) Dry mouth

Explanation:
Known adverse effects of Solifenacin include dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision.

Memory Tool:
Solo-“Dry”-nacin (Solifenacin can cause dry mouth.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 17, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question focuses on the adverse effects of Solifenacin, critical for patient safety and medication adherence.

Answer 149

A

Correct Answer:
B) Mirabegron is contraindicated in cases of severe uncontrolled hypertension.

Explanation:
Mirabegron is contraindicated in patients with severe uncontrolled hypertension.

Memory Tool:
Mira-“High-No” (Mirabegron is a no-go for high, uncontrolled blood pressure.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 20, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question tests the candidate’s knowledge about contraindications, particularly for patients with severe uncontrolled hypertension, which is crucial for avoiding serious medication-related complications.

Answer 150

A

Correct Answer:
D) QT prolongation

Explanation:
Tolterodine is associated with QT prolongation as an adverse effect, which could be concerning for someone with a family history of cardiac issues.

Memory Tool:
Toler-“QT”-dine (Be cautious with Tolterodine due to potential for QT prolongation.)

Reference Citation:
Paragraph 10, Table 2. Summary of pharmacological management of overactive bladder.

Rationale for the Question:
This question tests the candidate’s understanding of drug-specific adverse effects, especially relevant to patients with pre-existing conditions.

Answer 151

A

Correct Answer:
B) There is minimal quantitative change in absorption despite decreased gastric motility.

Explanation:
Despite decreased gastric motility in the elderly, there is minimal quantitative change in drug absorption. This information is particularly important for slow-release agents, as the patient in the vignette is taking an extended-release preparation.

Memory Tool:
“Age might slow you down, but it won’t stop the absorption of extended-release pills.”

Specific Reference Citation:
(Table 3, Parameter: Absorption, Age-associated changes)

Rationale:
Understanding age-related pharmacokinetic changes is crucial for patient safety and medication efficacy, especially in geriatric patients who often have urinary incontinence.

Answer 152

A

Correct Answer:
C) Decrease in lean body mass leads to decreased Vd and T½ for lipophilic agents.

Explanation:
A decrease in lean body mass in the elderly leads to a decrease in volume of distribution (Vd) and half-life (T½) for lipophilic agents like tricyclic antidepressants.

Memory Tool:
“Less mass, less space for lipophilic agents to hide—Vd and T½ drop.”

Specific Reference Citation:
(Table 3, Parameter: Distribution, Age-associated changes)

Rationale:
Understanding how age affects distribution is essential for proper dosing and avoiding side effects, such as dizziness in this patient.

Answer 153

A

Correct Answer:
C) Decrease in renal clearance

Explanation:
In the elderly, there is a decrease in renal clearance, which could affect the clearance of Tolterodine.

Memory Tool:
“Older kidneys slow down—Tolterodine lingers longer.”

Specific Reference Citation:
(Table 3, Parameter: Clearance, Age-associated changes)

Rationale:
Understanding age-related changes in renal clearance is key to ensuring that drugs like Tolterodine are both effective and safe in elderly patients.

Answer 154

A

Correct Answer:
B) Decrease in Phase I hepatic reactions

Explanation:
In elderly patients, Phase I hepatic reactions like oxidation/reduction are decreased, which can affect the metabolism of tricyclic antidepressants.

Memory Tool:
“Age puts a brake on Phase I, making tricyclics stick around.”

Specific Reference Citation:
(Table 3, Parameter: Hepatic metabolism, Age-associated changes)

Rationale:
Understanding hepatic metabolism changes in aging is essential for medication management, particularly with medications like tricyclic antidepressants that are affected by these changes.

Answer 155

A

Correct Answer:
C) Decreased hepatic blood flow and hepatic mass lead to reduced clearance of Oxybutynin.

Explanation:
Elderly patients have decreased hepatic blood flow and hepatic mass, leading to reduced clearance of agents with first-pass metabolism like Oxybutynin.

Memory Tool:
“Older liver, slower river—Oxybutynin won’t flow out as quickly.”

Specific Reference Citation:
(Table 3, Parameter: Hepatic metabolism, Age-associated changes)

Rationale:
Awareness of age-related changes in hepatic blood flow and mass is vital for the proper dosing and effectiveness of medications like Oxybutynin in elderly patients.

Answer 156

A

Correct Answer:
C) Cytochrome P450 affects the clearance of both Tolterodine and Solifenacin.

Explanation:
Cytochrome P450 plays a role in the clearance of both Tolterodine and Solifenacin, making it crucial to consider when these drugs are co-administered.

Memory Tool:
“Double trouble with P450—watch out for Tolterodine and Solifenacin.”

Specific Reference Citation:
(Table 3, Parameter: Cytochrome P450, Age-associated changes)

Rationale:
Understanding the role of Cytochrome P450 in drug metabolism can prevent potential drug interactions, especially in patients on multiple medications.

Answer 157

A

Correct Answer:
B) Decreased protein binding will lead to a higher concentration of free drug.

Explanation:
In frail patients with low albumin, there is decreased protein binding, leading to a higher concentration of free drug, such as Tolterodine.

Memory Tool:
“Low albumin? Expect Tolterodine to roam free more.”

Specific Reference Citation:
(Table 3, Parameter: Distribution, Age-associated changes)

Rationale:
Recognizing the impact of albumin levels on drug distribution can guide medication dosing to prevent adverse effects.

Answer 158

A

Correct Answer:
C) Phase II reactions are not affected by age.

Explanation:
Contrary to Phase I reactions, Phase II hepatic reactions like glycosylation do not change with age.

Memory Tool:
“Phase II stays true, no matter how old you are.”

Specific Reference Citation:
(Table 3, Parameter: Hepatic metabolism, Age-associated changes)

Rationale:
Understanding that Phase II reactions are stable with age can assist in managing medications that undergo these types of metabolic pathways.

Answer 159

A

Correct Answer:
B) Stereoselective metabolism is hypothetical in the elderly.

Explanation:
The selectivity in metabolism of enantiomers is still hypothetical when it comes to the elderly.

Memory Tool:
“Enantiomers in the elderly? Still a mystery.”

Specific Reference Citation:
(Table 3, Parameter: Hepatic metabolism, Age-associated changes)

Rationale:
Knowing that the effect of age on stereoselective metabolism is not fully understood can guide cautious medication selection.

Answer 160

A

Correct Answer:
C. Dry mouth

Explanation:
The most common adverse event reported with antimuscarinics is dry mouth.

Memory Tool:
“Antimuscarinics make your mouth arid.”

Paragraph Number & Citation:
Paragraph 15, Level of evidence 1a, Grade A

Rationale:
Being aware of the most common adverse events helps in patient counseling and management.

Answer 161

A

Correct Answer: A) Renal Ultrasound
Explanation: For patients who have failed multiple OAB treatments, renal ultrasound should be considered for upper urinary tract surveillance.
Memory Tool: “Failed Treatment? Find the Kidneys!”
Paragraph and Reference: Paragraph 14, CUA guideline on adult overactive bladder.
Why this information: Knowing when to employ imaging techniques can be crucial for diagnosis and treatment, especially in complicated cases.

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